VIN Feline Questions Flashcards
Which one of the following choices is the most significant risk factor for feline leukemia virus (FeLV)
infection in the cat?
A. Age
B. Breed
C. Gender
D. Geographic location
E. Time of year
Answer: A
Young kittens are more susceptible
FeLV-A is the archetype and responsible fro most natural infections
Risk factors:
- population density (cattery)
- access to the outdoors
- Virus is spread via oronasal contact and bite
wounds - Infected but healthy cats act as a reservoir and excrete large quantities of virus in saliva
- Kittens are highly susceptible; infected queens may transmit virus to kittens in utero or through nursing
- Older cats develop resistance
- Most common cause of cancer in cats, most commonly diagnosed malignancy is lymphoma
- Leukemia also common in cats with FeLV infection
- Causes a high degree of antigenemia
- Immunosuppression results from high degree of antigenemia present in infected cats –> immune complex forms
- Low complement
- Low white blood cell populations, abnormal white blood cells
- Infected cats may:
1. be PROGRESSIVELY infected or (virus replicates exgtensively and cats usually die within a few years)
2. be REGRESSIVELY infected or (mount immune response but do not entirely eliminate viral replication; some pro viral DNA is detectable via PCR but cat does not develop FeLV associated disease or shed)
3. be ABORTIVELY infected (have FeLV AB and do not get sick) - Testing
- ELISA (point of care - in clinic). NEgative ELISA tests are reliable
- If positive, then PCR (follow up testing in lab). if PCR is also + cat is progressively or regressively infected and should be isolated from other cats until confirmed diagnosis; both tests have high specificity and sensitivity
- Therapy is supportive
- Vaccinate all kittens and at-risk cats
A 7-year-old indoor male neutered cat is presented for reluctance to eat. On oral examination, the cat’s mouth looks like this. A complete blood count reveals lymphopenia. This cat’s mouth does not improve after dental cleaning.
This cat had a positive FIV test prior to the dental cleaning. The owner has two other cats in the household, both of which have tested FIV-negative. These three cats have lived in the household together for two years and have a stable relationship with no fighting
What is the most accurate statement regarding this cat?
A. This cat is likely to experience opportunistic infections.
B. This cat is likely to transmit FIV to the other cats in the household.
C. This cat may transmit FIV to an immunosuppressed person.
D. This cat will have a shorter lifespan due to FIV infection.
E. This cat would benefit from a raw diet.
Answer: A
A 2-year-old, female cheetah at an exotic animal park is evaluated for:
* lethargy,
* weight loss,
* diarrhea, and
* antibiotic-unresponsive fever
On examination the cheetah has yellow mucous membranes, extensive gingivitis, and is depressed and severely emaciated.
After tranquilization, abdominal palpation reveals multiple masses and irregularly shaped kidneys.
Abdominocentesis produces straw-colored, viscous fluid with a specific gravity of 1.040.
Macrophages, neutrophils, and lymphocytes are evident on cytological exam of the fluid.
Which one of the following choices is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Feline infectious peritonitis
B. Feline panleukopenia
C. Hemobartonellosis
D. Hypovitaminosis A
E. Iron deficiency anemia
Answer: A
Which one of the following choices is the most definitive means of confirming the presumptive diagnosis of feline infectious peritonitis (FIP)?
A. Biopsy of abdominal masses
B. Cytology of abdominocentesis fluid
C. ELISA test of serum
D. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the abdomen
E. Radiograph of the abdomen
Answer: A
Biopsy is the gold standard for definitive diagnosis because tissue is obtained for specialized and specific tests. If masses are granulomatous and feline coronavirus particles are discovered, then it confirms infection.
PCR on abdominal effusion can help diagnose FIP. Serological analyses are unreliable because + results only demonstrate exposure, which most cats have been exposed.
- FIP is a fatal coronavirus- a mutation of a common
Gl virus - FIP has a bimodal age of onset (young under 3 yrs of age or older)
- FIP-infected cats will usually appear unthrifty, with a waxing-waning fever. Lab findings include:
- high total protein
- high globulin
- low albumin
- neutrophilic leukocytosis
- albumin-globulin ratio less than 0.6
- fever is often not antibiotic responsive
A 15-year-old female cat is presented for anorexia.
The cat has been vomiting for several days.
On examination, the cat is depressed and emaciated with pale mucous membranes.
The owners report that the cat has been eating less, drinking a lot of water and urinating copiously for the last few months.
The cat has a BUN of 120 mg/dl. Serum creatinine is
4.8 mg/ di.
Which one of the following choices is the most likely concomitant finding on serum biochemical analysis of this cat?
A. Hypernatremia
B. Hyperphosphatemia
C. Hypobilirubinemia
D. Hypocalcemia
E. Hypoglycemia
Answer: B
Which one of the following choices is the most likely finding on abdominal palpation?
A. Ballottable abdominal fluid
B. Irregularly enlarged liver
C. Small irregular kidneys
D. Small thickened bladder
E. Uniformly enlarged ureters
Answer: C
Which of the following choices is the most likely cause of anemia associated with chronic renal failure?
A. Blood loss from hematuria
B. Decreased production of erythropoietin
C. Hypoplasia of bone marrow
D. Immune-mediated red blood cell destruction
E. Protein-deficient diet
Answer: B
Topic: Polycystic Kidney Disease
Chronic Renal Failure (CRF)
Hallmarks of chronic renal failure are:
* isosthenuria (usually precedes azotemia)
* azotemia (elevated levels of nitrogenous compounds in the blood),
* polydipsia, and polyuria
- Isosthenuria refers to the excretion of urine that has the same osmolality as plasma (or about 300 mOsm/I). Happens when kidneys deteriorate to the point where there is not enough renal mass to concentrate urine.
- A urine specific gravity below 1.007 is hyposthenuric
- A urine specific gravity above 1.035 is hypersthenuric.
- Cats in renal failure may have hypokalemia due to:
- Excessive renal loss,
- Anorexia, and
- Chronic metabolic acidosis.
Hyperphosphatemia is another common issue in feline renal failure.
Decreased glomerular filtration rate (GFR) results in high serum phosphorus (this is how phos is cleared)
Chronci interstitial nephritis in the cat may result in hyper or hypocalcemia but most animals maintain calcium homeostasis
Azotemia is classified into three broad categories:
1. Pre-renal,
2. Renal, and
3. Post-renal, depending on the cause.
Common diseases that mimic signs of chronic renal failure:
* Diabetes mellitus
* Hyperthyroidism can mask symptoms of renal failure;
Management of CRF can include:
* Anti-hypertensives
* Dietary phosphorus restriction or phosphate-binders
* Dietary protein restriction
* H2-receptor antagonists
* Erythropoietin administration
* Fluid therapy
* Kidney transplants or dialysis
(end-stage cases, expensive and time-consuming)
Ethylene glycol toxicity primarily affects which organ in the feline?
A. Kidney
B. Liver
C. Lung
D. Pancreas
E. Spleen
Answer: A
Ethylene Glycol toxicity
* Suspected or confirmed case presented within 1 hour of exposure - start immediate decontamination aka emesis and activated charcoal
* Less than 3 hours since ingestion, treat cats with fomepizole at extra-label doses which are higher than recommended doses for dogs
* Other elements of aggressive treatment include:
- Management of metabolic acidosis
- Correcting dehydration/ hypoperfusion (crystalloids, fluids), and
- Dialysis (if possible).
* The earlier treatment is instituted, the better.
Metabolism of ethylene glycol results in formation of several compounds that cause metabolic acidosis and severe renal tubular necrosis.
Both fomepizole and ethanol administration will decrease the amount of ethylene glycol metabolized.
Fomepizole inactivates alcohol dehydrogenase and ethanol by competitive inibiition of of ethylene glycol.
A 22-pound, spayed, 5-year-old, female tabby is presented for depression and lethargy. The cat has lost 3 pounds in the last 2 weeks. The owners boarded the cat 3 weeks ago while they vacationed and report that since they picked up the cat, its appetite has been greatly diminished.
On exam, you note the following:
* Liver feels enlarged and smooth
* Temp 101.4° F (38.6° C)
* Total bilirubin = 6.0 mg/dI (normal: 0.1 - 0.5),
* ALP = 626 U/L (normal: 6 - 105),
* ALT = 112 U/L (normal: 10 - 100),
* GGT = 5 U/L (normal: 1 - 10)
* Radiographs confirm liver enlargement
What is your presumptive diagnosis?
A. Cholangiohepatitis syndrome (CHS)
B. Histiocytic cholelithiasis
C. Hepatic lipidosis
D. Extra-hepatic bile duct obstruction (EHBDO)
E. Oral diazepam toxicity
Answer: C
For choice A and D expect to see high GGT
Which one of the following is the best approach to therapy of idiopathic hepatic lipidosis in the cat?
A. Administration of a balanced diet via a feeding tube
B. Administration of dextrose intravenously
C. Immunosuppressive doses of oral prednisolone
D. Long-term (8 weeks) therapy with oral amoxicillin and clavulanic acid
E. Oral lactulose and oral enteric antibiotics
Answer: A
Hepatic Lipidosis: triglycerides accumulate in hepatocytes –> jaundice
Diagnosis based on:
* History and physical findings (stressed, anorexic, icteric, fat cat)
* Suggestive lab work: Increase in ALP> increase in ALT, normal GGT (Unclear as to why GGT is normal).
* Liver biopsy - only if poor response to therapy or if GGT is high.
- look for vacuolation of more than 80% of hepatocytes or histopath is necessary to confirm diagnosis but remember that these cats have coagulopathies and therefore the risk is too high
Therapy: supportive
High protein, high calorie diet is necessary
NOTE: With hepatic encephalopathy, one would use a reduced protein diet and Lactulose/PEG 3350, either via tube or as an enema
A 2-year-old male neutered cat is admitted in the morning for a routine health check-up.
The cat is the same (normal) weight as it was at the last examination 6 months ago.
The cat is growling loudly in the back of the cage and lunging aggressively toward passersby when you arrive that afternoon to examine it and draw blood for a CBC and serum chemistry.
After restraining the cat, a complete physical exam is performed.
It reveals mild tartar accumulation.
The serum biochemical analysis shows a blood glucose of 310 g/dI. (Normal = 63 - 132 g/dI.) The urinalysis shows 250 mg/di of glucose in the urine. (Normal = O.)
Which one of the following choices is the most likely explanation of the hyperglycemia and glucosuria in this cat?
A. Central diabetes insipidus
B. Diabetes mellitus
C. Ethylene glycol toxicity
D. Pancreatitis
E. Stress-related hyperglycemia
Answer: E
Which one of the following choices is the most accurate means of differentiating stress-induced hyperglycemia from diabetes mellitus in the cat?
A. Blood glucose curve
B. Serum fructosamine concentration
C. Serial serum glucose determinations
D. Serial urine glucose determinations
E. Ultrasound-guided pancreatic biopsy
Answer: B
- Serum fructosamine can be normal in a cat with transient hyperglycemia caused by stress
- Hyperglycemic response can be in excess of 300 or 400 mg/dl
- Once serum glucose > 250 mg/d for any length of time, you can see glycosuria
- Stress-induced hyperglycemia typically resolves after about 4 hours so hospitalizing and checking it later or sending home and having check at home is better
- Serum fructosamine will be high in a cat with chronic hyperglycemia due to diabetes mellitus
Diabetic cats can develop a neuropathy affecting the tibial nerves - these cats have a characteristic plantigrade stance that can resolve with control of diabetes. Myelinated nerve fiber injury in diabetic neuropathy is associated with microvascular neuropathy –> plantigrade stance
A 9-pound cat is admitted after being found collapsed on the floor. The cat has been eating voraciously and drinking a lot for several months prior to presentation and has lost 4 pounds since its last examination 12 months previously.
The owners report the cat has been vomiting for 4 days. On examination the cat is hypothermic, thin, and dehydrated. Serum biochemistry shows a BUN of 125 mg/di, a creatinine of 4 mg/di, and a blood glucose of 525mg/dI. A urine dipstick analysis reveals urine glucose of 3+ and 2+ ketones.
Which one of the following choices is the most likely
diagnosis?
A. Diabetic ketoacidosis
B. Hepatic carcinoma
C. Hepatic lipidosis
D. Inflammatory bowel disease
E. Pyelonephritis
Answer: A
Which one of the following is most likely to be below the normal value on serum biochemical analysis in cases of feline ketoacidosis?
A. Creatinine
B. Glucose
C. Potassium
D. Protein
E. Urea nitrogen
Answer: C
Potassium values are often low in cases of DKA due to vomiting and anorexia.
What is the most likely effect of insulin on serum potassium levels?
A. Decrease because more potassium moves intracellularly
B. Decrease because renal loss increases
C. Increase because more potassium moves extracellularly
D. Increase because renal loss decreases
E. No effect
Answer: A
Levels will decrease because more K moves intracellularly. Insulin causes this along with glucose. In animals suffering from DKa HYdrogen ions move into cells adn K moves out –> marked depltion of total body K+. These cats become very hypokalemic due to insulin administration. Carefully monitor this!!
DKA
- Characterized by ketosis and hyperglycemia
- Frequent concurrent conditions:
- Pancreatitis,
- Cholangiohepatitis, and
- Sepsis/Infection
- The prognosis is fair to good if adequate therapy is administered:
- Rehydration,
- Insulin therapy with regular insulin,
- Correction of electrolyte levels, and
- Treatment of complicating diseases.
A 13-year-old female indoor/outdoor domestic shorthair cat is presented for vaccinations.
The cat weighed 12 pounds one year ago, and today it weighs 9.5 pounds. The owners have not changed the cat’s diet and, in fact, report the cat has an excellent appetite and is very active. They are unconcerned about the weight loss.
Bilateral nodules are palpable on the neck, and the cat has a heart rate of 295 bpm.
Based on the disease at the top of your differential list, which one of the following choices is the next step in confirming a diagnosis in this cat?
A. Gastroscopy
B. Intestinal biopsy
C. Serum glucose
D. Thoracic ultrasound
E. Total T4 concentration
Answer: E
Hyperthyroidism
- Usually caused by functional adenoma of both thyroid glands
- Typically middle-aged or geriatric
- Excellent appetites and activity levels
- Polyuria, polydipsia are common
- Gl signs - vomiting and voluminous soft stools
- Treatment options:
- Radioactive iodine-131 therapy = tx of choice
- Methimazole twice daily = controlled but not cured
- Thyroidectomy = if performed, parathyroid glands must be preserved to maintain Ca homeostasis
- lodine-deficient diet
Concurrent renal disease must be managed appropriately
7 yr old, intact, female DSH cat
See radiograph image on phone.
Which one of the following choices is the most likely finding on histopathological analysis of a biopsy of a feline mammary mass?
A. Carcinoma
B. Fibroepithelial hyperplasia
C. Fibrosarcoma
D. Lipoma
E. Mastitis
Answer: A
In rads: mammary masses are seen ventrally
Thoracic rads are standard because mammary tumors metastasize to the chest and would be indicative of not pursuing surgery.
Aggressive sx = disease free for for 1 yr in 50 % of cats
See image of cat with oral ulceration in mouth
Which one of the following choices is the most appropriate next step in the management plan for this cat?
A. Biopsy of the mass
B. Long-term daily oral prednisolone therapy
C. Radiation therapy
D. Soft food diet
E. Surgical excision of the mass
Answer: A
Biopsy will ID cause of mass
Biopsy of above cat revealed SCC and mass had integrated into tonsils.
Which one of the following choices is the most likely prognosis for this cat?
A. Excellent
B. Good
C. Fair
D. Poor
E. Cannot say without more information.
Answer: D
Oral SCC carries poor prognosis in felids
Which one of the following choices is the most important risk factor for cats in the development of oral squamous cell carcinoma?
A. Dry food diet
B. Frequent consumption of artificially flavored cat treats
C. Lives outside
D. Owners are smokers
E. Regularly bathed with pyrethrin flea shampoos
Answer: D
Cats living with an owner who smokes are 4x more likely of contracting oral SCC compared to those that live with nonsmokers. Particulate carcinogens on the coat –> grooms itself.
SCC is the most common oral cancer.
A client presents a stray outdoor cat for examination of a deformed and bloody left ear.
This stray is part of a group of feral cats that have been fed by the client for the past 18 months.
The cat’s ear has
appeared progressively worse over that time.
The right ear tip is observed to be thickened, alopecic, and scabbed; and the left ear tip is ulcerated and bleeding.
Which one of the following choices would be most likely to result in a definitive diagnosis?
A. Biopsy
B. Dermatophyte culture
C. Impression smear
D. Otic smear
E. Skin scraping
Answer: A
Confirms a diagnosis of SCC (see image on phone)
Cutaneous Squamous Cell Carcinoma
* Occurs most often in white, outdoor cats
- Ear tips and nasal planum are frequently affected due to sun exposure
- Presents initially as scaling and erythema
* Minimize risk:
- Limit exposure to sunlight, and use topical pet sunscreen (pinna, dorsal nasal planum; do not use human sunscreens because salicylates are toxic to cats; zinc oxide creams are also toxic to cats so only use pet safe ones)
* 3 most common tumors overall in cats:
- Hematopoietic tumors,
- Skin and subcutaneous tumors, and
- Mammary gland tumors.
Tumors in Cats
* Most common skin tumor: basal cell
- benign
- excision is curative
* Most common soft tissue tumor: fibrosarcoma
- malignant
- vaccine-associated
- recurs at site of excision
- tx of choice is wide surgical excision but can recurr?
* Feline mammary tumors:
- 90% malignant
A cat that lives with a large dog is presented for hypersalivation, depression, and generalized muscle fasciculations.
The dog was treated yesterday with a spot-on permethrin flea product.
Which one of the following choices is the most appropriate means of controlling the muscle fasciculations in this cat?
A. Acepromazine
B. Atropine
C. Clonazepam
D. Isoflurane
E. Methocarbamol
Answer: E
It can be administered rectally if cat’s neurom status does not permit oral administration
After initiating control of muscle fasciculations, what is the next most appropriate step in the therapy of this cat?
A. Atropine administration
B. Bathing
C. Conjunctival apomorphine administration
D. Oral glucose
E. Oxygen supplementation
Answer: B
Permethrin Toxicity
* Permethrin Toxicity - grooming or contact with dog
* Canine formulations contain high concentrations of permethrins
* Cats can be
- Poisoned if canine formulation is applied directly to the cat
- exposed if they have contact with or lick treated dogs
* Affected animals should be bathed and treated symptomatically.
* Keep patient warm during therapy.
* There is no antidote.
Which one of the following species of fleas most commonly causes flea allergy dermatitis in North American cats and dogs?
A. Cediopsylla simplex
B. Ctenocephalides canis
C. Ctenocephalides felis
D. Echidnophaga gallinacea
E. Pulex simulans
Answer: C
The most common is C - fleas may cause iron deficiency anemia deu to blood loss in kittens and debilkitated adults
This is an intermediate host for Dip. caninum whichb is the common tapeworm in cats and is a zoonotic parasite.
Also a common cause of flea allergy dermatitis whihc is the most common derm afflication in dogs and cats
A 7-year-old, male, castrated, domestic shorthair is presented in lateral recumbency.
On examination, the cat has a temperature of 99° F (37.2°C) and tacky mucous membranes.
On abdominal palpation the bladder is very large and cannot be expressed manually.
Which one of the following choices is the most likely finding ?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hypophosphatemia
C. Post-renal azotemia
D. Pre-renal azotemia
E. Renal azotemia
Answer: C
Which one of the following choices is the most appropriate therapy for a dysuric male cat with calcium oxalate cystolithiasis?
A. Diuresis
B. Medical dissolution of uroliths
C. No treatment, as symptoms will dissipate
D. Oral amoxicillin
E. Surgical removal of cystoliths
Answer: E
Calcium oxalate cystoliths are not amenable to dissolution.
FLUTD occurs more commonly in males due to urethra length/structure
Struvite urethral plug is also a very common cause of FLUTD in cats.
Struvite Plugs of the Urethra
* Completely obstructed cats will develop post-renal azotemia with:
- Vomiting,
- Dehydration,
- Hypothermia, and
- Marked depression.
- Bradycardia secondary to hyperkalemia may develop.
These cats die in three days if obstruction is not relieved. !!!!
* Partial obstructions result in:
- Stranguria,
- Pollakiuria, and
- Hematuria.
- A urinary catheter must be passed to establish patency of the urethra.
- Start fluid therapy with normal saline.
- Expect a post-obstruction diuresis to follow.
- If necessary, perform a careful decompressive cystocentesis.
- The decrease in bladder pressure may also facilitate retropulsion of the stones and subsequent catheter placement.
- Prevent recurrence by:
Struvite calculi in cats are often sterile!!!! - Feeding a calculolytic diet
- Diluting the urine by adding water to food
- Feeding a canned diet.
- Water fountains may increase water consumption.
You are presented with a 5-year-old, male, neutered, domestic shorthair cat that was bitten by a raccoon this morning.
Eight days ago, another vet in your clinic vaccinated this cat with an annual monovalent inactivated booster shot for rabies.
Which one of the following choices lists the correct actions to take?
A. Immediate vaccination; strict quarantine in clinic for 6 months.
B. Confine at clinic; 10 days observation; euthanize if behavior changes.
C. Booster on days 1, 3, 7; confine at home; 60 days observation.
D. Consult with state/provincial vet; manage on case-by-case basis.
E. Immediate booster; keep under owner’s control;
observe 45 days.
Answer: E
- Currently vaccinated dogs/cats/ferrets should be revaccinated, kept under owner’s control, observed for 45 days. Any signs of illness should be reported immediately to local health department.
- Dogs/Cats overdue for booster that have documentation of at least 1 USDA-licensed rabies vaccine should receive vet medical care and booster vaccination. Animal kept under owner’s control and observed 45 days.
- Dogs/Cats overdue for booster that have no documentation of USDA-licensed rabies vaccine should receive vet medical care and consultation with local public health authorities.
- Ferrets overdue should be evaluated on a case by case basis
Which animals in North America are most likely to be reported rabid?
A. Cats and dogs
B. Llamas, alpacas, and mongooses
C. Cows and horses
D. Racoons and bats
E. Ferrets and other mustelids
Answer: D
Any mammal can carry rabies but wild animal such as raccoons, bats, foxes, and skunks carry more than 90%
- Rabies is usually transmitted by saliva. Lissavirus, Rabdoviridae family.
- Animals may shed the virus before clinical signs occur.
- The incubation period can be extremely long.
- Most canine cases develop within 80 days of exposure.
- Virus will be detectable in the brain if the animal is able to transmit the disease. Ascends to brain via spinal chord and peripheral nerves.
- Central nervous system signs, particularly progressive paralysis and acute behavior change, are typical.
If a cat or dog is receiving their first ever rabies vaccine, they are not considered fully vaccinated until 26-28 days post vaccine!
An intact male cat is presented for decrease in appetite. On examination there is a large, fluctuant mass over the left hip.
Thick, creamy, purulent material is aspirated from the mass.
Which one of the following choices is the most appropriate next step in the management of this condition?
A. Biopsy
B. Completely aspirate fluid
C. Excise completely
D. Lance and drain
E. Treat locally with antibiotics
Answer: D
Bite wound abscesses are very common; Intact males at highest risk
P. multocida, a commensal bacteria in oral cavity in cats, is a common isolate. Flush with isotonic solution, oral AB prescribed by some vets. Many do fine with drainage and flushing.
If necrosis, prescribe AB such as Amoxi Clav and penrose drain
Which one of the following choices is the most likely result of infection in an adult cat with Toxoplasma gondii?
A. Cardiac signs caused by myocarditis
B. Fever resulting from myositis
C. Icterus secondary to hepatic necrosis
D. Neurological signs due to meningoencephalitis
E. Subclinical infection
Answer: E
Immunocompetent adults will mount a response
Which one of the following groups is most likely to develop clinical toxoplasmosis?
A. Children between the ages of 5 and 10
B. Kittens between the ages of 6 and 8 weeks
C. People with AIDS
D. Pregnant cats
E. Pregnant women
Answer: C
AIDS patients develop encephalitis due to Toxoplasmosis (25%).
Risk is to infant and not mother and this is only if infected for the first time.
Toxoplasma gondii is an obligate intracellular protozoa parasite. Domestic and wild felids are the only definitive host.
Transmission of T. gondii to cats is:
* Through ingestion of oocysts in cat teces or in dirt
contaminated by cat feces,
* Through consumption of tissue cysts in meat, and
* From the queen via tachyzoites transplacentally, or in the queen’s milk.
Oocysts become infectious outside the cat within 1 - 5 days.
- Diagnosis:
- Paired titers (4-fold increase in IgG)
IGM titers rise first before IGG and then wean. A four fold increase in IgG titers is indicative of active infection. - PCR
- Zoonotic Disease
- Humans infected via:
- Eating meat with tissue cysts in it
- Inadvertent consumption of oocysts (gardening, litter box)
- Contaminated shellfish
- Raw sheep/goat milk
- Treatment for cats and dogs is Clindamycin.
Cats vaccinated using which one of the following protocols are at greatest risk of developing vaccine-associated fibrosarcomas?
A. Aluminum-adjuvanted vaccines
B. Modified live vaccines
C. Needle size greater than 22 gauge
D. Vaccines administered into distal aspect of hind leg
E. Vaccines administered into proximal aspect of hind leg
Answer: A
Which one of the following choices is most likely to result in long-term survival in a cat with vaccine-associated fibrosarcoma on the distal hind leg?
A. Amputation of the leg
B. Doxorubicin chemotherapy
C. Excision of mass followed by radiation therapy
D. Excision of the mass
E. Presurgical radiation therapy followed by excision of mass
Answer: A
Aggressive and difficult to tx.
Wide surgical removal is ideal
Recurrence rate is greater than 90%. 1 in 10,000 cats develop this. Nonadjuvanted vaccines and giving vcaccine most distally on leg are both recommended. ALWAYS keep a record of where vaccines where given
Which one of the following choices is most likely in cats who survive illness caused by feline panleukopenia virus (FPV)?
A. Survivors are more susceptible to infection with
FPV than other cats
B. Survivors are carriers and shed the virus for life
C. Survivors are immune and are unlikely to become ill if re-exposed
D. Survivors have chronic diarrhea
E. Survivors have chronically low white blood cell
(WBC) counts
Answer: C
Parvovirus closely related to canine parvo
CAnine parvo 2 may infect cats
Viruses shed abundantly for up to 6 weeks post recovery from clinical illness. CAn persist for up to one year in environment
Most infections are subclinical.
Clinical cases:
* Usually occur in kittens
* High fever, vomiting, severe dehydration, and depression are common
* Low WBC count
* Kittens infected in utero may be:
* Stillborn, mummified, aborted, or born with cerebellar hypoplasia
Treatment:
* Acute stage - fluid therapy and supportive care
Which bovine infection causes congenital cerebellar hypoplasia in calves?
A. BSE (bovine spongiform encephalopathy)
B. BVD (bovine viral diarrhea)
C. Histophilus somni
D. Listeriosis
E. Sporadic bovine encephalomyelitis (Chlamydial encephalomyelitis)
Answer: B
BVD - congenital cerebral hypoplasia when infects pregnant cow between 100-170 days of pregnancy
An 11-week-old kitten is presented for lameness.
* No history of trauma
* No abnormalities on radiographs.
* Fever of 104 ° F (40°C)
* Lame on the left front leg.
2 days later the kitten presents again.
* Temp = 103° F (39.4°C)
* The kitten is lame in the opposite front leg.
* This kitten has received 2 doses of a combined feline herpesvirus-1 (FHV-1), calicivirus, panleukopenia vaccine, one at 7 weeks and one at 10 weeks.
Which one of the following choices is most likely to cause the signs seen in this kitten?
A. Feline calicivirus
B. Feline chlamydia
C. Feline panleukopenia
D. Feline herpesvirus-1
E. Lyme disease
Answer: A
Calicivirus occasionally causes a self-limiting shifting leg lameness illness. Kittens will heal with supportive care.
Feline Herpesvirus-1 & Feline Calicivirus
* Viruses are spread by direct contact, respiratory droplets, and fomites.
* Viruses cause many symptoms humans associate with the common cold:
- Sneezing
- Sinusitis
- Rhinitis
- Conjunctivitis
- Lacrimation
- Salivation
- Oral ulcers
FHV-1
* Transitory characteristic, acidophilic, intranuclear inclusion bodies
* Most often affects the conjunctiva and nasal passages
Calicivirus
* Most often affects the lower respiratory tract and oral mucosa
* Oral ulceration is characteristic
Both:
* Supportive care is indicated.
* Broad-spectrum antibiotics - secondary bacterial infections.
* Herpetic keratitis (FHV-1) - idoxuridine or acyclovir opthalmic ointment.
* Vaccination helps but is not 100% effective
A 5-year-old domestic shorthair is presented for a sore on the lip.
Which one of the following choices is the most likely cause of the signs in this cat?
A. Contact allergy
B. Electrical burn
C. Eosinophilic granuloma complex
D. Microsporum canis
E. Mycobacterium lepraemurium
Answer: C
Eosinophilic Granuloma Complex
- occurs in dogs, cats, and horses
Generally manifests as one of the following:
1. An ulcer,
- Usually on the lip
2. A plaque,
- Usually on the abdomen or medial thigh
3. A granuloma
- May appear on the head or foot pads, or as a linear granuloma on the caudal thigh and elsewhere.
May be caused by hypersensitivity disorders
- If a cause (dietary or parasitic) is not found, lesions are usually treated with corticosteroids
- Cyclosporine, gold salts, and chlorambucil may also be used in difficult case.
- Usually, one or two injections of
methylprednisolone acetate controls the lesions, though they may recur periodically.
A cat is presented for a circular scaly lesion on the head. The owner has similar lesions on her arm and asks you what she should do about them.
Which one of the following choices is the most appropriate advice to give the owner?
A. Apply clotrimazole ointment to lesions.
B. See a human dermatologist.
C. Sponge lime sulfur dip on lesions.
D. Treat lesions with iodine.
E. Vaccinate the cat for dermatophytosis.
Answer: B
This is ringworm - Microsporum canis is the cause
Which of the following is the most likely causative
agent of dermatophytosis in the cat?
A. Microsporum canis
B. Microsporum gypseum
C. Trichophyton mentagrophytes
D. Trichophyton rubrum
E. Trichophyton schoenleinii
Answer: A
- Zoonotic fungal infection
- Microsporum canis
- 50-80% Wood’s lamp fluorescence
- Culture for identification
- Cat-to-cat transmission
- Topical treatment for localized lesions
- Systemic oral antifungals for chronic/severe: itraconazole, terbinafine
- griseofulvin is no longer tx of choice because causes severe leukopenia??
Which one of the following signs most specifically indicates that a cat is suffering from hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM)?
A. Anemia
B. Cough
C. Hind-limb paralysis
D. Hyperesthesia
E. Vomiting
Answer: C
Virchow’s Triad:
1. alteration in normal blood flow
2. injury to vascular endothelium
3. Hypercoaguabilty
Concentric left ventricular hypertrophy
A 12-week-old kitten is dropped off at your clinic for a routine health check.
While the kitten is waiting in the kennel for the exam, it vomits.
An egg of which one of the following genera is visible in the slide of this slide of the fecal mount?
A. Toxocara
B. Physaloptera
C. Ancylostoma
D. Dipylidium
E. Diphyllobothrium
Answer: A
Which one of the following choices is the most appropriate therapeutic option for this kitten?
A. Fipronil
B. Lufenuron
C. Nitenpyram
D. Piperazine
E. Pyrantel pamoate
Answer: E
Nematodes: Feline Roundworms
* Toxocara cati; can cause zoonotic disease
* Toxocara canis: Visceral larval migrans
* Typically diagnosed by fecal examination
* Toxocara cati is transmitted:
- by ingestion of infective eggs or paratenic host
- transmammary
* Fenbendazole, milbemycin, or pyrantel may be used to treat ascarid infections in cats.
Nematodes: Feline Hookworms
* Ancylostoma tubaeforme and Ancylostoma braziliense (cutaneous larval migrans)
* Anemia or hypoproteinemia may develop in kittens secondary to hookworm infection.
* Treatments include:
- Mebendazole,
- Milbemycin,
- Piperazine,
- Pyrantel, and
- Selamectin.
* Control can be achieved using ivermectin heartworm preventives
Cestodes: Feline Tapeworms
Dipylidium caninum - also affects children!
* Eggs ingested by dog or cat fleas, and the flea is then ingested by the cat.
* The prepatent period is 3 - 4 weeks.
* Cucumber-seed-shaped proglottid on feces or perianal area
Taenia taeniaeformis
* spread via a rodent intermediate host.
* treat with praziquantel or epsiprantel.
The ear canals are full of debris, and on an otic smear you see the following.
What is it?
A. Cheyletiella blakei
B. Demodex cati
C. Demodex gatoi
D. Notoedres cati
E. Otodectes cynotis
Answer: E
Otitis externa
LArge, white, not host specific
Also commonyl found in canine
Infestation in humans is rare
Dx: Micropsco ic otic exudate
Tx
Bonus Q:
You are called to a turkey farm to investigate a mysterious illness. You note several dead, mostly younger birds. Sick turkeys are listless with drooping wings, unkempt feathers, and yellow droppings.
Among the sick, older birds you see emaciation.
On necropsy, you note a yellowish-green, caseous exudate in the ceca, cecal ulcerations, and thickening of the cecal wall. A typical liver has “bull’s-eye” target lesions (dark ovals with pale centers and a light border).
What is your diagnosis?
A. Coronaviral enteritis of turkeys
B. Necrotic enteritis
C. Hemorrhagic enteritis of turkeys
D. Histomoniasis
E. Avian spirochetosis
Answer: D
This is Histomoniasis of turkeys, also called “Blackhead.” The combination of characteristic “bulls-eye” lesions on the liver and cecal changes is pathognomonic.
Necrotic enteritis
See sudden death with necrotic enteritis caused by Clostridium perfringens.
Avian spirochetosis
Signs of Avian spirochetosis are highly variable and may be absent: see listlessness, shivering, increased thirst, green/yellow diarrhea with increased urates early on. It is caused by a tick-borne Borrelia. Look for a characteristic enlarged, mottled spleen with petechial hemorrhages, similar to Marble spleen disease of pheasants.
For more information see:
(VIN Community) Avian Spirochetosis - MSD (Merck) Veterinary Manual.
Hemorrhagic enteritis of turkeys
Look for depression, bloody droppings, and substantial mortality with hemorrhagic enteritis of turkeys.
Follow this link to see hemorrhagic intestines and the characteristic enlarged spleen:
(VIN Community) Hemorrhagic Enteritis / Marble Spleen Disease in Poultry - MSD (Merck) Veterinary Manual
Coronaviral enteritis of turkeys
Expect a diarrheal presentation with coronaviral enteritis of turkeys but WITHOUT the characteristic cecal/liver lesions described on necropsy of histomoniasis.
