Unit Three Exam Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following cellular components play a role in the body’s ability to recognize substances a “nonself”?
A- antigens
B- antibodies
C- proteins of the major histocompatibility complex
D- mucous membranes

A

C- proteins of the major histocompatibility complex

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2
Q

The immunity that functions if an animal has not been exposed to a foreign substance is called ______ immunity.

A

Innate

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3
Q
In the recognition stage of an immune response, which of the following encounter an antigen-presenting cell?
A- B lymphocytes
B- mast cells
C- dendritic cells
D- immunoglobulins
A

A- B lymphocytes

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4
Q

What best describes the cytokines?
A- they transmit information from the receptor to other sites in the cell
B- they are enzymes that destroy foreign materials that enter the cell
C- they secrete antibodies against the invading substance
D- they serve as “memory molecules” that can quickly mobilize if the same antigen invades the cell later

A

A- they transmit information from the receptor to other sites in the cell

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5
Q

Macrophages and _________ have a similar role in presenting an antigen to other cells

A

Dendritic cells

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6
Q

What is the term used to describe an animal with a normal immune system?

A

Immunocompetent

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7
Q

What is the most abundant immunoglobulin found in the serum of mammals?

A

IgG

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8
Q

Which of the following is an example of passive immunity?
A- the absence of infection-fighting ability in immunosuppressed animals
B- the reaction that follows a second exposure to the same antigen
C- the protection offered by pre-formed antibodies given to an animal
D- the protection offered by endogenous polyclonal antibodies

A

C- the protection offered by pre-formed antibodies given to an animal

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9
Q

Which of the following treatments is commonly used in laboratory animals to prevent transplant rejection?
A- heavy doses of antibodies to prevent bacterial infections in the transplanted tissue
B- long-term dietary supplements to boost rejection resistance
C- blood transfusions to increase the level of B cells and T cells
D- radiation exposure to kill progenitors of the immune system cells

A

D- radiation exposure to kill progenitors of the immune system cells

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10
Q

What best describes a xenograft?
A- a graft of tissue obtained from another part of the body of the recipient
B- a graft of tissue obtained from a recipient’s identical twin
C- a graft of tissue obtained from an animal of the same species
D- a graft of tissue obtained from a donor of a different species

A

D- a graft of tissue obtained from a donor of a different species

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11
Q

When is the best time to schedule husbandry chores in rooms that house immunodeficient animals?

A

At the beginning of the day to prevent contamination transmitted from other animals in the facility

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12
Q
Which of the following is a way that a secondary immunodeficiency disease can be acquired?
A- poor nutrition
B- radiation exposure
C- inherited genetically
D- none of the above
A

A- poor nutrition

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13
Q
The structure of viruses usually consists of which of the following?
A- a strand of nucleic acid
B- a protein capsid
C- a lipid envelope
D- all of the above
E- none of the above
A

D- all of the above

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14
Q

Some bacteria are encapsulated. What best describes a capsule?
A- a resistant outer covering of bacterial spores
B- the equivalent of the plasma membrane in bacteria
C- an exterior protective envelope of gelatinous material
D- an appendage for bacterial locomotion

A

C- an exterior protective envelope of gelatinous material

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15
Q

Which statement best describes a bacterial spore?
A- it is an envelope that covers the bacterium and protects it from being digested by the host’s enzymes
B- it is a colony of bacteria enveloped in a thick protective coating
C- it is the bacterial chromosomes surrounded by a tough coating
D- it is the infectious stage of a bacterium

A

C- it is the bacterial chromosomes surrounded by a tough coating

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16
Q

Bacteria that can grow in the absence of oxygen are called:

A

Anaerobic

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17
Q

Which of the following statements applies to viral reproduction?
A- viruses reproduce by integrating pieces of the host’s DNA into their own DNA
B- viruses reproduce in the fluids that surround the cells in the host’s tissues
C- viruses use the host cell’s mechanisms to synthesize new viral components
D- agars are good media that allow virus production and growth without the need for the virus to enter a host cell

A

C- viruses use the host cell’s mechanisms to synthesize new viral components

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18
Q

Scrapie in sheep is believed to be caused by which infectious agent?

A

Prions

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19
Q

What is the shape of cocci bacteria?

A

Spherical

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20
Q

Tapeworms belong to which class of helminths?

A

Cestodes

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21
Q

How do hookworms generally enter the body?

A

Penetration of the skin or oral mucosa

22
Q
Which of the following can be infected by ich?
A- fish
B- swine
C- nonhuman primates
D- mice
23
Q

Which of the following is TRUE about idiopathic ulcerative dermatitis (IUD)?
A- the exact cause is known and there is a standard treatment to cure it
B- the lesions primarily occur on the arms and neck
C- SCID mice are most likely to be affected
D- mice with IUD may make them poor research subjects

A

D- mice with IUD may make them poor research subjects

24
Q

Which of the following statements apply to bacterial pneumonia in guinea pigs?
A- it has distinctive clinical signs and is readily diagnosed
B- it typically causes mild disease in young animals and death in older animals
C- routine administration of antibiotics is the primary method for maintaining disease-free guinea pig colonies
D- it is often associated with bordetella bronchiseptica and streptococcus pneumoniae

A

D- it is often associated with bordetella bronchiseptica and streptococcus pneumoniae

25
Which of the following is TRUE about rabies? A- all mammals are susceptible to the rabies virus B- the disease is easily cured by appropriate treatment C- wild-caught animals are assumed to be free of rabies D- it is mainly transmitted from scratches from infected animals
A- all mammals are susceptible to the rabies virus
26
Dirofilaria immitis is the cause of:
Heartworm disease
27
What are the stones in the bladder of cats called?
Uroliths
28
In which animal is rumen stasis a problem?
Ruminants
29
Red leg is caused by what type of pathogen?
Bacteria
30
Examination of the Buffy coat provides information about:
The relative amount of leukocytes in the blood
31
Elevated concentrations of _______ may be a sign of an allergic reaction or of the presence of parasites.
Eosinophils
32
Which of the following best describes blood serum? A- whole blood B- unclotted blood C- the liquid portion of anitcoagulated blood D- the liquid portion of clotted blood
D- the liquid portion of clotted blood
33
If an animal’s antibody titer for a specific antigen is 10, what does that number represent?
The most dilute solution of blood that gives a positive reaction in the test for antibody
34
Determining the specific gravity of urine provides a measure of:
The kidney’s ability to concentrate the urine
35
``` Viruses can be grown in: A- liquid nutrient media B- solid media such as agar plates C- blood serum D- embryonated chicken eggs ```
D- embryonated chicken eggs
36
Bioluminescent imaging requires a light signal from which molecule?
Luciferin
37
Radioactive isotopes can be attached to which molecule in positron emission tomography?
Glucose
38
In which technique is the X-Ray beam rotated 360 degrees around the patient to allow precise location of lesions?
Computed tomography
39
``` Which of the following is an example of an adverse drug effect? A- tremors B- shallow/labored breathing C- vomiting/diarrhea D- all of the above ```
D- all of the above
40
A nonhuman primate has diarrhea, which diagnosis testing has determined is caused by the Protozoa parasite Giardia. What kind of antibiotic would be most effective to kill this parasite?
Nitroimidazole
41
Which species is safe to treat with a pyrethrin or pyrethroid based insecticide?
Dogs
42
The drug carprofen was prescribed by a veterinarian to be given once daily by mouth for 3 days. Which piece of dosage information is missing?
Dose rate
43
Which stage of anesthesia is characterized by the loss of consciousness?
Stage 2
44
Surgical anesthesia often causes which of the following conditions? A- a lower susceptibility to dehydration B- a drop in body temperature C- an increase in the amount of blood reaching the extremities D- an increase in heart rate
B- a drop in body temperature
45
What is the normal capillary refill time for most Laboratory animals?
About 1-2 seconds
46
``` Xylazine has which of the following effects? A- sedation B- analgesia C- blood pressure lowering D- all of the above ```
D- all of the above
47
What is the best way to determine the amount of nitrous oxide left in a tank?
Weigh the tank
48
In rebreathing systems, the exhaled gases pass through a canister that absorbs the:
Carbon dioxide
49
In rebreathing systems, where is the concentration of anesthetic gas set?
At the dial on the vaporizer
50
What is a characteristic of the respiratory pattern of surgical anesthesia? A- rapid shallow breathing B- deep breaths alternating with shallow breaths C- breathing initiated in the thoracic-abdominal area D- the need for mechanical ventilation
C- breathing initiated in the thoracic-abdominal area