LT PKG EXAM #10 Flashcards

1
Q

Question 2:
Which of the following responses to a verbal alarm while assigned to another response is INCORRECT according to department policy?

A: While enroute to an electrical emergency, Engine 223 is flagged down on a verbal for a large rubbish fire that is extending to an unoccupied car. The officer advises the dispatcher of the verbal and stops to extinguish the extending fire.

B: While enroute to a first due gas leak, Engine 244 is flagged down on a verbal for a civilian hit by a bus. The officer advises the dispatcher of the verbal and stops to provide medical care to the injured civilian.

C: While enroute as the extra engine to a fire in an MD with reported people trapped, Engine 256 is flagged down on a verbal for fire coming from the windows of a PD. The officer advises the dispatcher of the verbal and stops to operate at the second structural fire.

D: While enroute to a difficulty breathing CFR response, Engine 269 is flagged down on a verbal for fire coming from the windows of an isolated vacant building where there is no life hazard. The officer advises the dispatcher of the verbal and continues onto the CFR response.

A

Answer: A

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 6 – ALARM RESPONSE
A IS INCORRECT – In the event the unit is responding to another alarm, and it is evident human life is NOT in jeopardy at the scene of the verbal alarm, the unit shall proceed to the original alarm after transmitting radio notification of a verbal alarm to dispatcher and receiving acknowledgement. 6.5.2
B – Until the unit stops to assess, it is unknown whether human life is in jeopardy.
C – Until the unit stops to assess, it is unknown whether human life is in jeopardy.
D – There is no life hazard. The unit is required to proceed to the original alarm.

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2
Q

Question 4:
Which description of the SCBA Pak-alert alarm system is incorrect?

A: The full alarm condition can only be cleared by manually pressing the reset button twice, located on the side of the control console.

B: The pre-alarm condition can be reset by pressing and holding the reset button until 3 quick audible chirps are heard and the red flashing light on the control console is replaced by a green flashing light or by shaking the control console.

C: If the sensor module does not sense motion of the SCBA for 20 seconds, the Pak-alert will signal a pre-alarm condition. If there is still no motion for the next 12 seconds, the full alarm will sound.

D: Provided working batteries are in the Pak-alert, the manual alarm may be activated by pressing the manual alarm button at any time, even when the SCBA is not pressurized.

A

Answer: B

Explanation:
B. The pre-alarm condition can be reset by pressing and holding the reset button until 3 quick audible chirps are heard and the red flashing light on the control console is replaced by a green flashing light. SHAKING THE CONTROL CONSOLE WILL NOT RESET THE PAK-ALERT.

THE MOTION SENSOR IS IN THE SENSOR MODULE UNDER THE AIR CYLINDER VALVE AND NOT IN THE CONTROL CONSOLE, SO THAT ACTUAL MOVEMENT OF THE SCBA BACKFRAME IS REQUIRED FOR RESET.

TB SCBA 3.10.5, 3.10.6 C & D 3.10.7 B, 3.10.8 B

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3
Q

Question 5:
Which statement below contains incorrect information regarding fire operations in vacant buildings?

A: When a vacant building is heavily involved on arrival, hose streams should be placed between the involved building and the most severe life exposure.

B: When life is not endangered in any exposure, the first stream should immediately be positioned for interior operations in the vacant building.

C: When possible, units should take a position that not only protects exposures, but also enables the stream to be used on the main body of fire. In cases when it is impossible to confine the fire in this manner, the stream should be alternated from the fire to the exposure.

D: At large or advanced fires, the primary attack strategy should consist of a defensive exterior attack and should focus on the protection of exposures.

A

Answer: B

Explanation:
B) When life is not endangered in any exposure, the first stream should be positioned to protect the GREATEST AMOUNT OF PROPERTY.
D Note: The IC may vary from this guideline in critical situations involving life hazards.
Vacants 5.2

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4
Q

Question 7:
The incorrect tactic/procedure during FireIce operations can be found in which choice?

A: A Company Officer or a Chief Officer can order the application of FireIce

B: When using FireIce a 1 3/4” handline is used

C: FireIce is not effective on the flammable oil used to cool transformers

D: When FireIce operations commence, a minimum standoff distance is 50’, but may decrease to a minimum safe distance of 25’ when the nozzle team is advancing towards the manhole

A

Answer: A

Explanation:
Only a Chief Officer
AUC 180 add 2

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5
Q

Question 8:
When operating the power saw if the guide man slaps the operator two times on the back, the operator should be aware that this means he/she should do what?

A: Stop cut.

B: Cut.

C: Shut down the saw.

D: Start the saw.

A

Answer: B

Explanation:
ONE SLAP = STOP (ONE WORD)
TWO SLAPS = START CUT (TWO WORDS)
THREE SLAPS = SHUT DOWN SAW (THREE WORDS)

TB Tools 9 4.4.6

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6
Q

Question 9:
Lt. Hawkins was training the newly assigned probationary firefighter on aerial ladder safety. In which choice below was the information incorrect?

A: Avoid moving the ladder while members are on it, except to remove them from serious exposure or for an extreme rescue effort.

B: Do not extend or retract the ladder while members are on it.

C: Avoid extending the tip of the ladder against a structure, except when attempting to open sealed windows in vacant buildings.

D: Never move the truck with the ladder raised to one side. Retract the sections substantially and turn the ladder parallel to its bed.

A

Answer: C

Explanation:
C) Avoid extending the tip of the ladder against a structure. This INCLUDES pushing or lifting cornices and trying to open sealed windows in vacant buildings.
Lad 2 8.9, 8.10, 8.14, 8.21

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7
Q

Question 10:
Which of the following questions is CORRECT regarding the activation of an Auxiliary Radio Communications System?

A: To activate a building ARCS, insert a 1620 key into the dedicated receiver console and rotate the key one position counterclockwise.

B: When choosing the primary HT building repeater channel, Channel 11 or 12 may be selected. All incoming units must be notified of this channel.

C: If both channels are needed, to activate a second repeater channel, a second 1620 key will be required.

D: Similar to the elevator lobby control panel, when you insert your 1620 key into the ARCS console, the key is removeable in the ON/Active position.

A

Answer: C

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL - CHAPTER 13 – ARCS
C IS CORRECT – 3.1 PG 5
A – Rotate the key one position CLOCKWISE 3.1
B – Choose the primary HT building repeater channel – Channel 11 3.1
D – The key is NOT removeable in the ON/ACTIVE position. 3.1

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8
Q

Question 14:
Marine companies carry 12 foot and 20 foot portable hook ladders with wood beams. Which of the following choices is an inaccurate description of these ladders?

A: They are painted white except for the hooks and for 18 inches at the base of each beam, which are painted black.

B: The length of the ladder and company identification is stenciled on the exterior of both beams.

C: The hooks, unlike those on roof or hook ladders carried by land units, are fixed.

D: These ladders do not have metal spurs at the base; there are simply the squared edges of the wood beams.

A

Answer: A

Explanation:
A) They are painted BLACK except for the hooks and for 18 inches at the base of each beam, which are painted WHITE.
Lad 1 1.2

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9
Q

Question 18:
The incorrect procedure when operating at a transformer fire can be found in which choice?

A: Rubbish fires near a transformer can be extinguished with a class C extinguisher or by using water with proper stand-off distances

B: Upon arrival to a transformer fire, transmit a 10-87

C: Operate Purple K on a transformer fire. This is the only agent recommended to be used directly on the transformer fire prior to utility arrival. Standoff distance is 10 feet

D: Applying water directly on the transformer should be avoided as an initial tactic

A

Answer: B

Explanation:
Upon arrival to a transformer fire, transmit a 10-86 (for purple K, F500, and foam response)
AUC 180 sec 6.3, 6.4.1, 6.4.2

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10
Q

Question 20:
Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding Duplex Radio Repeater Systems?

A: Duplex radio repeater systems will not support multiple simultaneous transmissions.

B: Multiple transmissions given at the same time may cancel out all transmissions.

C: Failure of the repeater system, for any reason, will also negate all communications on the repeater channel.

D: There will be an audible warning on the HT or visual indication in the lobby that the repeater system has failed or is on the verge of failing.

A

Answer: D

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 13 – ARCS
D IS INCORRECT – 2.1 There will be NO audible warning on the HT or visual indication in the lobby.
A – 2.1
B – 2.1
C – 2.1

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11
Q

Question 23:
The Carbon Monoxide (CO) statement is incorrectly found in which choice?

A: A CO “Incident” is when no occupants are symptomatic and meter readings are 9 PPM or less

B: A CO “Emergency” is when occupants are symptomatic or meter readings are more than 9 PPM

C: Each company is assigned 2 CO meters. The Engine’s second meter shall be carried with the CFR equipment, and attached to the O2 bag

D: When using a CO meter, take an initial reading near the CO detector that activated

A

Answer: D

Explanation:
When using a CO meter, take an initial reading at the front door of premises, then continue investigation to find source of CO in premises
Haz-Mat 4 sec 2.6, 4.2.1, 4.2.2, 4.1.3

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12
Q

Question 24:
When providing pre-hospital care to minors, which of the following procedures is incorrect?

A: Immediate medical intervention must be provided for life threatening injuries, regardless of whether the parent/guardian is available.

B: Immediate medical intervention must be provided for life threatening injuries, even if the parent/guardian refuses consent.

C: Under the NYS Social Services Law, if there is reasonable cause to suspect the child has suffered abuse, the ambulance crew is responsible to file the mandated report.

D: For a non-urgent injury, if a parent guardian refuses to allow treatment, no further action is necessary and the unit may return to service.

A

Answer: D

Explanation:
D. For an non-urgent injury, if a parent guardian refuses to allow treatment, THE FOLLOWING STEPS SHOULD BE TAKEN:

  1. CAREFULLY EXPLAIN THE REASONS(S) FOR TREATMENT, WHAT INTERVENTION IS NECESSARY TO CORRECT THE PROBLEM AND THE CONSEQUENCES IF THE INJURY/ILLNESS IS NOT TREATED.
  2. NOTIFY THE DISPATCHER OF THE EVENT UNFOLDING AND HAVE THEM NOTIFY EMS. CONTACT FDNY/EMS TELEMETRY IF PHONE AVAILABLE. IMPLEMENT THERE RECOMMENDATIONS (IF ANY) WHILE AWAITING EMS. DO NOT LEAVE BEFORE EMS ARRIVES.
  3. RETURN TO SERVICE AFTER EMS ARRIVES.

CFR CH 2 6.1.1

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13
Q

Question 25:
First alarm units are responding to a reported train stuck in an under-river tube. The Lieutenant in Ladder 500 has the following thoughts about the sound powered phone system but was incorrect in which one?

A: In the street to tunnel sound powered phone system coverage includes a particular under river tunnel or tubes (both directions) and a location on both sides of the tunnel, typically the nearest emergency exit.

B: There is usually no connection from one sound powered phone system to another (e.g., from and under river tunnel system to a nearby station.)

C: Headsets are preferred for use throughout the NYC transit system, due to the high noise levels that may be encountered.

D: In under river tubes, sound powered telephone connectors are found at standpipe outlets; approximately 300 feet apart.

A

Answer: D

Explanation:
D. In under river tubes, sound powered telephone connectors are found at standpipe outlets; approximately 200 FEET APART.

NOTE “A”: IN THE STREET TO STATION SYSTEM COVERAGE INCLUDES A PARTICULAR STATION AND THE STREET ABOVE.

TB Tools 31 4.1.1, 4.1.2, 4.1.3, 4.3.2

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14
Q

Question 26:
Units are operating at a fire in a taxpayer. There are four stores to the right of the original fire store followed by a separate row of 3 story frame buildings. What is the identity of the last store to the right of the fire building and the first frame in the row of frames?

A: O4B & O4C

B: O4C & 4

C: O4C & 4A

D: O4B & 4

A

Answer: B

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 10 – ADDENDUM 2 EXPOSURE IDENTIFICATION SECTORING
B IS CORRECT – 5.2 & 5.6 & 6.3 The entire taxpayer is O and the first building to the right is exposure 4. Subdivided, the stores to the right of the fire store are 04, 04A, 04B, 04C
Be sure to draw a picture on test day…

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15
Q

Question 27:
During multi-unit drill, Lt. Dillon had his members stretch a hose line up an aerial ladder into the 3rd floor of a vacant building. In which choice below was the operation performed incorrectly?

A: The nozzle firefighter left her length on the ground and carried the nozzle with the hose playing out behind her. The hose was carried under her left arm and the nozzle draped upward across the front of her torso and back over her right shoulder.

B: Once the nozzle firefighter reached the destination, she momentarily passed the nozzle to the engine officer, allowing her to safely dismount the aerial.

C: The back-up firefighter climbed the ladder behind the nozzle firefighter, advancing hose as they climbed. The hose was maintained on the right side of the aerial ladder.

D: When sufficient hose was stretched, a hose strap was used to secure the hoseline to a rung of the aerial ladder at the window level. Once secured, all members on the aerial completed their ascent up the ladder and proceeded to the point of operation.

A

Answer: C

Explanation:
C) The back-up firefighter climbed the ladder behind the nozzle firefighter, advancing hose as they climbed. The hose was maintained on the LEFT side of the aerial ladder.
Note: The engine officer will wait until ALL of the firefighters are off the aerial before calling for water in the line. The line should be charged gradually.
Eng Ch 7 9.5, 9.6, 9.7, 9.10, 9.11

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16
Q

Question 28:
When approaching a vehicle with a possible chemical suicide, the indicators that may be found include all of the following except?

A: Person’s skin tone may be red in color

B: Person may be wearing gloves or swimming goggles

C: Tape may be placed around vehicle’s windows or doors, or use of plastic to contain the vapors

D: Presence of chemical containers or strong chemical odors, such as hydrogen sulfide have an odor of musty hay

A

Answer: D

Explanation:
Presence of chemical containers or strong chemical odors, such as hydrogen sulfide (rotten egg smell)
Haz-Mat 11 sec 3.2

17
Q

Question 32:
At a recent cellar fire in a 3-story row frame, which engine company tactic was not in accordance with Department guidelines?

A: The first hoseline was stretched through the front door and members then attempted to make it down to the cellar via the interior stairs to extinguish the fire.

B: Since the first hoseline could not be advanced down to the cellar due to the intensity of the fire, it remained in position to protect the public hall, interior stairs, and the first floor.

C: Since the first hoseline was covering the first floor public hall and did not need a back up line, the second hoseline was stretched into the cellar via the outside cellar entrance to extinguish the fire.

D: The first hoseline repositioned to the most severe exposure to cover extension to that area after the cellar fire was controlled by the second hoseline.

A

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) The first hoseline advanced to the TOP FLOOR to cover extension to that area and the cockloft after the cellar fire was controlled by the second hoseline.
D Note: Intervening floors shall be checked for fire on the way to the top floor. A member must be stationed on the landing to warn of any fire that may break out below them.
C Note: The second hoseline shall back up the first hoseline. If the first hoseline has advanced into the cellar, and a back up line is not needed, the second hoseline shall extinguish any fire on the first floor then proceed to the top floor. If the first hoseline is used to cover the first floor public hall, and a back up line is not needed, the second hoseline will be stretched into the cellar via the outside cellar entrance to extinguish the fire.
BS/RF 6.2

18
Q

Question 34:
The incorrect statement made in reference to operating water into a manhole fire can be found in which choice?

A: Maintain a distance of at least 25 feet from the nozzle to the manhole, vault, or service box

B: Use a fog nozzle to reduce or prevent any shock hazard

C: Adjoining manholes and service boxes should be identified and clear of civilian and FD personnel before starting water

D: Always use water or FireIce as an initial tactic, especially if the manhole contains a transformer that’s on fire

A

Answer: D

Explanation:
DO NOT use water or FireIce as an initial tactic on a combustible liquid transformer fire.
AUC 180 4.7.2, 4.7.3, 4.7.4, 4.7.8

19
Q

Question 40:
Officers should be familiar with the different types of private dwellings they may encounter. In which choice below is the private dwelling description incorrect?

A: “Ranch” style private dwellings are asymmetrical, single story structures with simple floor plans. Common shapes include rectangular, L-shaped or U-shaped design.

B: A “Cape Style House” is a split level home configuration where the multiple levels are visible from the front elevation. Typically, the garage is on one side of the house and there is a floor above the garage housing the bedrooms.

C: A “Semi Attached” private dwelling consists of a pair of houses built side by side as units sharing a common wall. Each house’s layout is a mirror image of its twin.

D: Private dwellings constructed of newer, lightweight material must be entered into the CIDS program. Floor collapse can be as serious a threat as a roof collapse and when fire extends from the building contents to the structure, early collapse can be expected.

A

Answer: B

Explanation:
B) A “SIDESPLIT” is a split level home configuration where the multiple levels are visible from the front elevation. Typically, the garage is on one side of the house and there is a floor above the garage housing the bedrooms.
B Note: The other half of the house is the main living area, half a story above the garage level and half a story below the bedroom level. Grading or steps connect the exterior street to the front door on the main level. Each floor is separated by a half flight of stairs. Most have a crawlspace that is half the size of the house. Others may have a split foundation with a full basement below the lower main living area.
A Note: The kitchen, living room and bedrooms are located on the first floor. There is a basement/cellar where all the utilities are located. It is also possible to find living quarters in the basement/cellar.
PD Ch 1 3.5-3.8