LT FINAL EXAM Flashcards
Question 4:
Managing line placement is a high priority for engine officers. Which of the following choices CORRECTLY describes line placement by engine companies?
A: After confirming with the 1st engine officer, the 2nd engine can stretch a second line when it is a short stretch before confirming the 1st engine has a positive water source.
B: If there is an immediate need for a 2nd hoseline to address fire extension or a life hazard, the IC (Chief officer or Engine Officer) may order the 2nd engine in any situation to immediately stretch a second line for any purpose.
C: If the 2nd arriving engine has already begun stretching the 2nd hoseline, the 3rd arriving engine should team up with the 2nd arriving engine and assist in the operation of the 2nd hoseline.
D: The 3rd arriving engine should only stretch a 3rd hoseline when ordered by the incident commander.
Answer: D
Explanation:
ENGINE OPERATIONS – CHAPTER 4 – COMPANY OFFICER
D IS CORRECT – 3.6.3
A – The first arriving engine must have secured a positive water source. 3.5.1
B – Chief officer or Acting Chief officer 3.5.4 Note
C – 3rd arriving engine must team up with the 1ST ARRIVING ENGINE and assist in the operation of the 1ST HOSELINE. 3.6
Question 11:
You are the first arriving Ladder Company Officer investigating an alarm in a large, high rise building and decide to activate the building’s (Auxiliary Radio Communications System (ARCS) on FDNY Channel 11. You would be correct in all actions below except?
A: The ARCS can be activated via a 1620 Key or ON/OFF switch at the Fire Command Station.
B: Instruct a member to staff the Incident Command Post to monitor the tactical and/or repeater channel/relay messages.
C: Designate a member or switch his/her HT to the Building Primary duplex UHF radio repeater channel (Channel 11) and ensure a functional test is performed after leaving the lobby.
D: Notify the Dispatcher for re-transmittal to all incoming units that the building duplex UHF radio repeater system and Channel 11 have been activated as a Command channel.
Answer: C
Explanation:
C) Designate a member or switch his/her HT to the Building Primary duplex UHF radio repeater channel (Channel 11) and ensure a functional test is performed PRIOR TO leaving the lobby.
Comm Ch 13 3.1
Question 12:
A telephone alarm is in and the units in Battalion 99 will arrive at the location of the Park Tower Mega High Rise and confirm a fire on the 32nd floor. The CIDS is as follows: PG – MEGA 90 STY 200X150 CL1 – 3 ELEV BANKS – A BANK FLRS 1-30, B BANK FLRS 30-60, C BANK FLRS 60-90 – ACCESS STAIRS FLRS 12-17, 28-33, 37-42 – SPKR/STDP SIAM EXP 1 & 3 SIDE BLDG – MER FLRS 31 & 61. Which choice is CORRECT regarding the use of the available elevators to access the fire floor?
A: A bank of elevators to 26th floor followed by walking up to 32
B: A bank of elevators to 30th floor followed by walking up to 32
C: B bank of elevators to 30th floor followed by walking up to 32
D: B bank of elevators to 28th floor followed by walking up to 32
Answer: B
Explanation:
TRAINING BULLETINS – ELEVATOR OPERATIONS
B IS CORRECT – A Bank of elevators to 30th floor followed by walk up to 32. The A bank terminates at 30 does not service the fire floor so it is the primary elevator for use during this operation. The access stairs service floors 28-33 however, they are only a consideration when using an elevator that services the fire floor. In this case the A bank does not. – ELEVATORS 6.1.3 Do not use an elevator in a bank which services the fire floor if a lower bank of elevators reaches within five floors of the fire floor. 6.1.4 – When it is necessary to use an elevator in a bank which serves the fire floor… 1. If Fire Service is available, use a car with the Fire Service feature. 2. Select a floor at least two floors below the fire floor or two floors below the lower level of an access stair in the fire area, whichever is lowest.
A - More than 5 floors below the fire floor
C – B bank services the fire floor which would bring the access stairs into play.
D – B bank does not service the 28th floor
Question 16:
The members of Engine 256 and Ladder 171 have just returned to quarters from a fire in what turned out to be a private dwelling of lightweight construction. The members are conducting a critique and several members made statements about operations. Of the below actions taken, which was INCORRECT?
A: On arrival, there was heavy fire in the cellar & 1st floor preventing a visual inspection of the type of construction, so a later arriving unit was assigned to exposure 2 (similar construction) to check for the type of construction.
B: Lightweight construction was suspected, so the 1st arriving ladder made an inspection hole in the ceiling from a safe area in order to determine the type of support system present.
C: Once fire extended to the top floor, all members were removed from the roof after a small vent hole was cut from an area of safety over the fire area.
D: Prior to indications of extension to the cockloft, members were allowed to conduct preliminary roof duties, including visual check of the sides and rear and venting skylights and top floor windows.
Answer: C
Explanation:
PRIVATE DWELLINGS CHAPTER 6 – LIGHTWEIGHT CONSTRUCTION
C IS INCORRECT – Under no circumstances shall the roof be cut in any peaked or flat roof building of lightweight construction. 4.3.8
A – 4.3.2
B – 4.3.1
D – 4.3.10
Question 22:
When operating water into a manhole, vault or service box, members shall be guided by which one correct provision?
A: Maintain a distance of at least 10 feet from the nozzle to the manhole, vault or service box.
B: Use a solid stream nozzle to prevent any shock hazard.
C: Do not use water or FireIce as an initial tactic on a combustible liquid transformer fire (indicated by a large volume of fire flames 10 feet or more in height).
D: Adjoining manholes & service boxes should be identified and clear of civilian and FD personnel after starting water.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A. Maintain a distance of at least 25 FEET from the nozzle to the manhole, vault or service box.
B. Use a FOG NOZZLE to prevent any shock hazard.
D. Adjoining manholes & service boxes should be identified and clear of civilian and FD personnel BEFORE starting water.
NOTE “A” Cross Ref FireIce: THE MEMBER OPERATING THE NOZZLE SHOULD COMMENCE OPERATIONS AT A SAFE STANDOFF DISTANCE OF 50 FEET. AFTER ESTABLISHING AN ADEQUATE GELL SOLUTION, AND AS CONDITIONS ALLOW, THE NOZZLE TEAM MAY ADVACNE TOWARD THE MNAHOLE WHILE MAINTAINING A MINIMUM SAFE DISTANCE OF 25 FEET FROM THE MANHOLE OPENING.
AUC 180 4.7.2, 4.7.3, 4.7.4, 4.7.8
Question 23:
When a Rowframe building is fully involved with fire showing in both exposures, specific engine company tactics are required. Which tactic below is incorrect?
A: The first arriving engine company should stretch one 3 ½” supply line for a tower ladder, and a hoseline to enter the fire building through the front door.
B: The second hoseline, if not needed to back up the first hoseline, is stretched to the top floor of the most severe exposure to protect the cockloft and interior shafts.
C: If the second hoseline is needed to back up the first hoseline, the third hoseline is stretched to the top floor of the most severe exposure.
D: If the second hoseline is stretched to the top floor of the most severe exposure, the third hoseline is stretched into the original fire building.
Answer: D
Explanation:
D) If the second hoseline is stretched to the top floor of the most severe exposure, the third hoseline is stretched to the top floor of the OPPOSITE EXPOSURE.
Note: The fourth hoseline is stretched as ordered by the Incident Commander.
BS/RF 6.5
Question 25:
On his second tour out of FLSTP, Lt Keith Hernandez is working the 6X9 tour in E-300 (4 FF Engine) in the great Borough of Brooklyn. Spending the last 20 years in L-200, Lt Hernandez is trying to understand the procedures for CFR. Lt Hernandez was correct in which CFR procedure below?
A: CFR Units must start the tour with a minimum of 2 members
B: Once a CFR Unit is on scene (10-84), a Patient Care Report (PCR) must be completed
C: When a CFR Unit is requesting an ambulance via the dispatch radio, the information that must be provided is the CUPS status, Age, Chief Complaint, If CPR initiated, and the Pulse, and Respiratory rate of the patient
D: Upon arrival to a CFR run, it is discovered that the patient is DOA. In this case no Patient Care Report (PCR) is necessary
Answer: C
Explanation:
CFR ch 2
A- While CFR Units must begin each tour with 2 certified FFs, in the event that during a tour the minimum CFR staffing reduces to 1 FF and 1 Officer (2 members), the Company shall remain available for CFR responses…sec 1.8.Note
B- A PCR is not required when a CFR Company is on-scene (10-84) at any CFR assignment unless patient care is provided…sec 3.10.1
C- Sec 3.11
D- The CFR Unit must complete a Pre-Hospital Care Report even if the patient is DOA to document that the Company properly examined the patient to confirm that the patient exhibited the criteria for obvious death…sec 4.4.5.Note
Question 26:
While operating at the scene of a reported chemical release in the subway, members notice a distinct odor of burnt almonds. The would be most correct to suspect which one chemical below?
A: Tabun
B: Nitrogen Mustard
C: Cyanogen Chloride
D: Phosgene
Answer: C
Explanation:
A. Fruity
B. Fishy, musty odor
D. Musky hay
SIMILAR QUESTION ON 2009 LT EXAM
ERP Addendum 2 Pg 18
Question 27:
All members should be familiar with the operation of their handie-talkies. Which of the following choices is incorrect?
A: An Emergency Alert can be activated by depressing and holding the Emergency Alert Button (EAB) until the audible is heard (1/2 second).
B: An Emergency Alert must be reset by depressing and holding the EAB until the reset tone is heard (approximately 2 seconds). Turning the radio off and on will not reset the Emergency Alert on the Electronic Fireground Accountability System (EFAS).
C: The IDs of the last 15 received transmissions can be viewed and an orange triangle indicates Emergency Alert activated transmissions.
D: Whenever a member who has activated their Emergency Alert presses the push-to-talk button, members receiving such a transmission will observe an Orange band with Emergency call, Unit and Position on their main display.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A) An Emergency Alert can be activated by depressing and holding the Emergency Alert Button (EAB) until the audible is heard (APPROXIMATELY 1 SECOND).
Comm Ch 11 3.5, 3.5.1.1, 3.5.2.1, 3.5.3
Question 29:
Lt Ron Darling is covering his first vacation in E-400, and is confronted on what to do with the Patient Care Reports (PCRs) that were generated recently. Lt Darling is trying to remember from his study days the correct PCR procedure. Choose the correct procedure.
A: Part one (original) of the PCR is to be forwarded to OMA at FDNY HQ at the end of each month
B: Part one (original) of the PCR is to be forwarded to OMA at FDNY HQ at the end of each tour
C: Part 2 (research copy) is to be forwarded with part one
D: Part 3 (hospital patient record copy) is to be given to the patient on scene
Answer: B
Explanation:
CFR ch 5 sec 1.1
A- see choice B
C- Part 2 (research copy) is to be retained in quarters
D- Part 3 (hospital patient record copy) is to be given to the EMS unit operating on scene. If Part 3 is not given to the EMS unit, it shall be forwarded with the original to OMA
Question 31:
Depending on the height and size of a high rise office building, members may have to operate the building fire pumps during a working fire. Of the following choices, which is incorrect regarding this procedure?
A: Follow signs or directions to the pump room which is normally located on the lowest floor (cellar or sub-cellar).
B: After locating the pump, locate the bypass valve on the discharge side of the fire pump. The discharge side can be readily identified by examining the gauges; the discharge gauge is calibrated for higher pressures than the inlet gauge.
C: The bypass valve should be in the closed position (stem out). If they are found to be open, they should be closed by turning in a counter-clockwise direction.
D: In some systems the bypass valve is not readily discernible. In this case it is permissible to start the pump as ordered without checking bypass valve but the efficiency of the pump will be affected. A loss of 25% can be expected in an 8” riser and a loss of 45% can be expected in a 6” riser with the bypass open.
Answer: C
Explanation:
C) The bypass valve should be in the closed position (stem IN). If they are found to be open, they should be closed by turning in a CLOCKWISE direction.
D Note: Notify the engineer upon his/her arrival of this and any other actions taken.
HROB 4.1.2 A-F
Question 32:
For a fire in a high rise office building, which Ladder Company assignment is incorrect?
A: The 3rd arriving Ladder Company will determine which stairway is the best stairway to be used by the occupants for evacuation and advise the Incident Command Post.
B: If difficulty is encountered in clearing the attack stairway of occupants, the officer of the 2nd arriving Ladder Company shall advise the 1st arriving Ladder Company or the Fire Sector Supervisor/Branch Director to withhold the attack until the occupants have been safely removed.
C: The 1st and 2nd arriving Ladder Companies will conduct the search operation of the fire floor.
D: The 4th arriving Ladder Company will conduct a primary search of the top five floors.
Answer: B
Explanation:
B) If difficulty is encountered in clearing the attack stairway of occupants, the officer of the 3rd ARRIVING LADDER COMPANY shall advise the 1st arriving Ladder Company or the Fire Sector Supervisor/Branch Director to withhold the attack until the occupants have been safely removed.
HROB 8.3.1 E, 8.4.2 A, 8.5.1 B, 8.6.1 E
Question 33:
The purpose of the Firefighter Assist and Search Team (FAST) is to be immediately available to assist a member who becomes trapped, distressed or involved in other serious life threatening situations. The Fast Unit must be ready to act immediately and decisively when called upon. There are several procedures when reporting in and operating as the Fast Unit. The only correct procedure can be found in which choice?
A: The Fast Unit shall report to and stage near the Incident Command Post, within sight of the IC, where they can be immediately deployed
B: When operating at large commercial occupancies, the FAST Unit shall split up for a quick two sided approach
C: When the FAST Unit arrives at the location of the distressed member, the transmitting member of the FAST Unit shall depress the EAB on their HT and provide the IC all necessary information.
D: Upon arrival of a downed member, the FAST Unit shall assess the situation; Fire, Air, Removal, and Immediate Medical Care
Answer: C
Explanation:
MMID ch 2
A- within VERBAL contact of the IC, where they can be immediately deployed…sec 3.1
B- The FAST Unit shall remain intact and not split up when dealing with large commercial or complex buildings…sec 7.4
C- Sec 7.6
D- Fire, Air, Immediate Medical Care, Removal (FAIR)…sec 7.6
Question 34:
Ladder company members are operating at the scene of a ”man-under” of a grade-level subway station. The on-duty Lieutenant asks his LCC to retrieve the emergency evacuation device. Where would the LCC expect to find this device at this station?
A: The area of the full time token booth.
B: The base of the emergency exit.
C: Any token booth.
D: The first blue light location south of the southbound platform (typically within 50 feet of the platform end).
Answer: D
Explanation:
At underground and GRADE LEVEL STATIONS the EED is located at the first blue light location south of the southbound platform (typically within 50 feet of the platform end).
A. This is for ELEVATED stations.
B. This is for UNDER RIVER TUNNELS.
C. The keys to remove EEDs from their brackets can be found at EVERY TOKEN BOOTH.
AUC 207 Addendum 11 3.1, 3.2, 3.3, 3.4
Question 38:
First alarm units are operating at the scene of a mass casualty improvised explosive device detonation in the subway. Which one procedure is the only one in accordance with FDNY SOPs?
A: The first arriving engine properly positioned the apparatus, established a water supply, and stretched a 1 3/4 hoseline to knockdown fire threatening victims.
B: The second arriving engine removed meters, skeds and CFR equipment from the apparatus and reported to the point of impact.
C: The first arriving ladder company used skeds to remove critical victims from the point of impact to the triage transfer point.
D: The second arriving ladder company conducted reconnaissance of the point of impact.
Answer: D
Explanation:
A. The first arriving engine properly positioned the apparatus, established a water supply, and stretched a 2 1/2 HOSELINE to knockdown fire threatening victims.
B. The second arriving engine removed meters, skeds and CFR equipment from the apparatus and reported to THE TRIAGE TRANSFER POINT.
C. The first arriving ladder company SET UP THE CORE RELAY.
THE QUESTIONS STATED THE EXPLOSION WAS IN THE SUBWAY, THEREFORE THE FIRST TRUCK ESTABLISHES THE CORE RELAY WITH THE SECOND DUE LADDER FULLFILLING THE RESPONSIBILTY FOR OPERATIONS AT THE POINT OF IMPACT.
AT OTHER THAN A SUBWAY THE FIRST TRUCK WOULD OPERATE AT THE POINT OF IMPACT WITH THE SECOND TRUCK REPORTING TO THE TRIAGE TRANSFER POINT.
ERP Addendum 3 5.3.1, 5.3.2, 5.3.4, 5.3.5
Question 40:
Firefighters should know how to “read” smoke. This comes with experience, but also with knowledge. Which description of smoke is inaccurate?
A: Dark smoke (black) often indicates fuel-rich conditions, due to restricted air supply (ventilation limited). If air supply is sufficient, there will be a lighter colored smoke and brighter flame but if air supply is restricted, the smoke will be darker.
B: Grey smoke indicates that at least some flaming combustion or smoldering combustion is present. In a building issuing dark smoke from some areas and grey smoke from other areas, usually the areas with dark smoke are remote from the fire.
C: Brown smoke can indicate the early stages of the pyrolysis of timber products. In a wood framed building, the presence of brown smoke may indicate that the structure is involved.
D: Application of water onto a large fire will generate large amounts of steam which can mix with smoke and create condensation that gives the appearance of white smoke. In this situation, the white color can indicate water is on the fire.
Answer: B
Explanation:
B) The further the smoke travels, the more carbon it can lose, resulting in a grey smoke. In a building issuing dark smoke from some areas and grey smoke from other areas, usually the areas with GREY smoke are REMOTE from the fire.
TB FD Ch 2 3.5.4
Question 42:
One important aspect of being a company officer within the FDNY is injury and exposure reporting. Which one provision pertaining to these procedures is incorrect?
A: The medical officer must be notified via FDOC for all injuries and non-biological exposures within 24 hours.
B: The officer shall enter all available information into the CIRS report, with or without the injured/exposed member’s signature and/or narrative within seven days.
C: If an on-duty member is transported to a hospital or other medical facility by ambulance, the member may not return to duty (regardless of the type of injury) without a determination/approval from the FDNY medical officer.
D: When the injured/exposed member signs the report it shall be considered completed but can be modified at any time.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A. The medical officer must be notified via FDOC for all injuries and BIOLOGICAL exposures within 24 hours.
Safety Bulletin 1 2.1, 2.3, 2.4
Question 43:
Negative Stack Effect (AKA “Reverse Stack Effect”) occurs most often in the summer season and can be particularly difficult to deal with. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?
A: In hot weather, air inside occupied buildings is cooler than the air outside the building due to internal air conditioning systems. As a result, air inside the building will travel downwards via vertical shafts and attempt to exit the building via available openings near the bottom of the building.
B: At the top of the shaft, a negative pressure will be generated, which will have the effect of pulling air into the shaft via available openings near the top of the building.
C: Smoke from an upper floor fire will be drawn toward the vertical shafts within the building and will typically travel downward. It can be pulled back into floors with greater force as you go higher in the building and further above the stack effect neutral pressure zone.
D: In New York City, the difference between the temperatures inside a building compared to the temperature outside the building will be greater during the winter months than it will be during the summer months, so “positive stack effect,” which occurs during the winter, will be more prominent than negative stack effect which occurs during summer.
Answer: C
Explanation:
C) Smoke from an upper floor fire will be drawn toward the vertical shafts within the building and will typically travel downward. It can be pulled back into floors with greater force as you go LOWER in the building and further BELOW the stack effect neutral pressure zone.
Note: Negative Stack Effect (AKA “Reverse Stack Effect”) - A fire on an upper floor will tend to draw air into the windows creating conditions similar to a wind impacted fire. A fire on a lower floor will tend to want to vent out of the windows.
TB FD Ch 4 1.7.2
Question 44:
You are a covering officer working in Ladder 177 and a member comes into your office upset and looking to discuss making an EEO complaint. You assist by taking the following actions. Which is the only CORRECT action taken?
A: You have the member complete a confidential EEO Incident Report.
B: You submit the incident report directly to the EEO officer in a sealed envelope after obtaining endorsements from the BC & DC on duty.
C: You interrogate the individuals involved in the incident after being requested to do so by the EEO Officer.
D: You leave a note in the pass along book regarding the incident and filing of an EEO Complaint.
Answer: C
Explanation:
PA/ID 8 - CHAPTER 2 – EEO COMPLAINT PROCESS
C IS CORRECT – 6.7 The officer/supervisor shall not interrogate any individual involved in the alleged incident, or initiate an investigation into the alleged incident, except if requested to do so by the EEO Officer, or Bureau of Investigations and Trials.
A – The officer/supervisor is required to complete a confidential EEO Incident Report. 6.3
B – No intermediate endorsements. 6.4
D – No company journal/log entries shall be entered with regard to any EEO complaints 6.9.
Question 46:
NYC owned transformers classified as “Non-PCB” 0-49 PPM PCB are marked by DEP with what color label?
A: Yellow
B: Blue
C: Black
D: Green
Answer: B
Explanation:
NYC “PCB CONTAMINATED TRANSFORMERS” 50-499 PPM PCB IS YELLOW
AUC 266 add 3 sec 1.5.4
Question 47:
Heat can be transmitted in the fire environment in a number of ways. Which of the following choices is incorrect?
A: With “Conduction” heat may be transmitted from one body to another by direct contact of two objects or by an intervening heat-conducting medium (material).
B: With “Convection” heat may be transmitted by the movement of air or liquid. Fire spread by convection is mostly in an upward direction; however, air currents can carry heat in any direction.
C: Conductive heat transfer can be exponentially increased by wind. This is called “Forced Conduction” and is a critical factor in wind-driven fires.
D: With “Radiation” heat may be transferred through the movement of heat waves. Heat and light waves will cause radiated heat to travel through a space until it reaches an object and radiated heat is one of the major sources of fire spread to exposures.
Answer: C
Explanation:
C) CONVECTIVE heat transfer can be exponentially increased by wind. This is called “FORCED CONVECTION” and is a critical factor in wind-driven fires.
D Note: Radiated heat is also one of the major causes of firefighter burn injuries and flashover in a compartment fire.
TB FD Ch 1 2.7.3, 2.7.4
Question 50:
Which one of the following occurrences requires an officer to make direct phone notification to BITS?
A: Any instance of incompetence so serious that the officer believes disciplinary charges are warranted.
B: Preference of charges against a member.
C: Dangerous misuse of a Department vehicle.
D: Misuse or misappropriation of the Department’s time.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Phone is “ABCD”:
Alcohol on duty; arrest of member
Brawls amongst members
Confrontation on duty with PD, government agencies, or civilians
Dangerous misuse of Department vehicle; drugs on duty
Written is “IMMAC”:
Incompetence
Misconduct not falling within jurisdiction of IG
Misuse of Department’s time
Arrest of member follow-up information
Charges
AUC 268 3.1, 4.1
Question 54:
While operating at a radiological emergency, at what dose should members normally be rotated if staffing and equipment are sufficient?
A: 5 mR
B: 10 mR
C: 5 Rem
D: 10 Rem
Answer: C
Explanation:
PROTECTIVE ACTION GUIDELINES
50 REM: LIFESAVING FOR A CATASTROPHIC EVENT
25 REM: LIFESAVING OR PROTECTION OF LARGE POPULATIONS
10 REM: PROTECTION OF MAJOR PROPERTY
5 REM: GENERAL OPERATIONS AT A RADIOLOGICAL EMERGENCY
ERP Addendum 4 3.2.2 A
Question 66:
The Drager PAC 6500 CO meter is a relatively new tool in the FDNY. Which one feature of this meter is described correctly?
A: The meter must remain on while outside of quarters only.
B: The meter will retain the lowest reading the meter has been subjected to.
C: Alarm threshold 1, (A1) is activated at 35 PPM. When the CO concentration falls below 35 PPM, the alarm will automatically turn off.
D: Alarm threshold 2 (A2) is activated at 100 PPM. Alarm threshold 2 (A2) cannot be acknowledged or silenced.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A. The meter IS ALWAYS TO REMAIN ON. THE ON/OFF FUNCTION HAS BEEN DISABLED.
B. The meter will retain the HIGHEST reading the meter has been subjected to. DUE TO THE CO METER REMAINING CONSTANTLY ON, THIS PEAK READING IS NOT TO BE RELIED ON OR USED DURING ANY OPERATION OR INCIDENT.
D. Alarm threshold 2 (A2) is activated at 100 PPM. Alarm threshold 2 (A2) CAN BE ACKNOWLEDGED OR SILENCED BY PRESSING THE OK BUTTON.
NOTE THE ‘”D” CHOICE WAS AN UPDATE IN MARCH 2021
Hazardous Materials Ch 4 Addendum 2 2.1, 2.3, 2.4, 2.5, 2.7
