VIN Canine Class Questions Flashcards
A Doberman pinscher is evaluated for collapse. The dog has been vomiting, is dehydrated and bradycardic with weak femoral pulses. The dog was previously diagnosed with Addison’s disease, but the owner has not been very compliant in treating the dog as her hyperactive, triplet nephews have been visiting for the summer.
Which one of the following treatment choices is the most appropriate acute initial therapy?
A. Intramuscular injection of desoxycorticosterone pivalate
B. Intramuscular injection of dexamethasone
C. Intramuscular injection of fludrocortisone acetate
D. Intravenous 0.9% NaCl solution
E. Oral prednisone
Answer: D
Explanation: Acute collapse = emergency
Rapid fluid administration is first! Then glucocorticoids such as dexamethasone or prednisone (does not interfere with ACTH stim if you do not have diagnosis yet).
Chronic Therapy:
- regular injections of desoxycorticosterone pivalate (DOCP) (mineralcorticoide) with oral prednisone (glucocorticoid)
or oral fludrocortisone acetate (both m and g) +/- oral prednisone
Which one of the following types of insulin has the shortest duration of action?
A. Glargine
B. Lente
C. PZI
D. NPH
E. Regular
Answer: E
Explanation: Duration of insulin action is shorter in cats than dogs. Intermediate insulin commonly used in Dogs. Glargine is preferred in cats in combo with high protein, low carb diet.
Foundation for DM treatment in dogs:
Insulin,
Balanced diet (bid)
Exercise and
Ovariohysterectomy in females b./c progesterone complicates ??
Which one of the following choices is the most appropriate therapy for canine hypothyroidism?
A. Fomepizole
B. 0, p’-DDD
C. Thyromectin o, d’ 40
D. Thyrotropin
E. Thyroxine
Answer: Thyroxine
Which one of the following drugs has a thyroid-lowering effect in dogs?
A. Amoxicillin
B. Epinephrine
C. Insulin
D. Prednisone
E. Selamectin
Answer: D
“Thyroid-lowering” Effect
Medications - low T4 and T3 in euthyroid animals
prednisone,
clomipramine,
phenobarbital, and
trimethoprim-sulfa
Not responding to Treatment
Problems with compliance,
Malabsorption, and
Thyroxine dosage
A 4-year-old, neutered, male boxer dog is presented with a 1-cm-diameter, nodular skin mass on the thorax. The dog is otherwise healthy on physical exam. FNA below
Which one of the following choices is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Basal cell carcinoma
B. Histiocytoma
C. Mast cell tumor
D. Normal lymph node aspirate
E. Plasma cell tumor
Answer: C
This is cytoplasmic granules so = mast cell tumor
A 10-year-old, male, neutered Great Dane is examined for weight loss, weakness, and intermittent collapse of a month’s duration. A complete blood count reveals moderate regenerative anemia with polychromasia, reticulocytosis, anisocytosis, and nucleated red blood cells. An abdominal tap yields a serosanguineous fluid.
Abdominal ultrasound reveals splenic masses with multiple cavitations and hyperechoic hepatic masses. Hemangiosarcoma (HSA) is diagnosed.
Which one of the following messages is the most appropriate to communicate to the owner?
A. Average survival with surgery and chemotherapy is 18 months.
B. Average survival with chemotherapy alone is 12 months.
C. Splenectomy plus methotrexate/carboplatin/diphenhydramine treatment is curative.
D. Incurable and sudden death is possible.
E. Average survival with surgery is 18 months.
Answer: D
surgery and chemo for hemagniosarc can extend median survival time ~ 6 mo; for surgery alone 19-65 days.
Doxorubicin and cyclophosphamide = chemo used
Carboplatin for osteosarcoma
Methotrexate for lymphoma or lymphosarcoma
Lymphoma: CHOP Cyclophosphamide,
Hydroxydaunorubicin
(doxorubicin or Adriamycin),
Oncovin (vincristine), and
Prednisone
A two-year-old Irish setter is being examined for lameness and swelling of the distal forelimb. Radiographs of the limb reveal a bony, proliferative, and lytic lesion of the distal radius; the lesion does not cross the joint space. Radiographs of the chest show a dense lesion in the lung.
Which one of the following choices is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Hypertrophic osteodystrophy
B. Osteochondrosis dissecans
C. Osteomyelitis
D. Osteosarcoma
E. Panosteitis
Answer: D
Found “near the knee” and “away from the elbow.”
90% have metastasized to lungs at diagnosis; does not cross the joint, unlike osteomyelitis
Look for:
Soft tissue swelling
- Periosteal proliferation
- Sunburst periosteal reaction (33%), and
- Possible pathologic fractures.
Pekas at 2 and 7 yrs of age. cases of 6 mo old have been reported
Hypertrophic osteodystrophy (HOD) cases show a
“double physis” or “pseudophysis” line adjacent to the real physis.
no lung lesion in these patients
Hypertrophic osteopathy (HO) is usually a manifestation of a primary intrathoracic/intra-abdominal disease.
Canine Mammary Tumors
Spay/ovariohysterectomy (OVH) before first estrus decreases risk of canine mammary tumors
Spayed bitches have 8% of the risk of intact bitches if spayed after first estrus and 26% of the risk if spayed after second estrus.
Dogs spayed after 2.5 years of age experience no decrease in risk of developing mammary tumors compared to intact bitches
Prognosis for survival in dogs depends on both type of tumor and size of tumor
A two-year-old, mixed-breed dog is presented for evaluation.
On a physical exam, one testicle can be palpated in the scrotum.
Which one of the following conditions is a cryptorchid dog most likely to develop?
A. Balanoposthitis
B. Endocrine alopecia
C. Perianal adenoma
D. Phimosis
E. Sertoli cell tumor
Answer: E
A 5-month-old Old English sheepdog is evaluated during a routine vaccination visit. Unilateral periocular alopecia is noted. A skin scraping is shown here.
Which one of the following treatments is most appropriate?
A. Do nothing
B. Ivermectin 0.3 - 0.6 mg/kg PO SID 30 - 60 days
C. Milbemycin 1 mg/kg PO SID 30 - 60 days
D. Milbemycin 2 mg/kg PO SID 30 - 60 days
E. Weekly amitraz dip
A
90% of localized demodex cases resolve without treatment
Which one of the following choices shows findings that are most likely in a dog with renal azotemia (high BUN)?
Dysuria, urethral obstruction
Hyposthenuria, low creatinine
Isosthenuria, decreased urine urea/ plasma urea ratio
Low glomerular filtration rate, normal creatinine
Normal urine specific gravity, dehydration
Answer: C
Renal Azotemia
Look for:
Isosthenuria (USG ~1.010; kidneys cannot concentrate urine),
Decreased urine urea/plasma urea ratio, and
Decreased urine creatinine/plasma creatinine ratio.
Renal azotemia: EG toxicity, renal amyloidosis
Post -renal = obstruction; post renal azotemia seen in blocked male cat
Pre-renal = increased BUN in a dehydrated animal
A 6-year-old male neutered mixed breed dog weighing 88 pounds (40 kg) in Alabama in the southern U.S. is evaluated because of a 2-week history of coughing, exercise intolerance, and lethargy.
Physical exam shows:
coughing, labored breathing,
a heart rate of 172 beats per minute, and pulmonary crackles. A heartworm antigen test is positive, and the dog is microfilaremic.
On day 61 after diagnosis, which of the following choices is the most appropriate management?
A. Administer injectable extended-release moxidectin followed by surgical removal of adult heartworms and cage rest.
B. Administer injectable extended-release moxidectin followed by 2 doses of melarsomine IM 24 hours apart 1 month later
C. Administer oral ivermectin followed by 1 dose of melarsomine IM 5 months later
D. Administer oral milbemycin and 1 dose of melarsomine IM followed by 2 doses melarsomine IM 24 hours apart 1 month later
E. Administer topical moxidectin followed by 2 doses of melarsomine 24 hours apart 1 month later
Answer: D
Treatment is 3 dose melarsomine; one dose IM now, 2 doses IM 24 hours apart after 1 month.
Stabilize first with diuretics, cage rest, and sodium restriction, if indicated.
Consider anti-thrombotic agents or anti-inflammatory corticosteroids in cases of pulmonary failure.
The American Heartworm Society recommends doxycycline and a macrocyclic lactone (like ivermectin) as adjunct therapy PRIOR to melarsomine protocol (injection of 2.5 mg/kg body weight)
Which one of the following is the best choice for treating congestive heart failure in a dog with clinical signs of coughing and exercise intolerance during normal activity?
A. Digoxin, propranolol, oxygen
B. Diltiazem, theophylline, cage rest
C. Epinephrine, oxygen, propranolol
D. Furosemide, enalapril, pimobendan
E. Glycopyrrolate, pacemaker, low-Na diet
Answer: D
An 8-year-old German shepherd is presented with a 1-month history of cough, labored breathing, and lethargy. He has fainted a few times after exertion. On physical exam, there is pallor and a slow capillary refill time. The dog has jugular distension; diminished, quiet heart sounds; ascites; and weak, variable femoral pulses.
T = 102.0° F (38.9°C); HR = 140 bpm; RR = 24 bpm.
A thoracic radiograph reveals a large, basketball-shaped heart.
Which group of etiologies is strongly associated with the most likely diagnosis?
A. Anticoagulant rodenticide, congestive heart failure,
Chagas disease
B. Atrial tear, granulomatous hepatitis, coccidioidomycosis
C. Bacterial pericarditis, diabetic hepatopathy, portal hypertension
D. Chemodectoma, idiopathic, hemangiosarcoma
E. Thrombocytopenia, thymoma, peritoneopericardial hernia
D
Pericardial Effusion
- Hemangiosarcoma
- Chemodectoma and
- Idiopathic
But can also result from:
- Trauma/atrial tears,
- Peritoneopericardial hernia, or
- Congestive heart failure.
Which of the following pairs of dog breeds are predisposed to cardiomyopathy?
A. Cavalier King Charles spaniel, miniature schnauzer
B. Doberman pinscher, boxer
C. Great Dane, Afghan hound
D. Pug, German shepherd
E. Wirehaired fox terrier, border collie
Answer: B
DCM= doberman
Boxer = familial
Cardio Predispositions:
- SSS (sick sinus syndrome) in “fainting female miniature schnauzers,” dachshunds, cockers, West Highland whites
- Tetralogy of Fallot in young bulldog, Keeshond, or wirehaired fox terrier
- Mitral regurgitation/insufficiency in a Cavalier King
- Charles spaniel of any age or in old male cockers
A 3-year-old dachshund presents with acute onset of severe thoracolumbar pain, arched back, hind-limb hypermetria, ataxia, and weakness.
The cutaneous trunci reflex is absent until you reach a line adjacent to the level of the third lumbar vertebra (L3).
Which one of the following choices is the most likely location of the lesion in this dog?
A. L1 - L2
B. L3 - L4
C. L4 - L5
D. T11 - T12
E. T12 - T13
Answer: A
T3 - L3 lesion = cutaneous trunci reflex will be 1-2 above?m
A dog hit by a car presents with normal forelimbs and spastic paresis in the hind limbs.
You note proprioceptive deficits and sensation loss in the hind limbs. Anal reflexes and tone seem increased
Which one of the following choices is the most likely location of the lesion in this dog?
A. Cannot tell without more information
B. Cervicothoracic: C6 - T2
C. Lumbosacral: L4 - S3
D. Sacrocaudal: S2 - CD5
E. Thoracolumbar: T3 -L3
Answer: E
T3 - L3 Lesion
* Upper motor neuron (UMN) hind-limb signs
* Normal forelimbs, and
* Normal to increased anal reflexes and tone.
* With Severe Acute trauma:
- A paradoxic thoracic limb extensor rigidity (UMN)
- Hind-limb flaccid paralysis (lower motor neuron [LMN]).
* This is Schiff-Sherrington syndrome.
With a cervicothoracic (C6 - T2) lesion, look for:
* Weak, hypotonic (LMN) forelimbs and
* Spastic paresis (UMN) hind limbs.
* You may see worse signs in forelimbs than hind limbs.
With a lumbosacral (L4 - S3) Injury, look for:
* LMN signs in hind limbs,
* Plus UMN signs in bladder (paralysis/loss of voluntary control),
* With anal reflex/tone normal to increased.
With a sacrocaudal (S2 - Cd5) lesion, you will see normal limb reflexes and LMN signs in:
* Bladder (distended, easily expressed, a history of incontinence),
* Anus (no tone, no defecation), and
* Tail (flaccid).
The local animal shelter presents a stray, female, terrier-mix dog that appears to be 6 - 8 years old.
The dog has only been in the shelter for 4 days, but the shelter volunteer has noted a lot of drinking and some vomiting since yesterday.
On physical exam the dog seems listless, has a distended, tender abdomen, and the rectal temperature is 104.5 ° F (40.3°C). There is no vaginal discharge. A tubular mass is noted in the ventral abdomen.
Which of the following treatment choices is the best one for this dog?
A. Dexamethasone sodium phosphate
B. Immediate ovariohysterectomy
C. Intravenous bactericidal antibiotics
D. Megestrol acetate
E. PGF-2 alpha (prostaglandin)
Answer: B
Which choice is at the highest risk for developing flea allergy dermatitis (FAD)?
A. Animals with high exposure to fleas
B. Animals with intermittent exposure to fleas
C. Animals less than 2 years old
D. Animals with food allergy
E. Shar-peis, German shepherds, Siamese
Answer: B
Increased likelihood of developing FAD.
FAD:
- 3-6 years average age of onset; any breed can have FAD
- Not associated with food allergies
- Caudal end of animal affected
- Seasonal
- No Cure only supportive care
- Monthly spot-on treatments and can be supported with corticosteroids and antihistamines
A 6-month-old St. Bernard puppy is presented with a history of decreased activity, reluctance to run and jump, right hind-limb lameness, and swaying gait.
On physical examination, there is coxofemoral joint laxity (clicking/popping felt over hip joint = positive Ortolani
sign).
On a DV radiograph a normally shaped femoral head and acetabulum with decreased congruence at the coxofemoral joint and moderate subluxation are visible.
There is no obvious degenerative joint disease (DJD).
The owners have already tried conservative therapy with mixed results and want a surgical intervention.
Which one of the following choices is the most appropriate therapy?
A. Femoral head ostectomy
B. Femoral head curettage
C. Total hip replacement
D. Trans acetabular pinning
E. Triple pelvic osteotomy
Answer: E
This is early hip dysplasia; subluxation but no DJD - TPO is surgery of choice; increases coverage of femoral head by rotating acetabulum.
FHO - salvage procedure more appropriate for dogs less than 40 lbs; also good for avascular or septic necrosis of femoral head or old hip luxations after trauma.
A 5-month-old, male, hunting dog is presented with a 2-to 3-day history of worsening vomiting, diarrhea, stiff gait, reluctance to move, and reduced urination.
On physical exam, you note dehydration, fever, icterus, and petechial hemorrhages on the oral mucous membranes.
Preliminary diagnostics show:
* A neutrophilic leukocytosis with a left shift
* Isosthenuria with protein, bilirubin, and white blood cells in the urine
* Increased BUN, creatinine, and hepatic enzymes.
This combination of hepatic and renal signs in a febrile, young, male, outdoor, hunting dog suggests a particular diagnosis.
Which one of the following choices is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Ehrlichia canis
B. Glomerulonephritis
C. Infectious hepatitis
D. Leptospirosis
E. Pyelonephritis
Answer: D
Any of the following is considered diagnostic:
- Titer >1:800 in an unvaccinated animal.
- Titer >1:3200 in a vaccinated animal.
- Paired titers 2 to 4 weeks apart with a fourfold rise between the first and second titer.
- PCR testing is available; but, if antibiotics have been started before testing (often the case), the PCR may be falsely negative.
- Antibiotic treatment and
- Address renal failure
- DIC
- Vaccinate
Image: petechial hemorrhage on lungs
Zoonotic!
Which choice best explains why parvovirus vaccinations given at 6, 9, and 12 weeks of age are not always effective in preventing disease in young puppies?
A. Common purebreds (Dobermans, Rottweilers) are predisposed to severe disease.
B. Improper vaccination interval
C. Inactivated vaccine does not stimulate strong immunity.
D. There can be maternal antibody interference.
E. Modified-live vaccine does not stimulate strong immunity.
Answer: D
Maternal ab may circulate for as long as 18 weeks, interfering with puppy response.
As colostral AB decrease, puppies become vulnerable to infection.
A 6-year-old male neutered German Shepherd dog is presented for retching, restlessness, drooling, and abdominal distention.
Suspecting bloat, you order a blood chemistry panel, a complete blood count, and radiographs. Radiographs confirm gastric dilatation and volvulus (GDV).
Which one of the following is the most important prognostic indicator in cases of GDV?
A. Alkaline phosphatase
B. Amylase
C. Gamma glutamyltransferase
D. Glucose
E. Lactate
Answer: E
GDV patients need emergency shock fluid therapy, decompression via tube or trocar to reestablish gastric perfusion
- Treatment = Surgery
- Prophylactic gastropexies for large, deep-chested breeds
- Risk factors for mortality:
- Clinical signs for >6 hours before examination.
- Serum lactate >7.4 mmol/L at admission.
- Hypothermia, hypotension, peritonitis, DIC.
- Preoperative arrhythmias.
- Gastric necrosis and need for gastric resection.
- Splenectomy at surgery.
- Post-surgical high lactate (>6.4 mmol/L) that does not go down.
A 6-year-old, male, intact Saint Bernard-mix dog is presented.
This dog received a USDA-licensed 1-year rabies vaccine 3 years ago but is overdue for a booster. The owner has documentation of the rabies vaccination.
This morning the dog was bitten by a raccoon that was acting strangely. The owner is worried about rabies.
Which one of the following is the most appropriate management for cases in which a dog with documentation of an out-of-date rabies vaccination has a probable exposure to a rabid animal bite?
A. Strict quarantine for 4 months; vaccinate after 10 days.
B. Immediate booster vaccination; confine 10 days for observation.
C. Immediate booster vaccination; keep under owner’s control for 45 days.
D. Keep under owner’s control for 45 days; vaccinate on 46th day.
E. No firm rule; handle on a case-by-case basis.
Answer: C
Dogs and cats that are overdue for booster and have appropriate documentation of ahvign received a USDA rabies vaccine at least once previously should get boostered then be kept under owner’s control and observed for 45 days. Dogs and cats withiout appropriate documentation and are overdue should immediately receive medical care with local public health authorities. Ferrets overdue are evaluated on a case by case basis.
A 5-year-old, female, spayed cocker spaniel is presented with a 48-hour history of listlessness and depression.
On physical exam panting, pale mucous membranes, and tachycardia are obvious.
A complete blood count (CBC) reveals a marked regenerative anemia with reticulocytosis. A slide agglutination test of the blood shows granular stripes along the lower half of the slide, indicating clumping red blood cells.
The presumptive diagnosis is immune-mediated hemolytic anemia (IMHA).
Which one of the following choices is the pathophysiologic basis for this disease?
A. Antigen binds IgE antibodies associated with mast cells.
B. Delayed hypersensitivity with cytokine release
C. Antibody binds cell antigen and activates complement.
D. Immune complex deposition on endothelium
E. Cell-mediated anaphylaxis
Answer: C –> Causing cell lysis
A 6-year-old chow dog is presented with an acutely enlarged right eye.
There is corneal edema (opaque, blue-white color), and the pupil is dilated, but there is no obvious uveitis. Intraocular pressure (IOP) is >30 mm Hg (normal ~12 -
20 mm Hg). The presumptive diagnosis is acute primary glaucoma.
Which one of the following statements is the most
surgery appropriate advice to give the owner?
A. 10% go blind in both eyes regardless of therapy
B. 50% develop glaucoma in the other eye without prophylactic therapy
C. 75% go blind in the affected eye regardless of therapy
D. The dog needs emergency therapy with topical atropine and pilocarpine
E. This typically responds to phacoemulsification
Answer: B
This is a bilateral disease!
- <10% of patients undergoing only medical therapy will be visual in the affected eye at the end of the first year.
- 40% or more will be blind in the affected eye within the first year no matter what medical and/or surgical therapy is employed.
- Immediate Treatment:
- Intravenous mannitol
- Prostaglandin analogs (oral or topical) which increase permeability of uveal blood vessels
- Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
- Alpha-2 adrenergic drugs
- Avoid atropine
It is a warm August day in Connecticut when a 3-year-old, male coonhound is presented.
The dog has an uncertain vaccination history. A membrane ELISA (enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay) test for antibodies to the C6 Borrelia burgdorferi antigen is positive.
Which one of the following choices best describes what a positive ELISA antibody test for C6 B. burgdorferi antigen most likely means?
A. Dog has been exposed to Borrelia burgdorferi.
B. Dog has been vaccinated for Borrelia burgdorferi.
C. Dog has protective immunity to Borrelia burgdorferi.
D. Dog is clinically ill with Borrelia burgdorferi.
E. Dog will eventually develop clinical disease due to Borrelia burgdorferi.
Answer: A
Did not show question??
Which one of the following illnesses is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Clinical illness due to Anaplasma phagocytophilum
B. Clinical illness due to Babesia canis
C. Clinical illness due to Borrelia burgdorferi
D. Clinical illness due to Ehrlichia canis
E. Clinical illness due to Rickettsia rickettsii
C
Serological testing is an adjunct to diagnosis whihc is based on C/s, exposure, response to tx; western blot and membrane elisa which measure AB to Borrelia protein separates ???
Bordetella bronchiseptica often causes a fatal pneumonia in which one of the following species?
Cattle
Guinea pigs
Humans
Tortoises
Answer: B
A 2-month-old male pit bull cross is presented with an uncertain vaccination history.
The dog has a loud cough which began a week after being adopted from the local animal shelter. The dog was diagnosed days ago with kennel cough and sent home on amoxicillin-clavulanic acid tablets.
Today, the dog is depressed and anorexic and has a nasal discharge with conjunctivitis.
On physical exam, you elicit more coughing after applying light pressure to the dog’s trachea and note crackles on lung auscultation.
T = 103.9°F (39.9° C); RR = 30; HR = 110.
The dog now is suspected to have a severe case of infectious tracheobronchitis with bronchopneumonia.
Which one of the following findings would be considered supportive of a diagnosis of canine bronchopneumonia?
Cranioventral alveolar pattern on radiographs
Dysphagia
Eosinophilia in the absence of parasitic infestation
Extensive perihilar infiltrates on radiographs
Hemoptysis
Answer: A
Optimally obtain a sample for Culture and sensitive via TT/ET wash;
Gram - rods such as bordatella are common for pneumonia
Nebulized AB such as gentamycin, etc are helpful adjunctively
theophylline , antitussives such as botorphanol ?
Be careful with fluro and theophylline derivates → toxic levels of?
A 5-year-old, female, spayed German shepherd is presented with a 1-month history of throwing up frequently after meals and some lethargy.
The owner relates that she gets tired more quickly when playing fetch and that her bark sounds different.
In the last 3 days, she has become listless with a decreased appetite and a wet cough.
T = 103.9°F (40.0°C); HR = 100; RR = 30.
In addition to a complete blood cell count and a blood chemistry panel, which one of the following diagnostic procedures is the most appropriate next step in the management of this case?
A. Barium contrast study and serum AChR antibody titer
B. Edrophonium challenge and barium contrast study
C. Electrocardiogram and thoracic ultrasound
D. Plain thoracic radiograph and electrocardiogram
E. Plain thoracic radiograph and serum AChR antibody
Titer
Answer: E
Megesophagus, MG
Aspiration pneumonia
Do not do barium b/c of aspiration pneumonia risk
Thor, an 8-year-old, male, neutered Doberman is undergoing routine dental cleaning under isoflurane anesthesia.
The dog has moderate tartar build-up and a broken incisor. No other problems were noted during the preanesthetic examination or in the history.
Which one of the following choices is the most accurate description of this ECG?
Accelerated idioventricular rhythm
Atrial fibrillation
Atrioventricular (AV) block
Sinus arrhythmia
Ventricular premature complexes
Answer: E
DCM in a Box = breeds predisposed to DCM; Dobermans, Cockers, Massive dogs [giant breeds] in a BOXer
Always fatal
Death occurs ithin 6-24 months
Dobermans have a worse prognosis and only survive fewer thn 6 mo post diagnosis
A 9-year-old, spayed, mixed-breed dog is presented for a rabies vaccination.
After the dog is removed from the exam table, a small puddle of reddish fluid is observed on the table.
On questioning, the owners reveal that the dog has had a number of urinary accidents in the house over the past few weeks.
These findings are most consistent with which one of the following choices?
A. Gastrointestinalforeign body
B. Meckel’s diverticulum
C. Metastatic calcification
D. Renal dysplasia
E. Urinary cystoliths
Which one of these choices is the most likely composition of these stones?
Calcium oxalate
Cannot tell
Cystine
Silica
Struvite
Answer: B
Stones must be analyzed by infrared spectroscopy or xray refraction techniques to determine.
Laboratory analysis reveals that these stones are composed of magnesium ammonium phosphate hexahydrate.
Which one of the following choices is the most common cause of struvite urolithiasis in the canine?
Ad libitum feeding
Inadequate water intake
Grain-based diet
Diet containing more than 0.5% magnesium
Staphylococcal cystitis
Answer: E
You can not cystine or urate stones!! I can’t see you!!
A dog is presented with anisocoria. The right eye (O.D.) has miosis, protrusion of 3rd eyelid, enophthalmos and ptosis. There are no other signs of illness. Which one of the following choices is the most likely cause?
Brachial plexus avulsion
Neck bite wounds
Otitis media
Retrobulbar neoplasia
Idiopathic
Answer: E
This is Horner’s Syndrome which is idiopathic in origin so the answer is E. The C/S listed above is what horner’s is characterized by.
My third sunken toe = Myiosis, third eyelid protrusion, sunken eye, or tosis/drooped eyelid
3 of the 4 signs present needed for diagnosis
Increased anisicoria in the dark is also a classic finding
If confirm primary dizgnosis such as otitis omedia, brachial plexus avuslion, or guttoral pouch mycosis treat the primary problem
A 5-year-old, male, neutered Doberman is presented with a 3-week history of difficulty rising to a standing position after lying down.
The dog keeps his head down when standing and tries to bite you when you manipulate his neck.
On neurologic exam, the dog appears ataxic with mild proprioceptive deficits in the front limbs and more severe proprioceptive deficits and a hypermetria in the hind limbs. Pain perception is intact in all four limbs.
Which one of the following choices is the most likely clinical diagnosis?
Atlantoaxial instability
Septic bacterial diskospondylitis
Fibrocartilaginous embolism
Neoplasia
Acquired caudal cervical spondylomyelopathy
Answer: E
Presentation age and breed is also known as wobblers or cervical vertebral instability
In adult form it is an IVDD and is seen between C5 and C6 or C6 and C7 in dobermans > 5 and ? more than 3 years old. Diagnostic of choice is MRI
A golden retriever bitch is being evaluated because the owner wants to know if she is in heat. A vaginal smear is obtained.
Which one of the following vaginal cytology patterns is the most likely if the bitch is in heat and ready to breed?
10% parabasal; 40% intermediate; 50% cornified superficial cells
10% parabasal; 90% cornified superficial cells; no neutrophils
50% parabasal; 40% intermediate; 10% cornified superficial cells
50% parabasal; 50% cornified superficial cells; some neutrophils
90% parabasal; 10% cornified superficial cells; some neutrophils
Answer: B
”CORNflakes go with MILK” - in estrus >90% of cells on smear should be cornified superficial cells.
Breed as soon as bitch will accept a male or you see >90% cornified superficial epithelial cells in vaginal smear.
Good Strategy - breed bitch every 2-4 days from when she starts flagging her tail until she enters diestrus.
A 7-week-old male Yorkshire terrier puppy is presented with a 2-week history of on-and-off vomiting and diarrhea that began around the time he was weaned.
The owners relate that he seems to “drink and pee a lot.” They report pacing, disorientation, weakness, and
“stumbling around.”
The physical exam is unremarkable though you do note that only one testicle has descended.
As the puppy explores the room, he appears ataxic, stumbles a few times, and bumps his head into the wall.
Which one of the following choices is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Canine distemper
B. Congenital hiatal hernia
C. Diabetes insipidus
D. Lead poisoning
E. Portosystemic shunt
Answer: E
Signs of hepatic encephalopathy include ataxia, disorientation, vomiting, and diarrhea.
Seen in most pure breeds, usually young animals, especially after weaning.
50% of afflicted males are cryptorchid.
Lead poisoning is also a cause of vomiting, diarrhea, and CNS signs but the history and signalment here put a shunt first on the list of differentials.
A 4-year-old, female, spayed Shar-pei stuck her nose into a hornets’ nest while on her morning walk and was stung several times. She is presented approximately 30 minutes later with hypersalivation, facial swelling, and slight dyspnea; but she is otherwise bright and alert and in only minimal distress.
Which one of the following choices is the most appropriate treatment?
Azathioprine and dimethyl sulfoxide
Prednisolone succinate and diphenhydramine hydrochloride
Fludrocortisone acetate
Oxygen, chlorpheniramine, and observation
Atropine
Answer: B
Preferred answer is to treat for localized anaphylaxis with B meds but a mild bee sting case can do phone with diphenhydramine alone
