Vol 1.20 Preflight Planning Flashcards

1
Q

When are you expected to report for duty?

A

20.10 pg. 1

-60 minutes prior to departure in domicile
-45 minutes prior to departure out of domicile at a domestic airport
-60 minutes prior to departure out of domicile at a foreign airport or to/from Alaska
-As required but generally >60 minutes prior to departure for supplemental operations

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2
Q

Where can a list of required documents for dispatch be found?

A

FOM Vol 1, 20.10 pg .2

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3
Q

What are the pilots flashlight requirements?

A

20.10 pg. 2 - Must be carried by the pilot and it must be able to “illuminate the wingtips from the cabin”

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4
Q

What should be done in order to renew your passport?

A

20.10 pg. 3 - Contact the chief pilots office to receive a letter for expediting the renewal process. In the mean time you cannot accept an assignment on an international flight.

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5
Q

Will dispatch provide flight paperwork for flights operated under 14 CFR 91?

A

20.20 pg. 1 - Yes

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6
Q

Who controls flights operated under Flag and Domestic rules? Under part 14 CFR 91 and supplemental rules?

A

20.20 pg. 1

Domestic/Flag operations: Jointly controlled by the PIC and dispatcher
14 CFR 91 and Supplemental operations: PIC has sole and final authority

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7
Q

Who’s responsible for pre-flight planning of each flight?

A

20.20 pg. 2 - It’s a joint responsibility between the PIC and the dispatcher

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8
Q

Who has the authority to delay a flight?

A

20.20 pg. 2 - The captain and the dispatcher

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9
Q

Can dispatch or MCC encourage a flight to continue with an unsafe condition or a known malfunction threatening the safety of the flight in the interest of flight scheduling, completion, passenger service, or maintenance convenience?

A

20.20 pg. 2 - No

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10
Q

What are the dispatchers responsibilities?

A

20.20 pg. 2

-Filing all flight plans
-Monitoring the progress of each flight they dispatch
-They are authorized to redirect any flight for operational requirements

Note: Only Systems operations control (SOC) has the authority to cancel a flight

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11
Q

What are the captains responsibilities?

A

20.20 pg. 2

-Determining whether the aircraft is in a condition for safe flight, and discontinuing the flight when an unairworthy condition occurs
-Following the dispatch release and filed flight plan to the extent possible
-Authorized to deviate from the flight plan as necessary due to weather, winds, safety, or passenger comfort
-If a deviation of greater than 100nm is required, the captain will communicate with dispatch to ensure sufficient fuel is onboard to fly the revised route

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12
Q

Why should you be very careful about accepting/requesting reroutes along the east coast?

A

20.20 pg. 2 - Aircraft without a Long Range Communication System (LRCS, i.e. HF radios) cannot enter New York Oceanic FIR (KZWY). All reroutes must be sure to avoid flying in that airspace.

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13
Q

When is an alternate airport required when operating under Domestic rules?

A

20.20 pg. 3 - At least one alternate per destination is always required, unless from at least 1 hour prior to 1 hour after the ETA at the destination airport, the forecasts and/or reports indicate a ceiling of at least 2000’AFE and at least 3sm visibility.

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14
Q

In generic terms, what does exemption 20295 do?

A

20.20 pg. 3 - Exemption 20295 allows an aircraft to dispatch without an alternate with weather less than the 1,2,3 rule depending on various conditions including the destination weather, available approaches, aircraft capability, etc.

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15
Q

What must be included in the release if dispatched under exemption 20295?

A

20.20 pg. 3 - It must state in the remarks “Flight operated under exemption 20295”

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16
Q

What kind of approach is required to use exemption 20295?

A

20.20 pg. 3 - A CAT I, II, or III ILS approach

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17
Q

What are the weather requirements to be dispatched under exemption 20295, if the destination has a CAT I ILS?

A

20.20 pg. 3 - from an hour before to an hour after the ETA at the destination the weather is forecast and/or reported to be at least 1000’AGL ceilings and 3sm visibility

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18
Q

What are the weather requirements to dispatch under exemption 20295 if the destination has an operable CAT II or III ILS approach?

A

20.20 pg. 3 - From an hour before to an hour after the ETA, the forecast is at least 1000’AGL ceilings and 2sm visibility

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19
Q

Can exemption 20295 be sued with any approach type other than an ILS?

A

20.20 pg. 3 - No

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20
Q

Can exemption 20295 be used with thunderstorms in the forecast from an hour before to an hour after the ETA?

A

20.20 pg. 3 - No

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21
Q

Can you be dispatched under both exemption 20295 and 20144 simultaneously?

A

20.20 pg. 4 - No

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22
Q

Where can information be found about required reports and other considerations during exemption 20295 operations?

A

20.20 pg 3-5

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23
Q

When is weather considered to be marginal?

A

20.20 pg. 5 - When the weather at the alternate is within 100’ or 1/2sm of the required alternate minimums for the airport.

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24
Q

When is weather considered to be marginal?

A

20.20 pg. 5 - When the weather at the alternate is within 100’ or 1/2sm of the required alternate minimums for the airport.

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25
Q

Describe the process for determining if you need one or more alternate airports, and if those alternates are legal.

A

Vol 1 20.20

1.) Use the 1,2,3 rule to determine if an alternate is required
1a.) Exemption 20295 may allow you to leave without an alternate even if the 1,2,3 rule isn’t complied
with under certain circumstances
2.) If an alternate is required, use the 1 or 2 navaid rule depending on how many operable navaid facilities
Provide straight-in approaches to different runways to determine what weather is required to be forecast
At the ETA at the alternate
2a.) The 1 navaid rule states that if an airport has only a single navaid with a straight in approach, in
order to determine if the airport can be used as an alternate you must add 400’ to the MDA/DA
and 1sm to the lowest applicable minimums. These are the required weather mins at the ETA at the
alternate
2b.) The 2 Navaid rule

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26
Q

What rule do you need to use to determine if an alternate airport is required? Are there an applicable exemptions?

A

20.20 pg. 3 -

You need to use the 1,2,3 rule. You always need an alternate unless from an hour before to an hour after your ETA at the destination the reported and/or forecast weather is greater than or equal to 3sm visibility and 2000’ ceilings.

You may be able to leave with weather forecasts worse than this using exemption 20295. This exemption allows you to dispatch without an alternate if the weather meets certain criteria depending on what type of precision approach is available at the destination.

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27
Q

What is exemption 20295?

A

20.20 pg. 3

It’s an exemption that allows you to dispatch without an alternate with weather worse than the 1,2,3 rule based on which category of precision approach is available at the airport. The weather minimums decrease to the following values

CAT I - 1000’AGL ceiling and 3sm
CAT II - 1000’AGL ceiling and 2sm
CAT III - 1000’AGL ceiling and 2sm

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28
Q

Can you dispatch under exemption 20295 with ACARS inoperative?

A

20.20 pg. 4 - No

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29
Q

What are some operational considerations when dispatching under exemption 20295?

A

20.20 pg. 4

-Anything that will negatively affect fuel burn, e.g., holding, delay vectors, airspeed/altitude changes, reroutes, or excessive de-icing use.
-A 1sm or greater decrease in visibility from what was required for dispatch under the exemption. In these circumstances an alternate plan may be required

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30
Q

What are some required reports when dispatched under 20295?

A

20.20 pg. 4

-Lateral deviation greater than 100nm
-Vertical deviation greater then 4000’
-ETA exceeded by 15 minutes or more
-Fuel consumption greater than planned or any failure than negatively affects fuel burn
-Weather significantly different than forecast
-Holding
-Sustained use of de-icing systems

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31
Q

When would a second alternate airport be required?

A

20.20 pg. 5

Under two circumstances:

1.) When the weather at both the destination and the alternate are “marginal”, then a second alternate is required.
Note: Marginal means the weather is within 100’ ceilings or 1/2sm visibility of the minimums for the
airport. CAT I mins apply for the destination, and the derived alternate minimums apply for the
alternate.
2.) When dispatched under exemption 20144, meaning that the forecast weather at the destination and/or the first alternate has a conditional statement (e.g. BECMG, PROB, etc) stating the weather may be below minimums at the time off arrival

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32
Q

How much fuel is required whenever you require more than one alternate?

A

20.20 pg. 4-6

Enough to fly to the destination, then fly to the most distant alternate, taking into account ATC routing, then fly for an additional 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption.

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33
Q

When is an alternate required for flag operations?

A

20.20 pg. 5

An alternate is always required unless:
1.) The flight is scheduled for not more than 6 hours,
2.) The weather from an hour before to an hour after the ETA is forecast or reported to be at least,
2a.) 1500’ above the lowest circling MDA if circling is required and authorized for that airport, or
2b.) 1500’ above the lowest published instrument approach minimums or 2000’AFE, whichever is greater
2C.) Visibility is forecast to be atleast 3sm, or 2sm greater than the lowest applicable approach
Visibility, whichever is greater.

Note: An alternate is always required for FLAG operations flights longer than 6 hours. Also it’s possible to not require an alternate if flying over a route approved without an available alternate for a particular destination airport”

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34
Q

Can flights dispatch when there’s a forecast of severe icing?

A

Vol I, 20.20 pg 6 and. Vol I 20.40 pg. 4

You can depart with a FORECAST of severe icing within on hour of the ETA as long as there’s a suitable alternate airport listed on the release. An aircraft cannot, however, be dispatched or operated in KNOWN severe icing conditions. The key here is FORECAST vs KNOWN. Vol I says that known icing is reported via another company plane or a pirep from another large transport category aircraft. FORECAST icing is icing on an area forecast, airmet, or sigmet.

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35
Q

When is a takeoff alternate required?

A

20.20 pg. 6 - Whenever the weather at the departure airport is below category I minimums a takeoff alternate is required. This airport must be within 1 hour of flight time, single engine, normal cruise speed, in still air, and no more than 330nm away.

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36
Q

What is required if the aircraft is dispatched to an airport with only RNAV approaches?

A

20.20 pg. 6 - In this circumstance a destination alternate with a suitable non-RNAV approach must be listed on the release

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37
Q

When do flights operated under supplemental rules require an alternate?

A

20.20 pg. 6 - Supplemental rules flights ALWAYS require an alternate

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38
Q

If dispatched method 2, what weather minimums are required for your drift down alternates?

A

20.20 pg. 6 - The same weather minimums are required by any other alternate airport, e.g. the 1/2 navaid rule. The exception to this rule is if the drift down alternate is also the destination. Then only the normal destination weather minimums apply.

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39
Q

What’s exemption 20144?

A

20.20 pg. 6

It’s an exemption that allows you to dispatch when the destination and/or the first alternate have weather forecasts with conditional statements less than the minimums for those airports. When this exemption is used, a second alternate is required.

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40
Q

What are the weather requirements for exemption 20144?

A

20.20 pg. 6

The conditional statements on the weather reports/forecasts, or any combination thereof, must indicate that the worst case weather conditions are forecast to be:
-For the destination airport, at least one-half the minimum visibility required for the instrument
approach to be used
-For the first alternate, at least one-half of the required alternate minimum visbility for that airport
-For the second alternate, at or above alternate minimums for that airport

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41
Q

Per one of our captains, how do you know if you’re dispatched under supplemental or flag rules?

A

It should be written in plain English on in the remarks section of the release

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42
Q

When does the one navaid rule apply?

A

20.20 pg. 7

For airports with atleast one operational navigational facility (ILS, VOR, LDA, etc. Not RNAV) providing:

1.) A straight-in non-precision approach procedure, or
2.) A category I precision approach, or
3.) A circling maneuver from an IAP

If the airport has at least two operational navigational facilities each providing straight-in approach procedures to different runways, then the 2 navaid rule would apply instead

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43
Q

When does the two navaid rule apply?

A

20.20 pg. 7

For airports with at least two operational navigational facilities, each providing a straight-in approach procedure to different suitable runways. Two navigational facilities using the same frequency but with two different identifiers is sufficient. For example KDEN ILS 35L/17R

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44
Q

How do you determine the alternate minimums for an airport using the 1 navaid rule?

A

20.20 pg. 7

Add 400’ to the MDA(H) or DA(H) and add 1sm or 1600m to the visibility to the landing minimum

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45
Q

How do you determine an airports alternate minimums using the two navaid rule?

A

20.20 pg. 7

Add 200’ and 1/2sm (or 800m) to the DA(H) / MDA(H) and required visibility respectively, of the higher of the two approaches used

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46
Q

How do you determine which derived alternate minimums to use if both the one navaid and two navaid rules apply?

A

This one isn’t clear in the manual, but you can apply both rules, and use the LOWER minimums of the two rules. In other words, you can use the derived alternate minimums from using whichever rules gives you lower minimums.

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47
Q

What’s paperwork is required before a revenue flight may block out?

A

20.30 pg. 1

-Dispatch or flight release
-Flight plan
-Latest available weather (METAR and TAF) at the time the captain signs the release
-Notams
-Performance information (via AWP or the Takeoff and Landing Report (TLR))
-Weight and balance manifest (via AWP or as provided by load planning)

This required paperwork may be obtained by any available means (printed, written, electronic, etc)

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48
Q

What should be done if the flight paperwork isn’t available via Electronic Dispatch Release (EDR)?

A

20.30 pg. 1

The paperwork should be printed by the Customer Service Agent and delivered to the flight crew.

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49
Q

What should be done for the purposes of accepting the release and signing the fit for duty statement if EDR isn’t available?

A

20.30 pg. 1

The printed paperwork should be physically signed by the pilots and the fit for duty paperwork should be handed to the loadmaster

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50
Q

How long does the release and weight and balance manifest need to be kept by dispatch?

A

20.30 pg. 2 - 3 months. If using EDR and AWP this data is automatically archived. If using a paper process the signed paperwork is usually kept by the departure city for the same three months, or mailed to dispatch. The paperwork normally needs to be mailed from the departure city in the case of an offline airport.

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51
Q

What items are contained in a dispatch/flight release?

A

20.32 pg. 1

1.) Company name
2.) Flight number and date
3.) Type of operation (IFR vs VFR)
4.) The departure, intermediate, destination, and alternate airports
5.) Flight plan
6.) Minimum fuel supply at takeoff
7.) The make, model, and aircraft registration number

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52
Q

What should be done if the names of the flight crew members are incorrect on the release?

A

20.32 pg. 1

Nothing needs to be done for domestic and flag operations. For SUPPLEMENTAL operations however, the names of all crew members must be listed correctly. So if they aren’t listed correctly for supplemental operations an ARTR would be required with the correct names.

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53
Q

Is a new release required when a flight released under IFR proceeds under VFR?

A

20.32 pg. 1 - No

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54
Q

What should be done if while enroute the weather for an alternate goes below the requirements?

A

20.32 pg. 3 - The dispatcher will designate a new alternate that meets the required weather minimums and fuel requirements. This will be done via radio or ACARS. The captain must be in agreement that the weather for that alternate meets or exceeds the alternate fuel and weather requirements.

55
Q

What do RS, TS, TO, TT, and TC mean after PMTOW on the release?

A

20.32 pg. 4

RS - Max ramp weight
TS - Structural max takeoff weight
TO - Takeoff obstacle limited
TT - Takeoff tire speed limited
TC - Takeoff climb limited

56
Q

What do TV, TB, TD, TF, and TP mean after PMTOW on the release?

A

20.32 pg. 4

TV - Takeoff Vmcg (minimum controllable speed on the ground)
TB - Takeoff brake energy limited
TD - Takeoff dry runway check
TF - Takeoff field length limited
TP - Takeoff policy (specific user weight)

57
Q

What do TA, TW, EE, EZ, and EL mean after PMTOW on a release?

A

20.32 pg. 4

TA - Takeoff limited due to METW to the T/O alternate
TW - takeoff limited due to maximum takeoff weight
EE - Enroute limited due to METW
EZ - Takeoff limited due to max zero fuel weight
EL - Takeoff limited due to max land weight and burn off

58
Q

What do EM, LS, AC, and L1 mean after PMTOW on a release?

A

20.32 pg. 4

EM - Takeoff limited due to max fuel tank capacity
LS - Landing limited due to maximum structural landing weight
AC - Approach climb
L1 - Takeoff limited due to METW from destination to alternate 1

59
Q

What do A, B, C, D, F, O, S, T, and V mean after PMRTW on the release?

A

20.32 pg. 4

A - Maximum AFM chart weight
B - Brake energy
C - Climb
D- Dry check
F - Field
O - Obstacle
S - Maximum structural weight
T - Tire speed
V - Vmcg

60
Q

What are the fill ins for PMRTW—-.-/F—/— ——/—.—/—/—:?

A

20.32 pg. 4

—-.-/F—/— ——/—.—/—/—: = Weight/flap setting/limiting factor Planned winds/planned altimeter/planned temperature/planned runway

61
Q

What is the point of Maximum Enroute Takeoff weight?

A

20.32 pg. 4

It’s a weight to comply with either method 1 or method 2 restrictions, should an engine be lost enroute. In other words, as long as the actual takeoff weight is less than METW you should be able to meet the requirements of method 1 or 2 as applicable

62
Q

What is “net altitude”?

A

20.32 pg. 5

The highest altitude at which the aircraft can maintain a 1.1% climb gradient. The aircrafts absolute service ceiling is about 5000’ higher than this.

63
Q

What altitude does method 1 and method 2 base their performance on?

A

20.32 pg. 5 - Net altitude (1.1% climb gradient)

64
Q

What does method 1’s performance analysis require?

A

20.32 pg. 5

It requires that the aircraft takes off at a weight that ensures that if an engine failure occurs anywhere from V1 to the destination:
-The aircrafts net altitude capability (1.1% climb gradient) will clear all obstructions by 1000’ up to 5sm on either side of the course
-The aircraft must have a positive net gradient at 1500’ above the destination airport

Note: because net altitude is approximately 5000’ lower than absolute ceiling, this means that the aircraft is likely capable of clearing all obstacles by roughly 6000’ enroute and 6500’ at the destination using this method.

65
Q

What does method 2’s performance analysis require?

A

20.32 pg. 5

It requires that the aircraft takes off at a weight that ensures that if an engine failure occurs, the aircraft will be able to divert to at least one suitable airport (driftdown alternate) from planned cruise altitude, and by the aircrafts net altitude, clear all obstacles on 5sm on either side of the route by 2000’ until reaching a diversion airport. It also requires a positive net gradient at 1500’ above the planned diversion altitude and/or destination airport.

66
Q

How far from your route can a drift down alternate be?

A

20.32 pg. 6 - No more than 130nm

67
Q

How does method 2 assume you’ll divert to a drift down alternate?

A

20.32 pg. 6 - by staying on the planned route until reaching the point at which you’re abeam the drift down alternate, and then going direct. If you are already past the abeam point, you should reverse course and proceed back along the planned route until reaching the abeam point, then go direct.

68
Q

What does method 2 planning assume if you reach a drift down alternate before your drift down procedure is complete?

A

20.32 pg. 6 - That you complete the drift down procedure over the airport in order to reduce aircraft weight by fuel burn off.

69
Q

At which point along a flight does method 2 become applicable? What should you do if you lose an engine before this point if dispatched via method 2?

A

20.32 pg. 6

It only becomes applicable once reaching the planned CRUISE altitude. Prior to planned cruise altitude you still have the protections of method 1, and are expected to reverse course and head back to the departure airport, or to a takeoff alternate if applicable. If a takeoff alternate is applicable, the flight from the departure airport to the takeoff alternate is always planned method 1 even if the flight overall is method 2.

70
Q

What should you do, and what does method 2 analysis assume, when taking off with a takeoff alternate, and losing an engine before the planned cruise altitude?

A

20.32 pg. 6

It assumes that you reverse course back to the departure airport, and from there go direct to the takeoff alternate. This ensures you meet the method 1 requirements for the direct route between your departure airport and takeoff alternate.

71
Q

When dispatched via method 2, does the destination need to meet the alternate requirements for a drift down alternate?

A

20.32 pg. 8 -No

72
Q

Are you required to go to the drift down alternate if you experience an engine failure when dispatched method 2?

A

20.32 pg. 8 - No. remember method 2 is a dispatching requirement. The PIC is required to land at the nearest suitable airport, in point of time, at which a safe landing can be made. This may not be the airport in the dispatch release, nor is it required to be.

73
Q

When dispatched via method 2, with a destination alternate due to weather, how is the enroute performance analysis done between the destination and the destination alternate?

A

20.32 pg. 8 - via method 1

74
Q

How long before and after your planned release time may you block out with needing an ARTR or permission from dispatch?

A

20.32 pg. 9

If you want to depart more than 10 minutes prior to the scheduled release time you need to coordinate with dispatch. If the aircraft will block out more than 1 hour after the scheduled release time you need an ARTR with a new release time.

75
Q

Where can envelopes and postage to send the signed paper dispatch release to dispatch be found?

A

20.32 pg. 10 - In the diversion kit

76
Q

When should a manual dispatch release form be used? Where can they be found?

A

20.32 pg. 11 - It should be used when there is no means to obtain a dispatch release using one of the normal methods, e.g. via MCWeb, Aviobooks, or a company agent. They can be found in the diversion kit.

77
Q

Where can you find what information needs to be filled in on a manual release form?

A

20.32 pg. 11-12

78
Q

How are our routes generally determined?

A

20.33 pg. 1 - They are generally canned routes based on the departure and destination airport.

79
Q

What is included in the “enroute burn” portion of the fuel planing?

A

20.33 pg. 1 - everything from takeoff to landing, including one instrument approach.

80
Q

What is the contingency fuel TIME based on?

A

20.33 pg. 1 - The time is based off of holding at 15,000’MSL at green dot speed

81
Q

When international flights are operated under opspec B043, how much fuel is required when the aircrafts position cannot be reliably fixed?

A

20.33 pg. 1 - an additional amount of fuel equal to 10% of the flight time during which the aircrafts position cannot be reliably fixed. That means that if the position cannot be reliably fixed during 2 hours of the flight, they’d need an additional 12 minutes of fuel. This fuel is always added to the CONTINGENCY fuel!

82
Q

What’s included in the ALTN fuel?

A

20.33 pg. 2

1.) Climb to cruise flight
2.) Cruise flight to the most distant alternate’s initial approach fix
3.) one approach and landing at the most distant alternate

Note: this is all planned at a cost index of 0

83
Q

What is included in the reserve fuel?

A

20.33 pg. 2 - 45 minutes of fuel based on the last cruise altitude in the flight plan

84
Q

What is included in the brake release fuel?

A

20.33 pg. 2 - The total of the BURN, CONTINGENCY, ALTN, and RESERVE fuel

85
Q

What is “extra” fuel generally used for?

A

20.33 pg. 2 - Entended taxi times

86
Q

What does the taxi fuel include?

A

20.33 pg. 2 - the fuel required for a NORMAL taxi. If an extended taxi is expected fuel is generally added to the ‘extra’ section of the fuel plan.

87
Q

What is included in the ramp fuel?

A

20.33 pg. 2 - the total of BRAKE RELEASE, TANKER, EXTRA, and TAXI fuel

88
Q

Why is the taxi in time included on the fuel planning section, if no fuel burn is listed?

A

20.33 pg. 2 - for the purpose of determining flight time limits

89
Q

What is included in the taxi weight (TXWT)?

A

20.33 pg. 2 - the sum of the ZFW, FOB, and taxi fuel, minus 100lbs as required for the engine start. It is the planned weight as the aircraft begins to taxi for the takeoff runway

90
Q

What is the standard operating weight (SOW)?

A

20.33 pg. 2 - Established for each aircraft and includes the weight of the empty aircraft without fuel but including engine oil and other essential fluids.

91
Q

What’s included in the following weights: PYLD, ZFW, FOB, TOW, LGW?

A

20.33 pg. 4

PYLD - the planned payload including passengers, bags, and cargo
ZFW - The zero fuel weight is derived from adding the planned payload to the SOW
FOB - The planned fuel on board at the beginning of the takeoff roll
TOW - takeoff weight is the taxi weight minus the taxi fuel
LGW - The landing weight is the planned takeoff weight (TOW) less the planned fuel burn

92
Q

Can flights be dispatched or flights be operated at an airport with volcanic ash present on the runways, taxiways, or ramp surfaces? What if it’s only in the air?

A

20.34 pg. 2 - It’s complicated. Flights cannot be operated or dispatched to an airport with ash on the runways, taxiways, or ramp area. But it can potentially be dispatched to/from an airport with volcanic ash in the air if the “Volcanic Ash Risk Assessment” says that the ash is not a hazard to operations within 2 hours of departure/arrival time. The limitation is that it has to be operated during the DAY only.

93
Q

What are the limitations for operating an aircraft when volcanic ash is in the METAR?

A

20.34 pg. 2 -

  • DAY only.
    -Must have remark “VA FORECAST EVALUATED - OK TO OPERATE - CONTACT DISPATCHER PRIOR TO DEPARTURE FOR BRIEFING
    -A destination alternate is required
    -The destination alternate is forecast to be clear of ash for at least an hour after the ETA at the alternate
94
Q

Can flight be dispatched with enroute volcanic ash?

A

20.43 pg. 3 - Yes. The dispatcher must plan the flight to avoid impacted areas, preferably by flying upwind of the ash. A captain/dispatcher briefing is required to evaluate the potential impact of volcanic ash on the flight and arrive at a consensus that the flight is OK to operate.

95
Q

What does RCAM stand for?

A

20.34 pg. 3 - Runway Condition Assessment Matrix

96
Q

What is the Runway Condition Assessment Matrix (RCAM) used for?

A

20.34 pg. 3 - The matrix is used to determine and report a runway condition code, or RwyCC. This code runs from 6 to 0. 6 being the best condition and 0 being the worst.

97
Q

How are runways condition codes reported?

A

20.34 pg. 3 - They are reported in a FICON NOTAM

98
Q

What is the relationship between RCAM, RCC, and FICON? Which do we really care about?

A

20.34 pg. 3

RCAM or the “Runway Condition Assessment Matrix” is a matrix that helps determine the “runway condition code” or RCC for assessing braking performance. These runway condition codes are reported in a FICON NOTAM. Sadly these acronyms are often used interchangeably but we really technically care about the runway condition.

99
Q

What do worsening RCC’s do to the maximum crosswind limitation?

A

20.34 pg. 4 - It decreases it. To know the actual limitation based on the RCC you need to look in vol 2 a the maximum crosswind for that RCC.

100
Q

How do simple-special engine failure procedures differ from standard engine failure procedures?

A

20.36 pg. 5 - They differ in that simple-special procedures require a turn to a navaid or heading before reaching 1000’AFE. Flap retraction altitude remains at 1000’AFE unless otherwise mentioned.

101
Q

To what altitude are simple-special engine failure procedures required?

A

20.36 pg. 5 - They are mandatory in VMC up to 1000’AFE. In IMC they are required until reaching 3000’AFE (The manual says 3000’ if no radar vectors are available. But makes no mention of what altitude they are required up to in IMC if vectors are available.)

102
Q

Where can simple-special engine out procedures be found?

A

20.36 pg. 5 - In the “SPECIAL ENG FAIL TAKEOFF PROCEDURES” section of the TLR

103
Q

Up to what altitude are COMPLEX-special engine failure procedures required?

A

20.36 pg. 7 - They are required in VMC and IMC to be completed in their entirety. The procedure should state at what altitude you can accept vectors.

104
Q

Where can you find information about how to manually use the TLR section for takeoff and landing performance?

A

Vol 1, 20.36

105
Q

What are the age ranges adults, children, and infants, for weight and balance purposes?

A

20.37 pg. 1

Infants: Under 2 years old
Children: 2-12 years old
Adults: 13 years old and up

106
Q

What should the loadmaster do if they run out of the regular carbon copy weight and balance forms?

A

20.37 pg. 1

They should print out 2 copies of the weight and balance form off the company intranet, fill them out identically, and give one to the flight crew.

107
Q

What should be done if a discrepancy in the weight and balance info is found after the aircraft is airborne?

A

20.37 pg. 7

The dispatcher should be contacted with the error and updated W&B info. The ZFW may need to be updated for accurate performance info.

108
Q

What should be done if ACARS AWP is not available for calculating weight and balance as well as takeoff performance info?

A

20.37 pg. 10 - Use the AeroData cFDP application on your EFB to calculate the weight and balance info. Use the TLR page for takeoff performance info.

109
Q

Does the Standard Operating Weight (SOW) on the weight and balance manifest include crew? Catering carts?

A

20.37 pg. 12 - Yes to both

110
Q

How much fuel can the captain add over the planned fuel before requiring an ARTR?

A

20.38 pg. 1 - 1,000lbs

111
Q

If the captain decides to increases the fuel above the planned fuel, what report should be sent via ACARS?

A

20.38 pg. 1 - The fuel bump report

112
Q

What should be done if you don’t receive a fuel slip?

A

20.38 pg. 2 - If no fuel slip is received, compare the FOB to the Ramp fuel on the release. As long as they are within 500lbs of each other you’re good to go.

113
Q

What should be done at international airports where the fuel slip is reported in liters?

A

20.38 pg. 2 - Submit the fuel report in liters. No need to convert to gallons.

114
Q

What check should be done after receiving the fuel slip to determine if the amount of fuel on the slip is “reasonable”?

A

20.38 pg. 2 - The fuel reliability check. The fuel added on the fuel slip must match the current FOB minus the FOB at the aircrafts last block in within +/- 300 gallons. If it’s within 300 gallons you’re good to. If not the crew must determine why the discrepancy exists.

115
Q

What requirements must be met in order to fuel the plane with passengers on board?

A

20.38 pg. 3

-2 emergency escape paths remain clear of obstacles (normally the main cabin door and one overwing exit)
-Electrical equipment should not be connected or disconnected while fueling is occurring (GPU, etc.)
-Avoid power transfers (APU to GPU or vice versa)
-No smoking in the vicinity of the aircraft
-No lighting in the area

116
Q

What should the FA’s assume regarding fueling while at the gate?

A

20.38 pg. 4 - They should always assume that fuel is taking place. They do this by having an FA stationed at the back galley ensuring that two doors are always clear of obstacles and available (armed if necessary) for an emergency evacuation.

117
Q

When may ARFF services be requested during a fuel leak? When should passengers be removed from the aircraft as a precautionary measure?

A

20.38 pg. 4 - When the spill is greater than 4 gallons. It’s not required but thats when you may begin to consider calling them out. There’s no official guidance on when to deplane as a precautionary measure, it’s left up to the discretion of the crew members.

118
Q

How much should the potable water level be filled to prior to departure?

A

20.38 pg. 4

Domestic locations: up to 50%
Domestic departures to international stations: 100%
International airports to domestic airports: Only upload if required. Contact with dispatcher must be made

119
Q

What are the takeoff weather minimums if dispatched under part 91?

A

20.40 pg. 1 - There are NO takeoff weather minimums if departing under part 91

120
Q

What are the standard IFR takeoff minimums?

A

20.40 pg. 1 - 1sm or 5000RVR

121
Q

Can we depart with visibility less than 1sm? If so, when?

A

20.40 pg. 2 - We can depart with visibility less than 1sm. Possibly down to 500 RVR if the runway allows. To depart, the runway minimums in the LIDO AOI page must be obtained. You must also use table 20.40.1 to determine the minimums. The higher of the two numbers is the lowest visibility you can depart with.

122
Q

What’s the lowest visibility that can be departed without a reported RVR value?

A

20.40 pg. 2 - You can depart without RVR values down to an RVV or Runway Visual Value of 1/4sm. To do this certain criteria must be met regarding runway lighting and markings. See 20.40 pg. 2 for the requirements.

123
Q

To depart with RVR values below 1600, how many RVR stations are required? Which are controlling?

A

2040 pg. 2 - A minimum of 2 RVR stations are required to be operational. If a “far-end” RVR station is available, it does NOT count as one of the two required reports. All reporting RVR’s are controlling. Meaning you must use the lowest of all available RVR reports for that runway to determine what runway lighting is required for departure.

124
Q

Is “surface movement guidance and control system (SMGCS)” a requirement for CAT II/III operations?

A

20.40 pg. 3 - No

125
Q

At what visibility do SMGCS operations become used?

A

20.40 pg. 3 - At and below 1200 RVR

126
Q

What can be done in very low visibility situations when the crew loses visual reference or feels that they may not visually acquire a gate while taxiing?

A

20.40 pg. 3 - A “follow-me” may be requested.

127
Q

What must be done in order to begin any instrument approach when the visibility is reported to be less than 3/4sm or RVR 4000?

A

20.40 pg. 3 - You must 15% additional runway length over the calculated landing field length. Additionally the runway must have either precision instrument runway markings or runway centerline lights.

128
Q

Where can a table including all authorized approach types be found?

A

FOM Vol 1, 20.50 pg. 1

129
Q

Is Frontier authorized to conduct NDB approaches?

A

20.50 pg. 1 - No

130
Q

What is the controlling RVR for landing on a particular runway?

A

20.50 pg. 2 - The touchdown zone RVR is always controlling. All other RVR values are advisory. If it’s unavailable then the mid RVR value may be substituted.

131
Q

What;’s the lowest visibility we can land in without an RVR report?

A

20.50 pg. 2 - 1/2sm

132
Q

What is the lowest ceiling and visibility that Frontier is authorized to perform circle-to-land operations in?

A

20.50 pg. 3 - The greater of either 1000’ ceilings and 3sm visbility or the published circling minimums.

133
Q

Can you continue an approach before the FAF, if the weather deteriorates below the approach minimums? After the FAF?

A

20.50 pg. 3 - If the weather deteriorates below minimums before the FAF, the approach must go missed at the FAF. If the weather deteriorates below minimums after passing the FAF, the approach may continue down to minimums, and land only if the required visual reference to the runway can be met.

134
Q

What’s the most important portion of a PRM breakout command from ATC? Can PRM breakout procedures be flown by the autopilot?

A

20.50 pg. 4 - The turn portion is more important than the climb/descend portion. This must be hand flown in order to be done expeditiously.