VIN Class 3 - Equine Q's Flashcards
missed first 1
A horse broke out of its stall and got into the feed room yesterday. Today the owner calls to say her horse seems to be uncomfortable.
Which choice is the most likely problem?
A. Gastric ulceration
B. Laminitis
C. Acute hepatic necrosis
D. Ileal impaction
E. Proximal enteritis-jejunitis
B
As soon as a horse ate pounds of grain, think of laminitis. Ice feet well before any lameness signs appear
Which therapeutic shoeing action is best for a horse with navicular disease (caudal heel pain)?
A. Elevation of the lateral side of the hoof
B. Heel elevation
C. Toe elevation
D. Whole-hoof elevation
E. Elevation of the medial side of the hoof
B
This 2-month-old Thoroughbred foal is presented for colic. The foal is salivating and grinding its teeth.
Nasogastric intubation does not result in reflux.
After controlling this foal’s pain, which choice is the most appropriate next step in the management of this case?
A. Abdominal MRI
B. Abdominocentesis (belly tap)
C. Abdominal radiographs
D. Hepatic biopsy
E. Gastroscopy
E
- Gastric ulceration is very common and mostly asymptomatic.
- About half of all foals and more than 90% of racehorses have gastric ulcers!
- Confirm diagnosis by gastroscopy.
- Other diseases might cause these general signs; but in a salivating, tooth-grinding foal, rule out ulcers (the common disease) first.
- Poorly understood pathogenesis
- NSAID use has been associated with development of ulcers.
- Treatment is to reduce/neutralize gastric acid:
- Omeprazole, a proton pump inhibitor, is most effective
- Histamine receptor antagonists ( cimetidine) are also useful.
Which drug is most likely to cause right dorsal colitis in horses?
A. Phenylbutazone
B. Ivermectin
C. Furosemide
D. Dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO)
E. Ketamine
A
NSAIDs are known to cause right dorsal colitis in horses. Decrease blood flow via prostaglandin inhibition –> small insults to colonic mucosa can deteriorate quicky b/c blood supply to help them heal is so poor.
A 7-year-old gelding is colicky. On evaluation, the horse is sweating, pawing at the ground, and looking at the right side of its abdomen.
Heart rate = 68 bpm [N=28-40],
Temp = 100.0° F (37.8° C) [N=99.1-101.5 ° F; 37.3-38.6° C].
Mucous membranes are pink; capillary refill time = 2 sec.
Xylazine is administered to allow passage of a nasogastric tube.
No reflux is obtained.
Rectal palpation reveals a distended large colon, which can be followed to the right of the abdomen. Following palpation, the horse attempts to roll and continues to paw.
Heart-rate is 80 bpm.
Which choice is the best management recommendation?
A. Hand-walk the horse.
B. Refer the horse for immediate surgical treatment.
C. Roll the horse from left to right.
D. Roll the horse from right to left.
E. Euthanize the horse, as the condition is not treatable.
B
Why refer?
* Horse has a high heart rate, and getting higher
* Even after xylazine, he is still painful, trying to roll
* Severe pain, not responsive to analgesic therapy is generally an indication for surgery
* AND you have rectal evidence of large bowel displacement
A 1-day-old foal has a serum IgG concentration of 200 mg/di.
Which choice is the best method of improving the immune status of this foal?
A. Administer 1 liter of dam’s colostrum via nasogastric tube
B. Administer commercially available IgG plasma
C. Ensuring the foal nurses regularly
D. Immediate vaccination of the foal
B
- Foals are born without circulating immunoglobulins (IgG) and depend on colostral IgG for immunocompetency.
- Adequate colostral intake must happen as soon as possible after birth.
- Ideally, ~ 1 liter of colostrum within the first 90 min of life.
- Serum IgG concentrations in the foal should be 800 mg/dI.
- Gut “closure” virtually complete by 24 hours
- After 24 hours, must give plasma IV. (Frozen equine plasma is readily available.)
A 6-year-old mare gives birth to a foal that appears normal at birth. Two days later the foal is listless, weak, and recumbent with pale yellowish mucous membranes.
T=99 ° F (37.2°C) [N=99.1-100.8 F; 37.3-38.2C]
Hematocrit=10% [N=27%-43%]
Serum IgG=900mg/ dl
[N ≥ 800mg/dI]
The mare was bred to same stallion last year and the foal from that previous breeding was healthy.
Which choice is the most likely diagnosis in this foal?
A. Equine herpesvirus-1 infection
B. Neonatal isoerythrolysis
C. Hypoxic ischemic
encephalopathy
D. Rotavirus infection
E. Septicemia
B
A 2-hour-old foal has a heart rate of 100 bpm [N=80-100 bpm] and a continuous murmur, loudest on the left side.
Which choice is the most likely explanation for these findings?
A. Septicemia
В. Hypoxic ischemic encephalopathy
C. Foal dysmaturity
D. Normal in a neonatal foal
E. Ventricular septal defect
D
- A continuous murmur on left side is normal in
newborn foals. - Due to a slight opening of the ductus arteriosus,
- Usually closes within a week
Which choice is the most common cause of pregnancy loss in the mare?
A. Ehrlichia risticii
B. Ectopic pregnancy
C. Equine viral arteritis
D. Mare reproductive loss syndrome
E. Twinning
E
Which choice is most consistent with equine abortion caused by equine herpesvirus-1 (EHV-1)?
A. Aborting mares seldom show premonitory signs.
B. Fetus is autolyzed.
C. Placenta is edematous with a dry, leathery chorion.
D. Abortion is early in gestation.
E. The mare has dystocia, agalactia, and the placenta is prematurely separated.
A
8 of 19 horses at a riding stable are depressed, pyretic, and have a mucopurulent nasal discharge.
Several have increased respiratory sounds, and some have difficulty swallowing. One of the affected horses looks like this (see image on phone).
Laboratory studies show a leukocytosis, characterized by a neutrophilia and elevated plasma fibrinogen.
Which choice is the best method of confirming the diagnosis?
A. Bacterial culture of purulent discharge
B. Baermann technique to identify larvae in the feces
C. Microscopic examination of bronchial lavage sample
D. Virus isolation from buffy coat
E. Virus isolation from nasopharyngeal swab
A
Which choice is the most usual clinical history of horses found to be Streptococcus equi equi carriers?
A. Foals less than 4 months of age
B. Horses co-infected with a viral upper respiratory pathogen
C. Asymptomatic horses with S. equi equi guttural pouch infections
D. Horses with immune suppression
E. Previously infected horses treated early in the course of infection with penicillin
C
A 4-year-old, show-jumping gelding is examined for depression and anorexia three days after being shipped from California to New York.
The horse stands with elbows abducted and does not want to move.
On auscultation, lung sounds are absent in the cranioventral lung fields; crackles can be heard in the caudodorsal lung fields.
Heart sounds are muffled. Ventral edema is evident.
The oral mucous membranes are bright red; capillary refill time is
4 seconds.
HR=84 bpm [N=28-40],
T=104.8°F (40.4°C) [N=99.1-101.5 F; 37.3-38.6 C]
Lab tests show neutropenic leukopenia with a left shift.
Which choice is the most likely explanation for the
signs in this gelding?
A. Equine influenza
B. Equine viral arteritis
C. Pleuropneumonia
D. Exercise-induced pulmonary hemorrhage (EIPH)
E. Theileria equi infection
C
A 9-year-old quarter horse gelding stabled at a riding school has a 4-week history of coughing, which is exacerbated during feeding time when the horse gets hay.
The horse has a bilateral nasal discharge and is breathing heavily.
Mucous membranes are pink, with a capillary refill time of less than 2 seconds.
Expiratory wheezes are prominent on auscultation.
T = 101.0° F (38.3°C) [N=99.1-101.5 F; 37.3-38.6 C];
HR = 36 bpm [N=28-40 bpm];
RR = 16 brpm [N=10-14 brpm]
What condition is at the top of your differential diagnosis list?
A. Verminous pneumonitis
B. Equine asthma / Recurrent airway obstruction
C. Bacterial or viral infectious pneumonia
D. Pulmonary fibrosis
E. Bronchointerstitial alveolitis
B
A group of pastured mares, jennies (female donkeys), and their 3- to 6-week-old foals have respiratory disease.
Many of the mares have severe coughs and one jenny is mildly tachypneic.
Which group of animals should be tested with a Baermann test (to detect moving larvae) to confirm the presumptive diagnosis?
A. Any cats on the premises
B. Any dogs on the premises
C. All jennies
D. Donkey foals only
E. Horse foals only
C
Lungworm!!!
Bright red worm in horse feces
- Cyasthomes
missed MCQ on this - 1 hr into class
A 10-year-old quarter horse gelding is presented because of intermittent bleeding from one nostril.
Dried blood is visible in the right nostril.
On endoscopic exam you see the following:
Which choice is the best conservative therapeutic option for ethmoid hematoma in the horse?
A. Cauterization
B. Formalin injection
C. Intravenous phenylephrine
D. Ligation
E. Intranasal triamcinolone
B
A two-year-old
Thoroughbred racehorse looks like this after morning workouts.
Which choice is the most likely explanation for the cause of the bleeding in this horse?
A. Ethmoid hematoma
B. Exercise-induced pulmonary hemorrhage
C. Guttural pouch mycosis
D. Pulmonary neoplasia
E. Trauma to the nasal turbinates
B
Missed question 20
Which choice is the most likely cause of the symptoms of exercise intolerance in this horse?
A. Dorsal displacement of the soft palate
B. Epiglottic entrapment
C. Exercise-induced pulmonary hemorrhage
D. Laryngeal hemiplegia
E. Nasal polyps
A
A 6-year-old gelding in a competitive trail ride for the first time began showing signs of stiffness at the end of the first day.
The horse is reluctant to move, sweating heavily and has firm, painful gluteal muscles. HR=74 bpm [N=28-40].
Which test result would best support a diagnosis of exertional rhabdomyolysis?
A. Hypoglycemia and hyperinsulinemia
B. Elevated creatine kinase and aspartate transaminase
C. Hyperchloremia and hypercalcemia
D. Hypokalemia and hypernatremia
E. Elevated lactate dehydrogenase and alkaline phosphatase
B
Which feed is most likely to contribute to increased frequency of episodes of hyperkalemic periodic paralysis in susceptible horses?
A. Alfalfa hay
B. Beet pulp
C. Oats
D. Timothy hay
E. Wheat
A
High in K+ and may exacerbate hyperkalemic periodic paralysis
Which choice is most likely to be identified as a nosocomial diarrheal infection in horses hospitalized in veterinary teaching hospitals for other reasons?
A. Coronavirus
B. Escherichia coli
C. Rhodococcus equi
D. Rotavirus
E. Salmonella serovar Typhimurium
E
Which choice is the best approach to protect broodmares against tetanus?
A. Give tetanus antitoxin annually to mare and foal at foaling.
B. Give tetanus toxoid to broodmares annually at weaning.
C. Give tetanus antitoxin to broodmares annually at weaning.
D. Give tetanus toxoid to broodmares annually 4 - 6
weeks prepartum.
E. Give tetanus antitoxin annually to broodmares 4 - 6
weeks prepartum.
D
Which adverse event is most likely to be associated with the administration of tetanus antitoxin to post-parturient mares?
A. Agalactia
B. Anaphylaxis
C. Clinical tetanus
D. Glomerular nephritis
E. Acute hepatitis
E
A mare in the Southeastern U.S. in September is presented for depression, circling, head-pressing, and severe visual impairment.
T=104°F (40°C), [N=99.1-101.5 ° F; 37.3-38.6° C].
The mare is recumbent and paddling.
The presumptive diagnosis is Eastern Equine
Encephalomyelitis.
What is the most likely outcome for this horse?
A. Death
B. Complete recovery within 1 month
C. Complete recovery by 6 - 12 months
D. Mild residual musculoskeletal gait impairment
E. Severe gluteal muscular atrophy and hindlimb weakness
A
A 7-year-old mare is presented in the fall for evaluation of acute onset of ataxia and hypermetria.
Owners reported the mare had been febrile for about 36 hours.
T= 103° F (39.4°C), [N=99.1-100.8° F; 37.3-38.2°C].
The horse is markedly ataxic and hypermetric in all 4 limbs and is hyperesthetic (abnormally increased sensitivity to stimuli).
Serum antibody titers to EEE, WEE, and VEE are low.
A Western Blot Test of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) for antibodies to Sarcocystis neurona is negative.
Which choice is the best diagnostic test to perform next in this mare?
A. AGID test of serum for equine infectious anemia
B. CS tap and test for Japanese encephalitis
C. Examination of brain tissue for rabies virus
D. IgM capture ELISA of serum for West Nile virus
E. Serum antibody test for St. Louis encephalitis
D
- Must consider WNV when evaluating a horse with neurologic symptoms.
- WNV kills ravens, crows, jays, and other birds
- Neurologic disease in horses, people.
- Equine clinical signs
- General: Depression, low-grade fever, anorexia
- Neurologic: Head-pressing, visual impairment,
ataxia
(often hind-end weakness or paralysis)
Which choice is the most serious risk factor for the development of septicemia in neonatal foals?
A. Oxygen deprivation secondary to prolonged dystocia
B. Failure of passive transfer of maternal antibodies
C. Foaling indoors in confinement
D. Postmaturity
E. Prematurity
B
Other answers may negatively affect immune status but not as bad as B
Which choice best describes typical CBC findings from a septicemic neonatal foal?
A. Anemia
B. Lymphocytosis
C. Nucleated red blood cells
D. Neutropenia
E. Leukocytosis
Septicemic neonatal foals are usually neutropenic with a left shift. You can also see toxic neutrophils.
A 10-day-old Thoroughbred foal on a breeding farm with a history of neonatal death due to Tyzzer’s disease is found comatose and convulsing.
The foal dies soon after.
Which choice is the most appropriate diagnostic method to confirm Tyzzer’s disease in this foal?
A. Bacterial isolation from the foal’s blood
B. Demonstration of profound hypoglycemia in the foal’s serum
C. Silver staining of hepatic tissue
D. Paired serum titers from the mare, taken 1 week apart
C
Which adverse side effect may be caused by ophthalmic application of atropine for an equine corneal ulcer?
A. Colic
B. Ciliary muscle spasm
C. Laminitis
D. Secondary bacterial infection
E. Synechiae
A
Which choice is the most common reason to do a Caslicks procedure (episioplasty/vulvoplasty) in a mare?
A. Persistent frenulum
B. Pneumovagina
C. Rectal prolapse
D. Rectal tear
E. Uterine prolapse
B
Caslicks procedure is performed in racing mares to prevent wind-sucking.
Also done in breeding mares to minimize contamination of the vagina in cases of poor vulvar conformation or after foaling injuries to the vulva.
