UPDATES PKG EXAM #5

Question 1

Question 1:
During severe storms and hurricanes Rapid Response Vehicle Task Forces may be placed into operation. The initial Task Force may consist of all of the following except which incorrect choice?

A: An officer.

B: Two to four firefighters.

C: Two apparatus consisting of RRV-SOC Support Ladder second pieces, one RRV and a TAC Unit, or one RRV and a BFU.

D: The officer will serve as the Task Force Leader (TFL).

Answer 1

Answer: B

Explanation:
B) THREE to SIX firefighters.
AUC 159 Add 8 3

Question 2

Question 2:
There are four factors that influence the stack effect in a high-rise multiple dwelling. Which one listed is incorrect?

A: Air leakage in the building

B: Wind

C: Temperature differential between the outside and inside temperature

D: Height of the building

Answer 2

Answer: A

Explanation:
A. HORIZONTAL AIR EXCHANGE ON EACH FLOOR

THIS IS THE ONE FACTOR THAT WAS CHANGED WHEN THIS BULLETIN WAS UPDATED IN MARCH 2022

“WHAT”

WIND
HEIGHT
AIR-EXCHANGE (HORIZONTAL)
TEMPERATURE

Multiple Dwellings Ch 2 3.3.2

Question 3

Question 3:
The Department conducts annual Open House events with the goal of educating the public in the difficult and dangerous work members perform as fire service professionals. Of the choices below, which contains incorrect information regarding these events?

A: Selected Firehouses will be open to the public for a two-hour period as designated by the Bureau of Operations.

B: Units will be out of service during the event.

C: One Officer or one Firefighter will be assigned to remain in the firehouse and assist with the event.

D: The Fire Safety Education Unit will provide fire safety education literature for distribution. At the conclusion of the event the Officer on Duty shall close out the event on the FSE Tracking System.

Answer 3

Answer: B

Explanation:
B) Units will remain IN SERVICE during the event.
AUC 4 3.2

Question 4

Question 5:
In order to operate efficiently at buckeye pipeline emergencies, all units should consistently drill on tactics and ensure proper maintenance of valves. Which choice below is incorrect?

A: Units having buckeye pipeline control valves in their administrative district shall have them inspected during semi-annual hydrant inspections. Valves should also be inspected during familiarization drills.

B: Needed repairs or recommendations to buckeye pipeline control valves should be the subject of a letterhead report emailed directly to the Buckeye Pipeline Coordinator. Reports of critical repairs should be the subject of an immediate telephone notification to the Buckeye Pipeline Coordinator through FDOC.

C: Valve pits subject to flooding must be inspected during subfreezing weather. Flooded pits require a letterhead report emailed directly to the Buckeye Pipeline Coordinator.

D: Both buckeye familiarization drills and division drills take place in March/April and September/October, while Borough drills take place in October/November. Valves shall not be turned, closed, or operated in any manner during Familiarization/Division Drills but valves are actually closed during Borough drills.

Answer 4

Answer: C

Explanation:
C) Valve pits subject to flooding must be inspected during subfreezing weather. Flooded pits require an IMMEDIATE TELEPHONE NOTIFICATION to the Buckeye Pipeline Coordinator THROUGH FDOC.
D Note: Multi Unit drills may be utilized for Familiarization Drills.
AUC 149 9.1, 9.2, 10.2-10.4, 10.5.2, 10.5.10

Question 5

Question 6:
The first arriving ladder company officer is responsible to activate a building ARCS system if so equipped. Which step outlined below is incorrect?

A: The officer will ensure a functional test is performed before leaving the lobby.

B: The officer shall designate a firefighter or switch his/her HT to the building primary duplex UHF repeater channel (channel 11).

C: The officer will notify the dispatcher for re-transmittal to all incoming units if the building duplex UHF radio repeater system and channel (11 or 12) have been activated as a command channel.

D: Upon arrival of the second arriving battalion chief to the operations post all members except the first ladder officer shall return HT’s to channel 1.

Answer 5

Answer: D

Explanation:
D. Upon arrival of the second arriving battalion chief to the operations post ALL MEMBERS OF THE FIRST LADDER shall return HT’s to channel 1.

Communications Ch 13 3.1.1

Question 6

Question 7:
Bunker Gear must be donned in a specific order. Which order of donning bunker gear is correct?
1. Protective Hood
2. Bunker Coat
3. Handie-Talkie
4. Pants and Boots.

A: 4, 3, 2, 1

B: 4, 3, 1, 2

C: 1, 3, 4, 2

D: 1, 4, 3, 2

Answer 6

Answer: B

Explanation:
1. Pants and Boots (Personal Safety System and suspenders in place)
2. Handie-Talkie (remote speaker clipped to outside of coat)
3. Protective Hood
4. Bunker Coat
AUC 310 7.1

Question 7

Question 8:
A Manhattan engine company is discussing line placement at a lower floor fire in a cast iron loft building consisting of large un-compartmented areas. Members make the following remarks but were incorrect in which one?

A: A 2 1/2 inch hose line is required.

B: The first line must be stretched by way of the main entrance to the location of the fire.

C: The officer supervising the second hoseline should not advance to the floor above until assured that this hoseline is not required on the fire floor.

D: The primary use of the second hoseline is to backup the first hoseline.

Answer 7

Answer: B

Explanation:
B. The first line SHOULD BE STRETCHED TO THE ENTRANCE DOOR THAT PROVIDES THE QUICKEST ACCESS TO THE FIRE AREA TO EXTINGUISH THE FIRE. THIS WILL LIKELY BE BY WAY OF THE MAIN ENTRANCE AND INTERIOR STAIRS.

NOTE “A”: THE 2 1/2 IS REQUIRED HERE BECAUSE OF THE LARGE UNCMARTMENTED AREAS

Loft 6.1.1, 6.2.2

Question 8

Question 11:
What is the maximum load capacity for a telescoping ladder?

A: 300 lbs

B: 400 lbs

C: 500 lbs

D: 600 lbs

Answer 8

Answer: A

Explanation:
NEW LADDER AS OF JANUARY 2021

Portable Ladders 8.4.2

Question 9

Question 12:
All members should be familiar with their personal protective equipment (PPE). Which choice below is incorrect?

A: The thermal liner is the most critical component in bunker gear because in conjunction with the vapor barrier, the two account for approximately three quarters of the thermal protective performance.

B: The hood is part of the PPE and shall be worn whether dry, damp, or saturated with moisture.

C: Though recommended, the wearing of the suspenders is not mandatory.

D: Members must leave the area immediately upon feeling any pain or discomfort through the hood, unless the area can be immediately cooled by a hoseline.

Answer 9

Answer: C

Explanation:
C) The wearing of the suspenders is MANDATORY.
A Note: (the other quarter is made up by the outer shell.)
AUC 310 4.1, 6.6, 6.7, 6.8

Question 10

Question 13:
At a standpipe operation, in the extreme case of a third line being stretched to the floor above the fire, and if the floor outlet is in an _______ stairway, consideration may be given to hooking up the 3rd line to the outlet on the original fire floor. Approval by the ________ is needed to hook up an additional line to an outlet on the original fire floor.

A: unenclosed; IC or Fire Sector Supervisor

B: unenclosed; IC

C: enclosed; IC or Fire Sector Supervisor

D: enclosed; IC

Answer 10

Answer: C

Explanation:
NEW INFORMATION IN THE NEW ENGINE OPS

Engine Ops Ch 8 7.7.3

Question 11

Question 14:
All members should have proper knowledge in donning PPE prior to responding. Which of the following choices is incorrect?

A: For structural fires, all members except chauffeurs shall don their PPE prior to responding. In hot weather, if the apparatus is not equipped with a functioning air conditioning unit, coats and protective hoods may be dispensed with while responding.

B: Non-Structural Fires and Response to BARS Alarms, Non-Fire Responses, ERS NC, and Class E Alarms - In hot weather, coats and protective hoods may be dispensed with while responding. Responding without PPE is permissible. This also includes CFR responses.

C: Members may drive Department apparatus while wearing bunker pants with leather boots.

D: Department Chauffeurs and Tiller operators should insert their thumbs through the wristlet loops of bunker coat prior to driving apparatus.

Answer 11

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) Department Chauffeurs and Tiller operators should NOT insert their thumbs through the wristlet loops of bunker coat prior to driving apparatus as the wristlet material may prevent members from getting a firm grip.
AUC 310 7.2.1-7.2.5

Question 12

Question 15:
Ladder 399 arrives on-scene of a 4th alarm fire in the cockloft of an H-Type MD. The ladder officer reports in to the ICP and is ordered to set up the ladder pipe. The officer has the following thoughts. Which one is correct?

A: One supply source is recommended.

B: When operating at the maximum elevation of 80 feet, the siamese should be supplied with roughly 150 psi.

C: When in operation, the angle of the aerial ladder should not exceed 75 degrees.

D: While the ladder pipe is in operation, the horizontal movement of the stream is controlled using the halyard.

Answer 12

Answer: B

Explanation:
A. TWO SUPPLY SOURCES ARE recommended TO PREVENT UNDUE STRESS ON THE AERIAL LADDER IN THE EVENT A SUDDEN LOSS OF WATER OCCURS.

C. When in operation, the angle of the aerial ladder should not exceed 70 DEGREES.

D. While the ladder pipe is in operation, the VERTICAL movement of the stream is controlled using the halyard. THE HORIZONTAL MOVEMENT IS CONTROLLED BY MOVING THE TURNTABLE.

NOTE “B”: THE LADDER PIPE SHOULD BE SUPPLIED WITH ROUGHLY 110 PSI, PLUS 5 PSI FOR EVERY 10 FEET IN ELEVATION.

THESE NUMBERS/CALCULATIONS WERE ADDED IN THE NEW ENGINE OPS

Engine Ops Ch 9 6.6.5, 6.6.6, 6.6.7, 6.6.8

Question 13

Question 17:
All members should know how to properly decontaminate items. Of the following choices, which is not in accordance with Department policy?

A: If both bunker pants and the Personal Safety System (PSS) have been grossly contaminated, members shall place both items together into a double clear bag, tied or taped closed.

B: For fireground contamination, the PSS shall be decontaminated in quarters using a sponge and water. A mild detergent may be used if necessary.

C: Radios, tools and other hard surface items shall be decontaminated in quarters with a chlorine bleach solution.

D: Prior to forwarding contaminated PPE, remove all items from pockets (e.g. coins, nails, tools, pens, etc).

Answer 13

Answer: A

Explanation:
A) If both bunker pants and the Personal Safety System (PSS) system have been grossly contaminated, members SHALL SEPARATE the PSS from pants prior to bagging both items. The PSS System shall not be bagged with bunker coat and pants.
AUC 310 Add 5 2.2, 2.3, 2.5

Question 14

Question 19:
When activated during a severe storm or hurricane, each Rapid Response Vehicle Task Force shall be equipped with a minimum of each of the following except?

A: Two chain saws

B: Spare chains, Chain saw fuel and NFPA approved protective equipment for chain saw operations including helmet, eye and ear protection, gloves, bunker boots and chaps

C: Search rope

D: One dewatering pump

Answer 14

Answer: C

Explanation:
C) Elevator keys
Note: Additional equipment will be supplied as necessary by contacting Tech Services. SOC or Rescue Operations does not supply this equipment for SSL’s.
AUC 159 Add 8 3.6

Question 15

Question 22:
Newly promoted company officers must be aware of the FDNY’s injury and exposure reporting guidelines. Which one stated is incorrect?

A: If an on-duty member is transported to a hospital or other medical facility by ambulance, the member may not return to duty (regardless of the type of injury) without the approval of the company officer.

B: If an on-duty member is evaluated at a hospital or other medical facility, the medical officer must be notified, and an injury report must be completed in CIRS.

C: Smoke inhalation without symptoms shall never be classified as a minor injury.

D: There are two injury classifications: service connected medical leave and minor injury.

Answer 15

Answer: A

Explanation:
A. If an on-duty member is transported to a hospital or other medical facility by ambulance, the member may not return to duty (regardless of the type of injury) without the approval of the MEDICAL OFFICER.

NOTE: A, B ,C ARE ALL NEW POINTS THAT WERE ADDED WHEN THIS BULLETIN WAS ISSUED IN APRIL 2022

ALSO NOTE “C”: THIS IS CLASSIFIED AS A NON-BIOLOGICAL EXPOSURE

Safety Bulletin 1 2.4, 2.5, 3.1.1, 3.1.2

Question 16

Question 25:
Members in the Bronx are discussing firefighting tactics during periods of civil unrest. They are reviewing firefighting operations as outlined in the FDNY’s Emergency Command Procedures. Which procedure is incorrect?

A: Firefighting operations begin upon order from the Task Force Leader.

B: The use of hydrants before and after the fire building should be avoided, with hooking up to mid-block hydrants being preferable.

C: Engine apparatus should be supplied with minimum of two supply lines when possible.

D: A backup handline shall be stretched at all structural fires, regardless of the number of lines needed to extinguish the fire.

Answer 16

Answer: B

Explanation:
B. The use of MID-BLOCK HYDRANTS should be avoided, with hooking up to HYDRANTS BEFORE AND AFTER THE FIRE BUILDING being preferable.

NEW BULLETIN RELEASED APRIL 2021

ERP 3B 4.7.1, 4.7.4, 4.7.5, 4.7.6

Question 17

Question 26:
A manhole incident is properly resolved in each of the following ways except?

A: Units may cordon off the area and return to service when the incident was minor in nature and/or investigation revealed no additional monitoring is required.

B: In more serious incidents, FDNY should remain on the scene until the FDNY Incident Commander determines that the risk to public safety has been resolved and FD resources are no longer required.

C: In situations requiring monitoring, the Incident Commander will determine the selection of units to be left at the scene. This can be to await the arrival of the electric utility, or if there is an extended ETA it can be until conditions subside. When required, at least one engine and one ladder shall be left to monitor.

D: In more serious incidents, units may have to remain on scene after utility company arrival and continuing to operate as necessary during the initial stages of electric utility operations.

Answer 17

Answer: C

Explanation:
C) In situations requiring monitoring, the Incident Commander will determine the selection of units to be left at the scene. This can be to await the arrival of the electric utility, or if there is an extended ETA it can be until conditions subside. When required, AT LEAST ONE ENGINE shall be left to monitor.
AUC 180 7.6

Question 18

Question 29:
The Blitzfire Oscillating Monitor is a relatively new tool to the FDNY. Which one feature of this tool is incorrect?

A: The tool is supplied by 3 1/2 inch hose.

B: The maximum pressure to be supplied to the Blitzfire is 175 psi.

C: The speed of oscillation is a function of the flow rate.

D: On a sloped surface, if the safety mechanism activates, the flow control handle will have to be manually held open by a firefighter.

Answer 18

Answer: A

Explanation:
A. The tool is supplied by 2 1/2 INCH HOSE.

NOTE “C” AND “D” ARE BOTH NEW POINTS ADDED TO THIS TOOL WHEN IT WAS MOVED TO THE NEW ENGINE OPS IN AUGUST 2021.

Engine Ops Ch 9 8.2, 8.3, 8.7.5, 8.10

Question 19

Question 30:
Aside from routine manhole fires, members may have to operate at other types of manhole/transformer emergencies. Which choice below is incorrect?

A: In order to locate a failure in the system, Con Ed intentionally sends out a high-voltage test signal. At the location of the failure, there will be a loud rhythmic banging noise approximately every 6 seconds without smoke or fire present and this poses no safety threat to the public.

B: Notify Con Ed whenever encountering a rhythmic banging noise approximately every 6 seconds and report that you detected a “Fault Finding Signal”.

C: Rescue and Squad companies have special equipment and training to effect the rescue of an injured or unconscious utility worker from a manhole/vault, including while the electric equipment remains energized (without entering the manhole) and even if fire and smoke conditions are present.

D: For a manhole/vault rescue, notify Con Edison for Emergency Power Off Utility Worker Trapped and immediately have first arriving units enter the vault to begin treatment/packaging.

Answer 19

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) FD members shall NOT enter the vault until Con Edison has determined it safe to enter. Special Call Rescue and Squad and allow SOC operations to commence even if power has not been removed. This includes SOC penetrating the vault with special tools and operating a Bresnan distributor; both of these operations are conducted from above ground.
AUC 180 5.1, 5.3

Question 20

Question 31:
How long must a member pause after pressing the push-to-talk button prior to transmitting on the new HT in order to allow the HT ID to be transmitted?

A: 1/4 second

B: 1/2 second

C: 1 second

D: 2 seconds

Answer 20

Answer: B

Explanation:
THIS NUMBER CHANGED FROM THE OLD RADIOS TO THE NEW RADIO

NOTE: HITTING EAB APPROXIMATELY 1 SECOND IS TO ACTIVATE THE EAB. HITTING EAB FOR APPROXIMATELY 2 SECONDS IS TO RESET THE EAB.

Communications Ch 11 2.5 C

Question 21

Question 32:
The term “Smoke Explosion” can be incorrectly described in which choice?

A: A Smoke Explosion can only occur inside the fire compartment

B: A Smoke Explosion can occur without warning

C: A Smoke Explosion can occur without a sudden change in ventilation

D: A Smoke Explosion can occur in a room(s) remote from the fire area, including void spaces

Answer 21

Answer: A

Explanation:
A Smoke Explosion can occur either INSIDE or OUTSIDE the fire compartment when an accumulation of fuel-rich smoke mixes with additional air and falls within its flammable/explosive range
Fire Dynamics (May, 2021) ch 3 sec 6

Question 22

Question 33:
Transformers contain up to 2000 gallons of transformer oil. Although most PCBs have been removed from transformers, there are some that still contain PCBs and full PPE and SCBA use shall be mandatory. Which transformer fire tactic is incorrect?

A: Water applied to a failed transformer with a combustible liquid fire may cause a boilover, which is the rapid expansion and expulsion of vaporized oil. A boilover usually causes a large plume of burning liquid to expel from the container.

B: Water is acceptable to use to protect exposures but applying water directly on the transformer should be avoided as an initial tactic.

C: Transmit a 10-86 Signal (for Purple K, F500 and Foam Response). Operate Foam on the transformer fire as it is the only agent recommended to be used directly on the transformer fire prior to utility arrival. Standoff distance is 10 feet.

D: Evacuate the area as deemed necessary. Establish Hot, Warm and Cold Zones in anticipation of PCB laden oil spray during firefighting operations.

Answer 22

Answer: C

Explanation:
C) Transmit a 10-86 Signal (for Purple K, F500 and Foam Response). Operate PURPLE K on the transformer fire as it is the only agent recommended to be used directly on the transformer fire prior to utility arrival. Standoff distance is 10 feet.
Note: “After the arrival of the electric utility” when extinguishing with the methods below, maintain a stand-off distance of 25 feet and use a 30 degree or greater fog stream or a stream operated into the air above the fire so that the selected agent “rains down” onto the fire. Tactics IN ORDER OF PREFERENCE are:
1. F500 - carried by Haz-Mat 1 and stored for FDNY use at some Con Ed Facilities. It is the preferred agent to be used on a transformer fire.
2. Foam.
3. Water Spray.
AUC 180 6.2, 6.3

Question 23

Question 34:
Which engine company operation for a store fire on the first floor of a 4-story old law tenement is incorrect?

A: The first hoseline should be stretched to the store on the first floor.

B: A charged line must be ready before the store is ventilated.

C: Depending on the size of the fire area and the fire conditions a 1 3/4” or 2 1/2” hoseline may be considered.

D: The 2nd hoseline is stretched to the store as a backup line. When assured that the second line is not needed on the first floor, it may be advanced to the second floor.

Answer 23

Answer: D

Explanation:
D. The 2nd hoseline is stretched TO THE ENTRANCE HALLWAY. When assured that the second line is not needed on the first floor, it may be advanced to the second floor.

THERE WERE UPDATES TO THIS SECTION WITH THE RELEASE OF THE BULLETIN IN MARCH 2022

Multiple Dwellings Ch 1 3.3

Question 24

Question 35:
“Operation Sidewalk” is designed to promote better understanding between community residents and the Fire Department, and is accomplished by unit participation at block parties, street fairs, parades, and other school and community events coordinated by the Fire Safety Education Unit in the unit’s response area. Which of the following choices is incorrect regarding this event?

A: The nearest engine company or ladder company is assigned to the activity for a period of 1 1/2 hours. Operation Sidewalk will not be canceled if a Signal 10-51 is transmitted.

B: The unit will remain in service by radio, and respond at the discretion of the dispatcher. The unit will respond to 10-75 signals and greater alarms.

C: The unit assigned should answer questions pertaining to the apparatus and equipment and explain fire safety and prevention.

D: Upon receiving a request for an “Operation Sidewalk” event, the Officer on Duty will have the requester email or call the Fire Safety Education Unit.

Answer 24

Answer: A

Explanation:
A) The nearest engine company or ladder company is assigned to the activity for a period of ONE hour. Operation Sidewalk will be CANCELLED if a Signal 10-51 is transmitted.
C Note: When children are involved, the dangers of hydrant abuse, false alarms, and playing with matches should be stressed. A ladder-raising or mask donning demonstration can be used as part of the display.
D Note: The Fire Safety Education Unit will make arrangements for Fire Department participation with the Bureau of Operations and will detail a member to act as coordinator when appropriate. If a representative cannot attend, the scheduler at the Fire Safety Education Unit will notify the assigned unit, and the unit officer will coordinate the activity.
Notes: No more than one (1) “Operation Sidewalk” function may be assigned to a unit during a tour.
Operation Sidewalk will be canceled if a Signal 10-51 is transmitted. The unit scheduled to participate must notify the sponsoring organization and the Fire Safety Education Unit.
AUC 4 3.3

Question 25

Question 36:
Fire safety education is an important Fire Department function. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?

A: All fire safety education programs are exempt from the 10-51 signal, except Operation Sidewalk or when ordered by the Chief of Operations.

B: Units performing fire safety education functions that are placed out of service by the Bureau of Operations will be out of service for a period of approximately 1 1/2 hours.

C: Upon receiving a request for a Firehouse visit to Quarters, the Officer on Duty will schedule the event on a day that the Unit is not scheduled for BISP, hydrant inspection or other scheduled activities, such as PMP, etc.

D: At a fire safety education event at which a Fire Safety Education Unit coordinator is present, the company officer and members shall be guided by the coordinator. If no coordinator is present, the Officer on duty will be in charge of the field unit’s participation, and upon completion of the event, shall email details to the Fire Safety Education Unit so they can close out the event on the FSE Tracking System.

Answer 25

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) At a fire safety education event at which a Fire Safety Education Unit coordinator is present, the company officer and members shall be guided by the coordinator. If no coordinator is present, the OFFICER on duty will be in charge of the field unit’s participation, and upon completion of the event, MUST CLOSE OUT the event on the FSE Tracking System.
B Note: Some programs may require units to be out of service longer or shorter than that.
C Note: The Officer on Duty will note the event in the day book and enter the information into the FSE Tracking System.
Upon receiving a request for a Fire Safety Education event, other than a visit to Quarters, the Officer on Duty will have the requester contact the Fire Safety Education Unit via email or phone.
AUC 4 2.5, 2.6, 2.8-2.11

Question 26

Question 37:
At what pressure does high pressure pumping begin?

A: 250

B: Over 250

C: 300

D: Over 300

Answer 26

Answer: D

Explanation:
THIS NUMBER WAS CHANGED WHEN THE NEW ENGINE OPS WAS RELEASED

Engine Ops Ch 8 Addendum 1 1.4

Question 27

Question 38:
Which is NOT an example of a Flash Fire?

A: Ignition of dust in a wood shop

B: Ignition of vapors from a roach bomb

C: Ignition of vapors from a newly stained wood floor

D: An explosion of a vessel containing a pressurized liquid that has reached temperatures at or above its boiling point

Answer 27

Answer: D

Explanation:
BLEVE (Boiling Liquid Expanding Vapor Explosion) is an explosion of a vessel containing a pressurized liquid that has reached temperatures at or above its boiling point
Fire Dynamics (May, 2021) ch 3 sec 8 and 9

Question 28

Question 39:
There can be different types of fires in a transformer vaults. Which description below is incorrect?

A: Cable (Wire) fires are the most common fire that develop in a transformer vault and will present with more smoke visible than actual flames. Flames may protrude from the vault but will not consist of a large volume of fire.

B: Rubbish fires can be extinguished with a class C extinguisher or by using water with proper stand-off distances.

C: Sustained Arcing is when a fault develops on the unit and the limiter (breaker) fails to clear. A persistent bluish arcing flash will develop but may not be visible. Arcing can also be indicated by hissing, buzzing or crackling noises without a visible indicator.

D: A transformer fire will present with an extremely heavy fire condition usually with flames burning 4 or more feet in the air. This is a true transformer fire, and is the combustible oil inside the transformer burning.

Answer 28

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) A transformer fire will present with an extremely heavy fire condition usually with flames burning 10 OR MORE FEET in the air. This is a true transformer fire, and is the combustible oil inside the transformer burning.
A Note: You may follow the procedures for manhole fires for these incidents. (Await Con Ed if possible, using water and proper stand-off distances if necessary)
C Note: While it is common for this condition to occur on cables in a manhole, if it occurs on a transformer, this condition can result in catastrophic failure of the transformer. Isolate the area of civilians, and FD members should monitor from an area of safety. There are no actions members can take to prevent catastrophic failure. You cannot suppress a transformer fire with sustained arcing. The electric utility must remove power from the unit.
AUC 180 6.1

Question 29

Question 40:
What tool assignment is correct for the first due roof firefighter at a Class 2 high rise fire resistive MD?

A: Halligan; Halligan hook; Hydra ram

B: Halligan; Axe; Hydra Ram

C: Halligan; Maul; LSR; Hydra Ram

D: Halligan; Maul; KO curtain; Hydra Ram

Answer 29

Answer: B

Explanation:
HALLIGAN; MAUL/AXE; HYDRA RAM

NO LSR; NO KO CURTAIN; NO HOOK

THIS RELATIVELY NEW BULLETIN HAS NEVER BEEN TESTED ON A LT EXAM, KNOW IT WELL

Multiple Dwelling Ch 4 10.1.4