VIN Class 2 - Bovine Q's Flashcards
Answer: B
Question 1:
Which one of the following is the most likely cause?
A. Coccidiosis
B. Coronavirus
C. Cryptosporidiosis
D. Enterotoxigenic (K-99) Escherichia coli
E. Rotavirus
Question 2:
Which one of the following management recommendations is most likely to prevent future cases of neonatal diarrhea?
A. Administer 4 liters of colostrum to calves at birth
B. Administer prophylactic penicillin at birth
C. Ensure milk replacer contains therapeutic concentration of lasolocid
D. Ensure milk replacer contains therapeutic concentration of neomycin
E. Vaccinate pregnant cows for E. coli
- Answer: D
- Answer: A
Cornerstone of E.coli diarrhea in calves is ensuring proper nutrition
Two heifers in a 150-head, cow-calf operation have aborted fetuses at approximately 3 months of gestation.
The farm manager reports that these 2 heifers and others in the herd were pyrexic, off-feed, and diarrheic about 3 weeks previously and that all affected animals seemed to recover completely.
Which one of the following questions is most likely to help you arrive at the correct diagnosis?
A. What is the protein content of the animals’ feed?
B. What was the appearance of the aborted fetuses?
C. What is the breed of the affected cattle?
D. What is the farm’s protocol for obtaining and introducing replacement animals?
E. What is the farm’s protocol for insemination of heifers?
Answer: D
Which one of the following most accurately describes the symptoms of typical BVDV-infected cattle?
A. Inapparent to mild disease
B. Characteristic mucosal lesions
C. Chronic diarrhea
D. Birth defects
E. Hypotrichosis
Answer: A
Detection of persistent infections with BVDV:
- Single cow, either punch biopsy or whole, anticoagulated blood tube
- Herd level - punch biopsies or milk samples from a bulk tank.
- Tests used - either ELISA or PCR
Question 1:
Which one of the following is most likely to confirm the diagnosis of Johne’s disease?
A. Positive fecal culture for Mycobacterium avium subspecies paratuberculosis
B. Positive fecal flotation for oocysts of Eimeria spp
C. Complete blood count demonstrating nonregenerative anemia
D. Rectal examination demonstrating enlarged lymph nodes
E. AGID of sera positive for tuberculosis
Question 2:
Which one of the following is the most appropriate management of this case?
A. Penicillin
B. Culling
C. Ivermectin
D. Amprolium
E. Trimethoprim-sulfa
Question 3:
Which one of the following is the most appropriate management of this herd?
A. Test herd, cull positives and remove calves from dam at birth, test replacements
B. Test herd, treat positive animals, test and treat replacements
C. Test herd, treat positive animals, add coccidiostat to ration
D. Quarantine herd, treat until herd tests negative
E. Quarantine herd, ensure 4 L of dam’s colostrum to calves at birth
Question 1 Answer: A
Question 2 Answer: B
Question 3 Answer: A
Mycobacterium avium subspecies paratuberculosis is cause of Johnne’s
Only colostrum from Johnne’s - cows should be fed to calves
A dairy cow, two weeks postpartum, has a purulent vaginal discharge. Appetite and milk production are normal.
Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this case?
A. Intrauterine infusion of antibiotics
B. Intramuscular injection of antibiotics
C. No treatment
D. Intrauterine infusion and intramuscular injection of antibiotics
Answer: C
Which of the following conditions frequently predisposes cows to metritis?
A. Dystocia
B. Bloat
C. Choke
D. Agalactia
E. Dictyocaulus viviparus infestation
Answer: A
Only tx if dystocia patient has metritis.
During a hot, rainy period in July in Georgia in the southern U.S., 24 recently fresh cows in a 500-cow dairy herd have hot, swollen udders, decreased appetites, and are depressed.
2 cows have died in the last 10 days.
Dry cows are housed in a dry lot.
Lactating cows are housed in a free-stall barn with pelleted corncob bedding. Milkers wear gloves, and the teats are dipped post-milking.
All dry cows are treated with intramammary antibiotics immediately after the last milking.
On examination, several cows are recumbent and dehydrated. Affected quarters produce watery fluid with some chunks.
Which one of the following is the best way to identify the causative organism?
A. Culture milk from affected quarters
B. Culture milk from the bulk tank
C. Perform California Mastitis Test on milk from affected quarters
D. Swab and culture milking machine
E. Culture bedding for Staph aureus
Answer: A
Control of environmental mastitis on dairy farms is best achieved by which one of the following?
A. Intramammary antibiotic infusions, all quarters of all cows after last milking at start of dry period
B. Intramammary antibiotic infusions, all lactating cows, when bulk tank milk SCC > 600,000
C. Use of inorganic bedding materials, such as sand
D. Careful attention to cleanliness of housing, bedding, and udders of dry and lactating cows
E. Milking symptomatic cows last
Answer: D
Control of contagious mastitis on dairy farms is best achieved by which one of the following?
A. Strict attention to milking hygiene, ensuring udder dryness, cleanliness and post-milking teat dipping
B. Avoidance of organic bedding materials, like straw, wood shavings, sawdust
C. Intramammary antibiotic infusions for affected cows and systemic antibiotics administered to all cows
D. Treating all cows with SCC over 350,000 with systemic and intramammary antibiotics
E. Intramammary antibiotic infusion, affected quarters of cows entering dry period
Answer: A
This question is confusing… because controlling current infection is intramammary AB. Preventing new infections would be A…
Gangrenous mastitis = Clostridium perfringens
Which one of the following bedding materials has been most commonly linked to Klebsiella mastitis in dairy cattle?
A. Straw
B. Sand
C. Manure
D. Clay
E. Wood shavings
Answer: E
In the last 2 months, 20 cows in a 240-head herd of Holsteins have aborted autolyzed fetuses at an approximate gestational age of 5 months.
Other calves have been stillborn or born weak or paralyzed.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of the abortions in this herd?
A. Aspergillus spp.
B. Bovine viral diarrhea virus
C. Brucella abortus
D. Leptospira interrogans
E. Neospora caninum
Answer: E
!!!
Which of the following findings on necropsy would be most supportive of a diagnosis of abortion due to Neospora caninum infection?
A. Focal suppurative hepatic lesions
B. Hydrocephalus
C. Inflammation of Peyer’s patches
D. Multifocal encephalitis and myocarditis
E. Splenomegaly
Answer: D
!!!!
Which one of the following is the sample most likely to result in accurate diagnosis of bovine abortions due to fungal agents?
A. Dam and fetal serum
B. Fetal stomach contents
C. Fetal heart tissue
D. Paired sera from dam, obtained 2 weeks apart
E. Placenta
Answer: B
!!!
Which one of the following is the most common location for papillomatous digital dermatosis of the bovine foot?
A. Front feet, cranio-ventral aspect of fetlock
B. Hind feet at the white line
C. Hind feet, back of foot near interdigital cleft
D. Front feet near the toe
E. All four feet at the coronary band
Answer: C
AKA hairy heel warts
Cattle in which of the following conditions are most likely to develop laminitis (founder)?
A. Thin, postpartum, fed excess concentrates
B. Fat, postpartum, fed excess concentrates
C. Fat prepartum, high producer, on alfalfa
D. Thin prepartum, high producer, on alfalfa
E. Grazing on mixed grass pasture, post drought
Answer: B
!!!
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Acute bovine pulmonary emphysema and edema
(fog fever)
B. Bovine herpesvirus-1
C. Bovine respiratory syncytial virus
D. Infectious keratoconjunctivitis
E. Tracheal edema syndrome
Answer: B
Bacterial culture of which one of the following is most likely to result in a definitive diagnosis?
A. Blood
B. Lymph node aspirate
C. Nasal discharge
D. Nasopharyngeal swab
E. Serum
M. haemolytica is isolated…
Question 2:
Which of the following management recommendations would most likely help minimize feedlot outbreaks of shipping fever?
A. Begin feeding high-energy rations immediately on arrival at the feedlot
B. Do not wean calves prior to shipping to the feedlot
C. Separate group into small lots and add animals to established group pens on arrival
D. Surgically castrate bull calves on arrival at the feedlot
E. Vaccinate with a modified-live shipping fever vaccine 3 weeks prior to shipping and on arrival
Answer: D
!!!!
Question 2:
Answer: E
Three of a group of 35 beef cows on pasture suddenly collapsed and died over the last 24 hours.
The cows were moved to an irrigated fall pasture one week ago.
On evaluation a number of cows are reluctant to move, and some are breathing rapidly and heavily with tongues extended.
Which one of the following is the most appropriate recommendation for future herd management?
A. Gradually accustom cattle to lush pasture while feeding ionophore-containing supplement.
B. Implement a regular deworming schedule with benzimidazole or macrocyclic lactone during grazing season.
C. Offer free-choice salt and mineral supplements;
ensure access to water.
D. Recommend metaprophylaxis with broad-spectrum antibiotic before moving to pasture.
Answer: A
Which one of the following measurements is the most appropriate diagnostic test?
A. Salt content of the ration
B. Ketone body concentration
C. Sulfur content of the ration
D. Lead concentration in blood
E. Magnesium concentration in plasma
Answer: B
in blood, urine, or milk
- A high-producing Holstein cow two weeks postpartum has been off-feed and now has decreased milk production.
- The abdomen is distended ventrally on the left side, and a ping is heard on
simultaneous auscultation and percussion caudo-dorsally from the 9th rib to the paralumbar fossa.
Which of the following is the optimum treatment for this cow?
A. Casting the cow on her right side and rolling her to the left
B. Casting the cow on her left side and rolling her to the right
C. Surgical correction of the condition
D. Administration of 5 quarts of mineral oil via nasogastric tube
E. Administration of procaine penicillin intramuscularly
Answer: C
!!!
Correction is done by casting cow on right side and rolling her to the left + abomasopexy
Simple rolling can fix problem for a bit is not a permanent fix
Mastitis, metritis, and ketosis can lead to LDA
A beef steer is found dead in the pasture. Necropsy reveals a distended rumen and severe congestion and hemorrhage of the vasculature of the head and neck. The mucosa of the esophagus is congested cranial to the thoracic inlet and pale caudal to it.
Which one of the following is the most likely cause of this steer’s death?
A. Abomasal ulcer
B. Bloat
C. Left displaced abomasum
D. Lipomatosis
E. Type II ostertagiasis
Answer: B
Which of the following is the treatment of choice for moderate, frothy bloat in cows?
A. Drench with magnesium oxide.
B. Insert a large-bore trocar and cannula in the right paralumbar fossa.
C. Drench with 9% bicarbonate solution.
D. Pass large-bore stomach tube; administer poloxalene.
E. Transfaunation
Answer: D
if severe bloat, place trocar on left side not on right
A 6-year-old Jersey cow is sternally recumbent with her head on her flank at one day post calving.
Examination reveals a depressed cow unable to rise with a heart rate of 98 beats per minute and a temperature of 99 degrees F or 37.2 degrees C.
There is no evidence of mastitis or another twin calf still inside the uterus.
Answer: A
A postpartum down cow is being treated for milk fever with a slow IV of calcium gluconate. During treatment, the heart is auscultated, and the facial artery pulse is monitored.
Which one of the following are the most likely observations during therapy?
A. Tachycardia, weak pulse slowing to normocardia, strong pulse
B. Arrhythmia changing to steady rhythm
C. Bradycardia, weak pulse, changing to tachycardia, +/- arrhythmia
D. Bradycardia, weak pulse, speeding up to tachycardia, strong pulse
E. Tachycardia slowing to bradycardia, pulse strength about the same
Answer: A
Which one of the following is the most effective means of decreasing the dietary cation-anion difference
(DCAD) in periparturient dairy cows?
A. Decreasing the potassium content of the diet
B. Decreasing the zinc content of the diet
C. Increasing the potassium content of the diet
D. Increasing the zinc content of the diet
Answer: A
Do this to lower DCAD diet so that way you can promote calcium mobilization in hypocalcemic prone cows
Which one of the following is the most appropriate screening test for infection with bovine leukemia virus (leukosis) in dairy herds?
A. Antibody titer > 1,800
B. ELISA test
C. Immunofluorescent Antibody (IFA) test
D. Lymph node biopsy
E. Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) test
Answer: B
!!!!
A pastured dairy cow is examined for a sudden decrease in milk production. The cow walks gingerly with an arched back. Pressure applied over the xiphoid process and withers results in a grunt.
Which one of the following is the most likely cause of this cow’s condition?
A. Abomasal impaction
B. Left displaced abomasum
C. Ruminal acidosis
D. Traumatic reticuloperitonitis
E. Vagal indigestion
Answer: D
Which one of the following is the best way to minimize the incidence of traumatic reticuloperitonitis in a herd of dairy cattle?
A. Avoid use of baling wire
B. Feed chopped ration
C. Increase fiber content of the ration
D. Practice routine administration of magnets per os
E. Use magnets in feed-processing equipment
Answer: D
Some of a group of 12-week-old, milk-fed calves have died suddenly; and others are convulsing.
Some of the affected calves exhibit an exaggerated menace response.
Calves gallop around bellowing and then fall to the ground paddling before dying.
Which one of the following is the most likely cause of this condition?
A. Hypomagnesemia
B. Lead poisoning
C. Nitrate toxicosis
D. Nutritional myopathy
E. White snakeroot poisoning
Answer: A
Several young Angus calves collapsed and suddenly died in the morning after escaping from their pen and being chased around the pasture for half an hour.
Other calves are moving stiffly with arched backs.
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Bovine leukosis
B. Enterotoxemia
C. lonophore toxicosis
D. Gossypol (cottonseed) toxicity
E. White muscle disease
Answer: E
A diet low in thiamine or high in sulfur is most likely to cause which one of the following conditions in cattle?
A. Pseudorabies
B. Downer cows
C. Parturient paresis
D. Polioencephalomalacia
E. Pregnancy toxemia
Answer: D
Which of the following feeds are most likely to have a high sulfur content?
A. Beet pulp, molasses, dried distillers’ grains
B. Soybean hulls, corn silage, wheat middlings
C. Corn grain, oat silage, grass hay
D. Grass silage, oat hulls, sorghum-Sudan grass pasture
Answer: A
Which one of the following is the principal cause of enterotoxemia in calves, lambs, foals, and piglets?
A. Clostridium difficile
B. Clostridium perfringens types A and D
C. Clostridium perfringens types B and C
D. Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli (ETEC)
E. Salmonella typhimurium
Answer: C
Black leg is suspected…
Which one of the following is the test most likely to confirm the presumptive diagnosis?
A. Culture of intestinal contents for Clostridium perfringens
B. Culture of serum for Clostridium novyi
C. ELISA for toxins A and B of Clostridium difficile in liquid fecal sample
D. Fluorescent antibody test for Clostridium chauvoei in sample of affected muscle
E. Immunohistochemical test of sample of hepatic tissue for Clostridium hemolyticum
Answer: D
write transcript from this slide
review clostridial diseases
Answer: A
Standing estrus means the cow is ready to be mounted
Breeding 12 hours after estrus is best.
Answer: C
