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LATG > Chapter 7: Occupational Health & Safety > Flashcards

Chapter 7: Occupational Health & Safety Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following government agencies have occupational health and safety mandates that animal facilities must comply with?

  • OSHA
  • EPA
  • NRC
  • FDA
  • APHIS
  • OLAW
A
  • OSHA
  • EPA
  • NRC
  • OLAW
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2
Q

What does the EPA regulate?

A

Environmental issues

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3
Q

What does OSHA regulate?

A

Health and safety requirements

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4
Q

What does OLAW regulate?

A

Occupational health and experimentation with hazardous materials

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5
Q

What does NRC regulate?

A

Safe handling of radioactive isotopes

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6
Q

What is a risk assessment?

A

A risk assessment includes knowing what hazards are present and determining the level of protection necessary to minimize the danger they pose

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7
Q

Give two reasons why it is important to obtain a new employee’s health history

A

1- in order to identify any condition that could increase the employee’s risk
2- to provide a baseline to identify any subsequent changes in the employees health states

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8
Q

Name five critical factors that help reduce the threat of injury or illness from various hazards in an animal facility:

A 
1- proper equipment storage
2- clean floor
3- changing filters
4- disinfection of work surfaces
5- proper clothing and footwear
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9
Q

Give 5 examples of activities that may represent ergonomic hazards in an animal facility

A 
1- pulling
2- pushing
3- lifting
4- bending
5- carrying heavy loads
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10
Q

Name 2 items often present in animal facilities that have the potential to cause severe frostbite

A

1- liquid nitrogen

2- dry ice

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11
Q

The threshold limit value does not take ________________ into account.

A

The cumulative effect of exposure to many chemicals

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12
Q

Where is the best place to monitor the environmental levels of waste anesthetic gases in an animal facility?

A

In the breathing zone of the most heavily exposed workers

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13
Q 
Which if the following items is not a component of the hazard communication standard for labels on safety data sheets?
A- hazard pictographs
B- hazard statements
C- hazard number
D- signal words
A

C- hazard number

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14
Q

What additional guidelines and safety measures are included in the ABSL level as compared to the corresponding BSL level?

A

Animal waste handling and facility operation

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15
Q

Name 3 vaccinations that may be recommended for personnel working with laboratory animals.

A

1- tetanus
2- rabies
3- hepatitis B

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16
Q

What is the main difference between an isotope and a radioisotope?

A

Isotopes are stable (they do not decay), and radioisotopes decay and produce radiation

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17
Q

Which statement best describes beta particles?
A- they consist of two protons
B- they are charged particles, either an electron or a positron
C- they are a type of electromagnetic radiation
D- they are stable particles

A

B- they are charged particles, either an electron or a positron

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18
Q 
Thick dense shielding must be used to protect a worker from which of the following types of radiation?
A- alpha particles and gamma radiation
B- beta particles and x-rays
C- gamma radiation and x-rays
D- alpha and beta particles
A

C- gamma radiation and x-rays

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19
Q

What type of radiation does radium-223 produce

A

Alpha particle

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20
Q

What type of radiation does iodine-125 produce

A

Gamma radiation

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21
Q

What type of radiation does carbon-14 produce

A

Beta particles

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22
Q

What type of radiation does fluorine-18 produce?

A

Beta particle

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23
Q

What type of particle does phosphorus-32 produce?

A

Beta-particle

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24
Q

What type of radiation does Tritium produce?

A

Beta particle

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25
Q

What type of radiation does Americium-241 produce?

A

Alpha particle

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26
Q

Why is it generally considered best to use powdered rather than powder-free medical exam gloves?

A

Because the manufacturing of powder-free gloves may weaken the material and lead to more frequent pin holes and tears

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27
Q

Which class of Biosafety cabinets offers the most protection to personnel?

A

Class III

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28
Q

What easy-to-recognize characteristic distinguishes a laminar flow workstation from a class I or II Biosafety cabinet?

A

All Biosafety cabinets have a front window. Laminar flow work stations do not have a front window

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29
Q

What type of waste is soiled bedding of breeding animals?

A

General waste

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30
Q

What type of waste is solved bedding of animals in ABSL-3 studies?

A

Hazardous waste

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31
Q

What type of waste is carcass of healthy animals?

A

General waste

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32
Q

What type of waste is hypodermic needles?

A

Hazardous waste

33
Q

What type of waste is radioactive materials?

A

Hazardous waste

34
Q

What type of waste is feed that fell on the floor?

A

General waste

35
Q

What type of waste is used sharps container

A

Hazardous waste

36
Q

True or False

Hazardous waste includes contaminated items such as disposable instruments and supplies

A

True

37
Q

True or False
Materials used in the processing of blood, blood derivatives, or body fluids of infected animals should be considered hazardous waste

A

True

38
Q

True or False

A used sharps container should be sealed to prevent leakage and disposed of as general waste

A

False

39
Q

True or False

Steam autoclaving is the method of choice for decontaminating small amounts of most infectious waste

A

True

40
Q

True or False

Some infectious waste can be disposed of ina sanitary landfill after incineration of autoclaving

A

True

41
Q

True or False
There may be special institutional or local requirements which apply to the management and disposal of non-radioactive animal bedding which contains excreta

A

True

42
Q

True or False
All non-radioactive disposable sharp items should be placed in prominently labeled, leak-resistant, puncture-resistant containers

A

True

43
Q

True or False

Disposal injection needles should always be recapped before disposal

A

False

44
Q

True or False

Chemical decontamination can be used for BSL-2 agents

A

True

45
Q

True or False

Dry radioactive waste can be sent to sanitary landfills

A

False

46
Q 
Work with moderate risk agents that are associated with human diseases of varying severity should be performed at what ABSL level?
A- 3
B- 1
C- 4
D- 2
A

D- 2

47
Q 
Which article of personal protective equipment would NOT be necessary when processing waste in an autoclave in a basic containment laboratory?
A- Sturdy shoes
B- A respirator
C- Face shield
D- Rubber Apron
A

B- A respirator

48
Q 
Which class of biosafety cabinets offers the most protection to personnel?
A- Class III
B- Class II
C- Class IV
D- Class I
A

A- Class III

49
Q 
Which type of radiation is electromagnetic radiation generated from radioactive decay?
A- Alpha particles
B- X-rays
C- Beta particles
D- Gamma radiation
A

D- Gamma radiation

50
Q 
Which article of PPE is most important to wear when mixing caustic detergents?
A- steel toed shoes
B- Eye protection
C- Lab coat
D- Hair cover
A

B- Eye protection

51
Q 
Heavy equipment, sharps, and animal bites are considered what type of hazard?
A- Allergenic
B- Zoonotic
C- Physical
D- Biological
A

C- Physical

52
Q

What is Bremsstrahlung?
A- an alpha-emitting radioisotope
B- A type of breakdown product of alpha particles
C- AN X-ray produced by beta particles when decelerate
D- A subatomic particle that is positively charged

A

C- An X-ray produced by beta particles when they decelerate

53
Q

What is the first step in developing an occupational health and safety program?
A- Choose a staff person who will be responsible for the program
B- Make a list of all existing safety equipment
C- Identify the types of hazards present in the facility
D- Decide on a budget

A

C- Identify the types of hazards present in the facility

54
Q 
Which type of ionizing radiation is best described as small particles that move at high speed and are moderately penetrating?
A- Gamma radiation
B- Beta particles
C- Alpha particles
D- X-rays
A

B- Beta particles

55
Q 
Which type of chemical responds strongly in the presence of water?
A- Toxic
B- Corrosive
C- Reactive
D- Ignitable
A

C- Reactive

56
Q 
Which of the following is used to represent an estimate of the reasonable level of a chemical to which a worker can be exposed without adverse effects?
A- Threshold Limit Value
B- Maximum exposure Limit
C- Maximum Allowable Limit
D- Safe Threshold Level
A

A- Threshold Limit Value

57
Q 
Which of the following describes carbon-14, tritium, and iodine-125?
A- Electromagnetic waves
B- Organic compounds
C- Atomic numbers
D - Radioisotopes
A

D- Radioisotopes

58
Q

Which of the following helps to quickly identify that a laminar flow workstation is not a biological safety cabinet?
A- It operates under continuous negative pressure
B- There is no HEPA filter
C- The airflow is directed toward the rear of the cabinet
D- It lacks a front window

A

D- It lacks a front window

59
Q

Establishing good containment safeguards for general waste helps prevent which issue from occurring?
A- Dispersal of pathogens and escape of radioactive material
B- Objectionable odors and formation of allergenic aerosols
C- Objectionable odors and escape of radioactive material
D- Accidents with sharps and dispersal of asbestos

A

B- Objectionable odors and formation of allergenic aerosols

60
Q

What do the “N”, “R”, and “P” in the description of respirators refer to?
A- Air pressure under which it operates
B- The category of worker that is protected
C- The respirator’s filter resistance to oil in aerosol
D- The ability of the filter to remove particulate matter

A

C- The respirator’s filter resistance to oil in aerosol

61
Q 
Thick dense shielding must be used to protect a worker from which of the following types of radiation?
A- Gamma radiation and x-rays
B- Beta particles and x-rays
C- Alpha and beta particles
D- Alpha particles and gamma radiation
A

A- Gamma radiation and X-rays

62
Q

Who has the primary responsibility of protecting an animal care technician from exposure to hazards in the animal facility?
A- The unit manager
B- The IACUC
C- The technician
D- Environmental health and safety personnel

A

C- The technician

63
Q 
Statistics show that about \_\_\_\_\_\_% of the people who work with laboratory animals develop allergic symptoms.
A- 63
B- 25
C- 16
D- 44
A

D- 44

64
Q

What is the purpose of a radiation film badge?
A- To measure the level of radiation from each x-ray
B- To monitor exposure to radiation over time
C- To protect the wearer from gamma radiation
D- To indicate that the wearer works with ionizing radiation

A

B- To monitor exposure to radiation over time

65
Q 
Researchers who work with serum, blood, or tissues from humans or apes should receive which vaccine?
A- Typhoid
B- Measles
C- Influenza
D- Hepatitis B
A

D- Hepatitis B

66
Q

What best describes beta particles?
A- They are stable particles
B- They consist of two protons
C- They are charged particles, either an electron or a positron
D- They are a type of electromagnetic radiation

A

C- They are charged particles, either an electron or a positron

67
Q 
What ABSL level should be used when working with an agent whose risk of transmission is unknown?
A- 1
B- 4
C- 2
D- 3
A

B- 4

68
Q 
For easy identification of different items in first-aid kits, a system based on \_\_\_\_\_ has been adopted.
A- Numbers
B- Symbols
C- Pictograms
D- Color
A

D- Color

69
Q 
For which type of waste is incineration the method of choice?
A- Infectious waste
B- Radioactive waste
C- Mixed waste
D- Sharps
A

A- Infectious waste

70
Q 
Which type of radiation is electromagnetic radiation generated non-radioactively?
A- Beta particles
B- Gamma radiation
C- X-rays
D- Alpha particles
A

C- X-rays

71
Q

What determines the selection of a type of respirator?
A- The comfort of the user
B- The results of a pulmonary function test
C- The cost of the apparatus
D- The nature and degree of potential hazard

A

D- The nature and degree of potential hazard

72
Q

What is the most essential component of an effective occupational health and safety program?
A- Proper use of personal protective equipment (PPE)
B- An adequate risk assessment
C- A well-designed facility
D- A comprehensive physical exam for every new employee

A

B- An adequate risk assessment

73
Q 
Which ABSL level relates to infectious agents that can cause serious or potentially lethal diseases when inhaled?
A- ABSL-4 only
B- ABSL-1 and higher
C- ABSL-3 and higher
D- ABSL 2 and higher
A

C- ABSL-3 and higher

74
Q 
What is the concern when disposing of bedding from healthy animals?
A- Cross-contamination
B- Radiation emission
C- Allergenic aerosols
D- Toxic substances
A

C- Allergenic aerosols

75
Q

What protective item is required in facilities housing aquatic species?
A- Auto-locking doors
B- A class-III biosafety cabinet
C- A decontamination shower
D- GFCI (ground-fault circuit interrupter) outlets

A

D- GFCI (ground-fault circuit interrupter) outlets

76
Q

Which of the following best describes zoonoses?
A- A disease of exotic animals often found in zoos
B- An infection that can be transmitted between animals and humans
C- A group of infectious agents that affect most animals
D- A type of animal restraint that uses a ring inserted in the cartilage of the nose

A

B- An infection that can be transmitted between animals and humans

77
Q 
Regularly scheduled testing for tuberculosis is necessary for all personnel who work with which species?
A- Nonhuman primates
B- Amphibians
C- Rodents
D- Sheep and goats
A

A- Nonhuman primates

78
Q

What action must always be done before opening the door of an autoclave?
A- Prepare a fire extinguisher
B- Disconnect the autoclave from the electricity source
C- Clean the outside of the door with disinfectant
D- Check the pressure gauge

A

D- Check the pressure gauge

79
Q 
As a radioactive substance decays, the energy and particles that are emitted are referred to by which term?
A- Ionization
B- Half life
C- Radiation
D- Isotopes
A

C- Radiation

LATG (23 decks)

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