VIN Class 1 - Assorted Topics Flashcards

1
Q
A

Answer: A

This is Giardia!

Giardia cysts are IMMEDIATELY infective upon excretion.

Diagnosis:
1. Trophozoites: direct fecal smear
2. Cysts: zinc sulfate fecal flotation

Stain with lugol’s iodine, look for Giardia cysts.

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2
Q

A 25-kg, mixed-breed dog is approximately 5% dehydrated. Maintenance fluid replacement volume is 60 ml/kg/day. Assume that maintenance replacement volume includes sensible losses (urine, feces) and insensible losses (panting). Which of the following is the most appropriate amount of crystalloid fluids to administer to this dog over the initial 24-hour period?
A. 1.65 liters
B. 2.75 liters
C. 3.15 liters
D. 4.25 liters
E. 5.45 liters

A
  1. Replacement of dehydration loss = (% dehydration) x (body weight, kg) =
    (0.05) x (25 kg) =
    1.25 liters in 24 hours for replacement of deficit due to dehydration.
  2. Maintenance fluids =
    (60 ml/kg/day) x (body weight, kg) = (60 ml/kg/day) x (25 kg) = 1500 ml or 1.5 liters.

Total = 1.25 L + 1.5 L = 2.75 L.

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3
Q
A

Answer: D

Until case is confirmed, you need to isolate the pig under the assumption what ever condition the pig has is communicable.

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4
Q
A

Answer: C

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5
Q

Which choice is the most likely clinical sign in cows with positive cultures for E. coli 0157:H7?

A. Asymptomatic
B. Off feed in the past 3 days
C. Bloody diarrhea
D. Bloody urine
E. Tenesmus

A

Answer: A

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6
Q
A

Answer: E

Summer and fall are when salmonella and e.coli are shed the most

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7
Q
A
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8
Q
A

Answer: E

This is Dermatophytosis

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9
Q

Which organism is most likely responsible for causing the illness in the owner of this kitten?
A. Bartonella henselae
B. Chlamydophila psittaci
C. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)
D. Microsporum gypseum
E. Pasteurella multocida

A

Answer: A

Remember: In people, you will see pyrexia, lethargy, and regional lymphadenopathy. There are usually no signs of disease in naturally-infected cats.

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10
Q
A

Answer: D

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11
Q

Horses and cows also have lesions

Which choice greatly DECREASES your index of suspicion for foot-and-mouth disease on this farm?

A. A dramatic decrease in milk yield
B. Vesicular lesions in the horse
C. High morbidity in young lambs
D. Increased salivation
E. Ruptured blisters on the feet of the pigs

A

Answer: B

Horses can not get FMD. They can develop vesicular stomatitis.

FMD mainly affects pigs and cattle.

Vesicular stomatitis can be seen in horses, pigs, and cattle

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12
Q

Which choice is the best advice to give the client for home management of this snake’s condition?
A. Feed only live rats or mice.
B. Increase indigestible fiber in the diet.
C. Provide a heat gradient in the vivarium.
D. Provide Vitamin E supplementation daily.
E. Warm water soaks and exercise.

A

Answer: E

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13
Q
A

Answer: D

10 mg/kg = 10mg x 20 kg = 200 mg

1g/10 ml = 1000mg/10 ml cross multiple 200 mg/x ml –> 2 ml

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14
Q
A

Answer: C

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15
Q
A

Answer: D

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16
Q
A

Answer: B

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17
Q
A

Answer: B

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18
Q
A

Answer: B

Heinz bodies are globs of oxidized hemoglobin clinging to the interior surface of the red blood cell membrane.

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19
Q

A cockatiel is presented for evaluation.

The owners report that the bird is off-feed but is drinking copiously and seems to be vomiting.

There is dark-green diarrhea in the bottom of the carrier.

The bird is caged, and the owners report that the bird chews on the cage and other items frequently.

Which choice is the most important question to ask the owner?
A. Does anyone in the house smoke?
B. In what area of the house is the bird’s cage kept?
C. Is the bird fed a complete pelleted diet?
D. Is vitamin B12 added to the bird’s water source?
E. What is the composition of the cage and the items the bird is chewing on?

A

Answer: E

Zinc and Lead toxicity is what we are worried about

20
Q

Which choice would be most likely in a blood smear obtained from one of the moribund calves in this case?
A. Spherocytes
B. Heinz body formation
C. Rouleaux
D. Basophilic stippling
E. Stomatocytes

A

Answer: D

Anisocytosis = different size RBC

Spherocytosis = different shaped RBC

21
Q

Which choice would help to rule OUT a diagnosis of grain overload?

A. Absence of protozoa in ruminal fluid
B. Diarrhea
C. Increased blood lactate levels
D. Rectal temperatures ranging from 101 to 101.5 degrees F (38.3 to 38.6 degrees C)
E. Rumen pH between 6 and 7

A

Answer: E

B/c with grain overload the ph is less than 5.5

22
Q
A

Answer: D

Monensin is an Ionophore. Ionophore toxicity –> cardiotoxic

Horses are 10x more sensitive to ionophore toxicity than cows and may die acutely.

23
Q
A

Answer: B

Cottonseed meal contains gossypol –> cardiotoxicity

24
Q

The signs in this horse are most consistent with which one of these types of immune reactions?
A. Type I - IgE mediated
B. Type || - Complement cytotoxicity
C. Type Ill - Immune complex disease
D. Type IV - Delayed hypersensitivity
E. Immune complex endothelial deposition

A

Answer: A

Type 1: Focal (urticaria, hives)
-Or-
Generalized (anaphylactic shock)

Type I reactions include:
* Facial edema, salivation, vomiting
* Dyspnea
* Diarrhea
* Shock, collapse and death

Type II: Complement-Mediated
In Type Il reactions, activated complement can cause cell lysis or antibody-mediated cytotoxicity.
Type Il diseases include:
* Immune-mediated hemolytic anemia (IMHA).
* Transfusion reactions.
* Myasthenia gravis (i.e., anti-receptor antibodies block activation of nerve cells).

Type III: Immune Complexes
Type Ill hypersensitivity is immune complex-mediated.
Type Ill diseases include:
* Glomerulonephritis.
* Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE).
* Hypersensitivity pneumonitis in cattle (and
“farmer’s lung” in people).
* Immune complex-mediated hypersensitivity may result from neoplasia or chronic infections, but sometimes the cause of the disease remains obscure.

Type IV: Sensitized Lymphocytes
Type IV hypersensitivity is a delayed type of hypersensitivity.
Type IV diseases include:
* Contact hypersensitivity (e.g., dogs who react to plastic collars or bowls).
* Keratitis sicca.

25
Which choice is the most appropriate next step in confirming the presumptive diagnosis? A. Computed tomography (CT) scan of head B. Serologic titer for muscle autoantibodies C. Skull radiograph to identify heterotopic ossification sites D. Serum creatine kinase and creatinine E. Immunohistochemical staining of neural tissue
Answer: B * Muscle biopsy is often done in these cases, but it is not as specific as getting a titer for muscle autoantibodies to confirm a diagnosis. * Recommended treatment is corticosteroids. * If finances are limited, a trial of prednisone may be attempted in absence of confirmatory testing. * Usually affected dogs can still eat and lick up gruel with ground-up tablets in it.
26
Which organ is most likely to be implicated in a fatal adverse drug reaction to diazepam in cats? A. Kidney B. Large intestine C. Liver D. Small intestine E. Stomach
Answer: C Guessed
27
A rabbit is presented for an open, draining, bite wound. Pasteurella multocida and Staphylococcus aureus are cultured from the wound. Which choice is the best option for initial treatment of this wound? A. Amoxicillin B. Ampicillin C. Clindamycin D. Enrofloxacin E. Erythromycin
Answer: D Avoid PELT in rabbits (Penicillins, erythromycin, lincosamides, tetracyclines)
28
Which adverse effect is most commonly associated with antibiotic use in rabbits? A. Enterotoxemia B. Esophageal stricture C. Red blood cell dyscrasia D. Type I hypersensitivity reaction E. White blood cell aplasia
Answer: A
29
* On the fourth day of treatment, following the second therapeutic shampoo and rinse, the groomer finds the dog salivating in lateral recumbency with generalized tremors. * The dog's pupils are mydriatic (dilated) * Temperature is 101.0 degrees F. (38.3 degrees C) * Mucous membranes are pink with a capillary refill time of 1.5 seconds. Which choice is the most likely cause of this dog's signs? A. Idiopathic hyperthermia B. Ivermectin toxicity C. Selenium overdose D. Type I hypersensitivity to Demodex E. Type IV hypersensitivity to acetic acid
Answer: B
30
Answer: Llamas
31
32
33
(128/19) x 100 = 67%
34
Answer: D
35
Many chickens in a large, commercial, laying flock are dead. Most other birds are extremely depressed. Some have watery, green diarrhea; and many are coughing and gasping. Some birds display torticollis. After notifying the state veterinarian of a possible outbreak of either Exotic Newcastle disease or avian influenza, the best management of this case includes: A. Calling Fox News B. Initiating antibiotic treatment in water of all birds on the farm C. Strict quarantine of the premises D. Wing-web intradermal live-virus vaccination of all exposed birds on farm E. Destroy breeding flock
Answer: C Newcastle is highly contagious, reportable disease. Caused by Paramyxovirus 1 Top = HPAI Bottom = Newcastle disease REVIEW
36
hemorrhagic tonsils are highly suggestive of NCD
37
Answer: C REVIEW
38
Which choice is the best management recommendation? A. Depopulate. B. Immunize flock with live virus. C. Institute "all-in/all-out" flock management. D. Put sultaquinoxaline in feed or water. E. Report outbreak to state/provincial veterinarian.
Answer: D REVIEW
39
Which choice is most commonly caused by Marek's disease in chickens? A. Edematous facial swelling with sinusitis B. Mottled hypertrophic spleen C. Visible nerve enlargement D. Oophoritis E. Petechial hemorrhages of the bursa of Fabricius
Answer: C
40
41
Several thousand migrating ducks have died in one large lake in the past week. On evaluation, many ducks have flaccid paralysis of the neck and are unable to ambulate. What is the best means of confirming the presumptive diagnosis in this case? A. Clostridium botulinum culture from proventricular biopsies of affected ducks B. Clostridium botulinum culture from crop contents of morbid ducks C. Culture of Clostridium botulinum from intestinal contents of freshly dead ducks D. Demonstration of botulinum toxin by ELISA of sera from affected ducks E. Microscopic observation of gram-positive rods on intestinal scrapings
Answer: D The key here is ELISA. Culture is not helpful here
42
Intestinal scrapings at necropsy from an otherwise healthy chicken show Eimeria oocysts (coccidia) on microscopic exam. What does the finding indicate? A. Normal B. Clinical disease is imminent C. Flock is housed on a solid floor D. Reportable problem E. Bird is a carrier; the flock is at risk
Answer: A
43
44
45
Which choice causes the highest pre-weaning mortality of piglets in swine operations? A. Crushing by the sow B. Porcine circovirus-associated disease (PCVAD) C. Porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome (PRRS) D. Scours E. Transmissible gastroenteritis (TGE)
Answer: A Most piglets that perish in the pre-weaning period are crushed by the sow. Crushing deaths can be minimized by optimizing pen layout, properly siting heat lamps, and insuring piglet health and vitality (hypoglycemic piglets are sleepy and more likely to be lain on by the sow).