TS - Exam 1 Flashcards
David and Kendall are going to the river to fish. They have previously formed a “fishing schemata” that provides them with the information needed about where to go, what boat to use, what to dress in, what bait to use, etc. They throw their baited fishing lines in the river and wait. A huge salmon takes the bait and puts up a terrific fight. Never having caught salmon before or any fish of this size, they are unprepared. David quickly thinks to grab hold of Kendall before he is pulled off the boat. Kendall quickly acts to lean backward and pull forcefully, while asking David to keep the boat stable. Finally, the huge salmon is successfully pulled from the water into the boat. David and Kendall are surprised and elated with their huge catch. According to Piaget, David and Kendall are:
Select one:
A.
In the process of cognitively organizing the new experience.
B.
Having difficulty incorporating the new knowledge because of their fishing schema.
C.
Adjusting their fishing schema through the process of adaptation.
D.
Assimilating and accommodating the new information in their schema.
The correct answer is C.
This is the most complete answer. David and Kendall are in the process of adjusting, enriching, and refining their fishing schema to accommodate the new experience. Choice A is true but not as complete as choice C. Organization and equilibration are further principles supporting adaptation; however, answer C goes one step further to explain what is really happening in the minds of David and Kendall. Choice B is incorrect, as this is unlikely to happen (on the other hand, a traumatic event might cause them to reject the experience). Choice D reflects the two main dynamics in the formulation of a schema, namely assimilation and accommodation, which are certainly occurring. However, the question describes the process of adaptation, which is the result of these two processes, resulting in adjustments to their schema as a function of the incorporation of the newly acquired knowledge. Hence, answer C is the best choice here.
According to the APA’s Ethical Standards (2002), psychologists should ensure that all information they distribute in public statements is:
Select one:
A.
Accurate and unbiased.
B.
Research-supported.
C.
Timely and informative.
D.
Documented and secure.
The language is very specific, and the correct answer is A.
Undoubtedly, timely and informative (answer C) are desirable qualities, but they are not the focus of the ethics code. Research-supported information and information stating security are not necessary for the psychologist to distribute in public, which makes answers B and D false.
__________ would be most likely to support the diathesis-stress model.
Select one:
A.
Skinner
B.
Watson
C.
Beck
D.
Pavlov
The correct answer is C.
Beck is best known for his cognitive therapy for depression, and the diathesis-stress model is a cognitive-behavioral construct. The diathesis-stress model hypothesizes that some people have genetic predispositions to acquire various mental or physical diseases (diathesis), but the chance that any disease will develop is increased by the kinds and levels of stress they are exposed to throughout life. In contrast to Beck, none of the other individuals prescribed to cognitive theories of behavior; in fact, Skinner, Watson, and Pavlov were strict behaviorists. Watson and Pavlov are best known for their work on classical conditioning (also known as Pavlovian conditioning), and Skinner is best known for his work on operant conditioning.
The tonic phase of a grand mal seizure is best characterized by:
Select one:
A.
Loss of consciousness.
B.
Rhythmic muscle spasms.
C.
Muscle rigidity.
D.
Automatism.
The correct answer is C.
The tonic phase of a grand mal seizure typically reveals muscular contraction and rigidity. Response A (loss of consciousness) follows the tonic-clonic phase. Response B (rhythmic muscular movements) marks the clonic phase. Response D (automatisms) are characteristic of complex partial seizures.
When in therapy with an individual, a multitheoretical psychotherapist would work interactively with:
Select one:
A.
Actions, systems, and behavior.
B.
Behavior, thoughts, and emotions.
C.
Feelings, motives, and actions.
D.
Thoughts, actions, and feelings.
The correct answer is D.
The multitheoretical psychotherapist works interactively with thoughts, feelings, and actions. Systems (answer A), behavior (answer B), and motives (answer C) are not the specific focus of multitheoretical psychotherapy.
In a study of college students, data on SAT scores, GPA, and scores on course finals are collected, as well as data including living situations, extracurricular activities, and social networks. Which statistical method can be used to collapse these variables into academic and social categories?
Select one:
A.
Factor analysis
B.
Discriminant analysis
C.
Analysis of variance
D.
Path analysis
The correct answer is A.
Factor analysis is used to group a larger number of variables into a smaller set of factors. Discriminant analysis, answer B, is used to predict group membership. ANOVA, answer C, is used to compare the means of two or more groups. Path analysis, answer D, is used to test the relationship between a number of IVs and a number of DVs simultaneously.
Which of the following is NOT a purpose of state licensing boards?
Select one:
A.
Ensure licensed psychologists have met minimal requirements for practicing psychology
B.
Regulate psychologists’ professional behavior based on the board’s ethics codes
C.
Monitor the conduct of licensed psychologists
D.
Protect the public
The correct answer is B.
It is not an accurate statement; though state boards regulate psychologists’ professional behavior, the regulation is based on laws, not ethics codes. It is true that state licensing boards protect the public (answer D) by ensuring that licensed psychologists have met minimal requirements for practicing psychology (answer A) and by monitoring the conduct of licensed psychologists (answer C).
If you were a psychologist working with a group of gay men who have been identified as high-risk for contracting HIV/AIDS, which of the following guidelines should you use when planning your intervention?
Select one:
A.
Discuss the pros and cons of unprotected sex
B.
Provide information about the dangers of HIV/AIDS and concrete steps to prevent infection
C.
Use a paradoxical intervention to convince them of the dangers of unprotected sex
D.
Rely on the power of group norms to help them avoid infection
The correct answer is B.
When planning an intervention it is best to attempt to provide useful information about HIV/AIDS, including the dangers and steps to prevent infection. Discussing the pros and cons (answer A) may be useful but not as effective as the description in answer B. Paradoxical intervention (answer C) is a technique where a clinician prescribes the problem and though it can be effective with certain situations, this would not be appropriate for this situation. Relying on group norms is not proactive enough by a psychologist to help avoid infection, so answer D is incorrect.
In cluster analysis, to form a second cluster, you first:
Select one:
A.
Find two variables that have a strong correlation with each other but a weak correlation with members of the first cluster.
B.
Find two variables that have a weak correlation with each other but a strong correlation with members of the first cluster.
C.
Find additional independent variables for the second cluster that were unrelated in the prior cluster so that there is no overlap between the two clusters.
D.
Use cluster sampling for the first cluster so that you can move on to the second cluster.
The correct answer is A.
Forming a second cluster in a cluster analysis begins with finding two strongly correlated variables that have weak correlations with items in the first cluster.
A higher verbal IQ score than performance IQ score on the WISC is suggestive of which diagnosis?
Select one:
A.
Agoraphobia
B.
Schizophrenia
C.
Depression
D.
OCD
The correct answer is D.
As anxiety is more detrimental to performance tasks as opposed to verbal tasks, which would create a higher verbal versus performance IQ. Responses A and B are incorrect; they are disorders not diagnosed in childhood. And C is incorrect, as depression likely would negatively impact both verbal and performance scores.
Taryn typically drinks a glass of warm milk at 10:00 p.m. to get ready for bed. After drinking the milk, she finds herself feeling warm and drowsy and so she continues to have a glass of milk every night as a way to get ready for bed. One night, she drinks milk at about 9:30 p.m. to try to sleep earlier. However, she notices she is not sleepy and continues to feel warm and drowsy at about 10:00 p.m. This is an example of:
Select one:
A.
Priming.
B.
Temporal conditioning.
C.
Delayed conditioning.
D.
Temporal delay.
The correct answer is B.
It is likely that Taryn has acquired a conditioned response (CR) of drowsiness to some other cues that regularly recur at 10:00 p.m. each day which are unrelated to the glass of milk. She was mistaken in her assumption that the milk was the stimulus that made her feel drowsy. Like priming (answer A), temporal conditioning is an implicit memory process because in both cases the individual is not consciously aware that recently encoded information is influencing his or her present behavior. But temporal conditioning is a more precise description of the particular implicit processes that seem to be operating in the present example because the relevant cues are related to time of day. Delayed conditioning (or delay conditioning) refers to a Pavlovian conditioning situation in which the beginning or onset of the conditioned stimulus (CS) precedes the onset of the unconditioned stimulus (US) but the two are present together for an overlapping period of time. This present example likely is an example of delayed conditioning (answer C) but it belongs to that more specific category of conditioning phenomena termed temporal conditioning because the operative CS are time-related cues. Temporal delay is a technical term for a pause, making answer D incorrect.
A man who dresses in women’s clothing for the purpose of sexual arousal is most likely to be diagnosed with:
Select one:
A.
Transsexualism.
B.
Gender dysphoria.
C.
Transvestic disorder with fetishism.
D.
Sexual masochism disorder.
The correct answer is C.
Men who dress in women’s clothing for the purpose of sexual arousal are defined as having transvestic disorder with fetishism. Answers A and B are both incorrect, as a transsexual person identifies with a gender not his/her own. Although gender dysphoria may be confused with transvestic disorder with fetishism, it is not a paraphilia. Answer D is incorrect; sexual masochism is a paraphilia, but entails to derive satisfaction from experiencing pain, humiliation, and suffering during sex.
Which of the following is NOT an APA Ethics Code General Principle?
Select one:
A.
Justice
B.
Fairness
C.
Integrity
D.
Fidelity
The correct answer is B.
Although fairness is similar to justice (answer A), it is not labeled as a General Principle in the Ethics Code. Justice, integrity, fidelity, and responsibility are all General Principles in the APA Ethics Code, which makes answers A, C, and D false.
Minuchin’s structural family therapy would most likely be concerned with:
Select one:
A.
Differentiation of the child.
B.
The father’s unemployment.
C.
The conscious mind.
D.
Family boundaries.
The correct answer is D.
Minuchin’s structural family therapy addresses boundaries (answer D), hierarchies, and coalitions. Differentiation (answer A) is addressed in Bowenian family systems therapy. Father’s unemployment (answer B) was identified as a source of family-wide distress by Nathan Ackerman. The conscious mind (answer C) is emphasized in Adlerian therapy, along with free will, striving for power, and a sense of inferiority.
Risk factors for developing somatic symptom disorder do NOT include:
Select one:
A.
Childhood illness.
B.
Low socioeconomic status.
C.
Personality trait of negative affectivity.
D.
Few years of formal education.
The correct answer is A.
Childhood illness has not been identified as a risk factor for somatic symptom disorder. Risk factors do include personality trait of negative affectivity, and environmental factors such as few years of formal education, low socioeconomic status, or recent experience of stressful events.
Random __________ involves participants in the population; random __________ involves participants in experimental conditions.
Select one:
A.
assignment; selection
B.
selection; assignment
C.
selection; selection
D.
assignment; assignment
The correct answer is B.
Random selection involves drawing participants from the population in such a way as to provide a representative sample; random assignment entails assigning participants to conditions in such a way that each participant has an equal probability of being assigned to any of the experimental conditions.
Which of the following factors is most associated with the development of shared psychotic disorder?
Select one:
A.
Social isolation
B.
Female gender
C.
Young age
D.
Low socioeconomic status
The correct answer is A.
Social isolation is often a precursor of shared psychotic disorder. Answers B, C, and D are incorrect, as they are not particular to this condition.
Which statement is true about Kubler-Ross’ theory of dying?
Select one:
A.
A person who cries and questions why he or she has to go through the grief is in the anger stage.
B.
A person who cries, yet attempts to distance him or herself from others, is in the denial stage.
C.
A person who cries, yet has acknowledged death, is in the depression stage.
D.
A person who cries and tries to settle unfinished business is in the acceptance stage.
The correct answer is A.
According to Kubler-Ross, the individual who asks questions like “why me?” is in the anger stage. A person who attempts to distance him or herself is in the depression stage, not the denial stage, which makes answer B false. A person who acknowledges their death is in the acceptance stage, not the depression stage, which makes answer C incorrect. An individual attempting to settle unfinished business is in the bargaining stage, which makes answer D incorrect.
In contrast to Kernberg’s conception of the etiology for narcissistic personality disorder, Kohut believed that:
Select one:
A.
The disorder results from a childhood in which caregivers were unresponsive and insensitive, leading to an unstable and weak self-representation.
B.
The disorder arises because infantile grandiosity was not challenged properly by caregivers; as such, the person was unable to achieve an integrated sense of self-representation and appropriate social standards.
C.
The disorder is the result of ego defenses, especially one of the projection of frustration and anger toward his/her caregiver onto others and his/her surroundings.
D.
The disorder is the result of an abnormal separation-individuation process due to the caregiver’s clinginess or minimal attention and involvement during childhood, leaving the person to cope with the fluctuation between fear of domination and fear of abandonment.
The correct answer is B.
As it accurately depicts Kohut’s views on a lack of developmental transition out of egocentrism and grandiosity. Answer A provides the classic views of Kernberg, a well-known source related to narcissism. Answer C deals with general defenses, and answer D is linked more with a Kleinian view of the development of narcissism, which makes these answers false.
__________ works around financial limitations set by insurance companies while trying to provide efficient insight and depth into a client’s life.
Select one:
A.
Brief psychodynamic therapy
B.
Gestalt therapy
C.
Existential therapy
D.
Narrative therapy
The correct answer is A.
Brief psychodynamic therapy (A) was designed to continue to provide insight and depth in a client’s life while meeting the limiting demands of insurance. Gestalt therapy (B) is focused on addressing the split-off parts of an individual and reintegrating the whole person. Existential therapy (C) is focused on the understanding and development of a personal meaning of life since, according to the philosophy, there is no inherent meaning. Narrative therapy (D) is focused on the fact that clients develop stories about themselves that are problem-saturated and filled with powerlessness. The purpose is then to re-story casting difficulty as a struggle for control.
When designing a study, it is possible to calculate the sample size that will be necessary to obtain a statistically significant effect. This calculation is called:
Select one:
A.
Type II error analysis.
B.
Effect size analysis.
C.
Power analysis.
D.
Type I error analysis.
The correct answer is C.
Although sample size calculations typically involve an estimate of expected effect size (answer B) and concern Type II error rates (answer A), the primary focus is actually on (1 - β), or power (i.e., the likelihood of finding an effect given that it does indeed exist). As such, this calculation is called a power analysis.
A manager who favors a total quality management (TQM) approach is most likely to:
Select one:
A.
Closely supervise and direct employee behavior.
B.
Involve employees and customers in decisions about quality improvement.
C.
Hire outside consultants to give advice on quality control.
D.
Add an additional level of managers so that employees can be more easily monitored.
The correct answer is B.
A TQM manager is most likely to involve employees and customers in decisions about quality improvement, as the focus of TQM emphasizes creativity and employee and customer involvement in both problem-solving and the elimination of flaws and errors at every level of the organization. TQM would not emphasize directing employee behavior (Answer A) or increasing monitoring of employees (Answer D), as one of the goals is increased autonomy and responsibility of the employees. TQM would not necessarily hire outside consultants (Answer C), as the goal is to use employee and customer input.
Centralization is appropriate when:
Select one:
A.
The environment is changeable and competitive.
B.
The environment is stable and predictable.
C.
The span of control is small.
D.
A manager possesses moderate authority.
The correct answer is B.
Centralized governance involves information management being reported up through a single chain of command. This structure of governance is utilized when the business environment is stable and predictable. Decentralized governance would be utilized when the business environment is considered to be changing and competitive (Answer A). Answers C and D are distractor terms.
Who developed multigenerational family therapy?
Select one:
A.
Nathan Ackerman
B.
Murray Bowen
C.
Carl Whitaker
D.
Salvador Minuchin
The correct answer is B.
Multigenerational family therapy is the premise of Murray Bowen’s family therapy, which involves a three-generation perspective, viewing the family as an emotional unit, with the goal of differentiation and individuation of family members. Failure of complementarity is a term from Nathan Ackerman’s (answer A) theory of family therapy from a psychoanalytic perspective; complementarity refers to harmony in social roles in a family system. Carl Whitaker (answer C) focused on an active and forceful role for the therapist, promoting flexibility in the family unit. He was not focused on techniques but concentrated on his own style, knowledge, and wisdom. Salvador Minuchin (answer D) developed structural family therapy, which involves a focus on hierarchies, boundaries, and alliances in the parent and child structure.
The earliest symptoms of major or mild neurocognitive disorder due to HIV infection are typically:
Select one:
A.
Delusions and social withdrawal.
B.
Apathy and muscle weakness.
C.
Forgetfulness and impaired concentration.
D.
Impaired problem-solving skills and agnosia.
The correct answer is C.
The earliest stages of major or mild neurocognitive disorder due to HIV infection include impaired attention/concentration and forgetfulness. The other responses are distractors, often appearing later in the disease progression.
Test items in the Developmental Test of Visual-Motor Integration consist of:
Select one:
A.
Various visual exercises.
B.
Various motor exercises.
C.
Geometric forms.
D.
Facial expressions that can be easily manipulated by the participants.
The correct answer is C.
The Developmental Test of Visual-Motor Integration consists of geometric forms of various complexities that the participant is required to copy in a test booklet. Items in A, B, and D are not used in this test.
Jennifer, who is 23 years old and a daily coffee drinker, explains that for about 7-10 days a month she usually experiences marked affective lability, irritability, and difficulty concentrating. Jennifer is likely to be diagnosed with:
Select one:
A.
caffeine withdrawal.
B.
premenstrual dysphoric disorder.
C.
persistent depressive disorder.
D.
hypersomnolence.
The correct answer is B.
The symptoms are episodic on a monthly cycle, and hence most likely related to hormonal fluctuations. Answer A is unlikely because Jennifer’s caffeine intake does not wax and wane over the month, so she is unlikely to be experiencing caffeine withdrawal. Persistent depressive disorder (answer C) does not fluctuate on a monthly cycle. No information relevant to hypersomnolence (answer D) was given in the question.
Typical antipsychotics such as Thorazine and haloperidol are less effective than atypical antipsychotics in:
Select one:
A.
Treating schizophrenia.
B.
Controlling positive symptoms of schizophrenia.
C.
Avoiding extrapyramidal side effects.
D.
Increasing dopamine levels.
The correct answer is C.
Typical antipsychotics are associated with higher rates of EPS. Answer A is too vague; typical antipsychotics are more effective in treating the positive symptoms of schizophrenia but quite ineffective in addressing the negative ones. Answer B is true, but an incorrect choice here. Answer D is incorrect, as antipsychotics, typical or atypical, decrease DA levels.
The Item Characteristic Curve provides all of the following information about a test item except:
Select one:
A.
Test item difficulty.
B.
Test item’s ability to discriminate between high and low scorers.
C.
Probability of answering the test item correctly by guessing.
D.
Degree to which the test item measures intended attribute.
The correct answer is D.
The Item Characteristic Curve provides information on difficulty, discrimination, and false positives. It does not provide information on the degree to which an item measures an attribute.
Arbitration can take a number of forms. When parties agree ahead of time to accept the recommendation of the arbitrator, they are engaging in:
Select one:
A.
voluntary arbitration.
B.
conventional arbitration.
C.
final offer arbitration.
D.
binding arbitration.
The correct answer is D.
Arbitration involves an authority figure that makes an agreement. Binding arbitration represents an acceptance of an agreement in advance, recommended by the arbitrator. Answer A is incorrect, as Voluntary arbitration represents the agreement to the arbitration process alone. Answer B is incorrect, as conventional arbitration has to do with the free choice of any settlement, while final offer arbitration, incorrect answer C, involves the selection of the last offer by the disputants.
Therapeutic techniques commonly employed in assertiveness training include:
Select one:
A.
Psychoeducation and cognitive restructuring.
B.
Relaxation exercises and systematic desensitization.
C.
Social skills groups and guided imagery.
D.
Behavior rehearsal and role-playing.
The correct answer is D.
Assertiveness training is used to help passive or aggressive individuals alter their verbal and nonverbal communication skills in such a way that their ability to communicate with others clearly and confidently is enhanced. The most commonly used techniques in assertiveness training are role-playing and behavior rehearsal. Answer A is incorrect because in cognitive restructuring, one attempts to replace an individual’s irrational, counterfactual thoughts with more accurate and beneficial beliefs. In contrast, assertiveness training focuses on the problematic behavior itself rather than the thoughts that may be behind those behaviors. Answers B and C are incorrect, as none of these techniques are typical components of assertiveness training.
Telemental health (TMH) can provide mental health services to people who may otherwise be unable to receive them. The delivery of TMH is favorable for a variety of clients and conditions, with the exception of those who: Select one:
A.
Live in a remote area of the country.
B.
Are older or have a disability that causes limited mobility.
C.
Need specialized services due to a traumatic brain injury or a neurodegenerative condition.
D.
Are experiencing a crisis and require immediate intervention.
The correct answer is D.
Crises and life-threatening emergencies are not suitable for telemental health (TMH) treatment, as they require personal contact and assessment. Answers A, B, and C are good examples of situations in which TMH can be used effectively.
Factors that decrease the likelihood of undesirable message transmission include all of the following EXCEPT:
Select one:
A.
The transmitter of the message is unable to empathize with the recipient and experiences guilty feelings.
B.
The transmitter knows that the receiver of the news wants to hear the news.
C.
The intensity of the bad news is very high.
D.
The transmitter believes the recipient does not want to hear the news.
The correct answer is B.
The only response that would actually increase the likelihood of an undesirable message being transmitted is if the transmitter knows that the receiver of the news wants to hear the news. All other options are actually factors that decrease the likelihood of the transmission of undesirable messages.
Histrionic personality disorder is a diagnosis typically associated with women. Recent research suggests, however, that histrionic personality disorder is a sex-typed manifestation of another underlying condition. While women with this condition are likely to display histrionic traits, men are likely to manifest the condition through:
Select one:
A.
Dependent personality disorder.
B.
Schizoid personality disorder.
C.
Narcissistic personality disorder.
D.
Antisocial personality disorder.
The correct answer is D.
It may well be the case that, in men, the features of antisocial personality disorder are a male counterpart of the symptoms of histrionic personality disorder in women. None of the other responses have the corresponding features of emotional shallowness that make histrionic and antisocial personality disorders sex-typed manifestations of each other.
Damage to which region may result in difficulty coordinating muscle movements?
Select one:
A.
Secondary motor cortex
B.
Posterior motor cortex
C.
Motor association cortex
D.
Primary motor cortex
The correct answer is C.
Damage to the motor association cortex may result in difficulties coordinating muscle movement, such as the sequence of muscles required for speech.
The WISC-V test is appropriate for use through to what age?
Select one:
A.
13 years old
B.
15 years old
C.
16 years old
D.
17 years old
The correct answer is C.
The WISC-V is designed for use with individuals 16 years and under.
You are hired on as a group psychotherapist in a research study that follows strict manualized protocols dealing with anger management. The study calls for a comparison between rational emotive interventions and motivational interviewing. While working with the group that was randomly assigned to receive Rational Emotive Therapy in a group setting, you are most likely to do the following:
Select one:
A.
ask a group member to free-associate about his/her childhood.
B.
utilize stress inoculation with a group member.
C.
evaluate levels of differentiation.
D.
confront a group member about his or her irrational beliefs.
The correct answer is D.
A core therapeutic technique in Rational Emotive Therapy is the process of disputing irrational beliefs. This is commonly through the use of confrontation (D). Asking a group member to free-associate (A) is a psychodynamic technique, stress inoculation (B) is another therapy unrelated to REBT, and differentiation (C) is a component in Bowenian therapy.
Tom has lost the motivation to perform even the simplest tasks. He feels terrible and believes that bad things will always happen to him, things will never get better, and it is his own fault that things are so bad. Tom is experiencing:
Select one:
A.
Severe anxiety.
B.
Fundamental attribution error.
C.
Learned helplessness.
D.
Thoughts related to the cognitive triad.
The correct answer is C.
Learned helplessness is a condition in which an individual believes that he or she has no control over significant life circumstances. This often occurs when people perceive negative personal events in life as being constant, with no chance of improvement, regardless of what they do. Severe anxiety (answer A) is also referred to as a panic attack and is characterized by an episode of terror. The fundamental attribution error (answer B) is a tendency to overestimate the extent to which a person’s behavior is due to personality or dispositional characteristics rather than situational factors. The cognitive triad (answer D) is part of Beck’s cognitive theory of depression (self is worthless, the world is unfair, and the future is hopeless).
False memories are also referred to as:
Select one:
A.
Paramnesia.
B.
False consensus effect.
C.
Illusory perceptions.
D.
Amnesia.
The correct answer is A.
A false memory is a memory of an event that did not happen, or a distortion of an event that did occur. False memory is also referred to as paramnesia or illusory memory. The false consensus effect (answer B) is the tendency to overestimate the extent to which others agree with one’s ideas. Illusory perceptions or perceptual illusions (answer C) are not phenomena of memory but of perception. Amnesia (answer D) is a condition characterized by an impairment of long-term memory.
Job enrichment involves considering changes to all of the following aspects of a job EXCEPT:
Select one:
A.
Increased responsibility.
B.
Feedback on tasks.
C.
Task identity.
D.
Increase in salary.
The correct answer is D.
External factors, such as pay, are not considered part of job enrichment, as job enrichment is focused on higher-level needs of esteem and self-actualization (intrinsic factors). Answers A, B, and C are all areas that would be part of job enrichment, as the fulfillment of these is seen as being most motivating to employees.
Infantile amnesia is:
Select one:
A.
The lack of memory of a person’s initial three to four years of life.
B.
Usually caused by head injury.
C.
The lack of memory during a person’s initial six to seven years of life.
D.
Permanent.
The correct answer is A.
In the past, theorists assumed that children under the age of three had immature memory that would prevent them from being able to recall an event at a later time. This theory was based on the concept of infantile amnesia, which is an individual’s inability to recall information/events before three to four years of age. Implicit memory refers to the memory that is unconscious and helps an individual complete daily habits and motor tasks.
A clinician is aware of whether children in a group have been diagnosed with ADHD or not. As such, he tends to look for evidence to confirm ADHD among those children with a diagnosis and evidence to disconfirm ADHD among those children without a diagnosis. As such, when the clinician completes a measure of symptom ratings on each child, he inadvertently uses different standards to complete the measure depending on the child being assessed. If this measure of symptom ratings was compared to a newly designed measure of ADHD symptoms, there would be evidence of:
Select one:
A.
multicollinearity.
B.
composite criterion.
C.
criterion contamination.
D.
nonsystematic error.
The correct answer is C.
When systematic rater bias is introduced into a criterion (in this case, the measure of symptom ratings), it is evidence of criterion contamination. Composite criterion refers to multiple aspects being combined to create a criterion. Multicollinearity occurs when predictors are highly correlated. Nonsystematic error refers to random error; in the case of rater bias, there is systematic error.
Mary is a five-year-old girl suffering from nightly nightmares. The most effective CBT treatment for her is:
Select one:
A.
Coping skills training.
B.
Flooding.
C.
Stress inoculation.
D.
Stimulus discrimination.
The correct answer is A.
Conditions that cause chronic anxiety, such as nightmares, are best treated with coping skills training. Flooding (answer B) is an extinction approach that is rooted in behaviorism and avoidance of feared stimuli. Stress inoculation (answer C) is a four-phase training program for stress management often used in CBT. Stimulus discrimination (answer D) is the ability to distinguish between different stimuli.
The three subtypes of ADHD included in the DSM-5 are:
Select one:
A.
Predominantly inattentive presentation, predominantly hyperactive presentation, and predominantly impulsive presentation.
B.
Predominantly inattentive/oppositional presentation, predominantly hyperactive/impulsive presentation, and combined presentation.
C.
Predominantly inattentive presentation, predominantly hyperactive/impulsive presentation, and combined presentation.
D.
Predominantly impulsive presentation, primarily oppositional presentation, and predominantly hyperactive/inattentive presentation.
The correct answer is C.
Predominantly inattentive presentation, predominantly hyperactive/impulsive presentation, and combined presentation are the DSM-5 types of ADHD. The other answers include types of disorders that do not exist in the nomenclature, which makes answers A, B, and D false.
Choose the correct statement below:
Select one:
A.
When running multiple regression, the predictor with the lowest correlation with the criterion variable is given the most weight.
B.
An advantage of multiple regression over ANOVA is that multiple regression can use continuous or categorical data to measure independent variables (as opposed to only categorical data).
C.
When multiple regression is used in making predictions, high intercorrelations among the predictors and low correlations of each predictor with the criterion are needed.
D.
Predictors should intercorrelate.
The correct answer is B.
Although an ANOVA is limited to the use of categorical variables as independent variables, multiple regression may make use of both continuous variables and dummy-coded categorical data; in a multiple regression, the predictor most highly correlated with the dependent variable receives the most weight in the equation, and high intercorrelations between predictors (i.e., multicollinearity) result in unstable coefficient estimates (one wishes predictors to be highly correlated with the criterion variable).
In behavioral contrast, the relationship between the number of responses and the amount of reward is:
Select one:
A.
Linear.
B.
Inverse.
C.
Curvilinear.
D.
Tangential.
The correct answer is C.
It is not inverse (answer B) because in behavioral contrast, increases in reinforcement lead to increases in response rate and decreases in reinforcement lead to decreases in response rate. The relationship is not linear (answer A) because the response rate on a particular constant reinforcement schedule depends not only on the details of that schedule but also on the individual’s recent history of reinforcement. It is not tangential (answer D) but rather curvilinear (answer C), as the extent to which a given increase (or decrease) in reinforcement changes the individual’s response rate depends on his or her previous level of reinforcement.
Tanya is 30 years old and is hoping to soon get pregnant and start her family. Because she knows that she has a family history of Huntington’s disease (HD), she decided to talk with a genetic counselor. After gathering information regarding Tanya’s family history, the genetic counselor learns that Tanya’s father died of HD. What will the genetic counselor likely tell Tanya regarding the likelihood that her children will inherit HD?
Select one:
A.
Given that Tanya’s father had the disorder, the genetic counselor will advise Tanya that she has a 75% chance to pass the gene to her children, even if she has not inherited the gene herself.
B.
If a genetic test determines Tanya has HD, her children will have a 50% chance of inheriting the disease.
C.
HD is a sex-linked genetic disorder; therefore, the chance of inheritance depends on whether Tanya’s child is a boy or girl.
D.
If Tanya’s partner also has a family history of HD, their children will have a 25% chance of inheriting it.
The correct answer is B.
Huntington’s disease is an autosomal dominant genetic disorder, which means that if an individual inherits the gene for HD from one parent, the individual will have the disease. Answer A is incorrect, as Tanya will not pass the gene if she did not inherit it. In addition, she has a 50% (not 75%) chance to pass it down if she actually has it. To determine whether she inherited the disease from her father, she would have to undergo genetic testing to determine the number of trinucleotide repeats. If she has more than 35 repeats of CAG, then she inherited the gene for HD. The age of onset is typically between the mid-30s and mid-40s. Answer C is incorrect; because the disorder is autosomal, it is not sex-linked and therefore afflicts men and women equally. Answer D is also incorrect; if she has HD and her partner does not, her children will have a 50% chance of inheriting the disease. However, if both partners have the gene, they will pass it down to their children (100% heritability).
In a self-monitoring task, a person would be asked by a therapist to keep a record of thoughts related to a behavior, feelings related to a behavior, what occurred during a behavior, and __________ behavior.
Select one:
A.
time spent engaged in
B.
reinforcers related to a
C.
punishers related to a
D.
aversive outcomes related to
The correct answer is A.
In self-monitoring, the goal is to track the personal experience of a behavior, encompassing all related details of the behavior, including thoughts, feelings, and events during the behavior, and how much time was spent engaging (answer A) in the behavior. While reinforcers (answer B), punishers (answer C), and related aversive outcomes (also called punishers; answer D) may be identified through the process of collecting data through self-monitoring, they are not collected.
__________ can be a problem in individuals with strong fear or anxiety reactions to stimuli or situations that they encounter frequently and cannot completely predict, control, or avoid.
Select one:
A.
Counterconditioning
B.
Conditioned suppression
C.
Extinction
D.
Pseudoconditioning
The correct answer is B.
Conditioned suppression occurs when an individual temporarily suspends or significantly decreases the rate of an ongoing voluntary behavior (i.e., operant behavior), due to the occurrence of a stimulus that evokes a conditioned fear response. Conditioned suppression affects us all occasionally, but it can be particularly troublesome in individuals with strong fear or anxiety reactions, or phobias, to certain stimuli or situations that they encounter frequently and cannot completely predict, control, or avoid. Answer A is incorrect because counterconditioning is a Pavlovian conditioning technique that involves conditioning an individual to respond to a stimulus in a way that is incompatible with a response that has already been conditioned to that stimulus. Answer C is wrong because extinction is a decrease in either a conditioned response or operant behavior due to elimination of a reinforcer. Answer D is incorrect, because pseudoconditioning is a behavioral phenomenon in which an individual experiences a highly-salient US and, for a brief time thereafter, other stimuli are able to elicit a reflexive response that resembles the unconditioned response (UR).
The effects of malnutrition in children:
Select one:
A.
May be permanent.
B.
May be temporary.
C.
May be reversible if addressed early.
D.
May result in failure to thrive.
The correct answer is C.
Malnutrition is the state of having too few nutrients for the body to work properly. This condition is detrimental to people at all stages of life; however, those most impacted are infants still in the womb. Damage to the brain may be permanent if nutritional changes are not made early in a child’s life. Though both answers A and B could be correct, answer C is more specific. Failure to thrive is due to a lack of emotional support, not due to a lack of nutrition, making answer D incorrect.
A clinician is aware of whether children in a group have been diagnosed with ADHD or not. As such, he tends to look for evidence to confirm ADHD among those children with a diagnosis and evidence to disconfirm ADHD among those children without a diagnosis. As such, when the clinician completes a measure of symptom ratings on each child, he inadvertently uses different standards to complete the measure depending on the child being assessed. If this measure of symptom ratings was compared to a newly designed measure of ADHD symptoms, there would be evidence of:
Select one:
A.
Multicollinearity.
B.
Composite criterion.
C.
Criterion contamination.
D.
Nonsystematic error.
The correct answer is C.
When systematic rater bias is introduced into a criterion (in this case, the measure of symptom ratings), it is evidence of criterion contamination. Composite criterion (answer B) refers to multiple aspects being combined to create a criterion. Multicollinearity (answer A) occurs when predictors are highly correlated. Nonsystematic error (answer D) refers to random error; in the case of rater bias, there is systematic error.
Which of the following statements is true about temporal conditioning?
Select one:
A.
Temporal conditioning is a form of conditioning involving the brief presentation of a conditioning stimulus.
B.
Temporal conditioning is where the conditioned stimulus follows the unconditioned stimulus by a significant time period.
C.
Temporal conditioning is an operant conditioning term with no counterpart in classical conditioning.
D.
Temporal conditioning requires a constant time interval or a fixed interval schedule of reinforcement.
The correct answer is D.
Trace conditioning, not temporal conditioning, involves the conditioned stimulus following the unconditioned stimulus time period, which makes answer A incorrect. Delay conditioning involves the conditioned stimulus following the unconditioned stimulus by a significant time period, which makes answer B incorrect. Temporal conditioning is a classical conditioning term with no counterpart in operant conditioning, not the other way around, which makes answer C incorrect.
Dr. Perlow has seen Javier, an adolescent male client, for just two sessions when Javier reveals that he is gay. Dr. Perlow lacks any training in working with a GLBT population. Which of the following should be Dr. Perlow’s next step?
Select one:
A.
Quickly find current research articles that are relevant to gay males
B.
Refer Javier to another therapist who specializes in GLBT issues
C.
Begin the process of terminating therapy
D.
Seek consultation
The correct answer is D.
Dr. Perlow has questions about his professional competence with his case, which warrants consultation. Collecting a few research articles (answer A) will not likely contribute to competence in this area. Terminating (answer C) or referring the client (answer B) are potential options but are very problematic in that Javier is likely to interpret this as a rejection over an issue that is already heavily stigmatized by society.
A key principle underlying Montessori schools is that:
Select one:
A.
Maximum learning comes from individual instruction.
B.
Maximum learning comes from manipulation of materials.
C.
Maximum learning comes from small group instruction.
D.
Maximum learning comes from standardized curricula.
The correct answer is B.
Developed by Dr. Maria Montessori, the Montessori teaching method proposes that all learning is related to sensory perception, rather than through traditional classroom instruction and rote learning.
The adrenal medulla, which is located on the top of the kidneys, contains:
Select one:
A.
Testosterone.
B.
Aldosterone.
C.
Chromaffin cells.
D.
Neuroendocrine cells.
The correct answer is C.
Options A and B are both found in the adrenal cortex. Option D is a good answer, but chromaffin cells is a more accurate answer than neuroendocrine cells.
A pigeon has a high probability of eating and a low probability of pulling a lever. In order to increase the pigeon’s lever-pulling behavior, eating was made to be contingent on the pigeon pulling a lever. This is an example of:
Select one:
A.
Premack’s principle.
B.
Negative reinforcement.
C.
DRO.
D.
Shaping.
The correct answer is A.
Premack’s principle states that more-preferred behaviors can reinforce less-preferred behaviors. The relative preference for two behaviors can be determined by measuring the base rates at which the two behaviors are performed when the individual has the opportunity to do both. In such a free-choice situation, the behavior with the higher base rate is deemed as more preferred than the behavior with the lower base rate. Thus, a behavior with a higher base rate can be used to reinforce a behavior with a lower base rate. In the present example, eating is a high base-rate behavior, and lever-pulling is a low base-rate behavior, so eating can be used to reinforce lever-pulling. Negative reinforcement (answer B) is the procedure of removing an unpleasant stimulus or situation contingent on the performance of a particular behavior, with the aim of increasing that behavior. DRO (answer C) stands for differential reinforcement of other behavior, a behavior modification technique in which any behavior except the targeted inappropriate response is reinforced; typically, this results in a reduction of the inappropriate behavior. Answer D is incorrect, as shaping entails building a behavior by dividing it into small increments or steps and then teaching one step at a time until the desired behavior is achieved; this is not what is illustrated above. There is no “shaping” taking place, as the pigeon is rewarded in a predictable fashion (with food) every time he pulls the lever.
One theory that may explain stranger anxiety is:
Select one:
A.
Self-verification theory.
B.
Discrepancy theory.
C.
Synchrony theory.
D.
Attachment theory.
The correct answer is B.
Discrepancy refers to the idea that at around seven months of age, infants acquire schemes for familiar objects. When a new image or object is presented that differs from the old one, the child may experience uncertainty and anxiety. Synchrony (answer C) refers to the back-and-forth interactions between an infant and caregiver. Attachment theory (answer D) refers to the emotional bond that develops between an infant and his or her primary caregiver. Self-verification theory (answer A) refers to the idea that people are motivated to confirm their self-concept.
In schizoaffective disorder, the depressive type is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:
Select one:
A.
More women than men have this type.
B.
The prognosis is better than for the bipolar type.
C.
The presence of major depressive episodes but not manic or mixed episodes.
D.
A later onset than for the bipolar type.
The correct answer is B.
The prognosis is better for the bipolar type. Answers A, C, and D are all true.
The Freedom from Distractibility Index is designed to:
Select one:
A.
assess working memory.
B.
assess crystallized intelligence.
C.
assess fluid intelligence.
D.
assess one’s ability to exert mental control.
The correct answer is D.
This index is designed to assess the ability to focus and exert mental control. Working memory (A) is an important aspect of performance and fluid intelligence, but this index is not designed to assess this. Crystallized intelligence (B) is associated with verbal and full scale IQ on intelligence tests and it is not usually impacted by contextual factors like environmental stimuli.
Individuals with autism spectrum disorder demonstrate impairments in language. All of the following language disturbances are associated with the disorder EXCEPT:
Select one:
A.
Reversal of pronouns.
B.
Echolalia.
C.
Overuse of metaphorical language.
D.
Abnormal rate and rhythm of speech.
The correct answer is C.
Individuals with autism spectrum disorder typically do not use metaphorical language. Answers A, B, and D are all language disturbances associated with autism spectrum disorder, which makes these answers incorrect.
Compensable factors identified within a job evaluation include all of the following EXCEPT:
Select one:
A.
Skill.
B.
Responsibility/accountability.
C.
Conscientiousness.
D.
Working conditions.
The correct answer is C.
Conscientiousness is not considered a compensable factor but instead is one of the traits in the Big Five factor theory. Skill (Answer A), responsibility/accountability (Answer B), and working conditions (Answer D) are all compensable factors utilized to identify value within a job evaluation.
What is the synchrony effect?
Select one:
A.
The concept that relationships act as a buffer against psychological and physical stress.
B.
The process of interacting with the world based on one’s existing perspective or schema.
C.
The concept that implies that the time of day individuals are tested for intelligence can greatly affect their performance.
D.
The process of changing one’s perspective or schema when new information is encountered.
The correct answer is C.
According to the synchrony effect, older adults tend to perform better when tested in the morning. Therefore, for testing to be meaningful, the time of day when individuals are examined should be taken into account. Answer A is incorrect, as it refers to the buffering hypothesis, which posits that relationships may act as a buffer in times of stress; however, the relationships should be perceived as valuable and adequate for the purpose. Answer B is incorrect, as it has to do with the Piagetian concept of assimilation. Answer D is incorrect, as it refers to the Piagetian concept of accommodation.
During a job selection process, a mistake occurred with the analysis of a certain predictive test for job success of applicants and, as a result, a number of employees were admitted into the company who the test predicted would not be successful. At the end of the first year, this particular group of employees was found to outperform the employees that the test predicted would be successful. This test produced which of the following?
Select one:
A.
True positives
B.
True negatives
C.
False positives
D.
False negatives
The correct answer is D.
The employees failed the predictor cutoff but exceeded the criterion cutoff, which is a false negative. If the employees exceeded both the predictor and criterion cutoff, it would be a true positive (answer A). If the employees failed both the predictor and criterion cutoff, it would be a true negative (answer B). If the employees exceeded the predictor cutoff but failed the criterion cutoff, it would be a false positive (answer C).
A new father is talking to his newborn son in baby talk. When the obstetrician comes in to speak to him, he talks in a normal voice. The father is displaying:
Select one:
A.
Stimulus generalization.
B.
Stimulus discrimination.
C.
Response discrimination.
D.
Response generalization.
The correct answer is B.
Stimulus discrimination includes the ability to differentiate among different stimuli or situations and act appropriately, depending on which is present. Stimulus generalization (answer A) is the opposite of stimulus discrimination and occurs when an individual performs the same behaviors regardless of whether the extant cues signal the availability or unavailability of reinforcement. Response discrimination (answer C) is not a proper psychological term, while response generalization (answer D) is a phenomenon in which reinforcement of some forms of behavior results in an increased probability not only of these forms but also of similar and non-reinforced forms.
According to Vygotsky’s theory, private speech is:
Select one:
A.
An egocentric, attention-seeking behavior.
B.
Equivalent to thought.
C.
A method young children use to regulate their behavior.
D.
A distraction to learning.
The correct answer is C.
Egocentric, attention-seeking behavior is not associated with Vygotsky’s model of cognitive development, which makes answer A incorrect. In Vygotsky’s model of cognitive development, Lev Vygostsky used the term “inner speech” to describe thought, but the term “inner speech” is not equivalent to thought, making answer B incorrect. Private speech is not a distraction but is essential for cognitive development, as it helps to integrate language with thought, which makes answer D incorrect.
Emotions, such as love and embarrassment, result from the context-specific __________ processing of signals from the __________.
Select one:
A.
cortical; subrosal cortex
B.
anterior cingulate; prefrontal cortex
C.
orbitofrontal; basal ganglia
D.
cortical; limbic system
The correct answer is D.
Emotional stimuli are registered by structures in the limbic system, communicating both directly and indirectly with the frontal cortex. Not only are direct signals sent up to the cortical areas for processing, but emotions, such as fear or passion, evoke the sympathetic nervous system. The bodily responses that follow, such as a quickened heartbeat, are interpreted by the frontal cortex, combined with direct input from the limbic system. Therefore, basic emotions, such as fear and pleasure, generated by the limbic system are interpreted as love and embarrassment due to the cortical processing of the signals from the limbic system in combination with context-specific information from the environment.
When is an evaluation of an employee’s physical fitness an acceptable part of an employer’s assessment program?
Select one:
A.
When the employee has recently recovered from an illness
B.
When such fitness is essential to successful performance of the job
C.
When an employee reaches the age of 55
D.
When both men and women are candidates for the same promotion opportunity
The correct answer is B.
In I/O psychology, the term assessment is most often used to describe methods used to evaluate and understand individuals. That outcome is then used to make decisions about individual performance, skill and training levels, aptitude, and organizational processes. The four means of assessment include norm-referenced tests, interviews, observations, and informal assessment procedures. In order to be useful, these measures must be valid and reliable. A fitness evaluation, which taps physical functioning, can be included in assessment procedures when the assessment is used for certain jobs requiring physical exertion (paramedics, military positions, police officers, etc.). An employer is not entitled to formally evaluate an employee’s fitness when the job does not require any special fitness, even if the employee is older or has recently been ill. Answer A is incorrect, as a fitness evaluation that is linked to recent illness could be viewed as an act that was preparatory to discrimination. The same is valid for Answer C, as age cannot justify an assessment. Answer D is incorrect; certainly, the fact that members of both genders are candidates for a promotion does not legitimize a fitness evaluation.
As they get older, infants detect affective states and share them with their parents. The child will use cues from the other person to deal with emotions. This is referred to as:
Select one:
A.
Social referencing.
B.
Mimicking.
C.
Object constancy.
D.
Imprinting.
The correct answer is A.
Social referencing refers to the customs and conventions that govern social interactions. An infant will use cues from another person, such as his or her mother, to deal with affective uncertainly and promote the development of self-regulation. Adaptation refers to the process by which organisms change to become more successful in a particular environment. Imprinting (answer D) refers to the bond between some newborn animals and their mothers.
Which of the following statements is false?
Select one:
A.
Terminal drop refers to a sudden decline in cognitive functioning before death.
B.
Some researchers suggest that the decline in cognitive ability is a result of the individual’s declining health status.
C.
Terminal drop is associated with Erikson’s last stage of developmental aging.
D.
Terminal drop may occur due to the onset of depression and withdrawal.
The correct answer is C.
Terminal drop is not traditionally associated with Erikson’s last stage of developmental aging. However, terminal drop does refer to a decline in intellectual functioning before death (answer A) and is thought to be associated with declining health (answer B). Alternative theories posit that the change in intellectual functioning is a result of depression (answer D).
Dr. Myers is seeing a client involved in a legal proceeding. The client’s attorney requests Dr. Myers’ expert testimony in the case. Which of the following is an appropriate response?
Select one:
A.
Temporarily pause treatment, testify as an expert witness, and then resume treatment at the close of the case
B.
Terminate therapy with the client and refuse to appear as an expert witness
C.
Continue therapy and also appear as an expert witness
D.
Continue therapy and decline to appear as an expert witness
The correct answer is D.
Psychologists cannot provide expert testimony to past (answer A) or current (answer C) therapy clients, as their objectivity will be impaired. Being asked to appear as an expert witness, however, does not mean that therapy should be terminated (answer B). Dr. Myers should kindly explain why providing expert testimony is not possible, and then resume the therapy.
On his way to work, Dr. Doom was killed in a car accident. Fortunately, he had a plan for his cases in the event he was severely disabled or killed. This means that he had probably:
Select one:
A.
Given another competent psychologist a key to his filing cabinet with patient records, along with written instructions regarding what to do in this event.
B.
Prepared a professional will where he diligently wrote all of his patients’ data and clinically relevant information, as well as what actions to take, in case something like this happened.
C.
Let his lawyer know what to do in case he was killed or disabled.
D.
Told his secretary that all of his clients should be given their records so that they can take them to their next treating therapist.
The correct answer is A.
Answer B is incorrect; it would be a good idea, with the exception of revealing patients’ data and clinical information, as this would not be a situation where confidentiality can be ethically broken. However, the idea of a professional will with a plan in case of a situation like this is great, when confidentiality is preserved. Answer C is incorrect. Again, this would be a good idea, but it is less realistic than answer A, as not all psychologists have personal lawyers. Answer D is not an ethical plan, as clients need more direction in their follow-up care; besides, to give them their records (especially without them asking for it) is typically not a good clinical decision.
The two phases of motivational interviewing are:
Select one:
A.
Resolving ambivalence and strengthening commitment to the decision for change.
B.
Creating motivational discrepancies and resolving ambivalence.
C.
Strengthening commitment to the decision for change and increasing motivation for change.
D.
Creating motivational discrepancies and increasing motivation for change.
The correct answer is C.
The two phases of motivational interviewing are strengthening commitment to the decision for change, and increasing motivation for change. Creating motivational discrepancies, resolving ambivalence, and eliciting self-motivational statements (answers A, B, and D) are all goals, rather than phases, of motivational interviewing.
Managers at UPscale, a packaging facility, installed sophisticated machines to assist the workers in package handling. The result was an increase in package production by more than 25%. The installation of such a machine in this facility is known as:
Select one:
A.
Mechanical assistance.
B.
Automated instillation.
C.
Automation.
D.
Automated package handling.
The correct answer is C.
Answers A, B, and D are distractors.
Dr. Hagen, an experimental psychologist, is conducting a study in which his laboratory animals will be euthanized as part of the procedure. Which of the following is true?
Select one:
A.
This procedure is unethical.
B.
This procedure is ethical.
C.
This procedure is considered ethical if the value of the research study outweighs the loss of animal life.
D.
The procedure is considered ethical if the person is trained to provide appropriate care for the animals involved in the experiment.
The correct answer is C.
Euthanizing animals in research is allowed if the scientific value of the research is sufficient to justify this practice. Answer A is therefore incorrect, and answer C is preferable to answer B. Further, the fact that a person is qualified to work with animals does not justify the use of lethality in research (answer D); further justification is needed.
Your client is agitated and discusses his plan to kill his wife and then himself. Your clinical judgment, based on your knowledge of your client, is that your best course of action in reducing the risk of harm is to maintain confidentiality and work with your client in the session to minimize the danger of your client acting on his plan. Your response to the situation is:
Select one:
A.
Illegal in all states, due to the Tarasoff ruling.
B.
Illegal in some states.
C.
Ethical only if you are correct and your client does not go through with the plan.
D.
Unethical.
The correct answer is B.
On the issue of legality, some but not all states require you to break confidentiality and warn authorities and the potential victim in this case. Remember that Tarasoff is case law, not state law; case law does not automatically translate into state law. Whether this action is ethical is subject to debate. However, the ethics of a response is based on the principles involved rather than the outcome.
The main goal of the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act is:
Select one:
A.
To ensure fair assessment of disabled children.
B.
To educate teachers about child development and disabilities.
C.
To provide disabled children with free and appropriate public education.
D.
To place disabled children in special education classes.
The correct answer is C.
As it describes the act’s main goal. Answer A is incorrect: assessment is a key component of the act, but it is not its main goal. Answer B is incorrect, as it is not part of the act. Answer D is incorrect, as it is incomplete; it describes an outcome of IDEA. Children with disabilities may or may not be determined to need placement in special education classes.
A four-year-old boy has been diagnosed with gender dysphoria. By adulthood, he will most likely:
Select one:
A.
Continue to meet diagnostic criteria for gender dysphoria and identify as heterosexual.
B.
Continue to meet diagnostic criteria for gender dysphoria and identify as homosexual or bisexual.
C.
No longer meet criteria for gender dysphoria and identify as heterosexual.
D.
No longer meet criteria for gender dysphoria and identify as homosexual or bisexual.
The correct answer is D.
At least three-fourths of young boys with diagnoses of gender dysphoria no longer meet criteria as adolescents or adults, while they do show homosexual or bisexual orientations. The other responses are inaccurate.
Several predictors are used to predict scores on a criterion. At the bivariate level, each predictor is highly correlated to the criterion and each predictor is highly correlated to each other. When all the predictors are used simultaneously to predict the criterion, only one of the predictors is still significant. What is responsible for this result?
Select one:
A.
Multicollinearity
B.
Criterion contamination
C.
Criterion deficiency
D.
Unreliable criterion
The correct answer is A.
Multicollinearity occurs when predictors are highly correlated, which results in predictors having little ability to predict the criterion. Criterion contamination (answer B) occurs when something unrelated to the criterion is affecting the criterion. Criterion deficiency (answer C) occurs when an important part of the construct is not being measured by the criterion. An unreliable criterion (answer D) would decrease the validity coefficient; however, in this case, the problem is the highly correlated predictors rather than the reliability of the criterion.
Rational Emotive Therapy was founded by:
Select one:
A.
Albert Ellis.
B.
Albert Bandura.
C.
Carl Rogers.
D.
Fritz Pearls.
The correct answer is A.
Albert Ellis (A) founded and developed Rational Emotive Therapy. Albert Bandura (B) is better known for social learning theories, Carl Rogers (C) with Rogerian or client-centered unconditional positive regard, and Fritz Perls (D) with Gestalt therapy.
The differences between shift work, compressed workweek, telecommuting, and flexible work schedules do NOT necessarily include:
Select one:
A.
A reduction in the actual hours worked.
B.
Changes in the level of productivity.
C.
Health issues.
D.
Transportation issues.
The correct answer is A.
This is the only factor that is not automatically affected by the type of work schedule and arrangement, among the ones listed above. Compressed workweek is a type of work schedule in which employees work a 40-hour workweek in fewer than five days with more than eight hours per day. Telecommuting is a work arrangement in which employees can work from home from anywhere they are. Flexible work schedules allow employees control over the time they report to work and the time they leave work on a given day (Landy & Conte, 2004). Answer B is incorrect, as productivity may be affected by the type of shift worked. Answer C is also incorrect, as health issues are a common consequence of shift work. Answer D is also incorrect, as telecommuting does not involve transportation; hence, this is a difference seen in at least one of the types of work schedules listed above.
Dr. Gleams practices Rational Emotive Therapy. A 26-year-old female patient comes to his private office and complains about unhappiness at work, in her primary relationship, and with her body weight. Dr. Gleams is likely to engage these problems by tapping into all of the following, except
Select one:
A.
replacing irrational thoughts with rational ones.
B.
gaining insight into the impact of early childhood experiences on current functioning.
C.
disputing long-held beliefs about the self and circumstances.
D.
identifying irrational beliefs that perpetuate emotional disturbance.
The correct answer is B.
Rational Emotive Therapy is focused on changing and disputing current irrational thinking patterns. While the self-indoctrination is rooted in childhood experiences, it does not focus on building insight into those experiences.
Avoidant personality disorder has a __________ correlation with extraversion and a __________ correlation with neuroticism.
Select one:
A.
positive; positive
B.
positive; negative
C.
negative; negative
D.
negative; positive
The correct answer is D.
Avoidant personality disorder is negatively linked with extraversion and positively linked with neuroticism. Answers A, B, and C are incorrect responses, portraying inaccurate correlations between avoidant personality disorder and extraversion and neuroticism.
Which group represents approximately 6% of the HIV-infected diagnoses?
Select one:
A.
African Americans
B.
Intravenous drug users
C.
Males
D.
Homosexuals/bisexuals
The correct answer is B.
Intravenous drug users represent Six percent (2,392) of HIV diagnoses in the United States were attributed to injection drug use (IDU) and another 3% (1,202) to male-to-male sexual contact and IDU (CDC, 2015).
Which of the following is the most accurate statement regarding the efficacy of Critical Incident Stress Debriefing?
Select one:
A.
Its efficacy has been proven unequivocally.
B.
It has proven to be ineffective.
C.
There are some studies showing efficacy and some that suggest that it is ineffective.
D.
There are no studies on the effectiveness of this technique.
The correct answer is C.
Debate continues over the effectiveness of Critical Incident Stress Debriefing, with some studies having found it effective and others ineffective. Efficacy has not been proven unequivocally (answer A) and the programs have not been found to be entirely ineffective (answer B), and there are definitely studies on efficacy (answer D).
Erikson’s second stage, autonomy vs. shame and doubt, emphasizes the importance of relationships with caregivers during the toddler years. According to Erikson, what would be the outcome of having failed to master this stage’s developmental task?
Select one:
A.
Perceiving the world as an unsafe place
B.
Inability to rely on others
C.
Pervasive dependency upon others
D.
Inadequate sense of agency and capability
The correct answer is C.
The developmental task of the autonomy vs. shame and doubt stage is to develop a good sense of self among others, including gaining a healthy sense of autonomy as well as of interdependence. Failure to master this stage would lead to a pervasive dependency upon others. Answer A is more related to the failure to master Erikson’s first stage, trust vs. mistrust. Answer B is incorrect, as it illustrates the opposite dynamic. Answer D is incorrect, as it refers to Erikson’s fourth stage, industry vs. inferiority. This stage emphasizes relationships with teachers and peers in school and other community figures. Successful resolution of the crisis between feeling competent and worrying about inadequacy leads to a sense of one’s self as a capable individual. Failure at resolution leads to paralyzing low self-esteem.
Post-concussion syndrome can be diagnosed without:
Select one:
A.
Insomnia or hypersomnia.
B.
Imaging evidence positive for brain insult.
C.
Impaired memory or attention.
D.
Irritability or aggression.
The correct answer is B.
PCS can be diagnosed even when brain imaging (e.g., MRI, CT) results do not show physical evidence of insult. PCS presents as a constellation of symptoms following a concussion. Cognitive symptoms associated with PCS often include memory and attention/concentration impairments, fatigue, insomnia, headaches, vertigo, dizziness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Anxiety, depression, subtle changes in personality, and apathy can also co-occur with PCS, as can visual and hearing impairments and anosmia (a loss of one’s sense of smell).
Overall, the number of psychological disorders that are diagnosed during adolescence are:
Select one:
A.
More than those found in adults.
B.
Less than those found in adults.
C.
About the same as those found in adults.
D.
Less than those found in children.
The correct answer is C.
Significant mental health problems are found in only about 20% of adolescents. In addition, these problems may have started before adolescence. Overall, the numbers of psychological disorders that are diagnosed in adolescence are similar to the numbers found in adulthood, making answers A, B, and D incorrect.
According to the buffering hypothesis, which of the following is most important?
Select one:
A.
The quantity of buffers
B.
The quality of buffers
C.
The frequency of exposure to buffers
D.
The intensity of the buffers
The correct answer is B.
For a buffer to be effective, it has been shown that the quality of the buffer is more important than the quantity of buffers. This means that people need to perceive the relationship as adequate for it to fulfill the purpose of buffering during times of stress. No matter how many relationships one has, if none are perceived as qualitatively adequate, relationships will not serve as a buffer during stress. Hence, answers A, C, and D are incorrect, as the quantity of relationships, the frequency of contact, and their intensity are not important for a buffer to be effective.
The purpose of the second stage in administering the Stanford-Binet is to:
Select one:
A.
Select the starting point on the test.
B.
Assess fluid intelligence.
C.
Complete all appropriate subtests.
D.
Establish a basal level and a ceiling level for each test.
The correct answer is D.
Response A is associated with the first stage of administration. B is an important aspect of intelligence, but the second stage is designed to identify basal and ceiling levels. C is incorrect, as all subtests are used.
When a participant tries to understand the purpose of the study and adjusts his or her behavior accordingly, which of the following has occurred?
Select one:
A.
Regression
B.
Selection
C.
Maturation
D.
Demand characteristics
The correct answer is D.
Demand characteristics refer to participants changing their behavior when they believe they have deciphered the purpose of the study. Regression (answer A) refers to participants who have extreme scores tending to score closer to the mean on subsequent assessment. Maturation (answer C) refers to changes in participants that have occurred naturally. Selection (answer B) refers to participants in groups being dissimilar.
