LT PKG EXAM #9

Question 1

Question 3:
A FLSTP’s class of newly promoted Lieutenants are discussing operations involving a tank truck accident with a fire. The following points were made during the presentation. Which one is incorrect?

A: With the older steel tanks a BLEVE can occur.

B: When the chance of a BLEVE exists it is extremely important to get a large caliber stream on the vapor area of the tank quickly.

C: With the newer aluminum tanks, the problem of a BLEVE has been eliminated.

D: If enough resources are on scene, members shall stretch a foam handline in conjunction with the operation of a large caliber stream.

Answer 1

Answer: C

Explanation:
C. With the newer aluminum tanks, the problem of a BLEVE has been REDUCED BECAUSE THE SHELL WILL MELT AT APPROXIMATELY 1220 DEGREES F.

NOTE: WHEN AN ALUMINUM TANK REMAINS INTACT THE CHANCE OF A BLEVE STILL EXISTS.

TB Foam: 8.7

Question 2

Question 5:
Of the following choices, which is not considered an initial duty of the first arriving Engine at a collapse operation?

A: The Officer should supervise water supply activities and apparatus placement.

B: Coordinate operations with first arriving ladder company officer.

C: Stretch a 1 3/4” handline of sufficient length to cover the entire site.

D: Consider stretching 3 1/2” line to supply a tower ladder.

Answer 2

Answer: C

Explanation:
C) Stretch a 2½” handline of sufficient length to cover the entire site.
Note: Even though Section 5.3 states “If possible, both first and second arriving Engines should take separate hydrants OUTSIDE the block, each on separate mains, and prepare to supply handlines and a large caliber tower ladder stream,” this section elaborates, stating “at times it may be necessary for the first arriving Engine to take a position WITHIN the block for use of the apparatus master stream for fire control or exposure protection. The Officer must ensure a continuous source of water supply for such purposes.”
D Note: Realize the second arriving Engine will ENSURE a 3 1/2” supply line is stretched to the first tower ladder.
Collapse 7.2

Question 3

Question 7:
While operating at a major gas emergency, Ladder 399 is ordered to conduct rapid evacuation in the potential blast zone. Which action performed was incorrect?

A: If no one answers the door to an area or apartment, members must conduct forcible entry.

B: When forcible entry is required, the use of the adz to gap and force the door is permitted.

C: Occupants should be notified there is a potential for a natural gas explosion and they are not to turn on lights or use cell phones or any other electronic devices and must evacuate immediately by orders of the Fire Department.

D: Elevators in the potential blast zone are not to be used by civilian or FDNY personnel.

Answer 3

Answer: A

Explanation:
A. If no one answers the door to an area or apartment , members SHOULD MOVE TO THE NEXT DOOR. FORCIBLE ENTRY SHOULD ONLY BE ACCOMPLISHED FOR A KNOWN LIFE HAZARD AND SHOULD NOT BE ATTEMPTED TO ACCESS AREAS THAT SHOW NO SIGNS OF BEING OCCUPIED.

Natural Gas 9.1.3

Question 4

Question 8:
Oxygen in the air is the primary oxidizing agent in most fires. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?

A: Normally, air consists of 20.8% oxygen.

B: At normal ambient temperatures, materials can ignite and burn at oxygen concentrations as low as 15%.

C: When oxygen concentration is reduced below 15%, combustion will cease, and materials cannot ignite.

D: When oxygen concentration is higher than 20.8%, materials exhibit very different burning characteristics and materials that burn at normal oxygen levels will burn more intensely.

Answer 4

Answer: C

Explanation:
C) When oxygen concentration is reduced below 15%, the FLAMING combustion will DIMINISH, causing combustion to CONTINUE in the NON-FLAMING mode.
C Note: This means that below 15% there will not be visible flames, but because combustion continues in the nonflaming mode, heat and dense, fuel rich smoke will continue to be produced. If oxygen is introduced to this type of atmosphere, the fuel rich environment can ignite and be hazardous to firefighters.
D Note: Many materials that do not burn at all in normal oxygen levels, may burn readily in oxygen-enriched atmospheres.
TB FD 2.6.1-2.6.3

Question 5

Question 9:
Which of the following is CORRECT regarding the use of the Post Radio at a fire in a Fireproof High Rise Multiple Dwelling?

A: If the fire is on a lower floor, the Post Radio may not be required and shall remain in the lobby.

B: The Second engine officer provides the communications link between the lobby and fire area pending the establishment of the Fire Sector/Branch on the fire floor.

C: Upon arrival on the floor below the fire, the second engine officer shall establish contact with the Incident Command Post via the tactical channel on the Post Radio.

D: In addition to his/her normal duties, the second engine officer must maintain the communications link with the lobby until the Fire Sector Supervisor/Branch Director arrives on the floor below the fire.

Answer 5

Answer: D

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 12 – POST RADIO
D IS CORRECT 6.2.5 (Verbatim)
A – All Battalions shall bring their post radio into the lobby 6.1.5 The first arriving Battalion shall give the post radio to the second arriving engine officer. 6.2.2
B – On a floor below the fire. 6.2.1
C – Via the Command Channel on the Post Radio 6.2.4

Question 6

Question 10:
Choose the incorrect statement made in regards to Brush fires.

A: Surface fires are the most common type of brush fire encountered in NYC

B: The Brush Fire Unit (BFU) chauffeur is to be a member trained in operating the vehicle

C: During large brush fires, units responding in are not required to report into the command post. Units can self commit in order to get ahead of the brush fire

D: Units operating remotely and completing an assignment are not to go 10-8. Officers shall advise the IC and wait additional orders for possible redeployment

Answer 6

Answer: C

Explanation:
AUC 151
A- sec 3.4.1
B- sec 4.5.2.D
C- Units are not to self-commit to operations unless structures are exposed…sec 5.1.2
D- sec 5.1.4

Question 7

Question 11:
Members must exercise extreme caution when conducting waterfront operations while wearing bunker gear. When this is the case, which procedure is incorrect?

A: Personal flotation devices, where available, should be used. Safety lines should be used, particularly if no flotation devices are available.

B: In the event you fall into the water, call for help and attempt to swim to safety.

C: At least one 20 ft straight ladder should be dedicated for the purposes of member removal should the need arise.

D: Prior to operating on or around water, Marine units must be notified.

Answer 7

Answer: B

Explanation:
B. In the event you fall into the water, DO NOT SWIM-CALL FOR HELP, TRY TO REMAIN CALM AND SLOWLY TREAD WATER.

THIS WAS AN OLD SAFETY BULLETIN AND NOW APPEARS IN WATER RESCUE 1 ADDENDUM 1

Water Rescue 1 Addendum 1

Question 8

Question 12:
Lieutenant Jones is drilling with one of her cross-unit details on the features of the relatively new Ogura Cordless Rebar Cutter. Which point made during their discussion was correct?

A: The Ogura cordless rebar cutter is designed for cutting maximum 1/2” diameter high tensile rebar, tensile fastening bolts, locks and threaded rod.

B: The support handle must be installed on the top side of the cutting head.

C: Do not start cutting immediately after the motor is switched on. Allow the Tipped Saw blade to reach full speed before beginning to cut.

D: The tool has “high speed mode” and “high torque mode”. The mode indicator, located on the handle, will light up when the tool is in “high speed mode”.

Answer 8

Answer: C

Explanation:
A. The Ogura cordless rebar cutter is designed for cutting maximum 1” DIAMETER high tensile rebar, tensile fastening bolts, locks and threaded rod.

B. The support handle CAN BE INSTALLED EITHER ON THE LEFT, RIGHT AND TOP SIDE of the cutting head.

D. The tool has “high speed mode” and “high torque mode”. The mode indicator, located on the handle, will light up when the tool is in “HIGH TORQUE MODE”.

TB Tools 28 Data Sheet 2: 3.1, 3.4, 3.6, 4.5

Question 9

Question 13:
Choose the incorrect tactic/procedure when operating at a Still Water Operation.

A: There will be no motors only oars issued with the boat as the intent is for members to slowly row stranded people to safety in water moving less than one knot

B: The maximum capacity of a flat bottom boat used in still water operations is 3

C: No member shall enter enter the water unless equipped with a Cold Water Suit or waders and a personal flotation device (PDF)

D: A Water Rescue Company consists of a Water Rescue Company and an Engine Company. When the Water Rescue Company is an Engine Company then a neighboring Engine Company will be dispatched to assist in operations

Answer 9

Answer: A

Explanation:
AUC 159 add 7
A- There will be no motors or no oars issued with the boat as the intent is for members to walk the boat into flooded areas where the depth of water permits…sec 2
B- sec 4.5
C- sec 4.4
D- sec 4
***Definition of still water “Water rising, but non-flowing, flood waters”

Question 10

Question 14:
Captain Dutch was conducting a drill on Class 2 High Rise Residential buildings in a Midtown Manhattan firehouse. In which choice below was his statement incorrect?

A: To designate these buildings in the eCIDS program, Officers shall utilize the FD designation “CL2”.

B: Occasionally, the building will be divided into wings or sections above the first floor with each section having their own standpipe, stair(s) and elevator(s). In most of these buildings, the only location where members may traverse from one section to another is the lobby, cellar and/or roof.

C: The “Service Stairs” will be of standard width, rise and run. It usually contains a standpipe, service elevator and door(s) to the apartment(s) that are typically not the main entrance to the apartment(s).

D: “Open Fire Stairs” are the most common fire stair encountered and generally have two doors serving separate apartments in a building or wing of a building, though some contain only one door serving a single apartment. Open fire stairs may be found anywhere in the apartment and typically do not have a standpipe.

Answer 10

Answer: A

Explanation:
A) To designate these buildings in the eCIDS program, Officers shall utilize the FD designation “CL2R”.
A Note: A standard CIDS worksheet has been created for these buildings.
B Note: A shared fire stair, when present, provides the secondary means of egress for apartments in different wings, creating an additional crossover.
MD Ch 4 4.1, 5.2.1, 5.3.4 C2a, c, d

Question 11

Question 15:
The aerial ladder apparatus must be properly set for ladder operations at a fire operation. In which of the following choices is the apparatus improperly set?

A: When both stabilizers are properly in place, both “stabilizer down” green lights will be illuminated.

B: Stabilizer jack pads shall be placed under the area where the stabilizers come in contact with the ground.

C: Manual Safety Pins must be placed in the lowest hole possible in the stabilizers.

D: Wheel chocks should be placed to prevent movement of the apparatus. Carry one set of chocks on each side of apparatus.

Answer 11

Answer: C

Explanation:
C) Manual Safety Pins must be placed in the HIGHEST hole possible in the stabilizers.
Lad 2 8.2, 8.3

Question 12

Question 17:
The safety of members should be a prime consideration at any fire operation in a nonfireproof multiple dwelling. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?

A: Officers must not permit any material to be thrown out of windows unnecessarily. A member should always be posted in the yard or street below to prevent injuries to anyone from falling material.

B: Before exiting the fire building you must “STOP” until you are assured it is safe to exit the building.

C: When performing overhaul operations, all members must wear Department issued PPE including bunker pants, bunker boots, helmets and gloves. The bunker coat and protective hood may be dispensed with in hot weather.

D: Care should be exercised when overhauling in bathrooms. A sudden collapse can occur; consider using the reach of the hook and standing outside the bathroom to open up the ceiling.

Answer 12

Answer: C

Explanation:
C) When performing overhaul operations, all members must wear their Department issued PPE INCLUDING bunker coat, bunker pants, bunker boots, helmets, protective hoods and gloves.
A Note: Examination of the yard MUST be made before discarding any material into the yard to ensure that no occupants have jumped into the yard prior to the arrival of Fire Department units. No material shall be thrown onto roof of buildings or into narrow shafts or setbacks.
Note: A previous Lieutenant Exam question focused on this statement….”Hanging ends of cable such as electric (BX), telephone and coaxial television shall be secured near the ceiling. Loops of cable hanging down shall be pushed up out of the way.
Lad 3 8.4, 8.10, 8.13, 8.14, 8.16

Question 13

Question 18:
Which of the following items is the only item that is considered a valid DNR order?

A: Health Care Proxy

B: Living Will

C: MOLST form

D: DNR bracelet

Answer 13

Answer: D

Explanation:
NOTE: HOSPITAL AND NURSING HOME DNR FORMS MAY BE HONORED ONLY IF THE PATEINT ORIGINATES FROM THE NURSING HOME OR HOSPITAL THAT ISSUED THE ORDER.

DNR’S SHOW UP OVER AND OVER AGAIN ON EXAMS

CFR CH 2 Addendum 1 3.0

Question 14

Question 22:
During multi-unit drill on the Tower Ladder’s large caliber stream (LCS), FF Blain made an incorrect statement. Indicate the incorrect comment.

A: The application of a LCS downward into roof openings from an elevated position can be counterproductive. Operating the Tower Ladder stream into roof vent holes is generally ineffective and may result in a prolonged operation.

B: The 2” tip is preferable when deep penetration of the stream is necessary to hydraulically overhaul stock. Increasing nozzle pressure within allowable limits will often facilitate access into partitions and sidewalls.

C: When conditions such as heavy clutter or doubtful floor stability exist, the Incident Commander may order all personnel removed from the bucket, lock the monitor in place, and extend the bucket into the building via a large window or other opening to achieve extinguishment and hydraulic overhaul.

D: In extreme situations, the LCS directed through an attic window of a peaked frame dwelling can be used to ventilate by literally blowing off the roof.

Answer 14

Answer: B

Explanation:
B) The 1 ½” TIP is preferable when deep penetration of the stream is necessary to hydraulically overhaul stock. Increasing nozzle pressure within allowable limits will often facilitate access into partitions and sidewalls.
TL Ch 4 4.2

Question 15

Question 23:
It is 0859 hrs and an ERS box comes in for the intersection of Truth Street & Justice Avenue. Which of the following is CORRECT regarding response policy for units on ERS boxes?

A: If there is no contact with the caller, there is no response for FD units.

B: If there is no contact with the caller, a single engine company will be assigned to respond to the box location.

C: A minimum of three engines, one ladder, and one battalion chief shall be dispatched on an alarm from an ERS box reporting smoke and/or fire in a structure.

D: If units are 1084 and a second source is received, the dispatcher will fill out box unless advised otherwise by units on the scene.

Answer 15

Answer: A

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 6 – ALARM RESPONSE
A IS CORRECT – Between the hours of 0800 & 2300 if there is no contact with the caller on an ERS box, there is no response. 6.2.4.
B – See A – Time is 0859 hrs.
C – A minimum of three engines, TWO LADDERS, and one Battalion Chief shall be dispatched on any alarm received from a single source (ERS & Telephone) reporting smoke and/or fire in a structure. 6.2.2 NOTE
D – If FD units are already on the scene and a second source is received, the dispatcher will notify the responding Battalion Chief and attempt to contact a unit on the scene. The box will NOT be fill out by the dispatcher unless requested to do so by the responding BC or the on-scene Incident Commander. 6.2.3

Question 16

Question 24:
Engine and Ladder operations may differ in Class 2 High Rise Residential buildings from tactics in other types of buildings. Which of the following choices is incorrect?

A: Fires in Class 2 buildings will be extinguished using 2 1/2” hose stretched from a standpipe outlet located on a floor below or using 1 ¾” hose or 2 ½” hose handstretched from a pumper.

B: Due to the size of these apartments, the 3rd engine may need to assist with getting the first line into operation. If the 3rd engine is assisting with the first line, the officer must notify the IC and the 4th engine officer.

C: Some of these buildings contain elevators without fire service. In these instances, unused elevators should be recalled, searched and then left in normal mode.

D: Some elevators open directly into apartments or serve isolated vestibules with no access to stairways. These elevators should be avoided if possible.

Answer 16

Answer: C

Explanation:
C) Some of these buildings contain elevators without fire service. In these instances, unused elevators should be CALLED TO THE LOBBY and CHOCKED OPEN.
B Note: When the 3rd engine is assisting with the first line, the 4th engine should stretch a second line.
MD Ch 4 7.3, 8.3.2 A, 8.4.2 Note, 9.5, 9.6

Question 17

Question 25:
Each officer and member will be issued a length of nylon tubular webbing. Which feature of this webbing is described incorrectly?

A: The breaking strength is 4000 lbs. The knotted breaking strength is 3000 lbs.

B: Webbing is used primarily for dragging victims. Vertical lifts shall only be attempted as a last resort.

C: Before the webbing can be used in the field, it must be made into a continuous loop by using a water knot.

D: The webbing should be inspected monthly and after each use.

Answer 17

Answer: B

Explanation:
B. Webbing SHALL ONLY BE USED FOR DRAGGING VICTIMS; NO VERTICAL LIFTS SHOULD BE ATTEMPTED.

Managing Members in Distress Ch 3 Addendum 3 1.0, 2.1, 3.4, 6.2

Question 18

Question 26:
Exposure protection may be crucial at a significant private dwelling fire. Which of the following statements is not in accordance with Department directives?

A: Fire “lapping” out of a window, or burning on the exterior of a building, presents a serious exposure problem.

B: Openings in the underside of eaves (i.e. vent openings) or deteriorated siding may allow for fire extension to the attic of an exposure or the original fire building.

C: Units operating a hoseline to extinguish fire on the exterior of a building should sweep the stream across the face of the building, starting at the bottom and working their way up the exterior.

D: Consider stretching a 2½” hoseline if increased volume or reach of the stream is a consideration.

Answer 18

Answer: C

Explanation:
C) Units operating a hoseline to extinguish fire on the exterior of a building should sweep the stream across the face of the building, starting at the TOP, so the water cascades down the exterior.
PD Ch 3 6

Question 19

Question 27:
Choose the incorrect statement in regard to Manhole fires.

A: Generally, when the locations of electric manholes and service boxes are unknown, it is safer to walk down the middle of the street (in-line with the sewer system)

B: More often than not, electric manhole covers and service boxes will be located in or near the parking lane

C: The safety area consists of one non-affected manhole in each direction beyond those with activity

D: Carbon Monoxide and Combustible Gas Meter (Altair) shall be used during investigating surrounding properties

E: Even if lights are flickering, members should avoid de-energizing any electric components by opening switches (shutting power at the main)

Answer 19

Answer: A

Explanation:
Generally, when the locations of electric manholes and service boxes are unknown, it is safer to walk on the sidewalk
AUC 180 sec 4

Question 20

Question 30:
Several search tactics are outlined below. Which one is incorrect?

A: The exterior team is supervised through functional supervision.

B: The method when searching areas adjacent to or above the fire area, is to start the search for life upon entering the area using a left or right handed search pattern.

C: If fire is wrapping around the door jamb as the door is being forced open, a hoseline must be charged and in place at the door before the door is opened.

D: The interior team shall leave the hydraulic forcible entry tool inside the doorway to indicate the apartment they are searching.

Answer 20

Answer: D

Explanation:
D. The interior team shall leave the hydraulic forcible entry tool OUTSIDE the doorway to indicate the apartment they are searching.

THIS POINT WAS HIT ON 2014 CAPT EXAM

ALSO NOTE “B” CHOICE: THE METHOD FOR SEARCHING THE FIRE AREA OR APARTMENT IS TO FIRST LOCATE, CONTAIN AND ISOLATE THE FIRE AND THEN BEGIN THE SEARCH FOR LIFE FROM THIS POINT.

KNOW THE DIFFERENCE

TB Search 9.1, 9.3, 9.5, 9.10.1

Question 21

Question 31:
Which descriptive feature of Rowframe buildings is portrayed incorrectly below?

A: The salient feature common to all, regardless of variations in design, is the common cockloft spreading over all the buildings in the row. This cockloft may vary in height from one inch to 4 feet.

B: There are many variations in the construction of these buildings. Light and airshafts are found in some, while not in others. Usually the buildings of longer length will have the shafts. Air and light shafts are of wood, and fire in shafts rapidly assumes blowtorch proportions.

C: To gain entrance to the roof from the interior of the building, there is a scuttle on the roof which is reached by an iron ladder from the top floor. The scuttle is usually near the skylight over the stairs.

D: The major defects or faults in the construction are the lack of the fire stopping and the vast quantity of combustible material used in the construction.

Answer 21

Answer: A

Explanation:
A) The salient feature common to all, regardless of variations in design, is the common cockloft spreading over all the buildings in the row. This cockloft may vary in height from ONE FOOT to a height tall enough for a MEMBER TO STAND IN.
BS/RF 5.2.2, 5.2.6, 5.2.7, 5.3.2

Question 22

Question 32:
During non-fire emergencies caused by explosion, biological, chemical, radiological, nuclear, natural disaster, or the threat thereof, or declaration of emergency by lawful authority, the Fire Safety Director/Emergency Action Plan Director (FS/EAPD) of a high rise office building is authorized to make certain decisions. Units should be familiar with this authority and should know which of the following statements to be incorrect?

A: First arriving units should be met at the Fire Command Station by the Fire Safety/Emergency Action Plan Director (FS/EAPD), Deputy Fire Safety/Emergency Action Plan Director (DFS/EAPD) or Fire Safety/Emergency Action Plan Building Evacuation Supervisor(FS/EAPBES).

B: The buildings’ Emergency Action Plan (EAP) provides for a Fire Safety/EAP Brigade consisting of the Building Manager, Chief Engineer, and Director of Security. They are responsible for assisting with the implementation of the EAP.

C: At the Fire Command Station, expect to find the Building Information Card (BIC) and a list of special needs occupants and their location in the building, who have requested assistance in the event the EAP is implemented.

D: First arriving units should request a briefing on any and all actions taken prior to their arrival. Be aware that the FS/EAPD is authorized to implement the EAP and take actions to ensure occupant safety, with the exception of recalling the elevators.

Answer 22

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) These actions may include: elevator recall, public announcements and evacuations. Note: The use of elevators by building personnel to facilitate the movement of occupants is permissible and should be anticipated under the EAP.
HROB Add 1 1.1-3.1, 4.3

Question 23

Question 33:
With an Active Shooter incident occurring recently in the great borough of Brooklyn, all members studying for the upcoming Lieutenants exam should be well versed in the tactics/procedures for Active Shooter. Choose the incorrect tactics/procedures for Active Shooter.

A: The initial Rescue task Force (RTF) shall be limited to seven FDNY members (EMS and Firefighters)

B: FDNY members shall be restricted to the Warm Zone and only take medical supplies necessary to address life-threating conditions. This includes defibrillators and oxygen

C: When entering the Warm Zone the Rescue Task Force shall enter and move in a Rolling “T” formation

D: One Fire member of the Rescue Task Force shall monitor TAC-U

E: FDNY members of the Rescue Task Force shall only focus on the Red Tag patients

Answer 23

Answer: B

Explanation:
ERP add 3A
A- sec 11.2.2
B- Oxygen and defibrillators shall NOT be brought into the Warm Zone…sec 11.4.2
C- sec 11.6.1
D- sec 11.5.2.Note
E- sec 11.6.2

Question 24

Question 37:
US Department of Transportation (DOT) requires vehicles transporting radioactive materials to have radioactive warning placards displayed on the vehicles. These radioactive warning placards are required when the vehicle is carrying more than _______ pounds of radioactive materials?

A: 1 pound

B: 10 pounds

C: 100 pounds

D: 1000 pounds

Answer 24

Answer: D

Explanation:
Also required to display placards when carrying one or more Yellow III packages
Placards shall be displayed on all 4 sides of vehicle
Number 7 on the placard indicates the hazard class
ERP add 4 sec 1.1

Question 25

Question 38:
Members of a busy Brooklyn Ladder Company were discussing specific considerations for fire operations in vacant buildings. Which comment made was inconsistent with Department guidance?

A: Vacant residential fires tend to occur most frequently during the late-night to early-morning hours, peaking from 10 p.m. to 2 a.m.

B: Building height can increase the potential for collapse in wood-frame buildings (e.g., a 3-story wood-frame building may be more collapse prone than a similar 2-story wood-frame building because of the increased dead load imposed on first-floor structural supports by the weight of the upper floors).

C: A Tower Ladder should be placed in front of the fire building because of the increased likelihood of an exterior attack. Also, it may be desirable to place an Engine Company in close proximity to the building, outside of the collapse zone, in order to operate the deckpipe for an exterior attack.

D: Sealed buildings are more likely to be structurally unstable than unsealed buildings for a variety of reasons, such as exposure to weather, access by vandals, etc. They also present a higher probability of fire extension to exposures.

Answer 25

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) UNSEALED buildings are more likely to be structurally unstable than sealed buildings for a variety of reasons, such as exposure to weather, access by vandals, etc. They also present a higher probability of fire extension to exposures.
D Note: On the other hand, sealed buildings restrict egress for firefighters, making search operations extremely risky.
Note: An additional important consideration includes the following:
Exposed, occupied buildings or occupancies may be the primary concern at vacant building fires. This is based on whether or not life is endangered in exposures, or in the absence of a life hazard, on the amount of property exposed. It is also important to remember that fire extension to exposures is MORE LIKELY to occur at vacant buildings than at occupied buildings.
Vacants 4.2

Question 26

Question 39:
During a severe storm, units should not be committed to dewatering operations. The FDNY makes 4 exceptions to this policy. Choose the incorrect one.

A: Basement flooded in a vacant structure with all utilities disconnected

B: Where lives are endangered, such as, but not limited to; hospitals, nursing homes, and similar type of occupancies

C: Where extensive property damage can be averted

D: A flooded depression in the roadway on the Long Island Expressway, such as, the roadway under an overpass creating a dangerous traffic problem

Answer 26

Answer: A

Explanation:
Where failure to dewater creates a serious fire hazard, such as; flood or rising water in close proximity to live electrical equipment or service, which cannot be disconnected safely
D- Where a major safety and dangerous traffic problems can be alleviated by immediately beginning the dewatering of major streets and highways that have been flooded by the storm
AUC 159 add 9 sec 2.3