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LATG > Unit Three Exam > Flashcards

Unit Three Exam Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following cellular components play a role in the body’s ability to recognize substances a “nonself”?
A- antigens
B- antibodies
C- proteins of the major histocompatibility complex
D- mucous membranes

A

C- proteins of the major histocompatibility complex

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2
Q

The immunity that functions if an animal has not been exposed to a foreign substance is called ______ immunity.

A

Innate

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3
Q 
In the recognition stage of an immune response, which of the following encounter an antigen-presenting cell?
A- B lymphocytes
B- mast cells
C- dendritic cells
D- immunoglobulins
A

A- B lymphocytes

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4
Q

What best describes the cytokines?
A- they transmit information from the receptor to other sites in the cell
B- they are enzymes that destroy foreign materials that enter the cell
C- they secrete antibodies against the invading substance
D- they serve as “memory molecules” that can quickly mobilize if the same antigen invades the cell later

A

A- they transmit information from the receptor to other sites in the cell

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5
Q

Macrophages and _________ have a similar role in presenting an antigen to other cells

A

Dendritic cells

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6
Q

What is the term used to describe an animal with a normal immune system?

A

Immunocompetent

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7
Q

What is the most abundant immunoglobulin found in the serum of mammals?

A

IgG

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8
Q

Which of the following is an example of passive immunity?
A- the absence of infection-fighting ability in immunosuppressed animals
B- the reaction that follows a second exposure to the same antigen
C- the protection offered by pre-formed antibodies given to an animal
D- the protection offered by endogenous polyclonal antibodies

A

C- the protection offered by pre-formed antibodies given to an animal

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9
Q

Which of the following treatments is commonly used in laboratory animals to prevent transplant rejection?
A- heavy doses of antibodies to prevent bacterial infections in the transplanted tissue
B- long-term dietary supplements to boost rejection resistance
C- blood transfusions to increase the level of B cells and T cells
D- radiation exposure to kill progenitors of the immune system cells

A

D- radiation exposure to kill progenitors of the immune system cells

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10
Q

What best describes a xenograft?
A- a graft of tissue obtained from another part of the body of the recipient
B- a graft of tissue obtained from a recipient’s identical twin
C- a graft of tissue obtained from an animal of the same species
D- a graft of tissue obtained from a donor of a different species

A

D- a graft of tissue obtained from a donor of a different species

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11
Q

When is the best time to schedule husbandry chores in rooms that house immunodeficient animals?

A

At the beginning of the day to prevent contamination transmitted from other animals in the facility

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12
Q 
Which of the following is a way that a secondary immunodeficiency disease can be acquired?
A- poor nutrition
B- radiation exposure
C- inherited genetically
D- none of the above
A

A- poor nutrition

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13
Q 
The structure of viruses usually consists of which of the following?
A- a strand of nucleic acid
B- a protein capsid
C- a lipid envelope
D- all of the above
E- none of the above
A

D- all of the above

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14
Q

Some bacteria are encapsulated. What best describes a capsule?
A- a resistant outer covering of bacterial spores
B- the equivalent of the plasma membrane in bacteria
C- an exterior protective envelope of gelatinous material
D- an appendage for bacterial locomotion

A

C- an exterior protective envelope of gelatinous material

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15
Q

Which statement best describes a bacterial spore?
A- it is an envelope that covers the bacterium and protects it from being digested by the host’s enzymes
B- it is a colony of bacteria enveloped in a thick protective coating
C- it is the bacterial chromosomes surrounded by a tough coating
D- it is the infectious stage of a bacterium

A

C- it is the bacterial chromosomes surrounded by a tough coating

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16
Q

Bacteria that can grow in the absence of oxygen are called:

A

Anaerobic

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17
Q

Which of the following statements applies to viral reproduction?
A- viruses reproduce by integrating pieces of the host’s DNA into their own DNA
B- viruses reproduce in the fluids that surround the cells in the host’s tissues
C- viruses use the host cell’s mechanisms to synthesize new viral components
D- agars are good media that allow virus production and growth without the need for the virus to enter a host cell

A

C- viruses use the host cell’s mechanisms to synthesize new viral components

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18
Q

Scrapie in sheep is believed to be caused by which infectious agent?

A

Prions

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19
Q

What is the shape of cocci bacteria?

A

Spherical

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20
Q

Tapeworms belong to which class of helminths?

A

Cestodes

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21
Q

How do hookworms generally enter the body?

A

Penetration of the skin or oral mucosa

22
Q 
Which of the following can be infected by ich?
A- fish
B- swine
C- nonhuman primates
D- mice
A

A- fish

23
Q

Which of the following is TRUE about idiopathic ulcerative dermatitis (IUD)?
A- the exact cause is known and there is a standard treatment to cure it
B- the lesions primarily occur on the arms and neck
C- SCID mice are most likely to be affected
D- mice with IUD may make them poor research subjects

A

D- mice with IUD may make them poor research subjects

24
Q

Which of the following statements apply to bacterial pneumonia in guinea pigs?
A- it has distinctive clinical signs and is readily diagnosed
B- it typically causes mild disease in young animals and death in older animals
C- routine administration of antibiotics is the primary method for maintaining disease-free guinea pig colonies
D- it is often associated with bordetella bronchiseptica and streptococcus pneumoniae

A

D- it is often associated with bordetella bronchiseptica and streptococcus pneumoniae

25
Q

Which of the following is TRUE about rabies?
A- all mammals are susceptible to the rabies virus
B- the disease is easily cured by appropriate treatment
C- wild-caught animals are assumed to be free of rabies
D- it is mainly transmitted from scratches from infected animals

A

A- all mammals are susceptible to the rabies virus

26
Q

Dirofilaria immitis is the cause of:

A

Heartworm disease

27
Q

What are the stones in the bladder of cats called?

A

Uroliths

28
Q

In which animal is rumen stasis a problem?

A

Ruminants

29
Q

Red leg is caused by what type of pathogen?

A

Bacteria

30
Q

Examination of the Buffy coat provides information about:

A

The relative amount of leukocytes in the blood

31
Q

Elevated concentrations of _______ may be a sign of an allergic reaction or of the presence of parasites.

A

Eosinophils

32
Q

Which of the following best describes blood serum?
A- whole blood
B- unclotted blood
C- the liquid portion of anitcoagulated blood
D- the liquid portion of clotted blood

A

D- the liquid portion of clotted blood

33
Q

If an animal’s antibody titer for a specific antigen is 10, what does that number represent?

A

The most dilute solution of blood that gives a positive reaction in the test for antibody

34
Q

Determining the specific gravity of urine provides a measure of:

A

The kidney’s ability to concentrate the urine

35
Q 
Viruses can be grown in:
A- liquid nutrient media
B- solid media such as agar plates
C- blood serum
D- embryonated chicken eggs
A

D- embryonated chicken eggs

36
Q

Bioluminescent imaging requires a light signal from which molecule?

A

Luciferin

37
Q

Radioactive isotopes can be attached to which molecule in positron emission tomography?

A

Glucose

38
Q

In which technique is the X-Ray beam rotated 360 degrees around the patient to allow precise location of lesions?

A

Computed tomography

39
Q 
Which of the following is an example of an adverse drug effect?
A- tremors
B- shallow/labored breathing
C- vomiting/diarrhea
D- all of the above
A

D- all of the above

40
Q

A nonhuman primate has diarrhea, which diagnosis testing has determined is caused by the Protozoa parasite Giardia. What kind of antibiotic would be most effective to kill this parasite?

A

Nitroimidazole

41
Q

Which species is safe to treat with a pyrethrin or pyrethroid based insecticide?

A

Dogs

42
Q

The drug carprofen was prescribed by a veterinarian to be given once daily by mouth for 3 days. Which piece of dosage information is missing?

A

Dose rate

43
Q

Which stage of anesthesia is characterized by the loss of consciousness?

A

Stage 2

44
Q

Surgical anesthesia often causes which of the following conditions?
A- a lower susceptibility to dehydration
B- a drop in body temperature
C- an increase in the amount of blood reaching the extremities
D- an increase in heart rate

A

B- a drop in body temperature

45
Q

What is the normal capillary refill time for most Laboratory animals?

A

About 1-2 seconds

46
Q 
Xylazine has which of the following effects?
A- sedation
B- analgesia
C- blood pressure lowering
D- all of the above
A

D- all of the above

47
Q

What is the best way to determine the amount of nitrous oxide left in a tank?

A

Weigh the tank

48
Q

In rebreathing systems, the exhaled gases pass through a canister that absorbs the:

A

Carbon dioxide

49
Q

In rebreathing systems, where is the concentration of anesthetic gas set?

A

At the dial on the vaporizer

50
Q

What is a characteristic of the respiratory pattern of surgical anesthesia?
A- rapid shallow breathing
B- deep breaths alternating with shallow breaths
C- breathing initiated in the thoracic-abdominal area
D- the need for mechanical ventilation

A

C- breathing initiated in the thoracic-abdominal area

LATG (23 decks)

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