VIN Exotics Qs

Question 1

Feline calicivcirus can cause shifting leg lameness - it will go away

Question 2

A 4-year-old Suffolk ram with a body condition score of 1 out of 5 is presented because it is down and unable to rise.
The ram has a normal appetite and is fed an adequate ration which has not changed over the last few months.
The owner reports a 2-month history of pruritus, wool loss, and incoordination, and says that initially the ram was acting unusually aggressive and had a head tremor. What is the most likely cause of the signs in this ram?

A. Brucellosis
B. Listeriosis
C. Polioencephalomalacia
D. Psoroptic mange
E. Scrapie

Answer 2

Answer: E

Question 3

Which one of the following is approved, easiest to perform, and can be repeated pre-mortem in sheep?

A. ELISA antibody test on serum

B. Histopathology of the obex

C. IFA (immunofluorescent antibody) test on whole blood

D. Immunohistochemistry of rectal mucosal biopsy

E. Third-eyelid impression smear cytology

Answer 3

Answer: D

!!!

Scrapie
* Present with non-specific neurodegenerative signs
- Ataxia, hypermetria, bunny-hopping, and recumbency.
* Pruritis is common in sheep, less so in goats
* Carriers may not show signs - it can take 2-5 years for animals to become ill
* Removing scrapie prion proteins from contaminated areas is very difficult
- Physical and chemical decontamination methods should be used
* There is no treatment.

Question 4

Which of the following will most likely confirm a presumptive diagnosis of caseous lymphadenitis?
A. ELISA test for antibodies to Pasteurella multocida from a serum sample
B. Fecal culture of Mycobacterium paratuberculosis
C. Isolation of Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis from an aspirate
D. Serologic testing for phospholipase D exotoxin
E. Lymph node biopsy IFA for Mycobacterium ovis

Answer 4

Answer: C

Question 5

Which choice includes the best management recommendations for the eradication of caseous lymphadenitis from a herd?

A. Add chlortetracycline to creep feed and gestation rations.

B. Add only seropositive unvaccinated and vaccinated individuals to the herd.

C. Inject all abscesses with formalin.

D. Treat the entire herd with intramuscular penicillin G.

E. Vaccination plus culling of infected animals.

Answer 5

Answer: E

Question 6

Answer 6

Which of the following is the most likely cause of the
signs in these goats?

A. Bluetongue

B. Contagious ecthyma

C. Goatpox

D. Malignant catarrhal fever

E. Vesicular exanthema

Answer: B

Question 7

Which choice is the best management recommendation for orf?

A. Give intramuscular high-dose penicillin and gentamycin

B. Administer neomycin in doe’s water

C. Ensure kid is nursing and wear gloves when handling

D. Remove crusts and protect underlying tissues with salve

E. Vaccinate doe and kid, and prevent new introductions

Answer 7

Answer: C

Zoonotic disease!!

• Ewes and does with infected udders should get
  special care.
• Intramammary antibiotics can prevent mastitis.
• An udder salve will help to keep the scabs on the teats pliable.
• In endemic areas, young animals are most susceptible.
  Why?
• Animals that recover from orf develop lifelong immunity.
• Sheep/goats of all ages affected during first outbreak on the farm.
• In later years usually only lambs/kids are affected.
• Rarely fatal but can cause significant economic loss.
• Vaccination can help control the disease.

Question 8

Which choice is the most common means of transmission of caprine arthritis encephalitis (CAE)
virus in goats?

A. Contact with infected placenta and birth fluids at birth

B. Direct goat-to-goat contact

C. Ingestion of infected colostrum or milk

D. Inhalation of infected respiratory droplets

E. Vertical transmission in utero

Answer 8

Answer: C

Question 9

Which of the following choices is the most effective means of controlling the transmission of CAE in a dairy goat herd?

A. Isolation of kids at birth; Feeding heat-treated colostrum and pasteurized milk.

B. Quarantining and serological testing of all new additions to the herd.

C. Testing of all bucks and using only seronegative bucks for natural service.

D. Treating all dry does with intramammary penicillin.

E. Whole-herd vaccination.

Answer 9

Answer: A

Caprine Arthritis Encephalitis
(CAE)
* No cure: supportive treatment only
- Arthritic adults: regular foot trimming, additional bedding, NSAIDs (phenylbutazone or aspirin).
- ABX for secondary bacterial infections that may complicate interstitial pneumonia or indurative mastitis.
- High-quality digestible feed may minimize weight loss.

Question 10

Question 11

Which one of the following choices most commonly causes contagious footrot in sheep?

A. Dichelobacter nodosus, Fusobacterium necrophorum

B. Escherichia coli, Pseudomonas aeruginosa

C. Dermatophilus congolensis, Staphylococcus aureus

D. Dermatophilus congolensis, Pseudomonas aeruginosa

E. Escherichia coli, Staphylococcus aureus

Answer 11

Answer: A

Control
- Careful exam & isolation of incoming animals in naïve flocks.
- 10% zinc sulfate solution footbaths.
- Elimination is possible but time-consuming.

Question 12

Answer 12

Answer: C

Birds have nucleated RBC

Question 13

An Eclectus parrot is presented with a 5-day history of inactivity, ruffled feathers, weakness, and inappetence. The bird has oculonasal discharge, conjunctivitis, sinusitis, and green-to-yellow-green droppings.

Which tests are most likely to confirm the presumptive diagnosis?

A. Bacteriologic culture, gram stain cloacal smear

B. Biliverdin assay, hepatic biopsy

C. Complement fixation, blood chemistry

D. Complete blood count, blood chemistry panel

E. ELISA on blood (Ab), PCR on choanal swab (Ag)

Answer 13

Answer: E

Question 14

Question 15

Which choice is the most appropriate therapy?
A. Oral griseofulvin
B. Oral itraconazole
C. Oral ivermectin
D. Topical griseofulvin
E. Topical ivermectin

Answer 15

Answer: C

!!!

so dilute with water and give by crop lavage!

Question 16

What is the most likely cause of illness in this bird?

A. Hypovitaminosis A

B. Candidiasis

C. Pacheco’s disease

D. Polyoma virus infection

E. Psittacosis

Answer 16

Answer: A

!!!

• Psittacosis should be a differential diagnosis with any suspected respiratory disease in pet birds.
• But LACK of response to oxytetracycline, white plaques and exophthalmos suggest hypovitaminosis A

Candidiasis = white plaques INSIDE the mouth

• Avian polyomavirus - a young bird’s disease, characterized by:
• Lethargy, crop stasis,
• SubQ hemorrhages after injections and death.
• Pacheco’s disease causes sudden death in younger birds.
• Acute herpes viral hepatitis: high mortality in aviary.
• Survivors may later develop internal papillomas and bile duct carcinomas.
• Dr. Doneley: “Pacheco’s (herpes) infection lasts forever.”

Question 17

An African grey parrot has been losing weight.

The parrot is dyspneic and has sinusitis with nasal discharge. Material obtained from nasal flushes is stained and reveals fungal hyphae.

Which agent is most likely responsible for the signs in this parrot?

A. Aspergillus fumigatus

B. Candida albicans

C. Cryptococcus neoformans

D. Mycoplasma gallisepticum

E. Mycoplasma imitans

Answer 17

Answer: A

Question 18

A noisy and unthrifty cockatiel has lost weight. The bird has been picking at the feathers along his inner thighs and axillae.
Droppings are voluminous and foamy, having an almost
“popcorn” appearance. A warm saline mount of fresh feces shows motile organisms shaped like tear drops with double nuclei.
Based on the diagnosis you suspect most highly, what is the treatment of choice?
A. Doxycycline
B. Ivermectin
C. Terbinafine
D. Metronidazole
E. Nystatin

Answer 18

Answer: D

Question 19

Question 20

A 2-year-old, female llama has increasing difficulty rising & walking for the past few days.
The llama was vaccinated for clostridial diseases and rabies 5 months ago. She shares a 5-acre pasture with horses and sheep in northern part of the u.s.
The other animals appear healthy.

Answer 20

Answer: A

Question 21

Answer 21

Question 22

Which choice is the most likely cause of the signs in this guinea pig?
A. Ketosis
B. Metastatic calcification
C. Nutritional muscular dystrophy
D. Vitamin C deficiency
E. White muscle disease

Answer 22

Answer: D

Question 23

Which choice is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Allergic dermatitis
B. Bumblefoot
C. Contact dermatitis
D. Osteosarcoma
E. Self-inflicted trauma

Answer 23

Answer: B

Question 24

Several pet rabbits in a backyard colony of 4-H show animals are sick. One mature buck has bilateral conjunctivitis with a purulent ocular discharge. Several newly-introduced rabbits are sneezing and coughing and have copious oculonasal discharges. One older rabbit has torticollis.
Which agent is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. Francisella tularensis
B. Listeria monocytogenes
C. Pasteurella multocida
D. Myxomatosis
E. Treponema paraluiscuniculi

Which choice is the most appropriate management?
A. Euthanasia with burial or burning of carcasses
B. Intramuscular clindamycin
C. Oral ampicillin
D. Oral enrofloxacin
E. Intramuscular erythromycin

Answer 24

Question 1 Answer: C

!!!

Question 2 Answer: D

• Meat rabbits, may NOT be legally treated with enrofloxacin, trimethoprim-sulfa, or chloramphenicol.

Question 25

Penicillin can be given IM not orally ETC = good

Question 26

What is the most likely clinical diagnosis? A. Aleutian disease B. Aplastic anemia C. Hyperadrenocorticism D. Lymphoma E. Splenomegaly

Answer 26

Answer: C

Question 27

What is the treatment of choice for hyperadrenocorticism in a ferret like this? A. Hormone replacement with LH and FSH analogs B. Prednisone first until dose reaches 2 mg/kg then add diazoxide to the regimen C. Mitotane plus thyroid ablation D. Unilateral adrenalectomy and/or slow-release GNRH agonist E. Long-term thyroxine and ketoconazole supplementation

Answer 27

Answer: D

Question 28

Answer 28

Question 29

Question 30

Question 31

What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Septicemic cutaneous ulcerative disease (SCUD) B. Vitamin A deficiency C. Herpesvirus D. Nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism E. Salmonellosis

Answer 31

Answer: B !!!

Question 32

An adult green iguana is presented with a shortened rubbery mandible and a firm swelling of the right femur. Which choice is the most appropriate treatment plan? A. Decrease UV exposure; increase terrarium ambient humidity to 50-60%. B. Calcium supplementation, metronidazole C. Amikacin, ceftazidime; decrease dietary protein D. Vitamin A 200 IU/kg once a week, 2 weeks E. Calcium gluconate PO, vitamin D 200 IU/kg q 3 weeks

Answer 32

Answer: E

Question 33

Question 34

The owner of a new freshwater aquarium reports that fish suddenly became lethargic and off-feed. Fish began to die about 6 weeks after she set the tank up. What is the most important diagnostic step to take next? A. Necropsy several dead fish B. Check gills of affected fish for ciliate parasites C. Bacterial culture of tank sediment biofilter D. Water analysis E. Check tank filter for toxic blue-green algae and oomycetes

Answer 34

Answer: D

Question 35

A client presents her son's pet African clawed frog (Xenopus laevis) because she noticed bumps in its webbed feet and said it did not seem to be floating properly. Exam shows visible gas bubbles in the foot webbing and hyperemia of the tissues. What is the underlying cause of this condition? A. Anaerobic bacterial infection B. Salmonellosis C. Supersaturation of water with dissolved gases D. Ich - white spot disease (Ichthyophthirius multifiliis) E. Ranavirus

Answer 35

Answer: C

Question 36

Most of the fish in a freshwater tropical tank are sluggish and covered in small white spots. They began to show these signs after introduction of several recently purchased fish. What is the best treatment, based on the probable diagnosis? A. Formalin in the water B. Metronidazole C. No treatment. Condition is self-limiting D. Improve sanitation and decrease stocking number E. Tricaine methanesulfonate (MS222)

Answer 36

Answer: A

Question 37

Question 38

A 5-month-old boar that is fast-growing and heavily muscled is being evaluated because of progressive, bilateral lameness of the front legs. None of the other animals on the farm is affected. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this condition? A. Biotin deficiency B. Osteochondrosis C. Porcine stress syndrome D. Rickets E. Wobbler syndrome

Answer 38

Answer: B

Question 39

Which of the following is most likely to be true about sows aborting due to porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome (PRRS)? A. Sows become infertile and will not conceive again. B. Sows frequently develop chronic respiratory signs and become "poor doers." C. Sows are immune; they will not abort if exposed to the same strain later. D. Sows have no immunity and may abort future pregnancies.

Answer 39

Answer: C * Sows recovered from one strain of porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome (PRRS) are resistant to illness if exposed to the same viral strain later. * But the same sows can get sick again if exposed to a different PRRS strain.

Question 40

Answer 40

Question 41

For the past five days, mortality in neonatal piglets on a large swine farm has approached 100%. Clinical examination reveals dehydrated, vomiting piglets with severe, greenish-yellow, watery diarrhea. Older pigs on the farm are diarrheic and vomiting. Which choice is the most likely to cause these signs? A. Clostridium difficile B. Hemagglutinating encephalomyelitis C. Porcine proliferative enteritis D. Swine dysentery E. Transmissible gastroenteritis

Answer 41

Answer: E

Question 42

Transmissible gastroenteritis (TGE) is a member of which of the following families of viruses? A. Coronaviruses B. Herpesviruses C. Orthomyxoviruses D. Parvoviruses E. Retroviruses

Answer 42

Answer: A

Question 43

Question 44

Question 45

Which of the following is the most common means in swine of becoming infected with Trichinella spiralis? A. Contact with infected migratory waterfowl B. Drinking water contaminated with infected urine C. Feed contaminated with infected wildlife feces D. Ingestion of encysted larvae in muscle tissue E. Vertical transmission from the sow

Answer 45

Answer: D Eating rodents, uncooked garbage, cannibalism, wildlife carcasses

Question 46

Which of the following is the most likely cause of pneumonia in these pigs? A. Glasserella (Haemophilus) parasuis B. Mannheimia hemolytica C. Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae D. PRRS virus E. Swine influenza virus

Answer 46

Answer: C Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae usually causes mild respiratory disease and cranioventral pneumonic pulmonary lesions at slaughter.

Question 47

Which of the following is the best management recommendation for control of this disease? A. Enhanced manure management techniques B. Improving ventilation and avoiding overcrowding C. Increasing the number of mixed-age groups of pigs D. Instituting an intensive fly-control program

Answer 47

Answer: B But also vaccination!!

Question 48

Which one of the following organisms is most commonly found ALONG WITH Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae infection in pig herds exhibiting exudative bronchopneumonia and polyarthritis? A. Bordetella bronchiseptica B. Fusobacterium necrophorum C. Glasserella (Haemophilus) parasuis D. Pasteurella multocida E. Swine influenza virus

Answer 48

Answer: D !!!

Question 49

Answer 49

Question 50

Question 51

Which of the following usually characterize swine influenza virus infections in pigs? A. Insidious onset and lingering infection B. Insidious onset and rapid recovery C. Rapid onset and lingering infection D. Rapid onset and rapid recovery E. No clinical signs in majority of pigs

Answer 51

Answer: D !!!

Question 52

Which of the following is the best strategy for the isolation of the swine influenza virus from pigs? A. Take samples after clinical signs have disappeared. B. Take samples from symptomatic pigs early in the course of infection. C. Take samples from fetuses aborted in late gestation by clinically affected sows. D. Take samples from clinically unaffected pigs. E. Take samples from symptomatic pigs late in the course of infection.

Answer 52

Answer: B

Question 53

Answer 53

Question 54

A recently weaned 6-week-old piglet is found dead in the pen of a commercial swine operation. Other weaners are depressed and pyrexic, and one is convulsing. Others have nystagmus, and some are opisthotonic. Some are reluctant to walk. Which two diseases should be on the differential list? A. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae and porcine circovirus B. Classical swine fever and hemorrhagic septicemia C. Glasserella (Haemophilus) parasuis and Streptococcus suis D. Pseudorabies and Escherichia coli enterotoxemia E. Vesicular exanthema and Staphylococcus hyicus

Answer 54

Answer: C !!!

Question 55

severe polyserositis

Question 56

Question 57

Several 80-pound pigs in a finishing unit are off-feed and have watery diarrhea. Some are passing yellow-brown casts in the feces. On necropsy, the most severely affected pig has an extremely thickened terminal ileum. What is the most likely cause of the diarrhea in these pigs? A. Coccidiosis (Eimeria spp. or /sospora suis) B. Clostridium difficile C. Porcine proliferative enteritis D. Intestinal spirochetosis E. Salmonella typhimurium

Answer 57

Answer: C !!!

Question 58

Which choice is the best treatment for these pigs? A. Lincomycin IM B. Fipronil PO C. Ivermectin SQ D. Morantel PO E. Tilmicosin SQ

Answer 58

Answer: C

Question 59

A swine-breeding facility has an outbreak of fever and inappetence in the gestation unit. Most sows are depressed and recumbent. Some are ataxic and a few have aborted. Some appear hyperemic, some have bluish skin discolorations on their lower legs and ears. On necropsy of a severely affected sow, the spleen is enlarged; and there is widespread internal ecchymotic hemorrhage. What is the most appropriate next step in management? A. Cull all affected animals. B. Notify the state/provincial veterinarian. C. Quarantine the affected production unit. D. Sample latest batch of feed for cyanide contamination. E. Vaccinate unaffected animals. Which one of the following choices is the most likely cause of this outbreak? A. Pseudorabies B. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae C. Porcine parvovirus D. Classical swine fever E. Porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome (PRRS)

Answer 59

Question 1 Answer: B Question 2 Answer: D

Question 60

Answer 60

Question 61

Question 62

Several first-parity gilts in the farrowing unit of a commercial swine operation have produced small litters containing a combination of dead, mummified, stillborn, and healthy piglets. Which agent is the most likely cause of this condition? A. Brucella suis B. Porcine circovirus 2 C. Porcine parvovirus D. Leptospira interrogans E. Pseudorabies virus

Answer 62

Answer: C

Question 63

Answer 63

Question 64