Unit 9: Circulation and Coagulation Flashcards

1
Q

Name 5 thromboembolic diseases

A
DVT
PE
Stroke
Acute Coronary Syndrome (MI)
Arterial Occlusion (PAD)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the difference between ANTI-PLATELET and ANTI-COAGULANT?

A

Anti-Platelet: prevents platelet aggregation

Anti-Coagulant: prevents formation of fibrin by inactivating coagulation factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are Protein C?

A

naturally occurring anticoagulant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is Protein S?

A

naturally occurring cofactor required to activate Protein C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What happens if a person is deficient in Protein C or Protein S?

A

they are more likely to make clots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What does Nitric Oxide have to do with clotting?

A

it is a vasodilator released by the endothelium that inhibits PLT aggregation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What labs monitor the effect of heparin?

A

aPTT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What labs monitor the effect of warfarin?

A

PT/INR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What do anticoagulants do?

A
stabilize clots (prevent growth)
prevent clots

DO NOT dissolve clots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Name 4 classes of anticoagulants

A

heparins
warfarin
Factor Xa Inhibitors
Direct Thrombin Inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Name the heparins

A

unfractionated heparin

LMWH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Name the antidotes for unfractionated heparin

A

protamine sulfate or FFP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Major risk/adverse effect of heparin

A

HIT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Adverse effects of unfractionated heparin

A

bleeding
hyperkalemia
osteoporosis if used > 6 months
antigenic (lots of allergic reactions, including HIT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Name 2 LMWH drugs

A

enoxaparin (Lovenox)

dalteparin (Fragmin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What makes enoxaparin preferred over unfractionated heparin?

A

longer half life –>
less frequent dosing
more predictable anticoagulant effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What anticoagulant is preferred in pregnancy

A

enoxaparin preferred over heparin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Why is enoxaparin not recommended for renal impairment?

A

enoxaparin is renally excreted

if GFR < 30, takes longer to reverse and bleeding risk is increased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Adverse effects of enoxaparin

A

bleeding
hyperkalemia
HIT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Antidote for enoxaparin

A

protamine sulfate

BUT reversal is not complete as heparin works in factor III and enoxaparin works mostly on Xa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What kind of drug is fondaparinux (Arixtra)?

A

indirect inhibitor of factor Xa (anticoagulant)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Why is fondaparinux preferable over enoxaparin?

A

does not inhibit thrombin –>
less likely to cause thrombocytopenia
good for patients with HIT or prior HIT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Major issue with fondaparinux

A

no antidote

24
Q

What is HIT?

A

heparin induced thrombocytopenia

allergic reaction and adverse event

25
Name the types of thrombocytopenia
``` Type 1: direct effect on PLT --> cause clumping PLT > 100K Type 2: LIFE THREATENING immune-mediated heparin-PLT factor IV antibody complex hyper coagulable state ```
26
Name 2 direct thrombin inhibitors
argatroban | lepirudin
27
How does warfarin work?
inhibits vitamin K epoxide reductase and therefore interferes with production of vitamin-K dependent clotting and anticlotting factors (II, VII, IX, X)
28
Antidotes for warfarin
vitamin K | FFP
29
How is the thrombosis in early warfarin therapy managed?
ALWAYS BRIDGE warfarin with heparin/LMWH
30
Interactions with warfarin
A TON...lots of drugs increase the INR, others decrease the INR PPIs
31
What are DOACs?
direct oral anticoagulants
32
Name 4 DOACs
rivoroxaban (Xarelto) apixaban (Eliquis) edoxaban (Savaysa) betrixaban (Bevyxxa)
33
What is nonvalvular A-Fib, and what is the risk?
patients with no prior valve replacement who have A-Fib, and it can cause stroke
34
Why is it important to know half life with DOACs?
help with knowing washout time prior to invasive procedures
35
Name 2 anticoagulants that are not DOACs but get confused with them
fondaparinux | dabagatran (Pradaxa)
36
What is dabagatran (Pradaxa)?
direct thrombin inhibitor
37
Name 3 direct thrombin inhibitors
dabagatran (Pradaxa) [PO] bivalrudin (Angiomax) [IV] argatroban (Acova) [IV]
38
Name the reversal agent for dabigatran (Pradaxa)
Idarucizumab (Praxbind)
39
Name 4 categories of anti platelet agents
NSAIDs/ASA Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa Inhibitors ADP Receptor Antagonists Phosphodiesterase Inhibitors
40
Major adverse effects of the NSAIDs/ASA
GI upset | nephrotoxicity
41
Name 6 NSAIDs/ASA
``` ASA ibuprofen naproxen diclofenac meloxicam ketorolac ```
42
Name 3 glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitors, and how they are given
IV only abciximab (Reopro) eptifibatide (Integrilin) tirofiban (Aggrastat)
43
Name 3 ADP Receptor Antagonists
clopidigrel (Plavix) prasugrel (Effient) ticagrelor (Brilinta)
44
Genetic issue to be aware of regarding clopidigrel
decreased efficacy in poor metabolizers of CYP450 enzymes
45
Interactions to be aware of with ADP Receptor Antagonists like clopidogrel
increased risk of GIB with NSAIDs
46
What does the FDA recommend for patients on clopidogrel
genetic testing for CYP2C19 phenotype as some types are poor metabolizers and experience decreased effectiveness
47
For whom is prasugrel (Effient) contraindicated?
if prior TIA or stroke
48
What is important to remember about ASA and ticagrelor?
For patients on a maintenance dose of ASA > 100mg, effectiveness of Brilinta is decrased
49
Name some adverse effects of ticagrelor (Brilinta)
hyperuricemia 14% will feel SOB 2-6% will experience a brief ventricular pause on EKG
50
Name some drugs used in bleeding disorders
tranexamic acid DDAVP vitamin K 4FPCC (Kcentra)
51
For what bleeding disorders are desmopressin (DDAVP) used?
mild hemophilia A | von Willebrand's disease
52
For what bleeding disorder is vitamin K used?
``` reversing supratherapeutic INR liver disease (as clotting factors are made in the liver) nutritional deficiency of vitamin K ```
53
How is vitamin K given? Via which route is it best absorbed?
SQ, PO, IV | absorbed more consistently: PO
54
For what is 4FPCC (Kcentra) used?
rapid reversal of warfarin in bleeding patients | for bleeding in patients not on vitamin K antagonists (off label)
55
Why can Kcentra cause a hypersensitivity reaction?
``` it is human blood product containing clotting factors II VII XI X Protein S Protein C ```