LT PKG EXAM #15 Flashcards

1
Q

Question 4:
Which of the following choices regarding FD & EMS communications at a non fire emergency is CORRECT?

A: When a CFR Unit arrives and EMS is on scene, the CFR unit will initiate contact with the EMS Unit on Channel 10

B: When the use of Channel 10 is impractical, HT Channel 1 may be used to facilitate communications

C: When unable to contact the EMS unit via the HT, routine requests may be transmitted to EMS through the appropriate EMS Borough frequency

D: To communicate directly with the EMS Dispatcher, EMS Borough frequencies are available on Engine & Ladder Fire Apparatus in their Borough dispatch radio

A

Answer: D

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL CHAPTER 14
D IS CORRECT — 2.5
A - Initiate contact on HT Channel 1 — 2.2
B - Reverse (when the use of channel 1 is impractical, channel 10 may be used) 2.4 note
C - EMS Borough frequencies are not to be used for routine requests

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2
Q

Question 5:
While responding in hot weather, bunker coats and protective hoods may be dispensed when on certain runs. These runs include all of the following except?

A: Non-structural and response to BARS alarms

B: Class J alarms

C: Non-fire responses

D: ERS no-contact

E: Class E alarms

A

Answer: B

Explanation:
Structural Fire runs: all members, except chauffeurs shall don their PPE prior to responding.
In hot weather if he apparatus is not equipped with a functioning air conditioning unit, coats and protective hoods may be dispensed with while responding
AUC 310 sec 7.2.1 and 7.2.2

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3
Q

Question 7:
What is the correct tool assignment for the 1st arriving Roof FF operating at a fire on the 7th floor of a 12-story fire resistive high rise multiple dwelling?

A: Halligan, Maul/Axe, Hydra-Ram

B: Halligan, Halligan Hook, Hydra-Ram

C: Halligan Hook, Maul/Axe, LSR

D: Halligan, Halligan Hook, LSR

A

Answer: A

Explanation:
MD Ch 4 10.1.4 B

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4
Q

Question 8:
Engine 256 is on an EMS run and needs to transmit information on the EMS Borough frequency. Which choice is CORRECT regarding this communication?

A: Engine 256 contacts EMS and advises they have a 10-37 code 2 with CPR in progress

B: They provide EMS the box number, address & cross streets

C: Communication with the EMS Dispatcher relieves the officer of the need to transmit relevant information to the FD Dispatcher

D: When the proper EMS Borough frequency cannot be determined, transmit on EMS CW1 (Citywide 1)

A

Answer: D

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL CHAPTER 14 - ADDENDUM 1
D IS CORRECT - 2.6 Note
A - 2.5 — Do not use 10-codes
B - Do not use Box Numbers - 2.7
C - Doesn’t relieve the units of their responsibility to maintain communications with their Borough dispatcher 2.8

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5
Q

Question 9:
The incorrect procedure when personal protective equipment/tools has been contaminated, can be found in which choice?

A: Radios that have been severely contaminated with blood or other potentially infectious material shall be placed in a double clear bag and placed in a light-traffic area adjacent to HW to be picked up by Decon Support Unit

B: If Bunker Coat and Pants were severely contaminated with blood or other potentially infectious material, both Pants and Coat can bagged together and sent out to be decon

C: If Bunker Pants, Coat, and PSS were severely contaminated with blood or other potentially infectious material, the PSS system must be separated from the pants and bagged separately

D: For fireground contamination, the PSS shall be decon in quarters using a sponge and water. A mild detergent may be used if necessary

A

Answer: A

Explanation:
Radio, tools, and other hard surface items shall be decontaminated in quarters with a chlorine bleach solution
AUC 310 add 5

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6
Q

Question 12:
All members need to have a basic understanding of fire dynamics and how combustion can occur. Which of the following choices is incorrect?

A: When the concentration of fuel in the air lies below the lower explosive limit or above the upper explosive limit, there is danger of the fuel igniting if a flame or other ignition source is present.

B: The lower explosive limit (LEL) is the lowest concentration by volume of flammable gas in air that will support flame propagation. This is also known as lower flammability limit.

C: The upper explosive limit (UEL) is the highest concentration by volume of flammable gas in air that will support flame propagation. This is also known as upper flammability limit.

D: The explosive range (aka flammable range) is the range of gas to air mixtures in which ignition can occur. It is the range of gas to air mixture that exists between the lower explosive limit and the upper explosive limit.

A

Answer: A

Explanation:
A) When the concentration of fuel in the air lies BETWEEN the lower explosive limit and the upper explosive limit, there is danger of the fuel igniting if a flame or other ignition source is present.
Note: In a fire, oxygen must chemically react with combustible fuel in a rapid oxidation process. For flaming combustion to begin and continue, the concentration of fuel vapor in the burning mixture (air and fuel) must be between the upper and lower explosive limits for that fuel.
TB FD 7

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7
Q

Question 13:
What item shall be affixed to the inside cover of the probationary firefighter’s folder?

A: Probationary Firefighter’s Control Sheet

B: Company Tool List

C: Monthly Training quiz

D: Reading schedule

A

Answer: A

Explanation:
This is the Proby FOLDER….NOT NOTEBOOK.
Control Sheet- Inside cover of the Proby Folder
Tool List- stapled to 1st page of notebook
Monthly Training Quiz- Staple it into their notebook
AUC 323 sec 2.4, 2.5, add 2 sec 1.3

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8
Q

Question 14:
Several FAST units policies are described below. Which one is incorrect?

A: A ladder company staffed with four firefighters shall never be assigned as a FAST unit.

B: The FAST unit should not be used for firefighting purposes.

C: The FAST unit officer should bring an up to date copy of the response ticket to the ICP which would include any CIDS information that is available.

D: A ladder company will be designated as the FAST unit upon transmissions of signals 10-60, 10-66, 10-75, 10-76, and 10-77.

A

Answer: A

Explanation:
A. IN SOME SITUATIONS, a ladder company staffed with four firefighters MAY BE ASSIGNED as a FAST unit. WHEN REPORTING TO THE ICP, THE LADDER COMPANY OFFICER MUST INFORM THE IC THAT THEY ARE NOT FULLY STAFFED.

NOTE “B” MMID CH 4 4.1: THE IC CAN HAVE THE FAST UNIT PROVIDE ADDITIONAL EGRESS ROUTES WHILE STILL MAINTAINING UNIT INTEGRITY, E.G., REMOVE WINDOW BARS, PLACE PORTABLE LADDERS.

Managing Members in Distress Ch 2 2.1, 2.2, 2.3, 4.5

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9
Q

Question 15:
The manual application of water correctly from an exterior handline into the interior of a building is a critical tactic that all members should be familiar with. Which of the following techniques is incorrectly described when this tactic is employed?

A: Use a solid stream fully open, or fog tip turned fully to the right.

B: Use a steep angle to assist with breaking up and cooling the hot gases at the upper levels of the room as it strikes the ceiling.

C: Keep the stream steady; no circular or whipping motion (occlusion/entrainment).

D: Ensure a sprinkler effect, keeping the solid stream steady and positioned at a steep angle to cool the hot gases and knock down the fire.

A

Answer: A

Explanation:
A) Use a solid (bore) stream, fully open. Do NOT use a fog tip (occlusion).
C Note: This allow hot gases and smoke to exit as well as preventing less air being drawn inward to fuel (feed) the fire.
Acronym: SSSS
Solid
Steep
Steady
Sprinkler
Eng Ch 4 7.9

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10
Q

Question 19:
Wind impacted fires in fireproof multiple dwellings can present many challenges to operating members. Which of the following choices is incorrect?

A: Experience has shown that conditions at a wind impacted fire in a fireproof multiple dwelling will severely tax the resources of the 2nd to arrive ladder company.

B: Members performing the outside survey and the Roof firefighter operating on the floor above can provide a description of wind, fire and smoke conditions at their respective locations. The direction and speed of the wind at street level is not a reliable indicator of wind conditions above the street level.

C: Fire may periodically vent around the sides and top of a deployed wind control device (WCD) with the potential for auto-exposure to the floor(s) above. The deployment window must be closed after deployment of the device.

D: Alternate strategies include using the KO Curtain, Window Blanket, High Rise Nozzle, Exterior Stream, or Flanking Strategy. In most circumstances, the Flanking Strategy would normally be the first tactic used due to its availability and time it takes to deploy.

A

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) Alternate strategies include using the KO Curtain, Window Blanket, High Rise Nozzle, Exterior Stream, or Flanking Strategy. In most circumstances, the KO CURTAIN would normally be the first tactic used due to its availability and time it takes to deploy.
A Note: Firefighters from the 3rd to arrive ladder, rescue or squad company, equipped with forcible entry tools, may be assigned to force entry into the apartment below the fire apartment in order to secure the ropes of the WCD and/or provide access for the HRN engine company.
MD Ch 5 4.2.1 C, 4.3.1 D, F, 5.1.4

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11
Q

Question 20:
There are many things to take into account when positioning a tower ladder bucket for large caliber stream (LCS) operations. Of the following choices, which is not in compliance with Department policy?

A: The bucket should be positioned outside the vertical collapse zone while maintaining an effective stream. When collapse is feared, the height of the wall vertically above the bucket is the minimum distance horizontally that the bucket should be away from the wall.

B: The member operating the joystick in the bucket should pre-plan bucket movement in the event of an imminent or actual collapse. When operating at upper floors or near the edge of a building, this will generally be backwards.

C: Whenever a Tower Ladder LCS operation is in progress, the pedestal position shall be staffed.

D: The member on the pedestal should consider activating the platform control switch and/or Safety Interlock Foot Pedal during overhaul and whenever members or civilians enter or leave an elevated bucket to prevent accidental movement.

A

Answer: B

Explanation:
B) The member operating the joystick in the bucket should pre-plan bucket movement in the event of an imminent or actual collapse. When operating at upper floors, this will generally be UPWARDS and when operating near the edge of a building, this will generally be TO ONE SIDE.
A Note: In certain situations where collapse may occur under pressure or with explosive force, the horizontal distance should be increased or a flanking position should be taken.
B Note: This provides an extra pair of eyes to warn of impending danger and override bucket controls in an emergency. The Pedestal Firefighter must don PPE and be continuously aware of changing fire conditions. This member should have a working knowledge of the location of other operating units. Maintaining this position of safety will help facilitate a positive outcome during operations.
TL Ch 4 4.3

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12
Q

Question 21:
The A-8 Fire Department Referral Report shall be used for the referral of non-serious conditions that require a follow up evaluation by the Bureau of Fire Prevention or the Bureau of Public Transportation Safety Unit (PTSU). Choose the incorrect statement made in reference to the A-8

A: Conditions found that require both a Fire Prevention referral and a PTSU referral can be documented on the same referral report

B: If upon inspection of a city owned or operated facility, an A-8 is forwarded for a condition that a city agency has jurisdiction over, by placing an “X” in the CITY AGENCY box in the upper right hand corner of the A-8

C: Inspection and enforcement procedures in leased commercial spaces on Transit Authority property should proceed in the same manner as if the space was NOT on Transit Authority. If an A-8 is being forwarded for a condition that is the concern of the Fire Department, it shall be forwarded to Fire Prevention

D: Each A-8 is sub-divided into two categories, Fire Prevention referrals, and PTSU referrals

A

Answer: A

Explanation:
Conditions found that require both a Fire Prevention referral and a PTSU referral must be on separate referrals
AUC 5 ch 3 add 4

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13
Q

Question 22:
When using the Pak-Tacker to track a missing member, which description outlined below is incorrect?

A: To begin searching, the Pak-Tracker should be held at chest height out in front of the operating member - the top of the hand-held receiver should be pointed toward the target.

B: When the signal strength rises above the 50-percent level, the row of LEDs will begin to light starting with red at the bottom, yellow in the middle, and green at the top.

C: Use the Pak-Tracker in a sweeping motion, very slowly in a horizontal direction first.

D: Always, move toward the highest relative signal strength.

A

Answer: A

Explanation:
A. To begin searching, the Pak-Tracker should be held at WAIST HEIGHT out in front of the operating member - the top of the hand-held receiver should be pointed toward the target.

NOTE “C”: THIS IS OPPOSITE A TRAFFIC LIGHT

TB SCBA Addendum 8 7.6, 7.8, 7.9

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14
Q

Question 23:
While conducting a drill on portable ladder placement at tenements and multiple dwellings with rear fire escapes, the Officer made one incorrect statement. Which statement made was incorrect?

A: Overcrowding on the fire escape in the rear may be relieved by members assisting occupants to the roof via the gooseneck ladder.

B: In the event of a fire in a building with rear party wall balconies, where fire has spread to the adjoining building, occupants may be trapped on the balconies. A 12’ hook ladder may be used to gain access to the various balcony levels by the Roof or OV firefighters for search and rescue.

C: Portable ladders must, if possible, be taken through the 2nd floor, and passed out of a window to the rear yard, in order to facilitate rear laddering operations.

D: The 12’ hook ladder may be brought to the roof via Aerial, Tower Ladder or utility rope and lowered to the top balcony.

A

Answer: C

Explanation:
C) Portable ladders must, if possible, be taken through the 1st floor public hall, apartments or store to the rear yard to effect rescue.
D Note: It can also be taken through the 1st floor public hall, apartments or store to the rear yard.
Lad 1 10.1

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15
Q

Question 25:
To start the evacuation process for a nursing home during a radiological event, the projected “dose” INSIDE the building shall be how many Rem?

A: 5 Rem

B: 10 Rem

C: 15 Rem

D: 20 Rem

A

Answer: B

Explanation:
Evacuate civilians from buildings in the surrounding area if:
The projected “Dose” INSIDE the building will reach 5 Rem for the general population or 10 Rem for special groups such as non-ambulatory hospital patients, prison residents, and nursing home residents
Last Capts exam
ERP add 4 p-11

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16
Q

Question 26:
Ladder company members are discussing general operating procedures at fires in places of worship. They make the following points, but were incorrect in which one?

A: Generally, it is best to vent the window closest to the fire in conjunction with hose line advancement and fire extinguishment.

B: When fire is found to involve the truss space exterior operations should be the primary tactical consideration.

C: Generally, the primary position of the first arriving aerial ladder is the front of the fire building able to reach the rose window in a corner safe position.

D: The second ladder to arrive shall ensure the cellar is examined for fire.

A

Answer: C

Explanation:
C. Generally, the primary position of the FIRST ARRIVING TOWER LADDER is the front of the fire building able to reach the rose window in a corner safe position.

Places of Worship 7.1.3, 7.2.1, 7.3.2, 7.4.2

17
Q

Question 27:
Your Ladder Company is enroute to a 10-76 4th alarm with heavy fire on two floors of a high rise office building. The Lobby Control Unit is in place and both a Staging Area and Forward Staging Area are established. Where should your unit report when 10-84?

A: The Incident Command Post in the lobby.

B: The Forward Staging Area.

C: The Staging Area.

D: The Lobby Control Unit.

A

Answer: C

Explanation:
Greater alarm or special called ladder companies after the fourth arriving ladder company shall report to the ICP in the lobby or if staffed, the Lobby Control Unit. Upon the establishment of a Staging Area outside the building, units will report into the Staging Area.
HROB 8.7

18
Q

Question 28:
At a recent operation with heavy fire on the 4th floor of a 5-story rowframe, and extending into exposure 2, arriving Engine companies stretched a number of handlines. Which tactic was incorrect?

A: The first hoseline was stretched to the location of the fire via the interior stairs. It had sufficient lengths to cover the entire building.

B: The second hoseline backed up the first hoseline on the fire floor. This hoseline had sufficient length to cover the entire building.

C: The third hoseline was stretched through an exposure to the rear yard, as ordered by the IC.

D: One of the 2nd alarm Engine companies was ordered to stretch a hoseline to the top floor of exposure 2 to extinguish fire in the cockloft; members brought the search rope in addition to their normal assortment of tools.

A

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) An engine company, ordered to stretch a hoseline to the top floor of an exposure for purposes of extinguishing the fire in the cockloft, should take a SIX-FOOT HOOK to pull ceilings.
B Note: The second hoseline, if not needed to back up the first hoseline, should be stretched to the top floor or to the floor above. If fire is reported in the exposure, the second hoseline MAY be more effective being stretched to the exposure, with the third or fourth hoseline stretched to back up the first hoseline. This hoseline will need to have sufficient length to cover the entire building.
BS/RF 6.1 C, 6.4

19
Q

Question 29:
The incorrect operation/tactic for line units during civil disorder can be found in which choice?

A: Members are to avoid personal engagement or confrontation with civilians. Where doubt exists, as to the ability of the FDNY to proceed safely, members should wait for NYPD force protection and support

B: The Task Force convoy consists 1 BC, 2 Engines, 1 Ladder, and EMS. In the event of an apparatus breakdown, the Task Force convoy should remain intact until assistance arrives

C: All warning lights are to be “on” for daytime as well as nighttime

D: Air horns are not to be used during Task Force response unless directed by Task Force Force Leader

E: Task Force preliminary reports via radio shall be plain speak. No coded signals

A

Answer: E

Explanation:
Limited to coded radio signals
ERP add 3B sec 3.5, 4.4.7, 4.4.9, 4.4.10, 4.8.1

20
Q

Question 31:
Members of Ladder 300 in Staten Island were reviewing characteristics of lightweight constructed private dwellings. Of the comments made during drill, which was correct?

A: When lightweight components are exposed to fire or high heat, the Safety Battalion shall be immediately notified.

B: It is recommended that the eCIDS program be utilized to identify buildings of lightweight construction so that units are notified prior to arrival.

C: Areas unsupported by columns with spans greater than 20’ are generally an indication that lightweight construction is present.

D: In any building construction, the critical area subject to failure as a result of fire is the point of connection.

A

Answer: D

Explanation:
A) When lightweight components are exposed to fire or high heat, the IC shall be immediately notified.
B) It is MANDATORY that the eCIDS program be utilized to identify buildings of lightweight construction so that units are notified prior to arrival.
C) Areas unsupported by columns with spans greater than 25’ are generally an indication that lightweight construction is present.
C Note: The collapse potential in a “wide-open” room of this type is greater than in a compartmented area that has interior walls.
PD Ch 6 1.5, 1.8, 1.10, 1.11

21
Q

Question 32:
Which of the following choices is CORRECT regarding company member and officer actions during an Emergency Roll Call?

A: When answering the roll call, all company officers will state the number of firefighters riding on the apparatus & account only for members within sight or hearing without using the HT

B: The Company Officer will account for their members under functional supervision by using the HT once called on by the roll call officer

C: If a member’s involvement in a rescue is necessary and they are unable to complete their assignment, they must notify their company officer

D: Members in the immediate vicinity of a member in distress must refrain from self deploying and becoming involved in any rescue effort unless specifically ordered

A

Answer: A

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL CHAPTER 9 - ADDENDUM 2
A IS CORRECT - 5.2 (Verbatim)
B - The Roll Call officer will contact the remaining members of the company 5.3
C- Must notify the Incident Commander 5.11.1
D -Members NOT in the immediate vicinity… 5.11

22
Q

Question 34:
Which of the following statements is correct concerning the FDNY’s relatively new Kernmantle Life Saving Rope?

A: For the single slide evolution the KLSR will be used in conjunction with a mechanical decent control device (DCD), presently the Petzl I’D L.

B: For lowering operations, four turns on the personal harness hook are required.

C: A Kernmantle LSR subjected to the weight of two people shall be placed out of service forthwith and replacement requested.

D: The Kernmantle LSR shall be used only for life saving and drill purposes.

A

Answer: C

Explanation:
A. FOR LOWERING OPERATIONS, the KLSR will be used in conjunction with a mechanical decent control device (DCD), presently the Petzl I’D L.

B. FOR THE SINGLE SLIDE EVOLUTION, four turns on the personal harness hook are required.

D. The Kernmantle LSR shall be used only for life saving PURPOSES. IT SHALL NOT BE USED FOR DRILL PURPOSES.

TB Rope 10: 3.1, 3.2, 4.0, 4.2

23
Q

Question 35:
All members assigned to an aerial ladder company should have an understanding of Department policy on aerial ladder training, use and maintenance. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?

A: Chauffeurs should be familiar with the operation of all other aerial ladders; engine company chauffeurs should be familiar with the aerial ladder operation of ladder companies that they respond with on first alarms.

B: When right angle positioning is prevented by other apparatus or parked vehicles which cannot be easily moved, an angled extension over the cab or trailer may be necessary.

C: If fire is in an “H” or “U” type building and conditions do not mandate a specific position, avoid blocking the front entrance to the courtyard when it is apparent that a tower ladder may operate at that location.

D: Vacant lots or driveways adjoining the fire building do not provide a stable platform for aerial ladder jacks and should not be used for positioning.

A

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) Vacant lots or driveways adjoining the fire building MAY ALLOW for BETTER placement of the apparatus when overhead obstructions might interfere with operations.
Lad 2 7.1.7 - 7.1.9

24
Q

Question 36:
Your unit, an Aerial Ladder Company, is dispatched to the scene of a structural collapse of a 4-story row frame as a SOC Support Ladder. Where should your apparatus be positioned?

A: In front of the building, with your second piece located near your main apparatus.

B: In front of the building, with your second piece kept away from the front of the building in a secondary staging area (unless needed for specific rescue purposes).

C: Kept away from the front of the building in a secondary staging area (unless needed for specific rescue purposes) with your second piece located near your main apparatus.

D: Kept away from the front of the building in a secondary staging area (unless needed for specific rescue purposes) with your second piece located in front of the building.

A

Answer: C

Explanation:
Aerial ladders should be kept away from the front of the building in a secondary staging area unless needed for specific rescue purposes. SOC Support Ladder Companies shall position the same as other ladder apparatus, with their second pieces located near the main apparatus. Personnel can carry equipment, tools, etc., to scene.
Collapse 5.4

25
Q

Question 37:
The incorrect procedure when serving a criminal court summons can be found in which choice?

A: If a defendant refuses to take a summons, you may drop the summons in their direct vicinity (ex: at their feet, in front of a door if they refuse to open the door)

B: If a defendant leaves before you have an opportunity to serve the summons, you may leave it with another person at the premises who is of suitable age (18 or older). If this person refuses to take the summons, you may leave it in their vicinity

C: If a defendant destroys or discards the summons after you serve them, the summons will have to be re-issued. If the defendant destroys or discards the second summons, the officer shall request a Battalion Chief and PD to respond

D: If you have any other problems serving the summons, contact a supervisor or BISP Unit, if necessary

A

Answer: C

Explanation:
If a defendant destroys or discards the summons after you serve them, the summons was still properly served.
AUC 5 ch 3 add 3 sec 9.1.3

26
Q

Question 38:
Of the following choices, which is incorrect regarding operations at under river rail incidents?

A: 1,000 volt lines may run throughout tubes at ceiling level. These lines will also be deactivated when power is confirmed off at the 3rd rail.

B: Increased noise levels, powerful air movement, a distant light reflecting on the running rails or vibration in the tracks are indications of an approaching train/train movement.

C: Treat these incidents as Confined Space operations and take precautions accordingly.

D: Once committed to the tubes, members must realize that the route they approached from may be their only means of egress. Conditions at the scene may not allow members to pass to the other side of the incident.

A

Answer: A

Explanation:
A) 1,000 volt lines may run throughout tubes at ceiling level. These lines are NOT deactivated by routine requests for power removal.
A Note: An explosion or derailment may cause these high voltage lines to come in contact with the metal skin of the car. Electrical fires may generate thick, irritating smoke.
URR 9.1.1, 9.1.3, 9.1.6, 9.2.5