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LATG > FINAL EXAM > Flashcards

FINAL EXAM Flashcards

1
Q

What is a major advantage of flexible isolators compared to rigid isolators?
A- They are less expensive to manufacture
B- They are longer-lasting
C- They offer better protection against contamination
D- They are easier to disinfect and sterilize

A

A- They are less expensive to manufacture

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2
Q 
Which article of PPE is most important to wear when mixing caustic detergents?
A- Eye protection
B- Lab coat
C- Steel toed shoes
D- Hair cover
A

A- Eye protection

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3
Q 
Which cell population is lacking in SCID mice?
A- T cells and Null cells
B- B cells and macrophages
C- Macrophages and T cells
D- T cells and B cells
A

D- T cells and B cells

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4
Q 
Which term would you use to describe the effect of a combination of phenothiazine tranquilizer and an anesthetic?
A- Potentiated
B- Synergistic
C- Antagonistic
D- Additive
A

D- Additive

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5
Q

Which statement best applies to Good Laboratory Practice regulations?
A- They apply to nonclinical studies for the assessment of the safety of chemicals to humans, animals, and the environment
B- They only apply to studies that are done on nonhuman primates and that have the potential to cause pain and distress
C- They must be followed only under supervised conditions in registered institutions
D- They must be followed only under the effect of inorganic compounds on animal subjects

A

A- They apply to nonclinical studies for the assessment of the safety of chemicals to humans, animals, and the environment

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6
Q 
Which of these animal groups generally do not need to be routinely fasted before anesthesia?
A- Dogs
B- Rabbits
C- Pigs
D- Cats
A

B- Rabbits

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7
Q 
Which type of drug is NOT part of heartworm treatment?
A- Antifungal
B- Antibiotic
C- Glucocorticoid
D- Anthelminthic
A

A- Antifungal

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8
Q

What is the most common route of infection for Mycobacterium tuberculosis and Mycobacterium bovis?
A- Through skin lesions
B- Contaminated needles or other instruments
C- Fecal-oral route
D- Inhalation of aerosols

A

D- Inhalation of aerosols

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9
Q 
Which condition can newborns with phenylketonuria (PKU) develop?
A- Severe anemia
B- Fatty degeneration of the liver
C- Mental retardation
D- Altered wound healing
A

C- Mental retardation

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10
Q 
Which cells are the first to recognize the presence of bacterial antigens and release chemical signals to immune cells in other locations?
A- T cells
B- Phagocytes
C- Macrophages
D- Leukocytes
A

B- Phagocytes

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11
Q 
When using narcotics or tranquilizers as preanesthetic treatment, the amount of anesthetic needed is:
A- the same
B- difficult to predict
C- increased
D- decreased
A

D- decreased

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12
Q

Among transgenic mice, what does the generation called F2 represent?
A- The second generation of the founder of a line
B- The offspring of the founder of a line
C- The brother-sister mating of founders of a line
D- The founder of a line

A

A- The second generation of the founder of a line

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13
Q 
An animal developed from a blastocyst injected with embryonic stem cells is known as:
A- A transgenic hybrid
B- A mosaic animal
C- Chimera
D- Hermaphrodite
A

C- Chimera

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14
Q 
What is another term for antibody-mediated response?
A- Humoral response
B- Rapid response
C- Secondary response
D- Extracellular response
A

A- Humoral response

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15
Q 
The four how questions: “How much?” “How given?” And “How long?” Together define which term?
A- Rate
B- Frequency
C- Dosage
D- Route
A

C- Dosage

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16
Q

What best describes recombinant DNA?
A- DNA that replicates itself easily
B- DNA that has been created in the laboratory
C- DNA that has been polymerized
D- DNA that can cause a disease when given to an animal

A

B- DNA that has been created in the laboratory

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17
Q 
Guinea pigs housed on wire floors may have inflamed, swollen, and painful feet due to infection with which organism?
A- Corynebacterium bovis
B- Staphylococcus aureus
C- Clostridium piliforme
D- Dirofilaria immitis
A

B- Staphyloccoccus aureus

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18
Q 
Periodontal disease is a bacterial infection of the \_\_\_\_\_ and the accumulation of \_\_\_\_\_.
A- Jaws, Calcium
B- Teeth, Plaque
C- Gums, Tartar
D- Oral mucosa, Feed
A

C- Gums, Tartar

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19
Q 
Gentamicin and kanamycin are examples o which type of antibiotics?
A- Aminoglycosides
B- Fluroquinolones
C- Tetracyclines
D- Penicillins
A

A- Aminoglycosides

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20
Q 
For a dorsal central view, which part of the animal do the X-rays strike first?
A- The side
B- The back
C- The ventral surface
D- The heart
A

B- The back

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21
Q 
Which article of PPE is most important to wear when mixing caustic detergents?
A- Eye protection
B- Lab coat
C- Hair cover
D- Steel toed shoes
A

A- Eye protection

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22
Q

What best describes a bacterial spore?
A- It is a group of bacteria enveloped in a thick protective coating
B- It is an envelope that covers the bacterium and protects it from being digested by the host’s enzymes
C- It is the bacterial chromosomes surrounded by a tough coating
D- It is the infectious stage of a bacterium

A

C- It is the bacterial chromosomes surrounded by a tough coating

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23
Q

Which of the following is NOT included in semiannual IACUC reports and recommendations as required by the USDA?
A- Recommendations to the Institutional Official
B- Program review
C- Inspection records
D- Quality assurance records

A

D- Quality assurance records

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24
Q 
In which process are germ cells produced?
A- Mitosis
B- Replication
C- Mutation
D- Meiosis
A

D- Meiosis

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25
Q 
Levels of light photo intensity above \_\_\_\_ foot-candles can cause retinal damage in some albino animals.
A- 50
B- 75
C- 100
D- 25
A

B- 75

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26
Q 
When using rebreathing anesthesia systems, which of the following reaches the animal’s lungs?
A- A mixture of fresh and exhaled gases
B- Only the anesthetic gas
C- Only fresh air
D- A mixture of fresh and anesthetic gas
A

A- A mixture of fresh and exhaled gases

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27
Q 
At which level of Maslov’s hierarchy of needs would you place providing adequate security in the facility?
A- Self-actualization
B- Aesthetic needs
C- Physiological needs
D- Safety needs
A

D- Safety needs

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28
Q 
Which parasites are known as tongue worms?
A- Pentastomids
B- Thorny-headed worms
C- Ascarids
D- Leeches
A

A- Pentastomids

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29
Q

Which statement is TRUE regarding the frequency of serological testing required to maintain the health status of the animals of the animals within the vivarium?
A- The greater the use of filtered caging, the greater is the frequency of testing required
B- The greater the sensitivity of the test, the greater is the frequency of testing required
C- The lower the rate of animal turnover in the vivarium, the greater is the frequency of testing required.
D- The greater the intrusion of vermin into the vivarium, the greater is the frequency of testing required.

A

D- The greater the intrusion of vermin into the vivarium, the greater is the frequency of testing required.

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30
Q

Which symptoms are characteristic of microsporidosis in fish?
A- Skin discoloration and erosive lesions
B- Excessive mucus and white spots on the skin
C- A gold- or rust-colored “dust” on the fins and gills
D- Emaciation and spinal curavature

A

D- Emaciation and spinal curvature

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31
Q 
Which vitamins are required in lesser quantities in axenic animals?
A- B vitamins and vitamin K
B- Vitamin A and vitamin E
C- Vitamins B1 and B12
D- Vitamin C and vitamin D
A

B- Vitamin A and vitamin E

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32
Q 
Which type of sampling can be used in place of bedding sentinels?
A- Environmental dust
B- Organic residue on used cages
C- Plucked fur
D- Cage rack water
A

A- Environmental dust

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33
Q 
The term “slow virus” is often used to describe which organism?
A- Fungus
B- DNA virus
C- RNA virus
D- Prion
A

D- Prion

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34
Q 
Which type of drug is a reversal agent?
A- Dissociative
B- Antagonist
C- Anticholinergic
D- Agonist
A

B- Antagonist

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35
Q 
Which class of biosafety cabinets offer the most protection to personnel?
A- Class II
B- Class IV
C- Class I
D- Class III
A

D- Class III

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36
Q 
Which species shows a manic excitement when given doses of morphine that cause depression in most other species?
A- Cats
B- Guinea pigs
C- Rabbits
D- Rodents
A

A- Cats

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37
Q 
Which of the following is NOT an example of a monosaccharide?
A- Ribose
B- Glucose
C- Fructose
D- Sucrose
A

D- Sucrose

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38
Q 
Platelets area a source of which of the following?
A- Clotting factors
B- Triglycerides
C- Antibodies
D- Hemoglobin
A

A- Clotting factors

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39
Q 
Which antibiotics are preferred to treat enteric coccidiosis?
A- Aminoglycosides
B- Penicillins
C- Fluroquinolones
D- Sulfonamides
A

D- Sulfonamides

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40
Q

Which organization has developed standards and guidelines to help prevent the transmission of zoonoses through importation of animals?
A- The World Organization for Animal Health
B- The European Union
C- The International Air Transportation Association
D- The Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species

A

A- The World Organization for Animal Health

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41
Q

Among the following facilities, which one is generally thought to be at the lowest risk of being targeted by animal rights activists?
A- Facility housing only fish and amphibians
B- Facility where stem cells research is conducted
C- Facility where surgical procedures are done on infant animals
D- Facility housing only nonhuman primates

A

A- Facility housing only fish and amphibians

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42
Q 
Which group of worms are generally elongate, cylindrical, and non-segmented?
A- Acanthocephalids
B- Nematodes
C- Cestodes
D- Trematodes
A

B- Nematodes

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43
Q

Who is most likely to notice when there is unusual activity in the animal facility?
A- Security professional at the institution
B- The animal care staff
C- Facility management
D- Local law enforcement agencies

A

B- The animal care staff

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44
Q 
According to Federal Law, which controlled substances must DEA registrants store in a securely locked cabinet?
A- Schedules III through V
B- Schedules I through III
C- Schedules II through V
D- Schedules IV through V
A

C- Schedules II through V

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45
Q 
The probability that the difference observed in the data happened by chance and is due to normal distribution rather than to the experimental treatment is known as the:
A- Confidence level
B- p-value
C- Variable distribution
D- Standard deviation
A

B- p-value

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46
Q

Along with the Nuclear Regulatory Commission, who administers the licenses of nuclear material?
A- Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
B- National Institutes of Health (NIH) reviewers
C- Agreement States
D- Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)

A

C- Agreement States

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47
Q 
The presence of a pathogen in the animals procured from a vendor may not be detected by the health surveillance program for up to how long?
A- 3 months
B- 2 to 3 weeks
C- 1-7 days
D- 8 weeks
A

B- 2 to 3 weeks

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48
Q

What is an advantage of using decentralized laboratory animal facilities?
A- They are more accessible to lab animal facility management
B- They are generally more convenient for the researchers
C- They allow for more efficient use of equipment
D- They are more cost effective

A

B- They are generally more convenient for the researchers

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49
Q

Which of the following is NOT a requirement that is found in the Animal Welfare ACt and its amendments?
A- Dogs must be provided with the opportunity to exercise
B- There must be a 5-day holding period for cats and dogs held at a research facility before they can be used in experiments
C- No animal may be used for more than one major surgery from which it is allowed to recover, except under special circumstances
D- Young animals may not be used in research before they are weaned

A

D- Young animals may not be used in research before they are weaned

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50
Q

Where should a laboratory animal technologist obtain specific information regarding regulations on the transport of research animals?
A- The regulatory documents
B- US Department of Transportation
C- Office of Laboratory Animal Welfare (OLAW)
D- US Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

A

A- The regulatory documents

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51
Q 
Which of the following is a component of both RNA and DNA?
A- Glucose
B- Fructose
C- Galactose
D- Ribose
A

D- Ribose

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52
Q

Who is responsible for providing security-related training to all staff in an animal facility?
A- The IACUC
B- The institution’s security personnel
C- The local law enforcement agencies
D- The animal facility’s veterinary and supervisory staff

A

D- The animal facility’s veterinary and supervisory staff

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53
Q 
A complex lipid that includes a carbohydrate portion is a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A- Glycolipid
B- Lipoprotein
C- Wax
D- Diglyceride
A

A- Glycolipid

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54
Q 
Am imbalance in the different types of lipoproteins (HDL versus LDL) is a major contributing factor in which disease?
A- Lupus
B- Tuberculosis
C- Diabetes
D- Atherosclerosis
A

D- Atherosclerosis

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55
Q 
To test nonhuman primates for tuberculosis, the tuberculin is injected intradermally  in which part of the body?
A- Back of the neck
B- Inside of the front limb
C- Upper eyelid
D- Back of the ear
A

C-Upper eyelid

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56
Q 
What is the term used to describe an animal with a normal immune system?
A- Immunoproductive
B- Immunopositive
C- Immunocompetent
D- Immunoactive
A

C- Immunocompetent

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57
Q

How often must the PHS Assurance by resubmitted?
A- Every year
B- Every 3 years
C- Every time a new researcher is hired by an institution
D- Every 5 years

A

D- Every 5 years

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58
Q 
Paper strips used to evaluate urine samples are known as:
A- pH strips
B- Color charts
C- Dipsticks
D- Urine strips
A

C- Dipsticks

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59
Q

What are hydrated cysts?
A- Sac-like structure that is excreted in the feces of animals infected by Trematodes
B- Fluid-filled cyst containing tapeworm larvae
C- Pus-containing skin growths resulting from ectoparasite infestation around the hair shafts
D- Cysts produced by an accumulation of fluid in the liver

A

B- Fluid-filled cyst containing tapeworm larvae

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60
Q

If it becomes necessary for the supervisor to get involved in a conflict between two employees, a good approach is to:
A- Have them describe in writing specific actions they find objectionable
B- Listen to the grievances and impose a solution
C- Request that the individuals discuss their grievances in a staff meeting
D- Require that they meet with a representative of the Human Resources department

A

A- Have them describe in writing specific actions they find objectionable

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61
Q 
Who usually establishes the majority of the unit’s goals?
A- The Human Resources department
B- The facility’s manager
C- The staff
D- Upper-level management
A

D- Upper-level management

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62
Q 
Which carbohydrate serves as energy storage in animals?
A- Cellulose
B- Glycogen
C- Starch
D- Sucrose
A

B- Glycogen

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63
Q

An anesthetic log should be kept for each animal. How often should vital parameters be recorded?
A- Every 10-15 minutes
B- About every 30 minutes
C- At the beginning and the end of the procedure
D- At 5 minute intervals

A

A- Every 10-15 minutes

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64
Q

Which statement best applies to Good Laboratory Practices regulations?
A- They apply to nonclinical studies for the assessment of the safety of chemicals to humans, animals, and the environment.
B- They apply to studies of the effect of inorganic compounds on animal subjects.
C- They only apply to studies that are done on nonhuman primates and that the potential to cause pain and distress
D- They must be followed only under supervised conditions in registered institutions

A

A- They apply to nonclinical studies for the assessment of the safety of chemicals to humans, animals, and the environment.

65
Q 
What step should be taken by an employee who works with nonhuman primates and has been exposed to measles outside of the facility?
A- Practice more frequent hand washing
B- Wear a double face mask
C- Notify their facility supervisor 
D- Begin taking an aspirin daily
A

C- Notify their facility supervisor

66
Q

What is a major advantage of flexible isolators compared to rigid isolators?
A- They are longer-lasting
B- They are easier to disinfect and sterilize
C- They are less expensive to manufacture
D- They offer better protection against contamination

A

C- They are less expensive to manufacture

67
Q

What purpose do subsidies serve?
A- To obtain full recovery of costs to run the facility
B- To reduce costs to run the facility
C- To make tracking costs easier
D- To benchmark rates against rates of other facilities

A

B- to reduce costs to run the facility

68
Q 
Which type of bedding is required in GLP studies?
A- Autoclaved
B- Irradiated
C- Certified
D- Sanitized
A

C- Certified

69
Q 
The volume of the rebreathing bag in an anesthesia system should be how many times the animal’s tidal volume?
A- 4
B- 2
C- 10
D- 6
A

A- 4

70
Q

Which statement is true of non rebreathing systems?
A- A carbon dioxide absorbent must be used
B- They produce large amounts of WAGs
C- They are used for animals weighing more than 5 kg
D- No vaporizer is used in the system

A

B- They produce large amounts of WAGs

71
Q

What is the overall goal of a good security plan?
A- To minimize damage and quickly restore a safe and fully functioning environment
B- To get the personnel out of the facility as quick as possible
C- To secure the animals’ safety above anything else
D- To secure all research material in a single place for safe keeping

A

A- To minimize damage and quickly restore a safe and fully functioning environment

72
Q

A substance that is classified as a Schedule I controlled substance has ________ potential for addition than one that is in Schedule III.
A- Greater
B- Less
C- Equal

A

A- Greater

73
Q

Which organization accredits research institutions with high-quality programs that meet federal laws and guidelines?
A- AAALAC, International
B- American Association for Laboratory Animal Science
C- Office of Laboratory Animal Welfare
D- United States Department of Agriculture

A

A- AAALAC, International

74
Q

What is one precaution that must be considered when using urethane as an anesthetic agent?
A- It can only be used in survival surgeries
B- It must be given with a sedative
C- It must be used with protective equipment
D- It must be used only when only a short duration of anesthesia is required

A

C- It must be used with protective equipment

75
Q 
Mycobacteriosis in fish is thought to spread through which of the following?
A- Cannibalism of dead tank mates
B- Not wearing gloves when handling fish
C- Aerosol inhalation
D- Contaminated feed
A

A- Cannibalism of dead tank mates

76
Q

Who makes unannounced facility inspections at least once a year?
A- National Institutes of Health (NIH) reviewers
B- Officials from the Office of Laboratory ANimal Welfare (OLAW)
C- Veterinary medical officers from APHIS
D- AAALAC evaluators

A

C- Veterinary medical officers from APHIS

77
Q 
One way to monitor the effectiveness of the cage washing systems is to use adhesive plastic tape that changes color when exposed to a temperature of:
A- 92 +/- 1 degree C
B- 72 +/- 1 degree C
C- 102 +/- 1 degree C
D- 82 +/- 1 degree C
A

D- 82 +/- 1 degree C

78
Q 
What is the principal hormone that regulates the amount of glucose taken up by cells in the body?
A- Cortisol
B- Dopamine
C- Insulin
D- Adrenaline
A

C- Insulin

79
Q 
What is the most common disease of freshwater fish maintained in aquaria in institutional settings?
A- Intestinal capillariasis
B- Microsporidiosis
C- Bacterial gill disease
D- Velvet disease
A

B- Microsporidiosis

80
Q

What is the purpose of a radiation film badge?
A- To protect the wearer from gamma radiation
B- To indicate that the wearer works with ionizing radiation
C- To measure the level of radiation from each x-ray
D- To monitor exposure to radiation over time

A

D- To monitor exposure to radiation over time

81
Q

Which of the following correctly lists the three-step progression followed by many companies in disciplining employees?
A- Two sets of written warning and then termination
B- Verbal warning, then a written warning, and then termination
C- Verbal warning by supervisor, verbal warning by director, and then termination
D- Written warning, then a verbal follow-up warning, and then termination

A

B- Verbal warning, then a written warning, and then termination

82
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of an anesthesia induction chamber?
A- Inlet and outlet ports connected to an anesthesia machine
B- Apparatus that converts liquid anesthetic to a vapor for controlled delivery
C- a perforated false bottom and an anesthetic-soaked cotton ball beneath
D- A pressurized tank holding a compressed liquid for anesthesia

A

A- Inlet and outlet ports connected to an anesthesia machine

83
Q

What are pronuclei?
A- The nuclei of the ova before fertilization
B- The nuclei before injection of a transgene
C- The nuclei in which the DNA was removed
D- The nuclei of the eggs shortly after fertilization

A

D- The nuclei of the eggs shortly after fertilization

84
Q 
Which organelle uses information contained in the mRNA to connect amino acids and form a protein?
A- Lysosome
B- Mitochondria
C- Ribosome
D- Vacuole
A

C- Ribosome

85
Q 
Tamoxifen is an example of a drug whose efficacy is dependent upon which factor?
A- Route of administration
B- The sex of the animal
C- The species being dosed
D- Time of day
A

D- Time of day

86
Q 
Mosquitoes are vectors for eh transmission of which parasites?
A- Tapeworms
B- Pinworms
C- Strongyles
D- Heartworms
A

D- Heartworms

87
Q 
When wild-type females are mated with hemizygous or heterozygous males, approximately what proportion will have the desired genotype?
A- 100%
B- 0%
C- 50%
D- 25%
A

C- 50%

88
Q 
Which of the following is an example of a contrast medium?
A- Cadmium
B- Gadolinium
C- Bilirubin
D- Luciferin
A

B- Gadolinium

89
Q 
Which is the stage when a protozoan parasite actively multiplies?
A- Host
B- Trophozoite
C- Larvae
D- Cyst
A

B- Trophozoite

90
Q 
Where is the desired concentration of anesthetic gas set in a rebreathing system?
A- At the dial on the vaporizer
B- At the top of the tank of gas
C- At the pressure reducing valve
D- At the flow meter
A

A- At the dial on the vaporizer

91
Q

What is the definition of virulence?
A- The speed with which an organism can replicate
B- The degree of pathogenicity of an organism
C- The resistance of an organism to the immune system
D- The ability of an organism to infect a host

A

B- The degree of pathogenicity of an organism

92
Q 
The presence of parasites and allergic reactions are two conditions that often cause an elevation in which white blood cell type?
A- Neutrophils
B- Lymphocytes
C- Eosinophils
D- Basophils
A

C- Eosinophils

93
Q

Information on which of the following is NOT something that law enforcement can provide the research facility?
A- The establishment of security procedures
B- Maintaining a secure environment
C- Activity of local animal activist groups
D- Public perception of research using animals

A

D- Public perception of research using animals

94
Q 
A fatty acid made up of carbons that are bound to as many hydrogen atoms as possible is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A- Complex
B- Insoluble
C- Essential
D- Saturated
A

D- Saturated

95
Q 
Which of the following involves collecting and interpreting quantitative data and using probability theory to estimate population parameters?
A- Statistics
B- Selection
C- Measurement
D- Randomization
A

A- Statistics

96
Q

If an animal study lasts 3 years, what is the earliest time any records from this study can be destroyed?
A- One year after the end of the study
B- Six years from the beginning of the study
C- Three years from the beginning of the study
D- As soon as the study is completed

A

B- Six years from the beginning of the study

97
Q 
Which enzyme can be found in tears, saliva, and nasal secretions and destroys bacteria?
A- Lysozyme
B- Amylase
C- Lipase
D- Pepsin
A

A- Lysozyme

98
Q 
What route of administration is normally used with tricaine methanesulfonate?
A- Oral
B- Inhalation
C- Immersion
D- Injection
A

C- Immersion

99
Q

All staff should be trained in _______ and ________ as part of a general disaster plan.
A- The use of fire extinguishers; basic first aid
B- The use of fire extinguishers; the method to quickly disarm the security system
C- Basic first aid; communication skills to deal with the media
D- The method to quickly disarm the security system; basic first aid

A

A- The use of fire extinguishers; basic first aid

100
Q 
The transplantation of a pig heart valve into a human is an example of what type of transplant?
A- Xenograft
B- Immunograft
C- Allograft
D- Isograft
A

A- Xenograft

101
Q 
As a radioactive substance decays, the energy and particles that are emitted are referred to by which term?
A- Ionization
B- Radiation
C- Isotopes
D- Half life
A

B- Radiation

102
Q

What clinical sign would suggest that young mice may have episodic diarrhea of infant mice (EDIM)?
A- Yellow stains around the base of the tail
B- Extremely high fever
C- Red stains around the anus
D- Lack of appetite

A

A- Yellow stains around the base of the tail

103
Q 
Animals that are kept under conditions similar to those of the experimental animals and are used to document the health status of the colony are known as:
A- Sentinels
B- Controls
C- Standards
D- Barrier animals
A

A- Sentinels

104
Q 
In which group does acetylpromazine belong?
A- Anticholinergics
B- Phenothlazine tranquilizers
C- Alpha-2 adrenergic agonists
D- Barbiturates
A

B- Phenothlazine tranquilizers

105
Q

Which characteristics promote good management of a facility’s standard operating procedures?
A- Easily accessible and maintained by a designated employee
B- Older versions are attached to revised documents and only those activities that require technical skills are included
C- Stored in a secure place and responsibility for tracking the documents shared
D- Maintained by those actually doing the procedures and background information gie

A

A- Easily accessible and maintained by a designated employee

106
Q

Which of the following is a requirement for endotracheal intubation?
A- It must be performed with a rigid tube
B- The animal must weigh at least 300 grams
C- It must be used only with rebreathing systems
D- The animal must already be anesthetized

A

D- The animal must be already be anesthetized

107
Q 
The four “how” questions: “How much?” “How given?” “How often?” And “How long?” Together define which term?
A- Dosage
B- Rate
C- Route
D- Frequency
A

A- Dosage

108
Q 
What is the best age to genotype a mouse in order not to disturb the litter?
A- Right after birth
B- In the first two weeks of life
C- When it reaches sexual maturity
D- Around weaning time
A

D- Around weaning time

109
Q

Which method of reporting an incident is most likely to lessen consequences from funding or regulatory agencies?
A- Whistleblower
B- Post-approval monitoring (PAM) program
C- Self-report
D- Communication with AAALAC

A

C- Self-report

110
Q 
Many different organisms can grow in a(n) \_\_\_\_\_\_ agar, but differences in their reactions can be observed.
A- Differential
B- Undefined
C- Selective
D- Acidic
A

A- Differential

111
Q 
What is another term fro antibody-mediated response?
A- Secondary response
B- Rapid response
C- Extracellular response
D- Humoral response
A

D- Humoral response

112
Q 
Technology using adenosine triphosphate (ATP) test swabs uses \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ to measure organic residue.
A- Light
B- Sound
C- Magnetism
D- heat
A

A- Light

113
Q 
An infection with Pseudocapillaroides xenopi is called:
A- red leg
B- Cutaneous capillariasis
C- Ulcerative amphibian dermatitis
D- Fin rot
A

B- Cutaneous capillariasis

114
Q

Which of the following accurately describes prions?
A- Infectious agents that can easily be destroyed by inactivation of their nucleic acid
B- Small infectious agents containing only RNA
C- Misshapen proteins that invade host cells
D- Abnormal proteins that destroy the outer covering of viruses

A

C- Misshapen proteins that invade host cells

115
Q 
Which species are carriers of B. bronchiseptica and so should not be housed in the same areas as guinea pigs?
A- Rats
B- Hamsters
C- Gerbils
D- Rabbits
A

D- Rabbits

116
Q 
When does replication occur in mammalian cells?
A- Before the cells divide
B- When the cell needs extra energy
C- During active protein synthesis
D- When the egg and the sperm unite
A

A- Before the cells divide

117
Q 
All of these conditions can increase a rodent’s susceptibility to infectious, toxic, an other harmful agents, EXCEPT for:
A- Extra environmental enrichment
B- High ammonia concentrations
C- Increased humidity
D- Elevated temperature
A

A- Extra environmental enrichment

118
Q 
A postmortem cecal exam is used to detect which species?
A- Syphacia 
B- Colibacillosis
C- Brucellosis
D- Aspiculuris
A

D- Aspiculuris

119
Q 
If a genetically modified mouse is dying and cannot be saved, it is important to attempt to save which of the following?
A- DNA samples
B- Gonads
C- Embryos
D- Tissue
A

B- Gonads

120
Q 
What is the term for when an animal’s tissues are not receiving enough oxygen?
A- Cardiopathy
B- Hyponatremia
C- Hypothermia
D- Cyanosis
A

D- Cyanosis

121
Q 
What do depressed levels of neutrophils usually indicate?
A- Leukemia
B- Active viral infection
C- Past parasitic infection
D- Active bacterial infection
A

B- Active viral infection

122
Q

Which action will NOT be taken at the end of our study if the p-value of our statistical test is less than 0.05?
A- Conclude that the alternative hypothesis is true
B- Reject the null hypothesis
C- Conclude that there is no significant difference between groups
D- Accept that there is a 5% probability that the difference is due to chance

A

C- Conclude that there is no significant difference between groups

123
Q

Which action would be best to ensure that the staff comply with the security plan?
A- Encourage the staff to make suggestions for improving the security-related SOPs
B- Review the plan on a quarterly basis
C- test the staff’s knowledge of the SOPs on a regular basis
D- Explain clearly the consequences on non-compliance

A

A- Encourage the staff to make suggestions for improving the security-related SOPs

124
Q

What is a transgene?
A- A gene created by pronuclear injection
B- A gene that controls the genotype of an animal
C- The fragment of DNA that is introduced into the nucleus of a cell
D- The fragment of RNA that replaces the DNA in the nucleus

A

C- The fragment of DNA that is introduced into the nucleus of a cell

125
Q 
Which of the following must be used in conjunction with neuromuscular blockers during surgical procedures?
A- A tranquilizer
B- A dissociative agent
C- A hypnotic agent
D- An anesthetic agent
A

D- An anesthetic agent

126
Q 
In the rabbit, clinical signs that include nasal and ocular discharge which may stain the forelegs, abscesses, and genital infections may indicate which disease?
A- Pasteurellosis
B- Coccidiosis
C- Mycoplasmosis
D- Mucoid enteropathy
A

A- Pasteurellosis

127
Q

What is one base that differed in RNA as compared to DNA?
A- RNA has adenine where DNA has uracil
B- RNA has cytosine where DNA has thymine
C- RNA has uracil where DNA has guanine
D- RNA has thymine where DNA has guanine

A

C- RNA has uracil where DNA has guanine

128
Q 
What must be the basis of any increase in rates?
A- Cost containment
B- Workload distribution
C- Cost analysis
D- Census count
A

C- Cost analysis

129
Q 
The cost for personnel generally represents what percentage of an animal facility’s budget?
A- Less than 35%
B- Between 40 and 45%
C- More than 60%
D- About 50%
A

C- More than 60%

130
Q 
How often should a through review of the training program be reported to the IACUC and other senior management?
A- At left once a year
B- Once every three years
C- Monthly
D- At least twice a year
A

D- At left twice a year

131
Q

Statistical analysis is used to:
A- Determine what hypothesis should be tested
B- Determine how many animals to include in a study
C- Draw conclusions based on the data from a study
D- Develop parameters for variables

A

C- Draw conclusions based on the data from a study

132
Q

Which statement regarding pinworms is FALSE?
A- Pinworms may alter an animal’s immune response
B- Female Aspiculuris tetraptera pinworms lay eggs on the perineum
C- Pinworms can be detected using a fecal floatation test
D- Female Syphacia pinworms migrate from the cecum and large intestine

A

B- Female Aspiculuris tetraptera pinworms lay eggs on the perineum

133
Q 
Body cells secrete antibodies in reaction to which of the following?
A- Changes in electrolyte concentrations
B- The presence of an antigen
C- The presence of waste products
D- Changes in blood composition
A

B- The presence of antigen

134
Q 
A low hemoglobin concentration indicates:
A- An active bacterial infection
B- Anemia
C- An allergic reaction 
D- An active viral infection
A

B- Anemia

135
Q 
Which condition can newborns with phenylketonuria (PKU) develop?
A- Altered wound healing
B- Fatty degeneration of the liver
C- Mental retardation 
D- Severe anemia
A

C- Mental retardation

136
Q 
Which practice does NOT decrease exposure to allergens?
A- Using biological safety cabinets
B- Wearing safety glasses
C- Wearing a laboratory coat
D- Handwashing
A

B- Wearing safety glasses

137
Q 
Diabetes results from the body’s inability to regulate the use of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ by cells.
A- Potassium
B- Glucose
C- Lipids
D- Vitamin C
A

B- Glucose

138
Q 
Which disease found in fish can cause no healing granuloma ulcers on the skin in humans?
A- Mycobacteriosis
B- Ich
C- Microsporidiosis
D- Velvet disease
A

A- Mycobacteriosis

139
Q 
Sentinel animals should be at least what age?
A- 8-12 weeks
B- 3 weeks
C- 6 months
D- 4-8 weeks
A

A- 8-12 weeks

140
Q 
If results from a study can be replicated in some animal studies but not in others, the study lacks:
A- Accuracy
B- Generality
C- Power
D- Objectivity
A

B- Generality

141
Q

Which animal would be best to use as a sentinel in a room housing a mouse colony?
A- 4-month old mouse
B- 10-month old mouse
C- Older mouse that is no longer needed in a study
D- 1-month old mouse

A

A- 4-month old mouse

142
Q

What best describes beta particles?
A- They are a type of electromagnetic radiation
B- They consist of two protons
C- They are stable particles
D- They are charged particles, either an electron or a positron

A

D- They are charged particles, either an electron or a positron

143
Q 
What are the four bases found in DNA?
A- Adenine, guanine, cytosine, thymine
B- Adenine, guanine, cytosine, thiamine
C- Adenine, uracil, cytosine, glucose
D- Arginine, uracil, cytosine, guanine
A

A- Adenine, guanine, cytosine, thymine

144
Q 
Which agent has been identified as the cause of scaly skin disease in anthemic nude mice?
A- Clostridium piliforme
B- Aspiculuris tetraptera
C- Armillifer armillatus
D- Corynebacterium bovis
A

D- Corynebacterium bovis

145
Q 
Which antibiotics are used to treat infections with parasitic protozoa, such as Amoeba, Giardia, and Trichomonas?
A- Fluroquinolones
B- Nitroimidazoles
C- Sulfonamides
D- Aminoglycosides
A

B- Nitroimidazoles

146
Q

Which of the following helps to quickly identify that a laminar flow workstation is not a biological safety cabinet?
A- There is no HEPA filter
B- The airflow is directed toward the rear of the cabinet
C- It lacks a front window
D- It operates under continuous negative pressure

A

C- It lacks a front window

147
Q

On what characteristic are the two categories of dietary minerals (micro- and macro minerals) based?
A- Whether they are broken down in the stomach
B- The complexity of their structure
C- Their biological importance
D- Their interaction with other minerals

A

C- Their biological importance

148
Q 
If active scavenging is used, the scavenging system is connected to which part of the rebreathing system?
A- Pop-off valve
B- Expiratory valve
C- Vaporizer
D- Flow meter
A

A- Pop-off valve

149
Q 
Which disease in fish is caused by a protozoan species?
A- Velvet disease
B- New tank syndrome
C- Ich
D- Intestinal capillariasis
A

C- Ich

150
Q

Which statement is FALSE regarding flagella?
A- Flagella can be single or can be found in tufts of two or more
B- They are whip-like filaments that aid locomotion
C- Flagella aid locomotion by secreting slime
D- The presence of flagella is an important morphological characteristic

A

C- Flagella aid locomotion by secreting slime

151
Q 
What is the term for the solid media used to grow bacteria?
A- Agar
B- Gel-pack
C- Slime
D- Gram stain
A

A- Agar

152
Q 
The ability to clearly relate the facility’s goals to the staff is an example of:
A- Communication skills
B- Technical skills
C- People skills
D- Conceptual skills
A

A- Communication skills

153
Q 
Heliobacter spp. Are most commonly diagnosed with which technique?
A- Histological examination
B- Bacterial culture
C- Fecal floatation
D- Polymerase chain reaction
A

D- Polymerase chain reaction

154
Q 
Which cells of the immune system develop into plasma cells?
A- Dendritic cells
B- B cells
C- Null cells
D- T cells
A

B- B cells

155
Q

Which action would be best to ensure that the staff comply with the security plan?
A- Explain clearly the consequences of non-compliance
B- Test the staff’s knowledge of the SOPs on a regular basis
C- Review the plan on a quarterly basis
D- Encourage the staff to make suggestions for improving the security-related SOPs

A

C- Review the plan on a quarterly basis

156
Q

What is a recommended step you should follow in choosing an animal supplier?
A- Consider the distance from the facility to avoid long distance transport
B- Check the vendor’s recent USDA inspection reports for issues
C- visit the vendor’s facility
D- Always use the same vendor

A

B- Check the vendor’s recent USDA inspection reports for issues

157
Q 
Which of the following is FALSE regarding Q fever?
A- It is a rickettsial disease
B- It can be passed in body fluids
C- It affects only sheep
D- It is easily mistaken for influenza
A

C- It affects only sheep

158
Q

Who is most likely to notice when there is unusual activity in the animal facility?
A- Local law enforcement agencies
B- Facility management
C- The animal care staff
D- Security professionals at the institution

A

C- The animal care staff

159
Q 
For a dorsoventral view, which part of the animal do the X-rays strike first?
A- The side
B- The ventral surface
C- The heart
D- The back
A

D- The back

LATG (23 decks)

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