Frontier Airlines Study Guide, VOL 3 Flashcards
1
Q
What does the ON BAT light indicate?
A
That at least one of the ADIRU’s is powered by the aircrafts battery. Also illuminates briefly during the beginning of a full alignment.
2
Q
How long will each ADIRU stay on battery power?
A
ADIRU 2 and 3 will only remain on battery power for 5 minutes to hold alignment until a generator can be restored. ADIRU will remain on battery power until generator power is restored or battery #2 fails.
3
Q
What information is provided by the “IR” units?
A
Flight path vector
Attitude
Track
Heading
Acceleration
Airplane position
Ground speed
4
Q
What information is provided by the ADR units (BOATS)?
A
Barometric altitude
Overspeed warnings
AOA
Temperatures
Speed/Mach
5
Q
What does a steady align light mean (older panel with a keypad)?
A
The respective IR is in the Align mode
6
Q
What are the indications on the E/WD when an IR is in ALIGN mode?
A
Before any engine is started (displayed on E/WD):
IR IN ALIGN X MN memo appears in green when at least one active IRS is being aligned
When one engine is started (displayed on E/WD):
IR IN ALIGN X MN memo appears in amber during IRS alignment
IR NOT ALIGNED is displayed as an ECAM Caution Message if the alignment of one IRS is faulty
IR IN ATT ALIGN appears in green during the IR alignment in Attitude Mode
7
Q
What does a flashing white align light mean (older panel with keypad)?
A
There are three reasons that the white align lights will flash:
There is no current position
The position is incorrect
The aircraft moved during alignment
8
Q
How is the crew alertered to the FMGS having no current position, an incorrect position or if the aircraft has moved during the alignment?
A
IR IN ALIGN X MN memo pulses in green on the E/WD
9
Q
How do you do a fast alignment of the ADIRU?
A
Select each ADIRU selector off and then back to NAV (one at a time) within 5 seconds
10
Q
What does the IR push button do on the newer ADIRS panel?
A
Inertial data output of the respective IR is disconnected
11
Q
What does steady illumination of the amber IR FAULT light indicate?
A
A fault affects the respective IR
12
Q
What does flashing illumination of the amber IR FAULT light indicate?
A
Attitude and heading may be recovered in ATT mode (you have lost the navigation portion)
13
Q
What does the amber ADR FAULT light indicate?
A
A fault is detected in the Air Data Reference portion
(FOM VOL III-DSC-34-NAV-10-20)
14
Q
Does turning the IR Mode Rotary switch to OFF also turn off the ADR?
A
Yes
15
Q
Can you turn the ADR OFF and still have the IR?
A
Yes
(FOM VOL III-DSC-34-NAV-10-20)
16
Q
When is a full ADIRU alignment required? How about a fast alignment?
A
Full alignment:
Before the first flight of the day
When there is a crew change
When GPS is not available and NAVAID coverage is poor on the expected route
When GPS is not available and the expected flight time exceeds 3 hours
All international and Alaska flights
Flight in Class 2 airspace
Fast alignment:
A fast IRS alignment must be performed if a complete IRS alignment is not necessary N2 the difference between the IRS position and the FMGC position is at or above 5nm (see MCDU POSITION MONITOR page)
17
Q
What would be missing on the captains PFD and ND if IR1 failed or was turned OFF?
A
Attitude and navigation information would be lost. ATT and HDG flags will be displayed on the PFD and MAP NOT AVAIL will be on the ND
18
Q
What action would recover the attitude and navigation information if IR1 failed or was turned off?
A
Selecting CAPT3 on the EIS Switching Panel AIR DATA Selector
19
Q
Describe a post flight ADIRU accuracy check?
A
If the drift for any IR is >5nm, refer to the IRS performance chart located in FOM VOL II, section 3.20
20
Q
How many ELACS are installed?
A
2
21
Q
What are the functions of the ELAC (Elevator aileron computer)?
A
Normal elevator and stabilizer control
Normal aileron control
Normal pitch and roll
Alternate pitch
Direct pitch and roll
Abnormal attitude
Aileron droop
Acquisition of autopilot orders
22
Q
Under NORMAL LAW, what does ELAC 1 control?
A
Primary - aileron control (roll)
Standby - Elevator/Trimmable Horizontal Stabilizer control (backs up ELAC 2)
23
Q
What does SEC stand for?
A
Spoiler Elevator Computer
24
Q
How man SEC’s are installed?
A
3
25
What functions are performed by the SEC’s?
Normal roll (by controlling the spoilers)
Speed brakes and ground spoilers (SEC 1 & 3 only)
Alternate pitch (SEC 1 & 2 only)
Direct pitch (SEC 1 & 2)
Direct roll
Abnormal attitude
26
Under NORMAL LAW, what do the 3 SEC’s control?
Primary- Spoiler control (roll)
Standby - Elevator/Stabilizer control (SEC 1 & 2 back up the ELAC’s)
27
What is the sole purpose of SEC 3 in NORMAL LAW?
Spoiler control (Spoilers 1 & 2 only)
28
What does FAC stand for?
Flight augmentation computer
29
How many FAC’s are installed?
2
30
What are the functions of the FAC’s?
Normal roll (turn coordination and yaw damping)
Rudder trim
Rudder travel limit
Alternate law
31
Under NORMAL LAW, what do the FAC’s provide (YAWL)?
Y - yaw control (damping and turn coordination, rudder limiter, rudder trim)
A - airspeed protection computation (Alpha protection, high/low limits, maneuvering speed, PFD speed scale)
W - windshear protection (reactive and not predictive)
L - Low Energy Warning Protection (“speed, speed, speed”)
32
Is full rudder deflection available during all flight regimes?
No. Rudder deflection is limited as a function of airspeed.
33
How are the flight control surfaces controlled and actuated?
All surfaces are controlled electrically and actuated hydraulically
34
When is automatic pitch trim available?
In flight under NORMAL LAW with bank angle less than 33º with or without autopilot engaged
35
How is roll controlled normally achieved?
1 aileron and 4 spoilers on each wing
36
If both FAC’s fail, is maximum rudder deflection available?
Yes, after slat extension
37
How would the flight crew command an evacuation?
Make a PA announcement: “This is the captain, EVACUATE, EVACUATE, EVACUATE”. Then press the EVAC COMMAND push button
38
What happens if you press the COMMAND push button
In the flight deck, the EVAC light flashes red on the COMMAND button. In the cabin, EVAC lights flash at FWD and AFT attendant panels. Evacuation tone sounds in the cabin
39
What buses are powered by the emergency generator?
AC ESS and AC ESS SHED buses
DC ESS and EC ESS SHED buses
40
What is the function of the RAT & EMER GEN push button?
To provide a backup emergency electric and hydraulic power source
41
When will the RAT automatically extend?
RAT will automatically deploys if AC BUS 1 & 2 are not powered and airspeed is greater than 100 knots
42
How long does it take the RAT to extend and provide power?
8 seconds (3 seconds for RAT extension, 5 seconds to pressurize the Blue hydraulic system and power the EMER GEN)
43
What does the red FAULT light on the RAT & EMER GEN push button indicate?
Loss of power to AC bus 1 and 2 and the emergency generator is not supplying power
44
What powers the emergency generator?
Blue hydraulic power from the RAT
45
Is there another way to deploy the RAT?
Yes, RAT MAN ON from the HYD panel
46
What is different about deploying the RAT via the HYD panel?
Blue HYD pressure only - No Emergency Generator
47
What happens when you push the GEN 1 LINE push button?
GEN 1 Line contactor opens and the white OFF light illuminates
AC BUS 1 is powered by GEN 2 through the BUS TIE CONTACTOR
GEN 1 continues to power 1 fuel pump on each wing tank
48
When is the GEN 1 line push button used?
During smoke procedures
49
What does the amber SMOKE light in the GEN 1 LINE push button indicate?
Smoke detected in the avionics ventilation ducting
50
Will there be any indications when the SMOKE light illuminates on the GEN 1 line push button?
ECAM warning and amber FAULT lights in the EXTRACT and BLOWER pushuttons on the VENTILLATION panel
51
Pressing the SYS push button does what?
Inhibits all EGPWS warnings except TERR system
52
What does an amber FAULT light in the SYS push button indicate on the GPWS panel?
Any failure of GPWS mode 1 through 5:
Excessive descent rate “sink rate”
Excessive terrain closure “terrain, terrain”
Altitude loss after takeoff “Don’t sink”
Unsafe terrain clearance “Too low flaps”, “Too low gear”
Excessive GS deviation “Glideslope”
53
What does LDG FLAP 3 ON light indicate? In this case what will landing memo display?
“Too low, flaps” inhibited for a Flap 3 landing
LDG MEMO displays “Flaps… 3” instead of “CONF…FULL”
54
When would you press the FLAP MODE push button?
To avoid nuisance warnings when landing with flaps less than 3
55
If the TERR mode failed does it affect the basic GPWS?
No
56
When is the RCDR normally on in AUTO?
-On the ground, for 5 minutes after electrical power is supplied to the aircraft
-When at least 1 engine is operating
-In flight
-Stops 5 minutes after the last engine is shut down
57
How do you record the flight attendant PA’s?
ACP 3 PA VOL knob out and in the 1 o’clock position
58
When does the digital flight data recorder (DFDR) operate?
ON the ground for 5 minutes after electrical power is supplied to the aircraft
When at least 1 engine is running
Continuously in flight, whether or not the engines are operating
Stops 5 minutes after the last engine is shut down
59
What is the RCDR push button set to during preflight?
On
60
What is the purpose of the DFDR EVENT push button?
Briefly pressing this button sets an event mark on the flight data recorder
61
What does the PASSENGER SYS ON light mean?
The signal to release the oxygen mask doors has been sent
62
When do the masks automatically deploy?
When cabin altitude exceeds 14,000’
63
How long does the PAX oxygen last?
Approximately 13-22 minutes
64
Where is oxygen stored for the crew?
In either a single high-pressure cylinder (CEO’s) or two high-pressure cylinders (NEO aircraft)
65
What happens during the preflight when you push to extinguish the CREW SUPPLY OFF light?
It electrically opens a valve in the avionics bay to supply low-pressure crew oxygen
66
What would you notice on the DOOR ECAM page if you set the CREW SUPPLY to ON?
The OXY would change from amber to green
67
Will the crew oxygen mask microphone automatically be deactivated when the mask is stowed?
No. You must press the RESET/TEST slide switch.
68
How do you call a mechanic stationed on the outside of the aircraft?
Momentarily press the MECH push button. A blue light on the EXT PWR PANEL will illuminate and an external horn will sound
69
How do you make a normal call to the attendant indication panel (AIP)?
Press the FWD or AFT call button (This sounds one high/low chime in the cabin)
Listen and transmit on CAB
The flight attendant can only pick up a cabin phone at the station called
70
What happens when you press the EMER push button?
Two pink lights flash at all area attendant panels
EMERGENCY CALL appears on all AIP indication panels
High/low chime (repeated 3 times) sounds throughout the cabin loudspeakers
71
What happens when the flight attendants initiate an emergency call?
The white EMER ON light and amber CALL lights flash
The amber ATT lights flash on the ACP’s
3 long buzzers sound in the cockpit (inhibited during critical phases of flight)
System resets when the attendant hangs up the relevant system
72
When will the RAIN RPLNT push button not work?
On the ground with the engines stopped
73
Is it permissible to use rain repellant on a dry windscreen?
No. The flight crew should only use rain repellant in moderate to heavy rain
74
If RWY TURN OFF is selected to ON and the NOSE is selected to TAXI or TO, which lights automatically extinguish after takeoff
The NOSE and RWY TURN OFF lights extinguish when the landing gear is retracted
75
Are the NAV 1 and 2 positions connected to a single bulb?
No, they are separate bulbs
76
When do the strobes flash in AUTO?
When the main landing gear strut is not compressed
77
What does the green AVAIL light on the APU START push button indicate?
APU N is above 99.5% or 2 seconds after N reaches 95%
78
With the APU green AVAIL light on, and the EXT PWR green AVAIL light on, which system is powering the aircraft?
APU
79
How long should you wait to push the APU START push button after engaging the APU MASTER switch?
3 seconds
80
What does an amber FAULT light in the APU MASTER SW push button indicate?
The Electronic Control Box (ECB) commanded an auto shutdown of the APU
81
What does an amber FAULT light in the APU BLEED push button indicate?
An APU bleed leak
82
What lights illuminate when the EMER EXIT LT switch is placed to ON?
Proximity emergency escape path marking system
Overhead emergency lights
EXIT signs
83
What lights illuminate when normal aircraft electrical power fails and the EMER EXIT LT sw is in ARM?
Floor proximity emergency escape path marking system
Overhead emergency lighting
EXIT signs
84
What occurs when the EMER EXIT LT switch is placed to OFF?
All lights OFF
Amber EMER EXIT LT OFF light illuminates
85
What flight deck lighting is available if normal electrical power is lost?
Captains instrument panel (2 places)
Right dome light (provide DOME switch is set in DIM or BRT)
Standby compass
86
When do you use engine anti-ice?
When OAT (ground)/TAT (flight) is 10ºC or below and visible moisture is present
Prior to and during descent in icing conditions (including temperatures below -40ºC SAT)
87
What is the exception to the anti-ice rule?
Do not use engine anti-ice during climb and cruise when the temperature is below -40ºC SAT
88
What does a FAULT light in the ENG ANTI ICE push button indicate?
Switch/anti-ice valve disagreement
89
With ENG ANTI ICE ON what indications will you see?
Blue ENG ANTI ICE light ON
ECAM: ENG ANTI ICE
N1 limit is reduced (amber tick on the N1 indicator)
N1 idle is increased
90
With engine anti-ice ON, is your descent affected?
Yes, because idle thrust is increased
91
What happens if you turn on the WING ANTI ICE switch on the ground?
The wing anti-icing valves open for a 30 second test
92
What part of the wing is heated?
Outboard 3 slats
93
When do the wing anti-ice valves automatically close?
On landing
Bleed leak detected
Loss of electrical power
94
What does the amber FAULT light in the WING ANTI ICE push button indicate?
Switch/anti-ice valve disagreement
Low pressure is detected
95
In what position do the Wing and Engine Anti-Ice valves fail if electrical power is lost?
Wing: valves CLOSE
Engine: valves OPEN
96
On the ground, with the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT push button in AUTO, when are the probe and mast heaters activated?
LOW with at least one engine running (except TAT probe - its not heated on the ground)
NORMAL is automatically set after takeoff
97
What does the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT push button do?
Manually activates the probe, and window heaters
98
Which valves will receive a close command when the DITCHING push button is depressed (ARPO)
Avionics inlet and extract valves
Ram air inlet
Pack flow control valves
Outflow valve (only if in AUTO mode)
99
Will the DITCHING push button always close the outflow valve?
Not if the outflow valve is under manual control
100
Can the pilot control the outflow valve?
Yes, select MAN on the MODE SEL and use the MAN V/S CTL switch
101
How many controllers are in the pressurization system?
2, only one is used at a time and they swap roles after each landing
102
How do you manually switch controllers (cabin pressure panel)?
Switch MODE SEL to MAN for 10 seconds, then back to AUTO
103
What does an amber FAULT light in the MODE SEL push button indicate?
Both automatic pressure controllers are faulty
104
From what source does the pressurization system obtain landing elevation?
FMGC database
105
When the MODE SEL is out of the AUTO position, how do you select landing elevation?
Manually by selecting the landing elevation via the LDG ELEV dial
106
What protects the airframe from excessive cabin differential pressure?
2 pressure relief valves (safety valves)
107
How many outflow valve motors are installed?
3, one for each CPC and one for manual control
108
The pneumatic system is monitored and controlled by?
2 Bleed monitoring computers (BMC)
109
If one BMC fails, can the other take over?
Yes, they are interconnected. If BMC 1 fails:
APU and ENG 1 leak detection are not monitored
ECAM APU BLEED LEAK warning is lost
110
The PACK FLOW selector has LO, NORM, and HI positions (A320). What does this allow us to do?
Select pack flow rates of LO (80%), NORM (100%), and HIGH (120%) of NORM.
111
What pack flow rate is automatically selected when APU bleed air is in use or during single pack operation?
HI (120% of NORM)
112
If the engine bleed air in-flight is too low, what will occur?
Minimum idle speed is automatically increased to provide adequate bleed air pressure
113
What would cause and amber FAULT light to illuminate on the PACK 1 and/or PACK 2 push button?
Overheat - pack outlet
Overheat - compressor outlet
Disagreement - switch position vs pack flow control valve position
Note: FAULT light will be illuminated when no bleed air is supplied
114
What does the amber FUALT light on the ENG 1 BLEED and/or ENG 2 BLEED push button (OOLD)?
Overpressure - Downstream of the bleed valve
Overheat
Leak - low pressure
Disagreement - APU bleed valve open and engine bleed valve not closed, or engine start with bleed valve not closed
115
What are the 2 functions of the engine bleed valves?
To act as:
Pressure regulation
Shut off valves
116
At what cabin differential pressure does the RAM AIR valve open?
Differential pressure less than +/- 1 PSI
117
What logic controls the X-bleed valve when the X-BLEED switch is in AUTO?
When APU bleed valve is OPEN, the X-bleed valve is open
When APU bleed valve is CLOSED, the X-bleed valve is closed
X-bleed also CLOSES for wing, pylon, or APU duct leak (except during engine start)
118
What causes the Pack Flow Control valve to automatically close?
Upstream pressure below minimum
Pack overheat
Engine start sequence
Engine fire push button on the related side is pressed
DITCHING push button is selected
119
What does an AMBER FAULT light in the HOT AIR push button indicate?
Duct overheat - the Hot Air and Trim Air valves close automatically
120
How many air conditioning system controllers are there?
2. Each air conditioning system controller has 2 lanes (active/standby)
121
Describe how the air conditioning system controller regulates temperature?
Basic temperature regulation: both packs produce the required outlet temperature determined by the lowest demanded zone temperature
Optimized temperature regulation: Hot air is added to the individual zones by the trim air valves to maintain the desired zone temperatures
122
What occurs when an active lane of an air conditioning system controller fails?
The second lane takes over
123
What occurs when both lanes of an air conditioning system controller fails?
The related pack is lost. The hot air pressure regulating valve and associated trim air valve(s) close
124
How does the air conditioning system controller configure its associated pack ram air inlet flap for takeoff and landing to avoid the ingestion of foreign matter?
Takeoff: Pack Ram Air inlet flap closes when takeoff power is set and the main landing gear struts are compressed. It reopens after main landing gear extension
Landing: Pack Ram air inlet flap closes as soon as the main landing gear struts are compressed and speed >= 70 knots. Reopens 20 seconds after speed is less than 70 knots.
125
If an air cycle machine (ACM) fails, what occurs?
The affected pack flow control valve will close automatically
126
After engine start with the APU BLEED push button ON, what source is supplying bleed air to the packs?
APU bleed
127
When does the Lav/Galley Extract fan operate?
Continuously when electrical power is available
128
When performing the PRELIMINARY FLIGHT DECK PREPERATION, what is the minimum battery voltage?
25.5 volts
129
What do you do if the voltage is below 25.5 volts?
Select BATT push buttons to ON with EXT PWR on aircraft. This starts the charging cycle (approximately 20 minutes is required)
130
When performing the FLIGHT DECK PREPARATION, what are we looking for on the ELEC panel BAT check?
ECAM ELEC page - select
Bat 1 & 2 - off then on
Check BATT current is < 60 amps after 10 seconds and continues to decrease
131
Will the batteries completely drain if you leave the BAT switches in AUTO after AC power is removed on the ground?
No. Battery cutoff logic prevents the complete discharge when the aircraft is on the ground and unpowered - 22VDC
132
How is the BATTERY BUS normally powered?
DC BUS 1 through a DC tie contactor
133
What does the amber FAULT light in the GALLEY push button indicate
At least one generator load is above 100% rated output
134
How does the GALLEY push button work in AUTO?
Sheds main galley, IFE and in-seat power supply if:
Only 1 generator (APU or Engine) is available in FLIGHT, or
Only 1 ENGINE generator is available on the GROUND
135
What does a FAULT on the ENG GEN push button indicate?
The generator line contactor is open because of a fault detected by the generator control unit (GCU) which could include:
Overload
Over/under voltage
Differential fault (short), and/or;
The generator line contactor is open
136
What does the APU GEN FAULT light indicate?
The generator line contactor is open because of a fault detected by the GCU
137
When is the APU GEN FAULT light inhibited?
APU speed too low
Line contactor OPEN after EXT RWR or ENG GEN takes over
138
What is the function of the BUS TIE in the AUTO position?
Allows the BUS TIE CONTACTORS to open and close automatically to maintain power to both AC BUS 1 & 2:
Allows a single source to power the entire system
Allows connection of the APU GEN or EXT PWR to the system
Inhibits multiple sources to connect simultaneously
139
What does an IDG FAULT light indicate?
Oil pressure low (inhibited when N2 < 14%)
Oil outlet temperature overheat
Light is inhibited when IDG is disconnected
140
What precautions must you take when disconnecting an IDG?
Do not disconnect when the engine is not operating or windmilling
Do not hold down the button longer than 3 seconds
141
How can an IDG be reset?
Only on the ground by maintenance
142
What is the function of the AC ESS FEED push button in the normal position?
Allows AC BUS 1 to power the AC ESS BUS
143
How is AC ESS FEED transferred from AC BUS 1 to AC BUS 2?
Manually by selecting ALTN on the AC ESS FEED push button or automatically if AC BUS 1 is lost and the switch is in the normal position
144
What does the AC ESS FEED push button white ALTN light indicate?
AC BUS 2 is powering the AC ESS BUS
145
What is the purpose of the static inverter?
To provide AC power to the AC ESS bus from the battery when the EMG GEN is not online when in the Emergency Electrical Configuration
146
What are the 3 times the batteries are connected to the battery bus?
APU start
Battery charging
AC BUS 1 & 2 not powered and airspeed below 100 knots
147
What is the priority sequence for electrical power (GEARB)?
Generators
EXT PWR (Manually selected)
APU generator
RAT emergency generator
Batteries
148
With the APU green AVAIL light on and the EXT PWR blue ON light illuminated, which system is power the aircraft?
EXT PWR
149
What is the significance of the green and red collared circuit breakers on the flight deck?
Green - monitored by the ECAM
Red - Wing tip brake C/B
Black - not monitored by the ECAM
150
What is the normal in-flight fuel management scheme?
Use the center tank first, then the wing tanks
151
How many fuel pumps are installed?
5 total
2 in each wink tank
2 in the center tank
1 APU pump to provide fuel to the APU when the left wing/center tank pumps are off
152
With full fuel, when do the center tank fuel pumps operate (A320)?
For 2 minutes after BOTH engines are started (if slats are retracted, pumps will continue to operate)
After slat retraction
Continue to run for 5 minutes until the center tank is empty or slats are extended
153
What will cause a FUEL MODE SEL FAULT light?
Failure of the AUTO mode
Center tank contains more than 550lbs and either main tank has less than 11,000lbs
154
When do the main tank outer cells drain into the inner tanks (A320)?
When the inner tank quantity reaches 1,650lbs
155
If only one tank reaches 1,650lbs, what happens to the other transfer valve (A320)?
All 4 transfer valves open
156
Once opened to transfer fuel, how are the fuel transfer valves closed?
Automatically at the next refueling operation
157
How is the IDG cooled?
By fuel from the HP fuel pump, drawn in from the fuel manifold, and then returned to its respective outer tank. When full, then outer tank spills over in to the inner tank.
158
If the IDG return fuel fills the wing tanks, what occurs?
The center tank pumps turn off until the wing tank quantity is reduced by 1,100lbs
159
What does an amber FAULT light in the FUEL PUMP push button indicate?
Low fuel delivery pressure
160
Can fuel be transferred from one tank to another?
Only during ground refueling
161
Why are the outer wing tanks drained last?
Structural wing bending moment relief
162
When does the APU fuel pump run?
When the wing or center tank pumps are off or when the aircraft is on battery power only
163
What does the REFUEL message on the ECAM indicate?
The refueling control panel door is not closed
164
What does an amber boxed ECAM FOB indicate?
Some fuel is unusable
165
Can the aircraft be flown with a loss of all hydraulic systems?
No, you must have at least one
166
What occurs when you press the RAT MAN ON push button?
The RAT extends
167
Does the PTU transfer hydraulic fluid
No
168
How many hydraulic pumps are in the green system?
1 Engine and 1 PTU
169
How many hydraulic pumps are in the BLUE system?
1 Electric and 1 RAT
170
How many hydraulic pumps are in the yellow system?
1 engine
1 electric
1 PTU
1 hand pump
171
When does the BLUE ELEC PUMP operate?
After the first engine is started
In flight
If the BLUE PUMP OVRD pb on the MAINTENANCE panel has been pressed with no engine running
172
What is the normal system hydraulic pressure?
3000PSI
173
Does the RAT automatically deploy with the loss of BLUE hydraulic pressure?
No, it must be deployed manually by the RAT MAN ON push button
174
If the ACCU PRESS indicator is low and an external walk around is to be completed, what should you do?
Obtain ground clearance then turn ON the YELLOW ELEC PUMP to pressurize the accumulator
175
What condition will cause the PTU to operate when the push button is in AUTO?
A difference of 500 PSI between GREEN and YELLOW hydraulic systems
176
When is the PTU inhibited?
PTU push button OFF
First engine start
Parking brake is SET and only one ENG MASTER switch is ON
NWS in towing position and parking brake is RELEASED
Cargo door operation (PTU is also inhibited for 40 seconds after the end of cargo door operation)
177
If the ECAM actions lead you to turn OFF the PTU for a Reservoir Overheat, will the FAULT light go out?
No, not until the overheat subsides
178
If the FAULT light in the PTU push button is ON, are there any other indications on the HYD panel?
Yes - FAULT light illuminated in the respective ENG PUMP push button
179
Can the YELLOW ELEC PUMP run the PTU?
Yes
180
Name several items that run from ONLY the green system?
Landing gear
Normal brakes
Slats and flaps
Engine 1 reverser
181
Name several items that run from ONLY the YELLOW system?
Nosehweel steering
Alternate brakes
Parking brake
Cargo doors
Engine 2 reverser
182
List several items that are powered by the BLUE system
Slats
Emergency generator
183
What does an amber FAULT light in the PTU push button indicate (OLL)?
O - Overtemp in reservoir
L- Low air pressure in the reservoir
L - Low quantity in the reservoir
184
What does an amber FAULT light in the ENG PUMP push button indicate (POLL)?
P - Pump pressure low
O - Overtemp in reservoir
L - Low air pressure in the reservoir
L - Low quantity in the reservoir
185
What does a FAULT light in the BLUE or YELLOW ELEC PUMP push button indicate (POLLO)?
P - Pump pressure low
O - Overtemp in reservoir
L - Low air pressure in the reservoir
L - Low quantity in the reservoir
O - Overheat of pump
186
Where are the HYD FIRE SHUTOFF VALVES located?
Between the respective reservoir and ENG pump
187
What is the function of the hydraulic priority valves?
Hydraulic power to the flaps, slats, landing gear, and emergency generator is cut off if the pressure drops below a predetermined value (high demand items)
188
What is the purpose of the hand pump?
To provide YELLOW hydraulic pressure for cargo door operation
189
Where are the engine fire loops installed?
Pylon nacelle
Engine core
Fan section
190
What happens if both fire loops fail?
If the failure occurs within 5 seconds of each other, a FIRE warning will be issued
191
What does an amber DISCH light mean?
The fire extinguisher bottle has lost its pressure
192
How many fire extinguishers are provided for each engine?
2
193
List the actions that occur when an ENGINE FIRE push button is pressed?
2 - Silences the aural fire warning and arms the fire extinguisher squibs
1 - Closes the hydraulic fire shut off valve
2 - Closes the low-pressure fuel valve
1 - Deactivates the IDG (FADEC power supply also deactivated)
2 - Closes the pack flow control and engine bleed valves
194
What occurs when you press the TEST push button on the ENGINE FIRE panel?
7 lights:
CRC sounds
MASTER WARN lights flash (2)
ENG FIRE pub illuminates red (1)
SQUIB and DISCH lights illuminate (2)
ECAM FIRE WARNING (1)
FIRE light on the ENG panel illuminates (1)
195
How many fire extinguishers are provided for the APU?
1
196
List the actions that occur when the APU FIRE push button is pressed?
2 - Silences the aural fire warning and arms the APU fire extinguisher squib
1 - Shuts down the APU
2 - Closes the low-pressure fuel valve and shuts OFF the APU fuel pump
1 - Deactivates the APU generator
2 - Closes the APU bleed and X-bleed valves
197
What occurs when you press the APU FIRE TEST push button?
CRC sounds
5 lights:
MASTER WARN lights flash (2)
APU FIRE pub illuminates red (1)
SQUIB and DISCH lights illuminate (1)
ECAM FIRE WARNING (1)
198
Does the APU fire extinguisher automatically discharge is a fire is detected on the ground?
Yes. The APU will automatically shut down and the APU fire extinguisher will discharge.
199
Does the APU fire extinguisher automatically discharge if a fire is detected in flight?
No
200
What is the AUDIO SWITCHING PANEL used for?
Allows for switching to ACP 3 if ACP 1 or 2 fails
201
What are we checking for on the maintenance panel during the preliminary flight deck prep flow?
Checking that all lights are extinguished. If not, call maintenance.
202
What does the CARGO HEAT HOT AIR amber FAULT light indicate?
DUCT overheat
203
How many fire extinguishers are provided for the cargo compartments?
1 bottle that can be discharged into either cargo compartment (non-ETOPS)
2 bottles, which can be discharged into either compartment. 205 minute discharge requirement for ETOP’s (ETOP certified aircraft)
204
What does the red smoke light in the FWD or AFT push button indicate?
Both channels detect smoke, or
One channel faulty and the other detects smoke
205
How many smoke detectors are there (in the cargo compartment)?
2 in the forward cargo compartment
4 in the AFT cargo compartment
206
With a CARGO SMOKE warning, what happens to the Isolation Valve and Extract Fan?
Isolation valve closes
Extract fan stops
207
What is the purpose of CABIN FANS?
To re-circulate cabin air to the mixing chamber and then back to the cabin
208
With BLOWER and EXTRACT push buttons in AUTO how does the ventilation system work?
Ground - system is normally in the OPEN configuration
Flight - System is normally in the CLOSED configuration
Intermediate - Closed configuration except small internal flap in extract valve is open
209
With both BLOWER and EXTRACT pushbuttons in OVRD (smoke configuration) what are the positions of the INLET and EXTRACT valves?
INLET valve CLOSED
EXTRACT valve INTERMEDIATE
210
What is the status of the BLOWER and EXTRACT fans with the BLOWER and EXTRACT valves in OVRD?
BLOWER fan OFF
EXTRACT fan ON
211
When is air conditioning introduced into the avionics compartment?
Abnormal configuration
SMOKE configuration
212
Is the skin heat exchanger ever bypassed in flight?
Yes, during the SMOKE configuration
213
What does an amber FAULT light on the BLOWER push button indicate?
SMOKE warning is activated
Computer power supply failure
Low blower pressure
Duct overheat
214
What does and amber FAULT light on the EXTRACT push button indicate?
SMOKE warning is activated
Computer power supply failure
Low extract pressure
215
With 2 FAULT lights on the VENTILATION panel are there any other indications?
Yes - the SMOKE light in the GEN 1 LINE push button
216
What are the primary differences between an automatic and manual start (engines)?
Automatic start - The FADEC provides full monitoring during start and will provide appropriate ECAM cautions and procedures to follow in the event of a start fault
Manual start - automatic start interruption and auto-crank are not available
217
When would you use a manual start?
After aborting a start because of:
Engine stall
Engine EGT overlimit
Low start air pressure
When expecting a start abort because of:
Degraded bleed performance due to hot conditions or at high altitude airports
An engine with a reduced EGT margin in hot conditions or at high altitude airports
Marginal performance of the external pneumatic power group
218
What does the red arrow in the SIDE STICK PRIORITY light mean?
It illuminates in front of the pilot losing authority
219
How would one regain control after losing sidestick authority?
The last pilot to press the push button on the sidestick will have authority. An aural “priority left” or “priority right” will sound
220
What do flashing green CAPT and F/O SIDESTICK PRIORITY lights indicate?
Both side sticks have been moved simultaneously and neither pilot has taken priority
221
What happens when both pilots simultaneously make inputs on the sidestick?
The inputs are algebraically summed up to the normal limits
An aural “DUAL INPUT” will sound
Green CAPT and F/O lights will illuminate
222
What is the function of the Flight Control Unit?
Permits short term interface between the pilots and FMGS
Allows temporary modification of any flight parameter (HDG, SPD, ALT, V/S)
Used to select operational modes of the autopilots, flight directors, and A/THR system
223
What do dashes on the FCU display windows along with the adjacent white dot indicate?
FMGS Managed guidance is in use
224
How is selected guidance engaged?
Pull the appropriate selector knob
225
How do you confirm all autopilot, FD, and A/THR inputs?
Confirm all mode inputs by reference to the Flight Mode Annunciator (FMA)
226
Will the FCU Altitude window ever display dashes?
No. Pilot selected altitude will always be displayed.
227
What does each FMA column mean on the PFD?
A/THR | VERTICAL | LATERAL | APPRCH CAPABILITY, DH/MDA | AP, FD, A/THR ENGAGEMENT STATUS
228
How is the crew made aware of mode changes on the FMA?
A white box is temporarily displayed around the new indication (10-15 seconds)
229
How are armed modes displayed on the FMA?
Blue - armed
Magenta - armed because of constraint
Green - engaged
230
When is the sidestick position indication icon (white cross) displayed?
Displayed when the first engine is started
Disappears after liftoff
231
What would the large red arrowheads indicate on the PFD?
Pitch attitude > 30º
232
What is the meaning of USE MANUAL PITCH TRIM?
You are in Direct Law
233
What is the meaning of MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY?
You are in Mechanical Backup
234
What are the pitch and roll angle limits indicated by the green “=“ signs?
Pitch: +30º to -15º
Roll: +/- 67º
235
How can you determine you are in alternate law?
Amber X’s replace the green “=“ marks at the pitch and bank limits
Only VLS and VSW is displayed on the airspeed scale
236
When would the sideslip index change from yellow to blue?
In case of engine failure during takeoff/go-around, it is now a blue beta-target
237
What does the yellow speed trend line on the airspeed display indicate?
The speed the aircraft will be in 10 seconds if acceleration/deceleration remains constant
238
What is the difference between the magenta and blue speed targets?
Magenta - Managed speed computed by the FMGC
Blue - Selected speed on the FCU
239
What is Vls and how is it displayed?
Represents the lowest selectable speed providing and appropriate margin to the stall speed
Defined by the Tom of the amber strip along the airspeed scale
In approach mode is equivalent to Vref
240
What speed does Vmax represent and how is it displayed?
It is the lowest of VMO/MMO, VLE, or VFE
Defined by the bottom of a red and black strip along the speed scale
241
What is green dot speed?
Best lift-over-drag speed
Engine out operating speed in the clean configuration
Appears when the aircraft is in the clean configuration
242
What is Ground Speed Mini?
Based on a calculated ground speed at the runway
Protects against the actual groundspeed dropping below the calculated groundspeed
243
What does it mean when you see the magenta target airspeed triangle above VAPP on approach?
Ground speed mini has increased speed due to a higher headwind component at your present location than what was calculated at the runway
244
Is ground speed mini available in selected speed?
No, only in managed speed
245
What would be indicated if the altitude window changed from yellow to amber?
The aircraft has deviated from the FCU selected altitude or flight level by 250 feet
246
When is altitude alerting automatically inhibited in flight?
When slats are extended with the landing gear selected down
On approach after glideslope capture
When the landing gear is locked down
247
What does it mean when the altitude digits change from green to amber?
The aircraft has descended below the MDA/DH entered into the FMGC
248
When is radio height displayed on the PFD?
Below 2,500AGL
249
Information from ILS receiver 1 is displayed where?
Captains PFD and F/O’s ND
250
What would a flashing amber ILS indicate on the bottom of the PFD?
Flashes amber when APPR mode is armed and the LS display is not selected
251
Top of descent and continue descent arrows are displayed in blue or white. What is the difference?
Top of descent - Always white (never armed)
Continue descent - Blue indicates armed, white indicates NOT armed
252
What color does each altitude constraint circle represent?
White - constraint is not taken into account
Magenta - constraint is predicted to be satisfied
Amber - constraint is predicted to be missed
253
If mode range data fails what should you expect to see on the ND?
ROSE NAV mode at 80nm range
254
What are the 3 levels of ECAM failure mode notifications?
Level 1 - ALERT - Associated with amber E/WD message, no aural signal, and requires crew monitoring
Level 2 - CAUTION - Associated with the amber MASTER CAUTION light, single chime, and require crew awareness
Level 3 - WARNING - Associated with the red MASTER WARN light, CRC, and require immediate action
255
If simultaneous failures occur, how will they be presented to the crew?
A level 3 warning has priority over a level 2 caution which has priority over a level 1 alert
256
What types of failures are presented to the crew?
Independent - Failures affecting an isolated system/item without degrading other systems/items
Primary - Failure of a system/item that affects the use of other systems/items
Secondary - Loss of a system/item resulting from a primary failure
257
What indication does the E/WD provide for secondary failures?
Secondary failures are displayed on the lower right portion of the E/WD and are preceded by an * symbol
258
What does the appearance of a green arrow indicate at the bottom of the E/WD screen indicate?
Information has overflowed off the screen and the pilot must scroll down using the CLR push button on the ECAM panel
259
What does the display of T.O. INHIBIT or LDG INHIBIT indicate?
Most warnings and cautions are inhibited to avoid unnecessary distractions during critical phases of flight
260
When does the takeoff memo appear?
-2 minutes after the second engine is started or when the T.O. CONFIG TEST push button is pressed with one engine running
-Takeoff memo is removed when takeoff power is applied
261
When does the landing memo appear?
Below 2,000’ RA
Memo disappears after touchdown (80kts)
Displays at 800’ if you never climbed above 2,000’ RA
262
In general, when are the system pages automatically displayed on the SD?
Relative to the current phase of flight, or
When a system malfunction is detected
263
When is a STATUS page displayed?
After a failure is displayed on the SD and all failure items have been cleared
STATUS will reappear when the slats are extended
264
What is the function of the two landing gear control and interface units (LGCIU)?
Provide sequencing, operation, monitoring, and indications for the landing gear
Provide aircraft “In Flight” or “On the ground” signals to other aircraft systems
265
When does the red arrow in the LND panel illuminate?
Below 750 feet RA, when the aircraft is in the landing configuration and the landing gear is not locked down
266
What happens if your airspeed is 280kts and you place the landing gear lever to down?
Nothing - A safety valve shuts off hydraulic power to the landing gear system when airspeed is above 260kts.
267
What do the red UNLK lights indicate?
The landing gear is not locked in the selected position (more specifically it means that there is a disagreement between the landing gear position lever and the actual landing gear position)
268
What controls and manages all braking functions?
Normal brakes: Braking steering control unit (BSCU)
Alternate brakes: Alternate braking control unit (ABCU)
269
What happens when you switch the A/SKID & N/W STRG to OFF?
Nosewheel steering deactivated
Brake pressure is supplied by the YELLOW hydraulic system
Anti-skid is deactivated
BSCU and ABCU are depowered
A 1,000PSI pressure limiting valve prevents wheel lock up
270
Which hydraulic systems provide pressure to the brakes?
Normal brakes - GREEN
Alternate brakes - YELLOW backed up by a hydraulic accumulator
271
What are the four modes of braking?
Normal braking
Alternate braking with anti-skid
Alternate braking without anti-skid (max brake pressure 1000PSI)
Parking brake
272
When do the auto brakes activate on landing if armed?
When the ground spoilers deploy
273
What is the difference between LOW and MED AUTO BRK?
LOW - Progressive pressure applied to brakes 4 seconds after ground spoilers deploy to decelerate at 5.6 FPS
MED - Progressive pressure applied to brakes 2 seconds after ground spoilers deploy to decelerate at 9.8FPS
274
What does the AUTO BRK green DECEL light indicate?
Actual rate of deceleration is within 80% of the selected rate
275
What is the takeoff setting for the auto brakes?
MAX
276
What will cause the MAX AUTO BRK to activate on a RTO?
Airspeed above 72 knots, and
Thrust levers idle, and
Ground spoiler extension
277
If you lose GREEN hydraulic pressure will you have Auto Brakes?
No, not with the Alternate Braking system
278
Is anti-skid available with alternate brakes?
Yes, if certain conditions are met
(Ref: FOM VOL. III-DSC-32-30-10)
279
With spoilers not armed will the spoilers deploy for an RTO?
Yes - when at least one engine is in reverse
280
How man brake applications are available with accumulator pressure?
Approximately 7 full brake applications of brake pedals or parking brake or any combination thereof
281
What does the BRAKES & ACCU PRESS triple indicator indicate?
YELLOW hydraulic pressure delivered to the left and right brakes
YELLOW system accumulator pressure
282
What computers feed data to the six display units?
3 Display Management Computers (DMC)
283
What does each of the DMC’s normally supply?
DMC 1 - Captain PFD, ND, Upper ECAM DU, lower DU
DMC 2 - F/O PFD, ND
DMC 3 - Backup
284
How can you tell if a DMC has failed?
INVALID DATA will be displayed on the respective EFIS/ECAM display units
285
What happens when the upper ECAM display fails?
The E/WD automatically replaces the SD on the lower ECAM display
286
If both the E/WD and SD display units fail, how can you display E/WD information?
Select the ECAM/ND switch to CAPT or F/O to transfer the E/WD to either ND
287
With the E/WD displayed on the lower screen, how else can you view SD information?
Press and hold the appropriate system button on the ECAM control panel that you wish to view
288
What does the ALL push button do?
Displays ALL the system pages successively in 1-second intervals when held down
Release the push button to maintain display of the selected page
289
What does pressing the RCL push button do?
Allows you to recall any warning or caution messages that the activation of the CLR push button or flight phase inhibition may have suppressed
If held longer than 3 seconds, the E/WD will show any caution messages suppressed by the EMER CANC push button
290
If you press the STS push button and the system has no STATUS messages, what will be displayed?
“NORMAL” for 3 seconds
291
If power fails to the ECAM CONTROL panel which buttons are still functional?
EMER CANC
ALL
CLR
STS
RCL
292
What does EMER CANC do?
Cancels the current level 1 or 2 warning for the remainder of the flight
Cancels the current level 3 warning for that occurrence
293
What do you look for on the PRELIMINARY FLIGHT DECK PREPERATION quantity check?
DOOR - Oxygen pressure is sufficient for the flight
HYD - Hydraulic fluid is in the normal range (not to exceed the normal range by more than half the size of the normal range)
ENG - Oil quantity:
CEO’s - 9.5qt + 0.5qt for. Each hour of flight
LEAP 1A engines - 10.6qt or 9.0qt + 0.5qt per hour of flight, whichever is greater
PW1100G - 14.5qt if OAT>=-30ºC or 16qt if OAT <-30ºC
294
What occurs when the T.O. CONFIG push button is pressed?
The system simulates the application of T.O. Power and checks certain systems for proper configuration
A warning is displayed if the system is not configured properly
“TO CONFIG NORMAL” is displayed in the TO MEMO section if the configuration is correct
295
How is the THS normally operated in flight?
The flight control computers control trim functions automatically
296
What does THS stand for?
Trimmable horizontal stabilizer
297
If NO hydraulic power is available can the THS be positioned?
No - the THS requires hydraulic power from the GREEN or YELLOW systems
298
If a complete flight control computer failure occurs can the THS be positioned?
Yes, mechanical trimming is possible by manually positioning the Pitch Trim Wheel
299
Can you move the PITCH trim wheel if all systems are working normally?
Yes, manual inputs have priority over computer inputs, however the autopilot will disconnect
300
What happens to the THS when the aircraft enters into Ground Mode?
The trim automatically resets to zero (inside the green band)
301
What controls the engines in all operating regimes?
FADEC’s
302
What functions do the FADEC’s control?
Fuel metering
Engine limits based on thrust lever angle
Start sequencing
Provides engine indications and thrust limit displays on the E/WD
303
What redundancy does the FADEC have?
Dual channel redundancy - one channel is active while the other is standby
304
What is the power source for the FADEC?
-The system has its own alternator making it independent of the aircraft electrical system when N2 is above a set value
-If this alternator fails the FADEC automatically switches to aircraft electrical power
305
When will the FADEC abort a start?
Hot start
Stalled start
No ignition
306
If the FADEC detects a fault during automatic start, is any crew intervention required?
No. The FADEC will discontinue the start, clear the engine, and attempt a restart (if warranted) automatically
307
When does the FADEC command a higher engine idle speed?
Bleed demands
Approach configuration
High engine or IDG temperatures
308
How many igniters fire on manual or in-flight starts?
Both A and B
309
When does continuous ignition automatically operate?
Engine flameout detection
Failure of the Engine Interface Unit (EIU)
310
What is the active range of the A/THR?
Just above IDLE to the CL detent (2 engines)
Just above IDLE to the MCT detent (1 engine)
311
What determines the maximum thrust the A/THR system will be able to command?
The position detent of the thrust lever
312
What are 3 ways to disconnect the A/THR?
Instinctive Disconnect buttons
Thrust levers to IDLE
A/THR push button
313
How do you disconnect the A/THR for the remainder of the flight?
Press and hold the instinctive disconnect push button for 15 seconds
314
What would you lose if you held down the instinctive disconnect push button for more than 15 seconds?
Alpha floor protection
315
What happens to thrust and what annunciates on the FMA when you reach Alpha Floor?
Thrust - TOGA
FMA - A.FLOOR
316
How do you regain normal A/THR when in TOGA LK or THR LK?
Move thrust levers to the TOGA detent
Press the instinctive disconnect button
Return thrust levers to CL detent
Push the A/THR pushbutton to engage A/THR
317
When is Alpha Floor protection active?
From lift-off through 100 feet RA on approach
318
When would thrust lock occur?
Thrust levers in the CL detent and the A/THR pushbutton on the FCU is pushed, or
A/THR disconnects due to a failure
319
What controls the engine LP fuel valves?
Engine MASTER switch
ENGINE FIRE pushbutton
320
What does a fault light on the ENG panel indicate?
AUTO start abort
Switch disagreement between HP valve and its commanded position
321
How many transponders are installed?
2
322
Does illumination of the ATC FAIL light indicate loss of all transponder capability?
No - only the selected transponder has failed
323
With only GREEN hydraulic system pressure available, will both the flaps and slats operate?
Yes, at 1/2 speed
324
What systems prevent flap or slat asymmetry?
Wing Tip Brakes (WTB)
325
What causes the Wing Tip Brakes (WTB’s) to activate (ROAM)?
Runaway (Move handle to 1, all go to 3)
Overspeed (Flap jack screw breaks)
Asymmetry (Both on one side move farther)
Movement (Never touch the handle, ALL just move)
326
If the WTB activates due to a flap asymmetry can the slats still operate?
Yes, only flap operation is inhibited
327
How many flap/slat control computers (SFCC) are installed?
2
328
What would occurs if one SFCC failed?
The flaps/slats would continue to operate but at 1/2 speed
329
What flap/slat configurations correspond to position 1 on the FLAPS lever and how do they differ?
CONF 1+F is used for takeoff and provides both slats (position 1) + flaps
CONF 1 is used in flight and is slats only
330
When will the Automatic Retraction System (ARS) operate?
During acceleration in CONF 1+F the FLAPS (not slats) will automatically retract to 0 at 210kias
331
What is ALPHA LOCK?
This function inhibits retracting the slats from 1 to 0 at a high angle of attack or low airspeed
332
When the FLAP legend appears in cyan on the upper ECAM display what is indicated?
Flaps/slats in transit
333
What happens to the ailerons when the flaps are extended?
The ailerons droop 5º
334
Is there any landing configuration when speed brake extension is inhibited?
Flaps full
335
When do the ground spoilers automatically extend?
Partial - When reverse thrust is selected on at least one engine with the other at idle and one main landing gear strut is compressed
Full - At touchdown of both main landing gear, or in case of RTO with airspeed above 72 knots, when BOTH thrust levers at idle (if ground spoilers armed) or when reverse thrust is selected on at least one engine with the other thrust lever at idle (if the ground spoilers are not armed)
336
At touchdown with reverse selected and only one landing gear strut compressed, will the ground spoiler extend?
It will PARTIALLY. Full extension is limited until both main landing gear struts are compressed.
337
When will the ground spoilers automatically retract?
When at least one thrust lever is advanced from idle
338
When is speedbrake extension inhibited (SAFET)?
SEC 1 and 3 have failed
AOA protection is active
Flaps FULL
Elevator (L or R) faulty (only spoilers 3 and 4 are inhibited)
Thrust levers above the MCT position
339
In flight, what happens if a spoiler fault is detected or electrical power is lost?
The spoiler automatically retracts
340
What is the difference between the A321 and A320 regarding speedbrake usage with the AP on?
With A320 you only get partial spoiler deflection. On the A321 you get full spoiler deflection.
341
What capabilities does the RADAR system have?
Weather avoidance
Turbulence detection
Terrain mapping
Predictive windshear detection
342
What would prevent the weather display on the ND?
Mode selector in PLAN
TERR selected ON
343
When is WX/TURB mode available?
At ranges of 40nm or less
344
Does predictive windshear detection work when the RADAR system is switched to OFF?
Yes, if the windshear switch is in AUTO
345
What is the scanned area of the predictive windshear detection feature?
Up to 5nm ahead of the aircraft when the aircraft is below 1,800’ AGL
346
When are predictive windshear alerts inhibited?
When on the ground above 100knots until reaching 50’ AGL
When landing below 50’ AGL
347
How many RADAR systems are installed?
1
348
How are the communication radios controlled?
From any one of the 3 RMP’s
349
Which RMP is powered in the emergency electrical configuration?
RMP 1
350
Which communication radio is powered in the emergency electrical configuration?
VHF1
351
What would cause the SEL indicator to illuminate on both RMP’s?
When a communication radio normally associated with one RMP is tuned by another RMP
352
If the NAV key is selected on either RMP, can the FMGC still auto tune navaids?
No - RMP now control the VOR/ILS receivers
NAV key on RMP 3 has no effect
Normal radio communication is still available
353
What methods would the crew utilize to make a PA announcement?
Pressing the PA switch on the ACP and using the boom, hand, or mask microphone, or
The flight deck handset dedicated to the PA system only
354
What does the illumination of the CALL light on the VHF transmission keys indicate?
The SELCAL system detects a call
355
What are the main components of the FMGS?
2 FMGC’s
2 MCDU’s
1 FCU (two independent channels)
2 FAC’s
356
What are the functions of the Flight Management Guidance Computers?
Flight guidance
Flight management
357
What are the 3 modes of FMGC operation?
Independent (MCDU scratchpad displays - INDEPENDENT OPERATION)
Single (ND displays - SELECT OFFSIDE RNG/MODE)
Dual (Normal)
358
What are the 2 modes of flight guidance?
Managed guidance
Selected guidance
359
What is the managed mode of flight guidance used for?
Long-term lateral, vertical, and speed profiles as determined by the FMGS
360
What is the Selected mode of flight guidance used for?
Temporary lateral, vertical, and speed commands as selected with the FCU
361
Does selected or managed guidance have priority?
Selected guidance always has priority
362
How do you determine the validity of the navigation database?
On the Aircraft Status page via the MCDU
363
What input does each FMGC use for position determination?
A hybrid (“mix”) IRS/GPS position
364
How doe autopilot selection influence master FMGS logic?
If one autopilot is engaged, the respective FMGS is master
If both autopilots are engaged, FMGS 1 will be master
365
If an amber SELECT OFFSIDE RNG/MODE message is displayed on the ND, what action should the crew take?
An FMGS has failed and both ND’s must be set to the same mode and range (single mode)
366
Can both autopilots be engaged during any phase of flight?
No, only during an ILS approach
367
What is the difference between large and small fonts utilized in the MCDU?
Large - Pilot entries and modifiable data
Small - Default/computed non-modifiable data
368
When would a takeoff shift be entered on the PERF TO page?
When takeoff begins at a runway intersection and GPS is not primary
369
Where do you enter the Zero Fuel Weight?
INITIAL B page (not accessible after engine start)
370
What do amber box prompts on the MCDU indicate?
An entry is mandatory
371
What occurs when managed NAV mode is engaged and the aircraft flies into a flight plan discontinuity?
NAV mode will be lost and the HDG/TRK mode engages
372
When the brake accumulator pressure is low, how is it recharged?
With the YELLOW hydraulic system electric pump
373
How do you verify the parking brake is set?
ECAM PARKING BRK memo
Triple indicator brake pressure
374
If the parking brake is activated and no YELLOW hydraulic accumulator pressure is available, do you still have available braking?
Yes, via the brake pedals, if you have GREEN hydraulic pressure
375
How do we charge the YELLOW system accumulators?
Pressing the yellow hydraulic electrical pump pushbutton
376
What happens if you turn the rudder trim with the autopilot engaged?
Nothing
377
Does the rudder RESET button work with the autopilot engaged?
No
378
What 3 things occur when you turn the gravity gear extension hand-crank?
Removes GREEN hydraulic pressure
Opens gear doors
Releases the uplocks
379
How many turns of the gravity gear extension handcrank does it take to lower the gear manually?
3 clockwise turns
380
What hydraulic system supplies nosewheel steering?
YELLOW
381
The steering hand wheels can steer the nose wheel up to how much in each direction?
+/-75º
382
Hen using rudder pedals for steering, when does the steering angle begin to reduce?
Starts reduction at 40 knots and progressively reduces to zero degrees at 130 knots
383
What protections do you have in NORMAL law?
Load Factor Limitation (clean = +2.5/-1.0, dirty = +2.0/0)
Pitch attitude (30ºup/15ºdown)
Bank angle (67º)
High speed protection
High angle of attack protection (AOA protection)
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How does the high speed protection work?
If VMO/MMO plus a predetermined factor is exceeded, the system induces a pitch up input to limit aircraft speed
385
Can the pilot override the auto pitch-up associated with high speed protection in NORMAL law?
No
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What is Alpha Max?
The maximum angle of attack allowed in NORMAL law, indicated by the top of the red strip on the airspeed scale.
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How does the high AOA protection operate?
When the AOA exceeds Alpha Prot, pitch trim ceases and AOA is now proportional to sidestick deflection, not to exceed ALPHA MAX even with full aft sidestick deflection.
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What protection do you have in alternate law?
Load factor
High speed stability (Nose up command) but can be overridden
Low speed stability (Node down command) but can be overridden
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Can you override the high speed stability in alternate law?
Yes
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What protections do you have in direct law?
None
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If you are in pitch alternate law, what law would roll be/
Direct law
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When is there a direct relationship between side stick and flight control surface deflection?
When in NORMAL law - Ground mode
When in DIRECT law
When below 50’ in FLARE mode (pitch only)
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How would you get into abnormal attitude law?*
By exceeding approximately double the normal law limits
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What is the purpose of abnormal attitude law?
Allows the aircraft to be recovered from an unusual attitude
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Does the aircraft remain in abnormal attitude law once it returns with the normal flight envelope?
No. When the aircraft returns within the normal flight envelope, the abnormal at tides law disengages (*but I believe the aircraft does remain in alternate law. I’ll need to double check*)
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Will abnormal law revert to direct law on landing gear extension?
No
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What PFD indications indicate normal law?
Green = for pitch, bank, and overspeed limits
Amber/black (alpha protection) airspeed tape
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What is indicated if the PFD pitch and bank limits are amber X’s
You are not in NORMAL law
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What would cause you to revert to another law?
Multiple failures of redundant systems
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What law are you in when you perform the flight control check on the ground?
Normal law, ground mode
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Can the aircraft be flown with a loss of all flight control computers?
Yes, in mechanical backup
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How is the airplane controlled in mechanical backup?
Pitch - Trim wheel (horizontal stabilizer)
Yaw - Rudder pedals (rudder)
Speed - Thrust levers
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What is ROPS/ROW/ROP?
ROPS: Runway overrun prevention system
ROPS is made up of two sub-functions, ROW and ROP. The ROW function generates alerts which incite
The flight crew to perform a go-around whereas the ROP function generates alerts which incite the
Flight crew to apply available deceleration means.
ROW: Runway overrun warning
The ROW functions to provide enhanced flight crew awareness about the approach stabilization and the
capacity to land on available landing distance
ROP: Runway overrun protection
The ROP function provides enhanced flight crew awareness about the deceleration and capacity to stop
before the end of the runway
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In aircraft equipped with ROPS, when might you get a ROW amber “RWY TOO SHORT” vs a red “RWY TOO SHORT” message on the PFD?
Below 400’, if the computation for landing distance is more than the LDA:
The AMBER “RWY TOO SHORT” message is displayed on both PFD’s. This message flashes for 9 seconds
And then remains steady. This message is not associated to an aural alert
Below 200’, if the computation for landing distance is more than the LDA:
The RED “RWY TOO SHORT” message is displayed on both PFD’s. This message flashes for 9 seconds and
Then remains steady. In addition, the following repetitive aural alert triggers: “RUNWAY TOO SHORT”
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When does the ROP trigger visual and aural alerts?
On ground, the ROP function computes the braking distance for the current aircraft and runway conditions. If current braking performance is not sufficient to stop on LDA, it triggers visual and aural alerts
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What happens if an overrun situation is detected?
As soon as an overrun situation is detected “MAX BRAKING” and “MAX REVERSE” messages are displayed on both PFD’s. They flash for 9 seconds and then remain steady.
