Hard FT Questions Clip 10 Flashcards

1
Q

1) More than ever the NYC Fire Dept is engaged with the public. Regarding the recently updated Community Engagement & Public Education Program, which one of the following four choices is most correct?
(AUC 4, 2.5, 2.8, 2.9, 3.1.2)

A: When the officer on duty receives a request for a firehouse visit to quarters, the officer shall have the requester contact the Fire Safety Education Unit.

B: All fire safety education programs are exempt from the 10-51 signal, except Operation Sidewalk or when ordered by the Chief of Operations.

C: When the officer on duty receives a request for a Fire Safety Education event, other than a visit to Quarters, the officer shall schedule the event on a day the unit is not scheduled for BISP, hydrant inspection or other scheduled activities.

D: During a firehouse visit, units will be placed out of service for 90 minutes.

A

Answer: B*

A. Visits OTHER THAN qtrs

C. Visits to qtrs

D. Remain in service

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2
Q

4) Your unit is out on BISP when the dispatcher tells you to return to quarters for a possible abandoned infant outside of quarters. In this situation, you would be most correct to take which action listed below?
(AUC 7, 2.5, 2.6.1, 2.7.1, 2.7.2)

A: If the infant is found, the fire officer is responsible for completing the report of suspected child abuse or maltreatment.

B: You should notify the Battalion, Division & FDOC if the infant is found.

C: Immediately search the area adjacent to quarters. If the infant is found notify the dispatcher to have an ambulance respond and the unit shall be placed out of service (10-99) until the ambulance assumes custody.

D: If the infant is not found, notify the dispatcher, and take a mark in the company journal. No further action is required.

A

Answer: C

A. EMS does the report

B. Battalion only

D. Unusual Occurrence Report

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3
Q

7) An Officer training on fire tactics in Old Law Tenements was most correct in which one statement below?
(FFP, MD, 4.5.5, 4.6.3, 4.7.2, 4.7.4)

A: The base of an air or light shaft may be the roof of a store or the ceiling of a cellar; thus fire may burn down into the store or cellar.

B: For a fire that originates in an air or light shaft, the first hose line should be stretched to a point above the fire to cut off extension and water aimed down into the shaft.

C: If weakened, damaged or burnt-out stairs are encountered, place a straight ladder over the stairs to gain access to the floors above. The straight ladder is preferred because it has fewer moving parts.

D: Once fire enters the cockloft of an OLT, it will generally be necessary to cut a trench to extinguish the fire.

A

Answer: A* for B

B. Nearest point

C. Extension ladder

D. Extinguished from below

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4
Q

8) Which choice below contains the most correct point concerning Workplace Violence? (PA/ID 8, Ch5, 10.4, 10.5, 11.1.2, 11.2.1, 11.3.1)

A: An employee may, in certain situations, submit a workplace violence report directly to the workplace violence prevention coordinator.

B: Regarding matters that are likely to lead to workplace violence, the supervisor has the option to consult the Workplace Violence Prevention Coordinator.

C: Lieutenants alone have the authority to take any action they feel is necessary to address a potential workplace violence problem, including making temporary reassignments.

D: On site supervisors must assess the workplace on a quarterly basis.

A

Answer: A xB?x or A

B. Must contact

C. In consult with CoC

D. Yearly

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5
Q

9) Cornices when impacted by fire can become a collapse hazard. Which choice is most correct point regarding cornice concerns at fires?
(SB7, Ch6, 4, 6, 9.3, 9.4, 9.5)

A: A cornice is a permanent hood which projects over an entrance to a building and is not supported by posts or columns.

B: When a cornice is at risk of collapse due to fire, it will always show signs of weakening, such a sagging at one end.

C: The quickest and most efficient way to stop fire spread in a cornice is to operate directly beneath the cornice directing a hose stream onto the flames.

D: Fire may involve the framework within the cornice, facilitating horizontal fire spread to adjoining buildings.

A

Answer: D* for A

A. Marquee

B. May collapse suddenly

C. Corner safe area

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6
Q

10) An Engine Officer responding to a car fire just over the city border into Nassau County can switch their radio to the primary interoperability channel UTAC 42D. Which of the following is most correct point about utilizing UTAC 42D? (Comm, Ch14, Add4, 3.1.1, 3.1.2, 3.2, 3.3, 3.4)

A: After initial contact is made on UTAC 42D with Nassau County units, the IC must designate a member to monitor and relay additional information.

B: UTAC 42D is for command needs only; tactical operations shall not be conducted on this channel.

C: FDNY 10 codes and terminology shall be used when using UTAC 42D.

D: If unable to establish contact on UTAC 42D, have all members switch back to HT-1 and abandon all efforts to contact the cooperating agency.

A

Answer: A* for B

B. Command & Tactical

C. Do not use FD speak

D. Call dispatch

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7
Q

19) It is 1800 hours on a Sunday, the Lieutenant is discussing inputting the EBF-4 for the current tour with members studying for the upcoming Lt’s exam. The most correct advice can be found in choice.
(AUC 346, 2.10, 3.2, 6.2, 6.6,)

A: Use the EBF-4 application located on the intranet and this is to be done immediately after roll call and when the company is in quarters.

B: The Officer should use the In-Rig EBF-4 even if the unit is in quarters because use of the In-Rig EBF-4 is required on Sunday.

C: Anytime a Unit or Battalion is displayed in Red, that unit is out of service.

D: Probationary members are identified on the EBF-4 with a (PR) prefix after their name.

A

Answer: A xD*x I think

B. Only on Sunday 9x

C. Blue, Add info

D. Before their name

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8
Q

21) Air and Light shafts can be avenues for fire extension. The draft created in the shaft will delay lateral extension making it necessary to initially focus our efforts on the fire floor and floors above. Assuming the fire started in an occupied OLT, which of the following is most correct concerning air and light shaft fires?
(Ladders 3, 4.2, 4.2.1, 4.2.2)

A: Occupants in the exposed building are in greater danger than the original fire building once fire enters the shaft.

B: When gaining access to apartments in the shaft above that are in the same line, fire escapes must never be used as they are over ninety years old.

C: The engine company after knocking down fire in the room exposing the shaft, should direct the nozzle stream into the shaft and knock down the shaft fire before continuing through the apartment.

D: While awaiting hose lines, open windows in the shaft and remove combustible hangings such as drapes, shades, curtains.

A

Answer: C* for A

A. Original fire building

B. Use FE’s with caution

D. Close windows

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9
Q

25) During times of civil disorder units may find themselves operating at fires and emergencies as part of a task force. Operations may differ substantially from normal operating procedure. In these situations, which of the following points is most correct during times of civil disorder? (ERP Add3B, 4.4.9, 4.4.10, 4.7.2, 4.7.4, 4.7.5, 4.7.6)

A: While responding all visual and audible warning devices shall be used to the fullest extent possible.

B: The engine shall not be placed near the front of the building, as they should instead remain on street corners for mobility.

C: It is preferred that the Engine Chauffeur connect to a mid-block hydrant for ease of stretching in either direction.

D: When possible, supply the engine with two supply lines, and always stretch a backup hose line at all structure fires.

A

Answer: D xC*x for D

A. No sirens

B. Consider in-line pumping

C. Avoid

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10
Q

27) Your unit is operating at an active transformer fire with flames burning 15’ high in the air where Con Ed electric is on-scene attempting to mitigate the situation. In this situation, the last acceptable option for extinguishing this fire is?
(AUC 180, 6.5, 6.5.1, 6.5.2)

A: A hoseline from 10 feet away with a 30-degree fog pattern.

B: A hoseline from 30 feet away with a 10-degree fog pattern.

C: Application of Foam using a foam handline from 30 feet away with a 30-degree fog pattern.

D: Application of F500 that is carried by Haz-Mat 1

A

Answer: C xD?x

A. At least 30’

B. At least 30 degrees

D. First option

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11
Q

29) While drilling on the Hydra-Ram with newly assigned members, Lt. McHoweville made four statements. He should hit the books harder as the only correct comment he made was? (TB Tools 26, 2.1, 4.2, 5.2, 5.5)

A: Its main purpose is for the forcible entry of outward opening doors only.

B: If difficulty is encountered gaining a purchase, lightly striking the Hydra-Ram with the axe is recommended.

C: When cleaning and lubricating the Hydra-Ram, spray type lubricants such as (WD40) are recommended, which can be requisitioned from Fire Tools and Equipment Unit.

D: The Hydra-Ram does not contain Hydraulic Fluid, rather it uses Propylene Glycol, which will not cause injury to your skin.

A

Answer: D* for its wording

A. Outward & inward

B. Do not strike

C. Use 3-in-one oil, no WD-40

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12
Q

32) It is a hot July day tour and your engine company is operating first due at an all-hands fire when the fire sector relieves your unit and tells you to report to the forward RAC area for rehabilitation and care. Which point below is the most correct concerning the FDNY’s RAC policy? (AUC 230, 7.2) (ADD1, 4.1, 4.3.1) (ADD2, 5.3)

A: After exiting the fire building, you should see the Forward RAC area within 50 feet of the fire building and within eyesight of the Command Post.

B: When a member turns their personal hood over to the RAC Firefighter for decontamination, the Officer must fill out form EDR-1 so the hood is returned to the proper company.

C: Company Officers should notify the IC after their members become physically over stressed; this is most important during the post-control overhaul phase.

D: Once your unit enters rehabilitation, a logical time frame to rest prior to reassignment would be 20 minutes.

A

Answer: D* for B
No EDR-1 right?

A. Swap the #’s

B. RAC FF does this

C. Before, pre-control

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13
Q

33) At 1800 roll call your members are discussing the company softball game that took place earlier today. FF Munson makes a comment that he sprained his left ankle. It is now 0300 and your company is returning from a routine EMS run when FF Munson informs you, he hurt his ankle stepping off the rig at the previous alarm and would like to “take a mark” that you consider to be not truthful. In this situation, the next appropriate action for you to take would be to immediately? (AUC 268, 2, 2.1.7)

A: Notify the Inspector General by calling FDOC

B: Notify the Bureau of Investigations and Trials by calling the 24-hour number.

C: Email the Inspector General, as notification via telephone is only done during business hours.

D: Notify the on-duty Battalion Chief who will notify the next level of command.

A

Answer: A xC?x It’s not an emergency and paperwork

B. BITS is FDOC or written

C. IG is always via phone

D. False

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14
Q

34) Members at drill are discussing the 7.5mm Kernmantle Search Rope which is 200 feet long with a double action snap hook at the working end. Choose the only correct comment they made during this drill?
(TB Rope 6, 3.1, 3.2, 3.3, 3.4)

A: The first directional marker will be 18 inches before the distance markers.

B: The distance between markers is 6 inches.

C: The distance between each set of directional/distance markers is 50 feet.

D: The markers are tapered from 1’’ to ½’’, the 1’’ end clearly denotes the way into the IDLH.

A

Answer: D xBx

A. Old rope

B. Old rope

C. 25FT

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15
Q

37) E999 responds to an EMS run for an unconscious patient and find a 44 year-old female in respiratory arrest but still has a pulse. A few minutes after members have begun resuscitative efforts using a BVM, the husband presents a valid DNR. The Officer then ordered his members to discontinue patient care. Do you agree or disagree with the Officer’s decision?
(CFR, Ch2, Add1 4.2)

A) Agree

D) Disagree

A

Answer: A* should be. No BVM

If a valid DNR is presented after resuscitative efforts, discontinue
This includes:
- Chest compressions
- Bag valve mask ventilations
- Defibrillation
- Intubation
- Administration of medications

Relief of choking by removing a foreign body is appropriate, but if breathing has stopped, ventilation SHALL NOT be assisted

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16
Q

46) E999 & L222 respond to a CO detector activation in apartment 2F. After investigation it is determined the detector was working properly and activated when the occupant was cooking on the gas stove. The highest reading obtained on a CO Meter was 7 ppm. In this situation, the correct code to be transmitted is found in which choice? (Communications, Ch 8, Pg 12)

A: 10-38 No Code

B: 10-40 Code 1

C: 10-38 Code 2

D: 10-40 Code 3

A

Answer: C* B is for gas leak?

A. Does not exist

B. Gas EMERGENCY

D. Water EMERGENCY

10-40-1 Gas Emergency (gas main leak, gas leak in structure, defective gas appliance, etc.)

17
Q

47) A newly assigned probationary member is in the office asking questions about their training notebook. The only correct comment made by you to the Probationary FF is found in which choice.
(AUC 323 Add 2, 1.3, 1.4, 1.5, 2.1)

A: The member was instructed to place a current tool list on the inside cover of the notebook.

B: Upon review of the notebook, you noticed an abundant number of inconsistent entries. Constructive reviews with the member would be a proper way to address this issue.

C: Once a probationary member completes a monthly training module, receipts shall be printed and stapled on the last pages of the notebook.

D: Every tour the probationary member works the officer on duty shall review the notebook, sign, and date the notebook in blue or black ink.

A

Answer: B xA*x for B

A. First page

C. Current page

D. Initial, red ink

18
Q

53) When a water rescue victim becomes submerged, the incident is now beyond the capability of water rescue units. Rescue divers will be deployed, and they rely on field units to support the operation. Choose the most correct point for these situations? (Water Rescue 5, 2.2, 2.3, 3.2, 3.4 3.5)

A: An engine company will be dedicated to CFR duties; they shall stage close to the entry point of victims/rescuers.

B: An available engine shall hook up to a hydrant and stretch a dry line for decontamination.

C: Units shall be prepared to assist in transporting needed equipment. At least two companies will be dedicated to this task.

D: Search for reliable witnesses and ensure they keep their reference point and visually maintain where they last saw the victim.

A

Answer: D* for A

A. Exit point

B. Charged line

C. One company

19
Q

59) Although not used at most fires, all engine company members must be familiar with the New Yorker Multiversal. From the choices below, which is the only correct way to operate with this tool?
(Eng Ops Ch.9, 1.3, 4.4.2, 4.4.3)

A: Only a Chief Officer can order the use of a large caliber stream, except the use of the Blitzfire because it is supplied with 2 ½’’ hose.

B: The primary means of securing the multiversal is to secure it with utility rope. An additional method is the proper placement of the supply hose.

C: The supply hose shall be brought straight back 15 feet from the appliance. Never rely on the safety chain alone to secure the appliance.

D: If no substantial object is readily available, use the supply hose itself. First loop the hose around the appliance, then tie the rope to the hose, and finally bring the hose straight back for 15 feet.

A

Answer: C*

A. IC can order

B. Primary hose, secondary rope

D. Loop after 15’

The supply hose should be laid straight back for 15 feet BEFORE IT IS LOOPED in front of the multiversal

20
Q

61) All members operating as part of a Rescue Task Force must be familiar with the communication plan. As the fire officer assigned to a Rescue Task Force, you will be known as the Rescue Task Force Leader. Which responsibility listed below is yours as the Fire Officer? (ERP, Add3A, 11.6.1) (ERP Add3A, App A, Sec3)

A: You will be designated the “FD Liaison Officer” between the Operations Section Chief and the NYPD Tactical Operations Commander.

B: You will be designated as the Rescue Task Force “Triage and Treatment Officer” and provide patient counts to the TOC.

C: You will be designated as the “Accountability and Communications Officer” and relay task force findings to the Rescue Task Force Supervisor.

D: You should operate on the TAC “U” channel and remain closest to the front of the “Rolling T” formation.

A

Answer: C xA*x sounds right

A. RTF Supervisor

B. EMS Officer

D. Warm Zone Tac, rear

Rescue Task Force Leader (Fire Officer): Will be designated as the ACCOUNTABILITY AND COMMUNICATIONS OFFICER. IT will be the responsibility of the Rescue Task Force Leader to communicate Rescue Task Force findings and location to Rescue Task Force Supervisor stationed at the Tactical Operations Center

21
Q

62) If a civilian knocks on the firehouse door alleging your apparatus struck their legally parked car, you must take which one of the following actions?
(SB3, 3.1, 3.3 Note, 4.4.1 F, 9.2)

A: Inform the complainant they may file a notice of claim by calling FDOC.

B: Do not take a mark in the company journal as all information pertaining to the alleged incident is under investigation and shall remain confidential.

C: The BC on duty must be called to the firehouse to investigate, and they will notify FDOC.

D: Complete a “Collision” report on the CRS within 48 hours.

A

Answer: D? Still fill one out? No BC?

A. Comptroller

B. Take a mark in the journal

C. No BC necessary

The collision report shall be submitted by the Officer/Vehicle Operator within 48 hours of the apparatus collision/INCIDENT

22
Q

63) E100 L400 E200 TL500 E300 arrives in this order to a fire in the large open area of a peaked roof Place of Worship that has no attached exposures. In this situation the most correct action to take at this fire would be?
(FFP POW, 3.1, 4.2, 7.4.2, 8.11)

A: L400 should position their apparatus at the Rose Window for ladder pipe operations.

B: Because the Exposure 3 side is the safest area in case of collapse, this should be the primary position for TL500 to set up.

C: Because E100 is able to control the fire within the large open area, TL500 should position their apparatus in a corner safe position to access the attic vent.

D: L400 and TL500 should take positions flanking the building, preferably on the Exposure 2 and 4 sides.

A

Answer: C* soundest rightest

A. TL500

B. Corner-safe area

D. 2&4 sides are most dangerous

23
Q

64) The Digital In-line Gauge is a must know tool for your test as it is used every day throughout the five boroughs. Which is the most correct point regarding this tool?
(Eng Ops Ch.3, 6.1.4, 6.1.5)

A: “HI-F” indicates a flow exceeding 225 GPM.

B: “LO-F” indicates a flow less than 80 GPM.

C: “HI-P” will flash in Red when pressure exceeds 175 psi.

D: “LO-P” will flash in Red when pressure falls below 80 psi.

A

Answer: B* confirm the numbers

A. 250PSI

B. 200PSI

D. LO-P does not exist

24
Q

65) Upon arrival at the scene of a reported fire at a construction site, your ECC informs you that the standpipe is pressurized with air. You quickly go over some points in your head but were correct in which thought below?
(Eng Ops CH.8, Add 4, 2.2, 2.5, 2.7, 2.8,)

A: Non-screw in type FDC caps are required in order to provide the air tight seal necessary for an air pressurized standpipe system.

B: Once the Control FF reaches the floor outlet where the hose line connection will be made, he should not open the standpipe outlet until the ECC confirms all air has been expelled from the system.

C: The location of the FDC is required to be marked by a sign and lit by a red light 24 hours a day. Signage is also required denoting the location of the manual air release valve.

D: When releasing air from the system, using all available air release valves; 2 and a half minutes would be an acceptable amount of time.

A

Answer: D xCx

A. Screw-in type

B. Open the standpipe

C. Only at night

25
Q

71) While inspecting a building undergoing a full demolition, the members of your company made only one correct statement which is found in choice?
(AUC 5, Ch 2, Add 2)

A: The existing standpipe system must be maintained wet.

B: Once demolition starts the standpipe risers shall be capped above the outlet starting no further than 4 floors or 40 feet below the floor being demolished.

C: The red paint on all existing standpipe and sprinkler piping shall be maintained throughout demolition.

D: Standpipe hose, nozzles and spanners shall be maintained at all times until such time the standpipe risers are removed from the building.

A

Answer: C xBx

A. Maintained dry

B. 4 floors/40FT is for under construction. For demolition, goes CAPPED UNDER THE FLOOR BELOW

D. Can be removed at any time

26
Q

73) Only the IC may order the use of a large caliber stream and this may be the first arriving officer. As TL streams are our most versatile LCS, which one of the following statements about large caliber stream operations is most correct?
(Lad 6, Ch 4, 4.1)

A: When repositioning a TL, you must always disconnect any supply hose.

B: During TL exterior stream operations, water should always be shut down first at the gated inlet of the TL.

C: When connecting supply hose to a TL, either side of the apparatus may be used. A factor to consider is the ability of the Basket Firefighter to monitor this connection.

D: The best source of supply if available would be the Satellite Water Unit. The recommended pressure at the gated inlet is 200-250 psi.

A

Answer: D* for C

A. Not true

B. Supply pumper

C. Pedestal FF

27
Q

75) Your engine company has just administered Naloxone to a patient who is believed to have overdosed on Fentanyl. Which one statement below is most correct?
(HM 18, 4d, 5.1, 5.3.3)

A: In all cases, once Naloxone has been given you must request ALS (paramedics) to the scene.

B: All areas of direct skin contact by members should be washed immediately with copious
amounts of water.

C: Once all areas of direct skin contact have been washed with soap and water, it is recommended that members disinfect the area with a hand sanitizer.

D: All items requiring decontamination shall be double bagged in red hazardous material bags and properly labeled.

A

Answer: B* for A

A. Only if required

C. No Sanitizer

D. Clear bags

28
Q

80) It is 1130 hours when the members inform you that FF Slips cut himself with a knife while preparing the meal. After speaking with the member and the medical officer it is determined this injury is minor. Based on the following information which choice is most correct?
(SB1, 2.3, 2.4, 2.5, 3.1.2, 4.1)

A: The officer/supervisor must enter all available info into the CIRS report with the member’s signature and with the narrative within 10 days.

B: If FF Slips had been transported to the local hospital via ambulance for evaluation and was determined by the hospital to be okay for work, he could return to duty if the on-duty officer consulted the administrative battalion chief for approval.

C: This injury may be classified as minor, but an injury report must still be completed. For this incident, all 9’s shall be used for the FDID number.

D: Notify the BC on duty only if the injury results in medical leave.

A

Answer: C* for points

A. With or without, 7 days

B. Medical Officer

D. Always notify BC