LT PKG EXAM #2

Question 1

Question 1:
Some hydrants should be designated as a “Priority Repair” in the Hansen Hydrant System. Which of the following choices is incorrect?

A: A hydrant that is out of service and is the only hydrant in a block should be designated as a “Priority Repair.”

B: A hydrant that is out of service, which is vital to the protection of the NY Stock Exchange, a high-profile location, should be designated as a “Priority Repair.”

C: A hydrant that is out of service, which is vital to the protection of the Brooklyn Bridge should be designated as a “Priority Repair.”

D: If two adjacent hydrants in a block are both out-of-service, only one of them should be designated as a “Priority Repair.”

Answer 1

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) If two adjacent hydrants in a block are both out-of-service, they are BOTH priority repairs.
C Note: This includes other critical infrastructure locations such as tunnels, transit systems, etc.
Eng Ch 3 Add 2 2.8.1

Question 2

Question 2:
When an observed (overt) suspected biological device is discovered, an initial Exclusion Zone shall be established. This Exclusion Zone shall be at least __________ feet in all directions from the source or point(s) of release.

A: 50 feet

B: 100 feet

C: 200 feet

D: 300 feet

Answer 2

Answer: D

Explanation:
ERP add 1 ch 1 sec 5.2.2

Question 3

Question 5:
Typically at a structural fire, the 2nd arriving engine company will team up with the 1st arriving engine to operate the 1st hoseline. However, there are situations in which the 2nd arriving engine company may stretch and operate a 2nd hoseline. This should only be done when each of the following conditions exist, with the exception of which choice?

A: The 1st arriving engine company must have secured a positive water source. The 2nd arriving engine officer can communicate with the 1st arriving chauffeur to confirm this.

B: The 1st arriving engine company does not require the help of the 2nd arriving engine to get the 1st line in operation. The 2nd arriving engine officer must communicate with the 1st arriving engine chauffeur to confirm this.

C: The hose stretches are sufficiently short, so the 1st arriving company will not require immediate assistance in operating the line once it is charged.

D: There is an immediate need for a 2nd hoseline to address fire extension or a life hazard.

Answer 3

Answer: B

Explanation:
B) The 1st arriving engine company does not require the help of the 2nd arriving engine to get the 1st line in operation. The 2nd arriving engine officer must communicate with the 1st arriving engine OFFICER to confirm this. D Note: The Incident Commander (Chief Officer or Acting Chief Officer) may order the second engine in any situation to immediately stretch a second line for any purpose including the need for a backup line or exposure protection.
Eng Ch 4 3.5

Question 4

Question 6:
Which Engine Company is responsible for positioning near the 1st arriving Ladder Company and providing Emergency Gross Decontamination for ambulatory victims during a suspected chemical attack in an underground subway?

A: 1st arriving Engine

B: 2nd arriving Engine

C: 3rd arriving Engine

D: 4th arriving Engine

Answer 4

Answer: A

Explanation:
1st arriving Engine Company
- provide Emergency Gross Decontamination for ambulatory victims
- Direct persons who are decontaminated to Casualty Collection Points
- Provide estimate of number of victims to IC
- Inform 2nd arriving Ladder Company and IC if victims collapse on their way from the subway exit to the Gross Decon area
2nd and 3rd arriving Engine Companies
- ensure that decon facilities are available quickly at remote locations (entrances)
- Perform CFRD duties as needed
ERP add 2 sec 7.1 and 7.2.1

Question 5

Question 7:
After operating at a gas emergency, a newly promoted Lieutenant is discussing some features of gas related infrastructure with a young firefighter. He makes the following comments, but was incorrect in which one?

A: Head of service valves are typically the first valve after the curb valve, they are always before the meter and are generally located either on the interior or exterior of the building near the point of entry.

B: Service regulators are usually located before the gas meter on medium and high pressure systems to reduce gas to low pressure (1/4 psi).

C: Peck vents are installed on systems supplied by medium or high pressure to vent excess gas to the exterior if the service regulator fails. They may have a red cap. There should normally be a slight odor of natural gas at a peck vent.

D: Sometimes the utility company will have two master meters adjacent to one another. The valves to both meters would need to be closed to shut supply to the building.

Answer 5

Answer: C

Explanation:
C. Peck vents are installed on systems supplied by medium or high pressure to vent excess gas to the exterior if the service regulator fails. They may have a red cap. There should normally be NO ODOR of natural gas at a peck vent.

IF AN ODOR IS DETECTED, YOU MUST INVESTIGATE TO DETERMINE THE SOURCE.

Natural Gas 4.4.1, 4.4.2, 4.4.3

Question 6

Question 8:
Proper Tower Ladder placement is crucial at a fire operation. All officers should be familiar with the information below except the incorrect statement in which choice?

A: Tower Ladders shall not be placed on sidewalks containing underground vaults.

B: Generally, the apparatus should be parallel to the building. Occasionally, the scrub area of the bucket will be reduced by the cab of the apparatus and this can be corrected by parking the apparatus with the front end angled toward the building line.

C: The ideal horizontal distance from the center line of the turntable to an objective is 32 feet.

D: Generally, the boom has enough clearance to reach most 3rd floor windows and above when operating over the crew cab.

Answer 6

Answer: B

Explanation:
B) Generally, the apparatus should be parallel to the building. Occasionally, the scrub area of the bucket will be reduced by the cab of the apparatus and this can be corrected by parking the apparatus with the front end angled AWAY FROM the building line.
C Note: When the center line of the turntable is 25 feet from a building there will be sufficient room for the bucket to be dropped below the horizontal with the boom perpendicular to the side of the apparatus.
TL Ch 2 2

Question 7

Question 11:
Manhattan fire units respond to a reported manhole emergency in midtown. On arrival, units encounter a concrete slab with access manholes placed in pairs. They would be most correct to identify this as which of the following items?

A: Transformer vault

B: Steam vault

C: Electric Manholes

D: Sewer Manholes

Answer 7

Answer: B

Explanation:
VARIATION OF THIS QUESTION ON THE 2021 CAPTAINS EXAM

DO NOT GIVE UP THE PICTURES IN BULLETINS. MAKE SURE YOU’RE ABLE TO IDENTIFY THEM AND LOOK AT CAPTIONS FOR ANY TESTABLE INFORMATION.

Steam Photo 1

Question 8

Question 12:
As the officer in charge of a company, you are responsible for knowing the inner workings of the MDT. Which of the following Incident disposition keys is a single action key that DOES NOT require the use of the send key?

A: 10-20

B: 10-92

C: 10-18

D: 10-19

Answer 8

Answer: A

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – COMPUTER ASSISTED DISPATCH
A IS CORRECT – 2.22.1D (SECTION IN MARCH 2022 UPDATES)
B,C, & D all require the send button be pressed to complete the transaction.

Question 9

Question 13:
Row Frame buildings present many hazards. Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding these hazards?

A: When a serious fire burns out the entire first floor, there is danger of collapse, especially in corner buildings and buildings standing alone.

B: A heavy fire in the cockloft will burn roof supports and cause the collapse of the roof into the top floor.

C: The salient feature common to all, regardless of variations in design, is the common cornice spreading over all the buildings in the row.

D: The major defects or faults in the construction are the lack of the fire stopping and the vast quantity of combustible material used in the construction.

Answer 9

Answer: C

Explanation:
C) The salient feature common to all, regardless of variations in design, is the common COCKLOFT spreading over all the buildings in the row. This cockloft may vary in height from ONE FOOT to a height tall enough for a member to STAND in.
BS/RF 5.3.2, 5.4 A, H

Question 10

Question 14:
When operating during a hurricane, the depth of water that an apparatus (engine or ladder) can travel through shall be limited to what amount?

A: 18 inches

B: 2 feet

C: 3 feet

D: 3 1/2 feet

Answer 10

Answer: A

Explanation:
The depth of the water to be crossed should not exceed 18” for first line apparatus, and 50” for FDNY Hi-Axle vehicles
AUC 159 sec 5.4.3

Question 11

Question 15:
Units are operating with three engines and two trucks at the scene of a fire on the 3rd floor of a 4-story multiple dwelling. Prior to the arrival of the FAST unit, which of the following members shall operate as the Safety Team?

A: Backup and control of the first due engine.

B: Backup and control of the second due engine.

C: LCC and OV of the first due ladder company.

D: LCC and OV of the second due ladder company.

Answer 11

Answer: B

Explanation:
Prior to the arrival of the FAST unit, the Safety Team shall normally be made up of the Backup and Control firefighters of the second arriving engine.

MMID Chapter 1 2.1.1

Question 12

Question 19:
Hybrid vehicles have become much more prevalent in recent years. Which hybrid vehicle safety consideration is described incorrectly?

A: Many hybrid vehicles use a keyless start system. Make sure the ignition is off, and the key or key fob is at least 10 feet away from the vehicle.

B: Never cut any high voltage cables. On most, the high voltage cables are color-coded orange. Although some cables are color-coded blue.

C: Make sure the “ready” light is not on.

D: At a hybrid vehicle fire, always make sure that the high-voltage battery case is cooled down to prevent re-ignition.

Answer 12

Answer: A

Explanation:
A. Many hybrid vehicles use a keyless start system. Make sure the ignition is off, and the key or key fob is AT LEAST 15 FEET AWAY from the vehicle.

VARIATION OF THIS QUESTION ON 2009 LT EXAM

CROSS REF: AUC 5 Chapter 2 Addendum 3 Page 5: Rooftop Conduits and Piping

High voltage wiring: Red
Low voltage wiring: Orange

TB Fires 8 11.6 C

Question 13

Question 21:
The proper maintenance of hose is essential to effective operations. Of the following choices, which one is incorrect?

A: All hose must be tested for serviceability each year to 250 psi. The hose must be less than 10 years old.

B: Hose tested must not have any obvious defects. These includes damaged couplings, abrasions, burns, or rot to the hose jacket. If defects are noted, the hose should not be tested and should be placed OOS.

C: During the hose test, the apparatus is hooked up to a hydrant using the inlet opposite the pump panel. In addition, attach a single gate to the pumper outlet, also on the side opposite the pump panel.

D: During the annual hose test, the test pressure is maintained for 5 minutes and the ECC should be mindful that there is no movement of water during the test and the pump may build up heat. If heat is noted, a valve on an unused gate may be partially opened to allow water movement.

Answer 13

Answer: A

Explanation:
A) All hose must be tested for serviceability each year to 300 PSI. *Note - this is a change from our old Engine Operations manuals.
Eng Ch 3 Add 3 5.1, 5.3.2, 5.3.5, 5.3.6, 5.4.11

Question 14

Question 22:
The most correct procedure when operating at a fire in a Foreign Embassy can be found i which choice?

A: The Foreign Embassy is located in a 25X60 4 sty Brownstone. You ordered a 2 1/2” line stretched to extinguish a fire on the parlor floor

B: If entry is denied in any Foreign Embassy on fire, do not enter. Instead protect exposures and set up TL in front

C: After fire is knocked down in a Foreign embassy, relief companies must be able to enter to relieve initial companies and complete overhaul since the FDNY now controls the scene

D: During a fire in a Foreign Embassy, if explosives or ammunition are involved then notify the IC and avoid the area while extinguishing the fire

Answer 14

Answer: B

Explanation:
AUC 196
A- Stretch hoselines compatible with the occupancy and fire conditions. In this case it would be 1 3/4”…sec 5.1
B- sec 4.6
C- Embassy personnel may refuse to let relief companies in and they may also refuse to allow overhauling. Do not argue; if asked to leave then do so…..sec 4.7
D- Expect storage of ammunition and explosives. If ammunition and explosives are involved, evacuate immediately and notify the NYPD and Fire Marshals …sec 5.3
This is considered a separator question in the author’s opinion. Its only 2 pages, but worth the read

Question 15

Question 23:
Based on the following CFR assignments, which CFR firefighter is responsible for manually stabilizing the patients spine if trauma is suspected?

A: “A”: Airway

B: “C”: Checker

C: “D”: Defib/Documenter

D: “E” Equipment

Answer 15

Answer: A

Explanation:
“A” Airway: Manually stabilizing spine (if trauma is suspected) while opening the airway, maintaining the airway, and administering oxygen if needed. In response to cardiac arrest, begins ventilation. Carries o2 bag.

“B” Boss: Officer in charge

“C” Checker: Conducts patient assessment and performs hand-on care. In response to cardiac arrest, checks pulse and begins compressions. Carries trauma bag.

“D” Defib/Documenter: Completes PCR. In response to cardiac arrest, hooks up and operates defibrillator.

“E” Equipment: If CFR unit is 5 FF, the fifth FF shall initially remain with the apparatus and help carry any additional equipment needed.

CFR Chapter 2 2.1

Question 16

Question 24:
Your unit is operating at a fire on the 32nd floor of a high rise office building. What is the recommended pump discharge pressure?

A: 200psi

B: 250psi

C: 300psi

D: 350psi

Answer 16

Answer: C

Explanation:
C) 300psi
Floors 1-10 supply 150psi
Then add 50psi for every 10 floors
HROB 4.1.7

Question 17

Question 25:
All officers should be familiar with the types of hydrants and other water supply sources in their response areas. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?

A: Some Yellow Hydrants on Parkways and Expressways are maintained shut at the curb valve. They must be turned on fully at the curb valve, approximately 17 turns clockwise using a curb valve key, in order to be used.

B: Red Air Cock Hydrants are on 30” diameter or greater mains in strategic locations (high and low points on the water main). These hydrants are painted red and are excellent sources of water for Fire Department use.

C: Red Satellite Water System Hydrants are a twin hydrant arrangement on large mains and shall never be used. The hydrants are painted red and are high pressure hydrants.

D: Wall Hydrants are embedded in the wall of a building and closely resemble a Fire Department Connection (but should be labeled as a hydrant.) They are operated by turning an operating nut (often located above the outlets.)

Answer 17

Answer: C

Explanation:
C) Red Satellite Water System Hydrants are a twin hydrant arrangement on large mains for a rapid and ADEQUATE source of water for Satellite Units. The hydrants are painted red and MAY have two 4 ½” outlets.
Eng Ch 3 Add 4 2.3.3 - 2.3.6

Question 18

Question 26:
The correct procedure when operating in the subway can be found in which choice?

A: When trying to extinguish a small rubbish fire near the 3rd rail, you ordered a FF to shut power using the nearest power removal box to remove power

B: When conditions do not require power removal, reconnaissance may be conducted by an Officer and a FF operating as a team and only from platforms or catwalks when extinguishing a small rubbish fire

C: The communication relay in a subway will consist of Truck Chauffeur, Roof FF, OV FF, Engine Officer, Truck Officer (In this order)

D: Upon report of a fire in a subway, it is imperative that all Engine Chauffeurs secure and hook up to a hydrant as soon as possible

Answer 18

Answer: B

Explanation:
AUC 207
A- Power removal boxes are for when there is an immediate danger and power must be shut-off to save lives in imminent danger….sec 3.2.4
B- sec 3.4
C- C.O.R.E…… Truck Chauffeur, OV FF, Roof FF, Engine Officer, Truck Officer…..sec 4.1
D- Engine Chauffeurs should not hook up until the location of the fire is determined…sec 5.1

Question 19

Question 27:
FDNY units respond to a 20-story high-rise office building for a fire on the 13th floor. The “A” elevators serve floors 1 to 7; the “B” elevators serve floors 7 to 15; and the “C” elevators serve 15 to 20. There are access stairs going from the 9th floor to the 10th floor and the 11th floor to the 12th floor. When deciding which elevator to use for this fire operation, units would be most correct to take?

A: The “A” elevator to 7th floor.

B: The “B” elevator no higher than the 8th floor.

C: The “B” elevator no higher than the 9th floor.

D: The “B” elevator no higher than the 11th floor.

Answer 19

Answer: D

Explanation:
Each part of 7-5-2 elevator rule must be considered separately:

7: 7th floor or below units walk up (this didn’t apply here)

5: Do not use an elevator bank which serves the fire floor if a lower bank of elevators reaches within 5 floors of the fire floor (this didn’t apply here the “A”bank is 6 floors below).

2: When it is necessary to use an elevator bank which services the fire floor (as was the case in this example) select a floor at least two floor below the fire floor or two floors below the lower level of an access stair in the fire area, whichever is lowest.

IN THIS EXAMPLE, THE ACCESS STAIRS DOES NOT SERVE THE FIRE AREA. THEREFORE “D” IS THE CORRECT CHOICE. UNITS TAKE THE “B” ELEVATOR NO HIGHER THAN THE 11th FLOOR WHICH IS 2 FLOORS BELOW THE FIRE FLOOR.

THIS SECTION OF THE ELEVATOR BULLETIN IS ASKED ON VIRTUALLY EVERY EXAM. MAKE SURE YOU KNOW IT COLD

TB Elevators 6.1

Question 20

Question 28:
Members were discussing the designations of units during a study session. Which designation is CORRECT?

A: Engine 256 is assigned to an Ice Rescue incident. They were listed on the ticket with the Prefix W.

B: Engine 244 is assigned to a High-Rise fire as the Systems Control Unit. They were listed on the ticket with the Suffix S.

C: Engine 232 is assigned to a 1075 as a High-Pressure Pumper. They were listed on the ticket with the Prefix P.

D: Engine 322 is assigned to a collapse incident as the transport unit. They were listed on the ticket with the prefix E.

Answer 20

Answer: D

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – COMPUTER ASSISTED DISPATCH
D IS CORRECT – Engine companies are designated by the prefix E. 2.12.1A1
A – Water/Ice Rescue is indicated by the SUFFIX W
B – Systems Control Unit is indicated by the SUFFIX Y
C – High Pressure Pumper is indicated by the SUFFIX P

Question 21

Question 30:
You are giving a drill on how to halt train traffic when operating on or near train tracks. The procedure that’s most correct can be found in which choice?

A: A member directed to halt train traffic shall use a light. The light is to be held chest high and moved in a wide horizontal motion of at least four feet

B: A member directed to halt train traffic shall use a light. The light is to be held waist high and moved in a wide horizontal motion of at least four feet

C: A member directed to halt train traffic shall use a light. The light is to be held chest high and moved in a wide horizontal motion of at least two feet

D: A member directed to halt train traffic shall use a light. The light is to be held waist high and moved in a wide horizontal motion of at least two feet

Answer 21

Answer: A

Explanation:
AUC 207 sec 7.4
Look at sec 7.3….”Whenever members are committed to a track area, firefighters shall be assigned in pairs to act as warning guards” (2021 Captains exam)

Question 22

Question 32:
All officers should have a basic understanding of fire dynamics. Which of the following choices contains incorrect information?

A: The horizontal line between the inflow and outflow at a ventilation opening (i.e., at the plane where there is zero pressure difference and thus zero flow in or out of the opening) is known as the neutral plane. The position of the neutral plane can often be observed during a fire, given that the outflow often consists of visible smoke or fire.

B: The neutral plane is another term for thermal interface and may occur inside a fire compartment or at any ventilation opening.

C: Thermal Interface and interface height refer to the separation between the hot upper layer and the cool lower layer within a compartment. It can be used by firefighters to identify how far the hot upper layer has banked down and the possibility of flashover.

D: The neutral plane indicates pressure differences at an opening and may be used by firefighters outside the building to help determine the fire location within a building.

Answer 22

Answer: B

Explanation:
B) The neutral plane is DIFFERENT from the thermal interface because the neutral plane ONLY occurs at a ventilation opening.
TB FD Ch 2 2.5.4, 2.5.5

Question 23

Question 36:
Lt. Sponge was discussing the actions taken by Engine 2 after receiving an E alarm in a High-Rise building on the 34th floor. Which was the only CORRECT action taken by Engine 2 upon arrival at this single unit response? Note: The building is a 40 Story 200x200 Class 1 with six elevators and Access stairs servicing floors 17-23 & 30-37.

A: Engine 2 had their ECC remain with the apparatus and responded in with forcible entry tools and after checking in with building personnel and being advised of a smoke detector activation on the 34th floor transmitted the box.

B: Engine 2 had their ECC remain with the apparatus and boarded an elevator car and took the elevator to the 32nd floor using precautions normally taken with fire service elevators.

C: Engine 2 contacted the ECC in the apparatus and had her transmit a second alarm 1076 upon discovering a smoke condition on the 34th floor.

D: Engine 2 had their ECC remain with the apparatus and returned to the lobby to secure the necessary hose and equipment in preparation to operate after discovering the smoke condition on the 34th floor.

Answer 23

Answer: D

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS CHAPTER 6 – ADDENDUM 2
D IS CORRECT 3.7 Second Bullet Point
A – Officer shall make contact with building personnel; inquire as to the alarm source and direct building personnel to reset the alarm system. If reset doesn’t hold after 2-3 minutes, then you investigate. 3.4 & 3.5
B – When it is necessary to use an elevator in a bank which serves the fire floor, select a floor at least 2 floors below the fire floor or two floors below the lower level of an access stair in the fire area, whichever is lowest. (Elev 6.1.4 A & B) Access stairs serve floors 30-37…
C – A second alarm is warranted for any visible fire or smoke emanating through the exterior skin of the building or when a SERIOUS fire has been verified. (Hi-Rise 5.2.2B)

Question 24

Question 38:
The INCORRECT statement when referring to the Rapid Response Vehicle Task Force (RRV) can be found in which choice?

A: RRVs with 4 doors will have MDTs and 4 wheel drive

B: RRVs with 2 doors will not have a MDT and only have 2 wheel drive capability

C: Only 4 door RRVs will be designated in CADS with an “R” Ex: L-25 RRV will show on MDT as R025

D: When supervising a RRV Task Force, the primary method of communication will be the Department Radio

Answer 24

Answer: D

Explanation:
Primary Communications - 400 MHz UHF Radios
Alternate Communications- 800 MHz radios
Contingency Communications - Cell Phones
Emergency Communications - Department Radio
Look at choice “C”- 2 door RRVs will not have a prefix “R” like found in 4 door vehicles. Instead 2 door vehicles will be designated when called over the Department radio as SSL-126 (L-126 2nd piece)
AUC 159 add 8 sec 3 and 4

Question 25

Question 39:
First alarm units arrive at a chute fire in a compactor of a high-rise fireproof multiple dwelling. Which operation performed is incorrect?

A: The first engine company to arrive will proceed to one level above the burning material, stretch a line and operate into the chute to extinguish the fire.

B: The Roof FF of the ladder company operates with the engine company to provide access to the chute and check for extension.

C: The officer and forcible entry team of the ladder company will operate in the compactor room. They must first locate the electrical shut off and shut power to the unit before operations commence.

D: After the engine company has extinguished the fire, the ladder company may begin overhauling. Before opening the compactor unit access door, they are to be sure the hoseline is shut down and the sprinkler OS&Y is closed.

Answer 25

Answer: B

Explanation:
B. THE OV FF of the ladder company operates with the engine company to provide access to the chute and check for extension.

THE ROOF FF of the ladder company will generally proceed to the roof to vent.

TB Fires 7 8.2

Question 26

Question 40:
Private dwelling construction can influence the tactics deployed at fires in these buildings. In which choice below is the information incorrect?

A: Outside ladder company positions are predicated on whether the roof is flat or peaked. This information must be transmitted with the signal 10-75, if this can be determined upon arrival.

B: Platform frame construction limits fire extension. Balloon frame construction lacks fire stopping between floors on exterior walls, allowing for rapid fire extension.

C: When there are only one or two offset windows (not in line with the other windows of the house) on the exposure 2 or 4 side of a dwelling, this indicates that these windows access bedrooms and should be entered for VEIS.

D: Porch and garage roofs of normal wood frame construction may provide a suitable platform from which to work. Members shall not use porch and garage roofs constructed of aluminum or similar lightweight materials to conduct operations.

Answer 26

Answer: C

Explanation:
C) When there are only one or two offset windows (not in line with the other windows of the house) on the exposure 2 or 4 side of a dwelling, this indicates that these are the windows at the top and/or bottom of the SECOND FLOOR STAIRCASE. These offset windows are windows that should NOT be entered for VEIS.
PD Ch 2 2.6, 2.7, 2.8