Week of Feb 10 Day 1

Question 1

Define Sudden acquired retinal degeneration syndrome (SARDS).
1. What age group is this condition seen in? Species?
2. Clinical signs
3. Diagnostics
4. Treatment
5. Prognosis

Answer 1

1. SARDS is a condition that causes rapid and irreversible blindness due to changes within the retina usually seen in middle-aged obese female spayed dogs.
2. They develop acute blindness and initially have no optic or fundoscopic lesions. In 1-2 months, they will develop retinal vascular attenuation and tapetal hyperreflectivity.
3. Definitively diagnose SARDS is with a test called electroretinography (ERG). This test involves flashing a bright light in front of the eye and monitoring the electrical activity of the retina. If there is no electrical activity within the retina, the dog can be definitively diagnosed with SARDS. However, this test is rarely performed because it requires referral to a veterinary ophthalmologist.
4. Treatment involves immunosuppression.
5. Prognosis is typically good. Dogs adjust well to being blind!

Question 2

Describe the different Salter Harris Fracture types:

Answer 2

Type 1 - Physis
Type 2 - Metaphysis
Type 3 - Epiphysis
Type 4 - Metaphysis, Physis, Epiphysis
Type 5 - Crush

Question 3

Topic: Deep pyodermas
1. Deep pyoderma is typically seen in what species ?
2. List the causes of deep pyodermas. What tissues are involved?
3. What are the clinical signs seen in patients with deep pyodermas?
4. What diagnostics should be run?
5. How is this condition treated? What medication is NOT recommended and why?

Answer 3

1. Incidentally, the German Shepherds are predisposed to severe deep pyodermas that can be difficult to treat.
2. Deep pyoderma can be secondary to allergies, skin fold anomalies, endocrine disorders, immune mediated skin diseases, bacterial and/or fungal skin infections, or migrating foreign bodies. Determining the underlying etiology will help with resolution and minimize chances of treatment failure and re-occurrence. Deep pyodermas involve tissues deeper than the epidermis, including the dermis and even subcutis.
3. Clinically the patient can be pruiritic and/or licking the affected area repeatedly.
4. Diagnostics should include skin scraping and impressions, culturing for bacteria and fungi, biopsy, and blood work.
5. Treatments typically include antimicrobials that have demonstrated effectiveness, antifungals if needed, and frequent topical treatments with chlorhexidine shampoo and removal of the dead tissue and debris. The skin may heal on the surface before the deeper infection is resolved; making clinical cure difficult to assess. In general, deep infections can require 6-8 weeks of antibiotic treatment (and even 12 weeks for severe cases) for resolution. Ans to this q was Cephalexin for 8 weeks. German Shepherds are at a higher risk of developing dry eye from Trimethoprim-sulfa; therefore, it is not recommended for this condition due to the length of time required to treat a deep pyoderma.

Question 4

1. Define Canine Degenerative Myelopathy.
2. Which species and of what age group is most commonly affected? 3. What does this disease cause?
3. What differential diagnosis are most commonly associated with canine degenerative myelopathy?

Answer 4

1. Canine degenerative myelopathy is a progressive, degenerative spinal cord disease that occurs most commonly in German Shepherd Dogs between 5-9 years of age. This disease causes random axonal degeneration in all spinal cord segments, but it is usually most severe in the thoracic cord. It is a diffuse myelopathy that can look like a transverse myelopathy, and is often confused with hip dysplasia.

Question 5

Implants such as bone plates and screws can often be a ________ for infection. The lucencies around the bone plate and screws suggest ________ of the implants, and the draining tract is suggestive of _______. If the bone is already fully healed, the best treatment for this dog would be to ?

Answer 5

Implants such as bone plates and screws can often be a nidus for infection. The lucencies around the bone plate and screws suggest instability of the implants, and the draining tract is suggestive of infection. Since the bone is already fully healed, the best treatment for this dog would be to remove the bone plate and screws and start antibiotics.

Question 6

Describe the three grades used when determining MCT prognosis. What is the best way to determine prognosis?

Answer 6

Mast Cell Tumors have a 3 grades:
Grade 1-least likely to metastasize. Well differentiated and superficial. Usually curative with surgical excision.
Grade 2- well to good differentiation. SQ involvement. Prognosis is varied and dependent upon cell surface markers, signs of metastasis, and local reoccurrence. Can be cured with surgery.
Grade 3- Poorly differentiated. Poor prognosis with likelihood of metastasis, reoccurrence. Aggressive treatment needed.
In order to determine prognosis it is ideal to fully stage the animal with local lymph node aspiration, metastasis check in the abdomen and thorax, blood work, and grade of the tumor itself. More recently, it has been discovered that the amount of mitotic figures identified per high per field correlates greatly with how aggressive the tumor will behave.

Question 7

CVP is a decent measure of __________ _________ A normal CVP can range from ___-___ cmH2O. It is important to interpret the CVP in light of your patient’s clinical signs and to observe the trend in CVP measurements.

Answer 7

CVP is a decent measure of circulating volume. A normal CVP can range from 0-10 cmH2O. It is important to interpret the CVP in light of your patient’s clinical signs and to observe the trend in CVP measurements.

Question 8

Morphine is an _______ while Thiopental, Pentobarbital, and Phenobarbital are __________. Thiopental is an _____-_____ acting barbiturate used for induction of __________. Pentobarbital is ________ acting and Phenobarbital is _____ acting, so these drugs are used for ?

Answer 8

Morphine is an opioid while Thiopental, Pentobarbital, and Phenobarbital are barbiturates. Thiopental is an ultra short acting barbiturate used for induction of anesthesia. Pentobarbital is intermediate acting and phenobarbital is long acting, so these drugs are used for long term sedation and seizure control.

Question 9

Topic: IMHA
1. Signalment
2. Clinical Signs
3. Diagnostics
4. Treatment
5. Prognosis

Answer 9

1. Middle aged dogs. Cocker spaniels are genetically prediposed to IMHA)
2. Pale gums, unexplained weakness
3. Bloodwork - IMHA typically has a normocytic normochromic regenerative anemia and the classic findings seen are autoagglutination and spherocytes. The only abnormal finding commonly seen on a chemistry panel with this disease is a mild to moderate bilirubinemia due to red blood cell hemolysis.
4. The treatment for IMHA is immunosuppressive therapy (prednisone and cyclosporine). A blood transfusion may be indicated if the PCV is very low (usually less than 20%) or if the patient is showing clinical signs for their anemia. Packed red blood cells would be indicated in this case over a whole blood transfusion because it would provide a higher number of red blood cells and maximize the PCV.
5. Prognosis depends on bloodwork, clinical signs

Question 10

Apomorphine is an _______ ________ _______ that acts on the chemoreceptor trigger zone to induce vomiting in dogs. In can be administered ____, ____, ______ or in the _______ ____ Xylazine is a fairly effective emetic in the ____ but is not used in the ____ for this purpose. Azathioprine is an __________ drug not used to induce vomiting. Magnesium hydroxide or
Milk of Magnesia is a ________ but is not used for vomiting.

Answer 10

Apomorphine is an opioid dopaminergic agonist that acts on the chemoreceptor trigger zone to induce vomiting in dogs. In can be administered IM, SC, IV, or in the conjunctival sac. Xylazine is a fairly effective emetic in the cat but is not used in the dog for this purpose. Azathioprine is an immunosuppressive drug not used to induce vomiting. Magnesium hydroxide or
Milk of Magnesia is a cathartic but is not used for vomiting.

Question 11

A 6 year old female spayed Labrador Retriever presents for a progressive lameness of the left thoracic limb over the past 3 months. Physical exam findings include no conscious proprioception, no withdrawal reflex, and atrophy of the muscles of the affected limb. An ultrasound of the left axilla shows a soft tissue mass lesion extending up from the axilla to the vertebral canal. What is the most likely diagnosis? What is the best tx option?

Answer 11

The correct answer is peripheral nerve sheath tumor. The presentation of the dog described is classic for a peripheral nerve sheath tumor. They are slow growing tumors arising from the peripheral nerve sheath cells. They are most commonly found in the brachial plexus. Limb amputation and tumor excision may be curative if the spinal canal has not been invaded.

Question 12

1. What are classic bloodwork findings of a patient that sustained a rattlesnake bite? What are some other possible causes of what you see on the bloodwork?
2. What is the best treatment? What would not help?
3. What can be a side effect of treatment?

Answer 12

1. Even without external evidence of fang punctures, the presence of echinocytes, thrombocytopenia and prolonged PT and PTT in conjunction with the unilateral painful muzzle swelling is supportive of a rattlesnake bite. Other possible causes of echinocytes include hemangiosarcoma and liver disease which are not likely in the present scenario. Bee stings and spider bites can cause pain and unilateral or bilateral muzzle swelling depending on the location but echinocytes should not be present.
2. 25% of rattlesnake bites are dry bites but the presence of echinocytes indicates toxin within the blood so antivenom should be administered immediately.
3. The main side effect of antivenom is anaphylaxis but serum sickness can occur 1-2 weeks post treatment. Plasma will not correct the coagulopathy since the toxin directly affects clotting factors.

Question 13

Dogs are insulin-dependent and most often require _______ daily insulin administration for control of their diabetes mellitus.
The formation of insulin ________ does not typically occur in dogs and is rare in cats. Insulin therapy is the mainstay for ________ regulation of blood glucose. High-______ diets delay glucose absorption in the intestines and can _________ insulin sensitivity. _____-calorie diets and regular exercise treat obesity and increase insulin sensitivity. High fat ____ are not recommended, as pancreatitis can be an underlying cause of diabetes. Oral hypoglycemic such as ______ are not very effective in dogs. While diabetes may have an immune component, immunosuppressants are not indicated; additionally, ________ would be contraindicated due to the insulin resistance they may cause.

Answer 13

Dogs are insulin-dependent and most often require twice daily insulin administration for control of their diabetes mellitus.
The formation of insulin antibodies does not typically occur in dogs and is rare in cats. Insulin therapy is the mainstay for immediate regulation of blood glucose. High-fiber diets delay glucose absorption in the intestines and can increase insulin sensitivity. Low-calorie diets and regular exercise treat obesity and increase insulin sensitivity. High fat diets are not recommended, as pancreatitis can be an underlying cause of diabetes. Oral hypoglycemic such as glipizide are not very effective in dogs. While diabetes may have an immune component, immunosuppressants are not indicated; additionally, corticosteroids would be contraindicated due to the insulin resistance they may cause.

Question 14

Giardia trophozoites and cysts are typically found on a ?. Giardia cysts can be found on _______ _______ also. The organism can also be detected by ____ and _______.

Answer 14

Giardia trophozoites and cysts are typically found on a direct fecal smear. Giardia cysts can be found on fecal flotation also. The organism can also be detected by FA and ELISA.

Question 15

The Baermann technique is a method of recovering ________ from fecal material and is most commonly used when looking for ________ parasites, most often _______.

Answer 15

The Baermann technique is a method of recovering larvae from fecal material and is most commonly used when looking for nematode
parasites, most often lungworm.

Question 16

Describe the risk of transmitting staph psedointermedius from animal to human? What about staph aureus?

Answer 16

There is a low risk of transfer of Staphylococcus pseudintermedius from animals to humans since this staphylococcus is host-adapted to dogs. The risk is higher for immunocompromised humans and humans with open wounds. Euthanasia is unnecessary, since this is a curable disease and the risk to humans is low. Quarantine is generally not indicated.
If these bacteria had been Staphylococcus aureus, the risk to humans would be much greater. Most dogs do not culture Staphylococcus aureus, since it is host-adapted to humans. Additionally, it is believed that most cases of Staphylococcus aureus in dogs are a result of transfer from their owners. Quarantine may be necessary for select cases of Staphylococcus aureus in dogs if their owner is immunocompromised.

Question 17

Polydioxanone (PDS) is an __________ and ________ suture that is broken down by _________ and will last longer than _____, which is better when working with the bladder.
Vicryl is a __________ suture which also has a higher likelihood of ______ due to the ability of _______ to lodge in between the filaments.

Answer 17

Polydioxanone (PDS) is an absorbable and monofilament suture that is broken down by hydrolysis and will last longer than catgut, which is better when working with the bladder.
Vicryl is a multifilament suture which also has a higher likelihood of failing due to the ability of bacteria to lodge in between the filaments.

Question 18

List the reported complications of a Perineal hernia repair. What is NOT a reported complication?

Answer 18

Fecal incontinence, infection, repair failure.

Femoral nerve paralysis is not a reported complication. The surgical region is not near the femoral nerve. Incontinence can occur if over 50% of the external anal sphincter is damaged. Infection is a very common complication due to the region in which the surgery is being performed. Failure of repair is also a complication due to the weak nature of the muscles being used to repair the defect.

Question 19

Topic: FeLV
1. What type of virus is FeLV?
2. How is it transmitted? Pathogenesis?
3. Diagnostics?

Answer 19

1. FeLV is a retrovirus.
2. It is transmitted both horizontally and vertically in the cat. Once a cat is exposed, the virus is propagated throughout lymphoid tissue, resulting in amplification in the spleen, lymph nodes, GALT, intestinal crypt epithelia, and bone marrow. Once the bone marrow is infected, peripheral viremia occurs by release of infected neutrophils and platelets. Finally, excretion of the virus in saliva and urine does not occur until 28-56 days after infection, once there is widespread infection of epithelial and glandular tissue.
3. ELISA, IFA
   - ELISA tests for the p27 virus antigen in the serum. The IFA (Immunofluorescent Antibody) tests for p27 antigen in leukocytes and platelets.
   - Because some cats can neutralize the virus before progression/amplification in the body, a positive ELISA may eventually turn negative after a few weeks (in this situation, the IFA will remain consistently negative). If there has been propagation of the virus to the bone marrow, then the IFA will be positive.
   - If the cat has a positive ELISA test with a negative IFA, it is important to repeat the ELISA again in 3 months to see whether virus neutralization occurred.
   Unfortunately, in some cats, an ELISA turning negative 3 months later does not prove that the pet has overcome the infection. Some cats will sequester the virus in their bone marrow resulting in only a positive IFA upon retesting.

Question 20

What medication works as a rapid appetite stimulant in cats? What route of administration works best to achieve this affect? Repeat administration of this medication has been associated with what negative side effect?

Answer 20

Diazepam is a benzodiazepine sedative that can effectively cause appetite stimulation in cats. It is best administered intravenously to achieve this effect. Repeated oral administration of diazepam has been associated with acute fulminant hepatic necrosis. This side effect is thought to be related to metabolism of the drug in the liver to toxic metabolites. This is more severe when administered orally due to first pass metabolism.

Question 21

Topic: Hydrocephalus in Cats
1. Etiology
2. Clinical signs
3. Diagnostics
4. Treatment

Answer 21

1. The cause can be genetic, particularly in Siamese cats or due to exposure to toxins, such as griseofulvin during gestation or exposure to the feline panleukopenia virus during gestation.
2. Clinical signs include depression, ataxia, dome shaped head.
3. Treatment is aimed at reducing the formation of CSF. Medical treatments include prednisolone, furosemide, oral carbonic anhydrase inhibitors, and surgical placement of a shunt from the ventricles of the brain into the peritoneal cavity. Anti-convulsant drugs may be recommended if seizures occur.

Question 22

Topic: Feline Traumatic Ocular Sarcoma
1. Definition
2. Clinical Signs
3. Diagnostics
4. Treatment? What is the risk of delaying treatment?

Answer 22

1. • 2. This is a unique tumor of cats and is a very malignant intraocular neoplasm that can occur years after the inciting trauma. Cat with a history of penetrating ocular trauma presents with blindness, corneal edema, scarring, and phthisis bulbi (shrunken, nonfunctional eye)
2. Ophthalmic exam - no PLR in either eye, no menace, non-visual
3. The treatment is early enucleation because if you wait for signs to develop, the tumor has frequently already metastasized.
   ** Remember: Eyes almost always develop phthisis prior to showing neoplasia. **

Question 23

Topic: Feline Ringworm
1. Signalment?
2. Ringworm in cats is caused by what etiologic agent?
2. Clinical signs
3. Diagnostics
4. Treatment - what medication is typically not given to cats because it induces vomiting?
5. Is this disease zoonotic?

Answer 23

1. Persians and Himalayans are at increased risk.
2. Microsporum canis.
3. Fungal culture is the most definitive diagnostic for dermatophytosis; Dermatophyte Testing Media (DTM) best for culture; collect using a new toothbrush rubbed on lesions; Wood’s lamp - This fungi fluoresces blue under a Wood’s lamp in 50% of cases.
4. The best treatment for ringworm infection would include a combination topical and oral therapy (Although a lesion may appear to be localized to one area, ringworm may also be subclinical and there may be infection elsewhere in the skin that is not grossly visible. Therefore, the best therapy is a combination of topical and oral). Lyme sulfur dip or an antifungal shampoo containing miconazole would be acceptable. Oral antifungals such as itraconazole or fluconazole are most effective with the least side effects. Ketoconazole is not recommended in cats because it causes them to vomit.
5. Over 50% of humans living with ringworm + cats will have lesions.

Question 24

1. What test can determine whether or not a cat is in estrus?
2. What would results would you see on this test if the cat is in estrus?
3. When is the test performed?

Answer 24

1. Vaginal cytology
2. You would see cornified epithelial cells if the cat is in estrus.
3. The swab should be taken during the time the cat is exhibiting the behavior.

Question 25

Explain why an abdominal ultrasound would not be useful to determine whether or not a feline patient has an ovarian remnant? What are some better methods?

Answer 25

Abdominal ultrasound is not usually helpful due to the small nature of a remnant and also because the remnant isn't always located at the ovary; it can also have a piece transplanted into other tissue such as the liver or omentum and can be very difficult to find. It is best to try and diagnose with cytology and then via exploratory laparotomy.

Question 26

1. What is the most common cause of Megacolon in cats? 2. How is a first time/mild to moderate case of megacolon treated? What about a repeat offender?

Answer 26

1. The most common cause in Manx cats is a deformity in the caudal spinal cord. In other cat breeds the most common cause is idiopathic. Other potential causes are pelvic fracture malunions (leading to decreased pelvic canal size), dehydration, Gl foreign bodies, and thyroid disease. 2. In mild to moderate cases or first cases of constipation, aggressive re-hydration, increased water consumption, and laxatives can appropriately manage the disease. Cisapride is a prokinetic drug which may help with intestinal motility and thus help prevent the formation of fecoliths in cats. Surgical correction with subtotal or total colectomy provides a good to great prognosis in cases which are nonresponsive to medical management, although diarrhea and short bowel syndrome can occur weeks to months afterwards. Many cats that are managed medically eventually need surgical intervention.

Question 27

Topic: HCM in Cats 1. Signalment 2. Clinical signs 3. Diagnostics 4. Treatment? What should be avoided? 5. Prognosis

Answer 27

1. Maine coons, ragdolls are predisposed (hereditary; mutation of cardiac myosin binding protein C gene that is autosomal dominant w/ incomplete penetrance) 2. Often asymptomatic and acutely die; Can have signs of CHF including tachypnea, dypsnea, open-mouth breathing. Can display signs of aortic thromboembolism including cyanotic nail beds, loss of pulses, paraplegia. 3. Thoracic radiographs (DV view is the MOST IMPORTANT), Echo, Plasma brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) - Rads: dilated LA --> valentine heart shape, pulmonary edema, pleural effusion, congestion - Echo: LV wall thickening (6 mm or >) - PBNP: elevated in severe cases 4. Supplemental oxygen, furosemide, nitroglycerin. Chronic tx involves a beta blocker (e.g. Atenolol), furosemide, Clopidogrel aka Plavix or baby aspirin to decrease risk of thromboemobolism, +/- K+ supplementation 5. Prognosis is poor

Question 28

Topic: Cheyletiella mites 1. Cheyletiella mites affect what species? 2. Is this mite contagious or non-contagious? 3. Is this mite commonly found in the U.S? Explain why or why not. 4. Where do these mites live once they have infected their host? Do they burrow? 5. What diagnostics can be performed? 6. How is this treated? 7. What is another DDx for Cheyletiella in CATS?

Answer 28

1. Cheyletiella mites are large mites that affect cats, dogs, rabbits, and humans. 2. This mite is highly contagious. 3. The incidence of Cheyletiella has declined in the United States due to the use of topical flea preventatives. 4. The mites live in the stratum corneum and, unlike Sarcoptes, these mites do not burrow. 5. This mite can be found with acetate tape impressions, fecal examination (identify the eggs), or using a flea comb. 6. Lime sulfur dips or flea products can be used for treatment. 7. A good differential for this case would be Demodex gatoi, which is contagious and can be found on acetate tape since it lives in the stratum corneum.

Question 29

Topic: Demodex Demodex _____ and ______ live in hair follicles and you would not find these mites on _________ ______. They would require a ? Also, Demodex _______ only affects dogs and Demodex _____ is not contagious. Demodex gatoi and Demodex cati are the two demodex mites seen in cats. Demodex gatoi is the more _____ and _____ mite which lives _________ and Demodex cati is the ______ ______ mite which lives in the ? Demodex gatoi is considered _________ to other ______ and causes ________.

Answer 29

Demodex canis and cati live in hair follicles and you would not find these mites on acetate tape. They would require a deep skin scrape. Also, Demodex canis only affects dogs and Demodex cati is not contagious. A good differential for this case would be Demodex gatoi, which is contagious and can be found on acetate tape since it lives in the stratum corneum. Demodex gatoi and Demodex cati are the two demodex mites seen in cats. Demodex gatoi is the more short and stubby mite which lives superficially and Demodex cati is the long slender mite which lives in the hair follicles. Demodex gatoi is considered contagious to other cats and causes pruritus.

Question 30

Sarcoptes rarely infects _____. This mite is very _______ to find. ___________ skin scraping would be needed since this mite burrows into the stratum corneum.

Answer 30

Sarcoptes rarely infects cats. This mite is very difficult to find. Superficial skin scraping would be needed since this mite burrows into the stratum corneum.

Question 31

______________ ________ is a nasal mite that can result in facial pruritus. Dogs are mainly affected. Diagnosis is by mite identification grossly with rhinoscopy or in nasal flushes.

Answer 31

Pneumonyassoides caninum is a nasal mite that can result in facial pruritus. Dogs are mainly affected. Diagnosis is by mite identification grossly with rhinoscopy or in nasal flushes.

Question 32

Ehlers-Danlos syndrome is a _________ condition in which a defect in _________ production results in abnormal Type ___ _________. This renders the skin very pliable, thin, and susceptible to trauma. Patients with this condition should not be ______. Treatment consists of ____________ __________ and ___________ ________ and prompt treatment of ____________ infections. Cats with ______________ may develop a similar skin fragility syndrome, which as the name implies, results in a very thin, easily damaged, friable skin.

Answer 32

Ehlers-Danlos syndrome is a hereditary condition in which a defect in collagen production results in abnormal Type I collagen. This renders the skin very pliable, thin, and susceptible to trauma. Patients with this condition should not be bred. Treatment consists of appropriate housing and lifestyle modifications and prompt treatment of secondary infections. Cats with hyperadrenocorticism may develop a similar skin fragility syndrome, which as the name implies, results in a very thin, easily damaged, friable skin.

Question 33

Confirming client ownership of the patient is the most appropriate next step since the client and patient are not previously known to the clinic/ veterinarian. While obtaining client consent is important prior to humane euthanasia, verbal consent is less appropriate than written consent when the client and patient are not previously known to the clinic/veterinarian. Discussing options for handling the patient's remains and escorting the client to a comfortable, quiet area are important prior to humane euthanasia, however confirming client ownership should be completed first.

Question 34

What is the protocol for an UNVACCINATED pet that was exposed to a possible rabies suspect?

Answer 34

● Exposed unvaccinated pets: a. Euthanasia and testing OR b. Quarantine for 4 months (dogs and cats) or 6 months (ferrets) and vaccinate for rabies at time of entry into quarantine

Question 35

What is the protocol for an VACCINATED pet that was exposed to a possible rabies suspect?

Answer 35

● Exposed vaccinated pets (dog/cats/ferrets that are current on rabies vaccine): a. Booster rabies vaccination immediately and 45 day observation period by owner b. Exposed overdue pets whose owners have proof that the pet had received a previous USDA-licensed rabies vaccine should receive a booster vaccination and also be kept under owner observation for 45 days

Question 36

What is the protocol for an UNVACCINATED HUMAN that was exposed to a possible rabies suspect?

Answer 36

● Exposed unvaccinated humans: ○ Post exposure prophylaxis with rabies immunoglobulin AND ○ Give rabies vaccines on day of exposure and also on days 3,7 and 14

Question 37

What is the protocol for an VACCINATED HUMAN that was exposed to a possible rabies suspect?

Answer 37

● Exposed vaccinated humans or with adequate antibody titers: ○ Vaccinate at 0 and 3 days

Question 38

What is the protocol for a HEALTHY animal that bit a human? What is the protocol for an UNHEALTHY animal that bit a human?

Answer 38

Management of Animals That Bite Humans a. If a healthy animal (regardless of rabies vaccination status) bites a human, quarantine for 10 days. Do not vaccinate. Report to local health department at first sign of illness. Euthanize and submit for testing if symptoms develop that are suggestive of rabies b. If a stray or unwanted dog/cat/ferret exposes a human, euthanize and submit for rabies testing immediately

Question 39

What is a common consequence of "high-rise syndrome" in cats? How is this treated?

Answer 39

Separations of the mandibular symphysis are seen commonly with "high-rise syndrome" or when cats fall from heights because they frequently are able to rotate in mid-air, landing on all 4 feet to break the fall but often also landing with their lower jaw hitting the ground at the same time. This is sometimes referred to as a symphyseal fracture but it is not a true fracture as the mandibular symphysis never fully ossifies or fuses. The standard treatment is circummandibular cerclage wire placed caudal to the lower canine teeth with the wire tightened once the hemi-mandibles are aligned. Symphyseal separations typically take 5-7 weeks to heal. You should expect to remove the cerclage wire under heavy sedation in about 6 weeks.

Question 40

Atipamezole (trade name: Antisedan), an alpha-2 antagonist, is the reversal agent for medetomidine (trade name: Dormitor). Medetomidine is an alpha-2 agonist. Xylazine would be another example of an alpha-2 agonist. Yohimbine is its reversal agent. Other alpha-2 agonists are clonidine, detomidine, dexmedetomidine and romifidine 2-pralidoxime is a reversal agent for cholinesterase inhibitors. Flumazenil is a reversal agent for benzodiazepines Atropine is a muscarinic antagonist of acetylcholine and may be dangerous to use after administration of alpha-2 agonists. This is because alpha-2 agonists cause marked vasoconstriction and high afterload on the heart. Giving atropine and increasing the heart rate can place further stress on the heart. You do not want to set in motion peripheral vasoconstriction and compensatory bradycardia brought on by the alpha-2, then increase the heart rate against that high afterload. This could make for an unhappy heart in the event underlying subclinical heart disease is present.

Question 41

Topic: Amyloidosis 1. What form of amyloidosis is characterized as a familial disorder in cats? Name the most affected breeds. 2. Amyloid deposition occurs more frequently in what parts of the body? 3. Clinical signs? 4. Diagnostics 5. Treatment 6. Should this cat be bred?

Answer 41

1. Of the many forms of amyloidosis, reactive (secondary) systemic amyloidosis is seen in the cat as a familial disorder of the Abyssinian, Siamese, and Oriental Shorthair. 2. Amyloid deposition occurs most frequently in the kidney (Abyssinian) and liver (Siamese and Oriental Shorthair) although other sites can be affected. 3. Clinical signs in the Abyssinian are typically those of chronic renal failure. Hypertension may be secondary to glomerulotublar disease. 4. Renal or liver biopsies can confirm the diagnosis but are often unnecessary due to the risk of hemorrhage, and there may only be minimal change to therapeutic decision making. Congo red staining of biopsy samples should be requested because hematoxylin and eosin staining do not always show amyloid deposits. 5. Therapy consists of general management of the renal failure, proteinuria, hepatopathy, and hypertension if they exist. There are reports of using dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO) or colchicine for these cats as well. 6. Obviously, this cat should not be bred.

Question 42

Topic: Cryptococcus 1. What species is MOST susceptible between cats and dogs? 2. Etiologic agent 3. Transmitted via? 4. Commonly seen in what part of the USA? 5. Describe the lifecycle? 6. Most common clinical signs 7. Diagnostics 8. Treatment + Side Effects 9. Prognosis 10. Top DDx

Answer 42

1. Cats are more susceptible than dogs BUT dogs are more likely to have severe disease. 2. Cryptococcus neoformans and gattii 3. Transmission is through pigeon poop, soil 4. Pacific Northwest 5. Inhaled -> spread by macrophages in the bloodstream to organs 6. Most common clinical signs are mucopurulent discharge and a proliferation on the nose ("Roman nose"). Ocular and CNS involvement may also be seen. 7. Diagnostics: ○ CBC: nonspecific – nonregenerative anemia, leukocytosis ○ Chemistry: changes reflect whichever organ is involved ○ Cytology: round, purple/blue with thick capsule ○ Serology 8. Treatment: ■ Amphotericin B most effective at 0.5mg/kg/day as a CRI three times a week +/-fluconazole at 5-15mg/kg PO q12-24h ■ Treatment typically 3-5 months to a year – 2 months posts clinical signs ■ Monitor with latex agglutination antigen test to evaluate response to treatment ■ Must monitor kidney values (and hepatic values if on -azole) --> Side effects: nephrotoxicity, vomiting, anorexia ○ Supportive care 10. It is an important differential for uveitis in a cat.

Question 43

You are presented with your long-term 13-year old male neutered domestic longhair patient. You are managing it for poorly controlled diabetes mellitus. At home, the cat is markedly polyuric, polydipsic, polyphagic, and has increased in weight from 7.2 kg (15.8 pounds) to 9.0 kg (19.8 pounds) over the last 3 months. The cat is currently receiving 15 units of protamine zinc insulin every 12 hours with meals. On physical exam, the cat is quiet and mentally dull. He has an enlarged head, paws, and liver on abdominal palpation. A blood glucose curve shows values between 400 mg/dL -500 mg/dL (normal range of 60-125mg/dL) on each reading throughout the day. What is the most effective treatment for the uncontrolled diabetes?

Answer 43

This cat has the signs and symptoms of acromegaly. Acromegaly is caused by excessive growth hormone release from the pars distalis from a tumor in the pituitary gland. Excessive growth hormone causes a defect in the insulin receptors on target cells causing insulin resistant diabetes mellitus. The enlarged head, paws, abdominal organs, and weight gain are due to the anabolic effects of the growth hormone. The most effective way to treat a pituitary tumor in veterinary medicine is with external beam radiation. Other less effective treatments include high doses of insulin to try and control the diabetes, and somatostatin analogs (octreotide) to try and inhibit the release of growth hormone from the tumor. Surgical excision has been used as a form of treatment in people with pituitary tumors, but this has only been rarely reported in cats. Prior to instituting therapy, pituitary imaging (CT scan +/- MRI) should be performed.

Question 44

Which of the following is seen more commonly with acute renal failure than with chronic renal failure? Anemia Anuria Metabolic acidosis Hyperphosphatemia

Answer 44

The correct answer is anuria. Hyperphosphatemia occurs in both acute and chronic renal failure. Anemia is seen in chronic renal failure due to decreased erythropoietin, shortened RBC lifespan, uremic inhibition of erythropoiesis, etc. Metabolic acidosis occurs in both acute and chronic renal failure from decreased bicarbonate production by the kidneys and from retention of metabolic acids.

Question 45

PGF will cause lysis of the _________ _______ in mares if it is more than about ___ days old. If you are unsure how old it is, you can repeat the injection in about ? This will allow a return to normal cycling. Remember, injection of PGF may cause ? after administration.

Answer 45

PGF will cause lysis of the corpus luteum in mares if the corpus luteum is more than about 5 days old. If you are unsure how old the corpus luteum is, you can repeat the injection in about 7 days. This will allow a return to normal cycling. Remember, injection of PGF may cause mild-moderate abdominal pain (colic, cramping) after administration.

Question 46

Topic: Urticaria/Hives in Horses 1. Etiology 2. Lesions form due to? 3. Treatment? 4. What tx is least effective and why?

Answer 46

1. Urticaria in horses is commonly caused by an allergic reaction. Toxins, plants, insect bites, medications, chemicals, heat, sunlight, stress, and genetic abnormalities are just a few of the factors that can cause an outbreak of urticaria. 2. The lesions are caused by localized edema in the dermis. 3. Treatment for an allergic reaction with urticaria includes parenteral fast-acting steroids such as dexamethasone. Diphenhydramine can be given as well, but oral administration is slower acting and the efficacy is much less (if at all) when compared to steroids. There is no indication for antibiotics.

Question 47

Lactate is produced from ___________ in ___________ environments to keep the process of ____________ running. When a horse/foal is ____________, blood lactate may increase because of poor blood perfusion to the body. Several studies have investigated blood and peritoneal lactate as a means of predicting survival in neonatal sepsis and equine colic. It may be necessary to look up these studies if you want exact findings (different reports provide different findings), but not surprisingly, the higher the lactate, the _________ the prognosis.

Answer 47

Lactate is produced from pyruvate in anaerobic environments to keep the process of glycolysis running. When a horse/foal is hypovolemic, blood lactate may increase because of poor blood perfusion to the body. Several studies have investigated blood and peritoneal lactate as a means of predicting survival in neonatal sepsis and equine colic. It may be necessary to look up these studies if you want exact findings (different reports provide different findings), but not surprisingly, the higher the lactate, the poorer the prognosis.

Question 48

A 4-year old horse has been losing weight over the last 4 weeks, is yawning frequently, and appears disinterested in and unaware of its surroundings, as shown in the photo. The horse has been vaccinated properly each year against West Nile, WEE/EEE, tetanus, flu, strangles, and EHV-1. The TPR is normal, but the horse can be positioned close to a wall and will remain there. You suspect what condition as most likely?

Answer 48

Regardless of the cause of hepatic disease, when enough liver function is lost, hepatoencephalopathy can result. Increases in ammonia, aromatic amino acids, and mercaptans may play a role in developing CNS signs. The duration of 4 weeks and the normal TPR make an infectious disease less likely. The clinical signs do not fit rabies or protozoal myeloencephalitis.

Question 49

There is no definitive _____________ test for EDM; it can only be confirmed through ____________ examination of the _________ and ____________ and the identification of diffuse neuronal fiber degeneration of the ___________ matter. However, many cases of EDM have been associated with low serum __________ ___ concentrations, so measurement of this is suggestive of disease. The exact etiology of EDM is unknown, however, ?

Answer 49

There is no definitive antemortem test for EDM; it can only be confirmed through histopathologic examination of the spinal cord and brainstem and the identification of diffuse neuronal fiber degeneration of the white matter. However, many cases of EDM have been associated with low serum vitamin E concentrations, so measurement of vitamin E is suggestive of disease. The exact etiology of EDM is unknown, however, oxidative stress and damage to the central nervous system is a prominent theory.

Question 50

1. What etiologic agent the most commonly identified fungal pathogen in guttural pouch mycosis? 2. What are some of the most common clinical signs? 3. What cranial nerves run through the guttoral pouch?

Answer 50

1. Aspergillus is the most commonly identified fungal pathogen in guttural pouch mycosis. 2. While this disease can present with epistaxis, dysphagia is sometimes a presenting complaint. 3. Remember, cranial nerves IX, X, XI, and XII travel through the pouch and may be damaged from mycotic lesions, thus resulting in dysphagia.

Question 51

A healthy race horse with a heart rate of 16 bpm is most likely to have what electrical rhythm finding?

Answer 51

The correct answer is second-degree atrioventricular block. First-degree and second-degree atrioventricular blocks are considered a normal finding in horses and usually result from high vagal tone. All other answer choices are abnormal findings and should be addressed accordingly. Atrial fibrillation is usually treated with quinidine. A chronic third-degree atrioventricular block can be treated by placing a pacemaker. If the onset is rapid then a catecholamine or parasympatholytic such as atropine may be

Question 52

Topic: Seedy Toe 1. Seedy toe is sometimes referred to as? 2. This condition is characterized by? 3. Clinical signs include? 4. Treatment? 5. Prognosis

Answer 52

1. Sometimes referred to as "hollow wall" or "dystrophia ungulae". 2. Seedy toe is characterized by a change in the character of the horn such that the inner surface is crumbly and there may be a cavity due to loss of substance. 3. Lameness may be present if there is abscessation or concurrent laminitis. 4. To treat seedy toe, any necrotic or infected horn should be removed to establish drainage. The area should be cleaned and antiseptics may be applied to cleaned, raw tissues. Appropriate supportive shoeing may be necessary until the hoof regrows. 5. The prognosis is generally good if the condition is diagnosed and treated early and no laminitis or deeper tissue involvement is present.

Question 53

What is the most common name for laminitis?

Answer 53

Founder is the common name for laminitis.

Question 54

Topic: Exercise Induced Pulmonary Hemorrhage

Answer 54

The correct answer is exercise-induced pulmonary hemorrhage. This has multiple other names, and horses with this condition are sometimes referred to as bleeders or as bobbling, chocking, or gurgling. It is thought to be extremely common in Thoroughbreds. In this condition, following exercise at speed and large efforts from the lungs, pulmonary damage occurs and bleeding starts, usually in the caudal dorsal lung lobes. Common clinical signs are excessive swallowing after exercise because the horse is swallowing blood that was brought up. They may also cough to clear blood from their airways. Epistaxis is actually only seen in about 10% of horses with exercise-induced pulmonary hemorrhage. The other options in this question such as airway disease and heart failure would not be consistent with this horse's excessive swallowing after racing. This horse is most likely afflicted with exercised induced pulmonary hemorrhage (EIPH). The pathogenesis of this condition is not entirely understood, but the condition is most commonly seen in racing horses. Bleeding may not always be evident and clinical signs include labored breathing, loss of speed during a race, and poor performance. Bronchoscopy of the airway to visualize evidence of hemorrhage is the best diagnostic test in this list of possible answers. Cytologic examination of a bronchoalveolar lavage for evidence of hemorrhage is also another way to diagnose the condition. A PIVKA test is used in small animals to help diagnose exposure to rodenticides. A buccal mucosal bleeding test will test platelet function. Prothrombin time evaluates the extrinsic and common pathways of the coagulation cascade. Based on the signalment and history these are not tests you would consider first.

Question 55

Although not as commonly as in ______, L. intracellularis can infect horses (and other species). Similar to _____, the infection usually involves _________ age horses and causes thickening of the ______ intestine and __________. The low protein is commonly observed as ________ _______ clinically. Both __________ and ___________ can cause diarrhea at any age but are not as commonly associated with _______ ________. Intussusceptions do occur but also typically result in ______.

Answer 55

Although not as commonly as in pigs, L. intracellularis can infect horses (and other species). Similar to pigs, the infection usually involves weanling age horses and causes thickening of the small intestine and hypoproteinemia. The low protein is commonly observed as ventral edema clinically. Both Clostridioides and Salmonella can cause diarrhea at any age but are not as commonly associated with ventral edema. Intussusceptions do occur but also typically result in colic.

Question 56

Topic: Lameness in Horses 1. Define Osselets. 2. Etiology of Osselets 3. Risk factor to Osselet development? 4. Major clinical sign of horses with osselets? 5. Prevention and prognosis 6. Define low ringbone 7. Define high ringbone 8. Define Sidebones 9. Navicular syndrome affects what part of the body?

Answer 56

1. Osselets are inflammation of the periosteum on the dorsal distal epiphyseal surface of the third metacarpal bone and fetlock joint. They are often (but not always) bilateral. 2. Osselets typically begin from chronic stress injury to the front fetlock(s) from repeated concussive forces during racing and hard training. 3. Horses with long or upright pasterns may be predisposed. 4. The major clinical signs are increasing lameness and a short choppy gait. Thickening and soreness of the fetlock are also frequently seen. 5. Early diagnosis and intervention is important because once the condition progresses to osteoarthritis, the prognosis is much worse. If recognized early and treated with rest, anti-inflammatory medications, and intra-articular sodium hyaluronate injections, many horses can recover completely. 6. Low ringbone is osteoarthritis of the distal interphalangeal (coffin) joint. 7. High ringbone is osteoarthritis of the proximal interphalangeal (pastern) joint. 8. Sidebones are ossification of the collateral (alar) cartilages of P3. 9. Navicular syndrome affects the heel.

Question 57

What is a cause of colic in older horses? Describe the pathogenesis.

Answer 57

The yellow mass in the image is a mesenteric lipoma. It has encircled a region of bowel and mesentery, evident by the annular ring at the base of the mass surrounding the intestines. This is a cause of colic in older horses due to acute ischemia and resultant necrosis of the bowel.

Question 58

Dohle bodies are ______-_____ inclusions within the _______ that are retained aggregates of ? Dohle bodies are one manifestation of ______ (i.e. endotoxemia) morphologic change to the leukocytes. Other changes in ________ morphology that occur with toxemia include ? These changes are commonly found in septic foals and may be considered "defects" in the neutrophil during intense cell production and maturation. In this image, there are numerous dark blue aggregates suggestive of Dohle bodies.

Answer 58

Dohle bodies are bluish-gray inclusions within the neutrophil that are retained aggregates of rough endoplasmic reticulum. Dohle bodies are one manifestation of toxic (i.e. endotoxemia) morphologic change to the leukocytes. Other changes in neutrophil morphology that occur with toxemia include cytoplasmic basophilia, vacuolation, and toxic granulation. These changes are commonly found in septic foals and may be considered "defects" in the neutrophil during intense cell production and maturation. In this image, there are numerous dark blue aggregates suggestive of Dohle bodies.

Question 59

A 10-year old gelding presents for salivation and vesicular lesions on the tongue and on the inside of the mouth. A full physical exam shows that there are similar lesions on the feet of the horse as well. Which of the following is a possible diagnosis for this horse? Vesicular stomatitis Vesicular exanthema Foot-and-mouth disease Swine vesicutar disease

Answer 59

The correct answer is vesicular stomatitis. Vesicular stomatitis is characterized by vesicle lesions on the tongue, inside of the mouth, teats, and feet. Besides horses, cattle, sheep, goats, and pigs are susceptible to the disease. The disease is differentiated from the others listed because horses are not naturally susceptible to the other diseases. The absence of papules and pustules allows us to differentiate vesicular stomatitis from horsepox.

Question 60

Topic: Abortion in Horses 1. What is the most common VIRAL cause of abortion in horses? How is it transmitted? 2. When in the gestation process (early, mid, or late) does this viral agent cause abortion? 3. Is there a preventative method? 4. Can this viral agent affect any other body system? 5. What diagnostic tests can be run? What confirmatory tests are available? 6. If fetus is born alive, what clinical signs do they exhibit? 7. Is there any treatment available?

Answer 60

1. The most commonly incriminated viral cause of abortion in horses is equine herpesvirus type 1 (EHV-1). EHV-1 is transmitted via inhalation of nasal discharge, aborted fetal tissue, and/or the placenta. 2. EHV-1 typically causes abortion in the latter part of gestation. 3. A relatively efficacious vaccination is available for EHV-1 and is typically administered at 5, 7, and 9 months of gestation. 4. EHV-1 can also result in subclinical to clinically relevant respiratory infections. 5. Exam aborted fetus - see small necrotic foci on the liver, necrotizing bronchiolitis, and intranuclear inclusion bodies on histologic examination. Virus neutralization tests, indirect immunofluorescence, PCR, and virus isolation are available for confirmation of EHV infection. 6. Some fetuses may be born alive and have neonatal herpesvirus infection. Many of these EHV-infected foals do not survive for more than a few hours or days and demonstrate signs of respiratory distress, icterus, fever, and lethargy. 7. There is no direct treatment of EHV infection in the mare or infected neonatal foal, although antiviral medications such as acyclovir and valacyclovir may theoretically be of benefit.Most practices revolve around prevention by the use of stringent vaccination protocols against EHV.

Question 61

Topic: Dictyocaulus 1. Dictyocaulus affects what species? 2. Life cycle? 3. Diagnostics? 4. What species is considered to be the reservoir?

Answer 61

1. Dictyocaulus is the lungworm of horses/donkeys. 2. The life cycle of the worm is that an infective larva is ingested and migrates through the mesenteric lymph nodes through lymphatics to the lung where it develops into an adult, producing eggs that are coughed up, swallowed, and passed in the feces. 1st stage larvae hatch in the feces and are most likely to be detected with a Baermann. Other useful diagnostic techniques include a transtracheal wash, which may show eosinophils and possibly parasites, ova, or larvae. It is rare for horses to have patent infections. You will observe them more often in foals than in adult horses. 3. Donkeys are considered the reservoir.

Question 62

Topic: Purpura Hemorrhagica in Horses A horse presents with urticaria, edema of the extremities, petechiation of the mucous membranes, and a stiff gait. On physical exam, you suspect the horse to have purpura hemorrhagica. 1. Define purpura hemorrhagica. 2. Why is one of the major clinical signs seen edema of the extremities? 3. What are the most common clinical signs? 4. What is seen diagnostically?

Answer 62

1. Purpura hemorrhagica is a possible sequela of streptococcus equi infection exposure or vaccination. 2. It develops from a Type Ill hypersensitivity resulting in immune complex deposition in blood vessel walls and vasculitis. 3. This condition causes a vasculitis resulting in clinical signs such as pitting edema of the limbs and head, petechiation, and non-specific signs such as intermittent fever and weight loss. 4. Anemia, hyperproteinemia, hyperfibrinogenemia, hyperglobulinemia, and neutrophilia.

Question 63

Topic: Derm in Horses 1. Define Scratches. 2. AKA? 3. Caused by? 4. Treatment 5. Prevention

Answer 63

1. Scratches is a condition of chronic seborrheic dermatitis of the palmar/plantar aspect of the pastern. 2. The condition is sometimes referred to by several other names including "grease heel", "dermatitis verrucosa", "dew poisoning" and "mud fever". 3. It is not specific to the underlying infectious cause but the condition is generally associated with horses kept in wet or muddy environments. 4. Treatment involves removing the horse from the wet environment, clipping the surrounding hair, and gently washing and cleaning the area with a disinfectant followed by careful drying. Topical ointments or astringent dressings may sometimes be used. 5. The best prevention is to keep horses in a dry and clean environment and maintain good hygiene practices.

Question 64

What zoonotic disease is of greatest concern in people who drink unpasteurized cows milk?

Answer 64

Mycobacterium bovis

Question 65

One 3-week old calf in a group of young calves being fed milk replacer has been depressed, growing poorly and appears unthrift with a rough hair coat. She recently began kicking at her flank, teeth grinding, and vocalizing with an arched back. She has developed white, putty-like feces and is dehydrated. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of the problem? Describe the pathophysiology

Answer 65

This is a typical description of esophageal groove dysfunction in a calf resulting in rumen acidosis. To review normal physiology, the esophageal groove (also known as reticular groove) is a specialized part of the ruminant stomach that closes in response to drinking milk, directing it directly to the abomasum. When dysfunctional, milk goes to the rumen where it is fermented by rumen microbes and converted to volatile fatty acids and lactic acid. The resulting rumen acidosis leads to the clinical signs described in this case. For this reason, this phenomenon is sometimes referred to as rumen drinking.

Question 66

Topic: Bovine Neuro 1. PLRs will remain intact in what toxin cases? 2. PLRs will NOT remain intact in what cases? Explain why. 3. Piggybacking off of question 2 - what will bloodwork of this patient look like? What about a CSF tap? 4. Bovids without access to ______ will be at a greater risk of developing this condition? 5.

Answer 66

1. Pupillary light reflex will stay intact with salt poisoning, and lead poisoning. 2. PLRs disappear with vitamin A deficiency as a result of retinal degeneration and constriction of CN Il at the level of the optic foraminae. 3. Blood work will usually be unremarkable. CSF changes in Vit A deficiency include a mononuclear cell pleocytosis of 40-50 cell/dl and increased protein of approximately 140mg/dl. 4. It is more common for unsupplemented feedlot animals to be deficient because they do not have access to vitamin A rich, green, succulent, plants.

Question 67

Topic: Bovine Repro How do progesterone levels change throughout the beginning stages of bovine pregnancy? What levels (low, mid, high) indicate that a cow is pregnant, not pregnant, or possibly pregnant?

Answer 67

Progesterone levels start off low on day 0 and then become high at day 21 and day 24, indicating that the cow is surely pregnant. If she had consistently high levels throughout, this may indicate that she a) has been pregnant or b) has a persistent CL. If she had low levels on days 0, 21, and 24 then she is liekly not pregnant.

Question 68

What are the four features of Tetralogy of Fallot? What are the major clinical signs?

Answer 68

The four features of Tetralogy of Fallot, they are: Right ventricular hypertrophy, ventricular septal defect, dextropositioned aorta (over-riding aorta), and pulmonic valve stenosis. Clinical signs include a bilateral basilar murmur, right sided heart failure, cyanosis, and secondary bacterial endocarditis.

Question 69

Topic: Bovine Repro To be a satisfactory potential breeder, a bull must meet certain requirements including a ________ physical exam, adequate _________ circumference, sperm motility of at least ___% motile, and sperm morphology of at least ____% normal.

Answer 69

To be a satisfactory potential breeder, a bull must meet certain requirements including a normal physical exam, adequate scrotal circumference, sperm motility of at least 30% motile, and sperm morphology of at least 70% normal.

Question 70

Topic: Displaced Abomasum in Cattle 1. Signalment 2. Clinical signs; What is classically seen in cases of LDA? RDA? RDA with volvulus 3. General diagnostics 4. Diagnostics for RDA specifically? What is a DDx for RDA/volvulus? 5. Treatment 6. Prognosis 7. Risk factors?

Answer 70

1. Multiparous dairy cow within 30 days of calving 2. Partial anorexia, decreased milk production, scant stool, ribs pulled outward, musical "ping" over the ribs - in cases of LDA, ping between 9-13 ribs, in cases of RDA, ping between 10-13 ribs. In cases of an RDA with volvulus you will see tachycardia and a papple shape (pear on L, apple on R) as well as complete anorexia, colic, dehydration. 3. Ping on exam is usually diagnostic. Hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis d/t absomasum sequestering HCl (will progress to acidosis in cases of circulatory failure). Liptak test - needle ventral to ping and aspirate - if acidic then that is abomasal fluid. 4. In cases of RDA/volvulus, on rectal palpation may feel convex muscular organ in R abd quadrant (DDx: cecal dilatation) 5. Tx only for LDA - IV or oral Ca supplementation, transfaunation, gastric stimulants. Surgically you can do a roll and toggle/blind stitch, abomasopexy, omentopexy. 6. Prognosis for LDA or uncomplicated RDA = excellent. For RDA with volvulus = guarded. 7. Ketosis, subclinical hypocalcemia, uterine disease REMEMBER: LDA = not emergent, RDA +/- volvulus = ARE emergent

Question 71

Topic: Bovine Abortion 1. What are the classic signs of Brucellosis in bovids? 2. Tritrichomonas fetus abortions usually occur in what part of gestation? What do the placenta and fetus look like? 3. Campylobacter fetus subsp venerealis usually occur in what part of gestation? 4. Neospora abortions sually occur in what part of gestation? What does the fetus look like?

Answer 71

1. Abortions in last half of pregnancy, retained placenta, metritis and lack of signs in younger animals), pneumonia in fetus. 2. Tritrichomonas fetus abortions usually occur in the first half of gestation but do have placentitis and pneumonia in the fetus as does Brucella. 3. Campylobacter fetus subsp venerealis usually causes early embryonic death. Neospora abortions are usually mid gestation and cause necrosis of the cotyledons, with fetal lesions including myocarditis, hepatitis, myositis and encephalitis.

Question 72

Topic: Bovine Derm What is the difference between primary and secondary photosensitization?

Answer 72

The plant Hypericum perforatum contains the chemical hypericin which, when ingested, localizes in skin and acts as a primary photosensitizing agent. Ingestion of other plants such as buckwheat, ryegrass, and whiteheads can also have this effect. Secondary, or hepatogenous photosensitization, occurs when the liver fails to excrete phylloerythin, the compound derived from the breakdown of a chlorophyll. Phylloerythin accumulates in the skin, resulting in photosensitization.

Question 73

What is the ideal suture pattern for uterus after a C-section in a cow? Explain.

Answer 73

The correct answer is the Utrecht pattern. This pattern achieves a nice mucosal and serosal seal when done correctly. Additionally, the exposure of suture to the serosa is minimized with this type of pattern, so adhesions of uterus to surrounding structures is minimized.

Question 74

Topic: Bovine Public Health There are three types of liners: ______ rubber, _____ rubber, and ______. These are designed to last anywhere between _____ and ______ milkings. Post-milking teat disinfection is probably the most effective way of reducing the rate of ________ mastitis. Pre-milking dip will help control __________ mastitis.

Answer 74

There are three types of liners: synthetic rubber, natural rubber, and silicone. These are designed to last anywhere between 500 and 10,000 milkings. Post-milking teat disinfection is probably the most effective way of reducing the rate of contagious mastitis. Pre-milking dip will help control environmental mastitis.

Question 75

What egg count in a bovine fecal samples would prompt you to deworm?

Answer 75

Once you see an egg count between 300-400 per gram, with or without compatible clinical signs, you should consider deworming. That is the level at which weight gains in growing calves will begin to be affected.

Question 76

This case describes the presentation of a cow with metritis. Metritis typically occurs within 2 weeks of calving and is characterized by cows that are off-feed, depressed, and have decreased milk production. They often have fetid reddish-brown discharge and may have failure to pass the placenta. The risk factors associated with development of metritis in cows include retained fetal membranes, dystocia, stillbirth, and twinning. Lesser risk factors are uterine prolapse, milk fever, dirty calving environments and ketosis. Taylorella equigenitalis is a cause of venereal disease in horses but not cows. Tritrichomonas foetus typically causes infertility in the first half of gestation. Brucella abortus causes late gestation abortions and may cause placentitis. Contaminated milking equipment may be associated with certain types of mastitis but not metritis.

Question 77

Topic: Bovine Traumatic Reticuloperitonitis 1. Classic clinical signs 2. Prevention 3. Prognosis

Answer 77

1. Washing machine murmur (The washing machine murmur is due to the presence of both fluid and gas in the pericardium resulting in splashing and dripping sounds), Right heart failure - you will see a jugular pulse, distended jugular veins, and brisket edema. 2. Prevention is best achieved by giving all cows over 50Olbs a magnet and keeping them away from wires (using string baling twine) and other metallic objects that could be ingested. 3. The prognosis is poor.

Question 78

Pyelonephritis occurs most commonly in ______-partum cows when _______ enter via the ______ due to a _____-partum uterine infection and vaginal damage at calving. The most common organisms found are ________ or _____________ ______. The resultant ascending infection causes renal _______ and pain (grinding _______, ________- tail, repeatedly up and down), _______, and loss of _______-. Urolithiasis is ______ in dairy cows and urolithiasis in female ruminants is rarely __________, as the stones usually pass ________. Glomerulonephritis would not be so _______ and would not result in _______- and ______ in the urine. Metritis could result in seeing _____ and ______ in a free catch urine sample, but the cow is unlikely to be ________ with metritis, and 2 weeks post-partum is a long delay in acute metritis (usually occurs a few _______ post-partum).

Answer 78

Pyelonephritis occurs most commonly in post-partum cows when bacteria enter via the urethra due to a post-partum uterine infection and vaginal damage at calving. The most common organisms found are coliforms or Corynebacterium renale. The resultant ascending infection causes renal swelling and pain (grinding teeth, swishing tail, repeatedly up and down), fever, and loss of appetite. Urolithiasis is rare in dairy cows and urolithiasis in female ruminants is rarely symptomatic, as the stones usually pass readily. Glomerulonephritis would not be so painful and would not result in blood and pus in the urine. Metritis could result in seeing pus and blood in a free catch urine sample, but the cow is unlikely to be colicky with metritis, and 2 weeks post-partum is a long delay in acute metritis (usually occurs a few days post-partum).

Question 79

A 4 month old Holstein heifer has a loud cough, tachypnea, diarrhea, and ill thrift of 8 days duration. However, there are no signs of sepsis, depression, or loss of appetite. On physical exam, you could hear crackles and wheezes over the lung fields and a harsh bronchial tone cranioventrally. Given this presentation what is the most likely diagnosis? What is the cause? What are some Ddx and explain how they differ from this diagnosis.

Answer 79

The correct answer is enzootic pneumonia. This disease is multifactorial but is mainly a result of poor housing and environment (poor sanitation and ventilation). Calves with enzootic pneumonia will have cranioventral consolidation and many times they have diarrhea as a result of being infected with Eimeria bovis (like this one). Shipping fever (fibrinous pleuropneumonia) will most likely present with more systemic signs, which is key in differentiating the two diseases. Aspiration pneumonia will probably not result in diffuse lung pathology without also causing systemic signs. Moldy sweet potato poisoning is a good differential and will result in respiratory disease followed by death, but there was no history of exposure here. However, these animals will typically present with more acute respiratory distress and will probably not survive for 8 days, as death usually ensues 2-5 days after exposure. The principal toxin is ipomeanol which is produced by sweet potatoes infected with Fusarium javanicum or F. solani. Ipomeanol will destroy clara cells and type I pneumocytes.

Question 80

You are collecting a sample from the bulk tank for a periodic milk ring test for Brucella at a dairy herd of 300 lactating cows. The farmer asks you what the test entails and what happens if it comes back positive. You explain that a suspension of killed Brucella organisms is added to the stored sample to screen for antibodies to the organism. If samples are positive, a bluish ring forms at the cream line as the cream rises (positive test) which is how the test gets its name. He asks what happens if there is a positive test. What should you tell him? Describe Brucella surveillance.

Answer 80

Brucellosis is a reportable disease and is promptly reported to the appropriate agency in the state. Positive animals should be slaughtered, not treated. Brucella surveillance consists primarily of two processes. The milk ring test (MRT) also known as the Brucella ring test (BRT) is as described in this case; it is typically performed on bulk tank milk samples and if positive, all cows on the farm are serologically tested individually with reactors slaughtered. The second process is identification and blood testing of animals at slaughter. Animals that test positive at slaughter prompt testing of the remaining cattle at the farm of origin for identification and slaughter.

Question 81

Babesia _______ and Babesia _____ are red cell parasites of cattle found in the Americas and spread mainly by _________ ticks. Other species of Babesia can infect man and other animals and are found on most continents. The disease they cause is characterized by _________ anemnia, __________ (which differentiates it from anaplasmosis), ______, and ________. Bovine babesiosis is also called _________, _____ water, ______ fever, or _______ fever. Eradication of ________ ticks has been an effective means of control in the United States.

Answer 81

Babesia bigemina and Babesia bovis are red cell parasites of cattle found in the Americas and spread mainly by Boophilus ticks. Other species of Babesia can infect man and other animals and are found on most continents. The disease they cause is characterized by hemolytic anemia, hemoglobinuria (which differentiates it from anaplasmosis), icterus, and death. Bovine babesiosis is also called piroplasmosis, red water, Texas fever, or tick fever. Eradication of Boophilus ticks has been an effective means of control in the United States.

Question 82

Topic: Joint Infection in LA Guidelines for an infected joint are as follows: total protein greater than ____ g/dl, total nucleated count greater than _______/ul, and polymorphonuclear cell count greater than ________/ul.

Answer 82

Guidelines for an infected joint are as follows: total protein greater than 4.5 g/dl, total nucleated count greater than 25,000/ul, and polymorphonuclear cell count greater than 20,000/ul.