TEST MODE - Test 1 Flashcards
A psychologist has just started seeing a third grader who has been exhibiting behavioral problems at school and home. The psychologist suspects that the child has dyslexia but has had no training in the evaluation of this disorder. The child’s parents want the psychologist to conduct the evaluation because of the good rapport she has with the child. The psychologist should:
Select one:
A.
conduct the evaluation only after informing the parents of their options and obtaining an informed consent.
B.
conduct the evaluation only after attending a workshop on Learning Disorders.
C.
conduct the evaluation only if available assessment instruments do not require extensive training to administer.
D.
refer the child to a colleague who has experience in Learning Disorders for the evaluation.
This question addresses the issue of competence. The Ethics Code clearly prohibits psychologists from working outside their scope of the competence and expertise.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Although psychologists can (and should) add to their skills, doing so requires special care so that the welfare of a client is not jeopardized. Mislabeling a child as learning disabled (or not learning disabled) can have very serious and long-lasting consequences, so this response is the best of those given.
The correct answer is: refer the child to a colleague who has experience in Learning Disorders for the evaluation.
__________ is a cause of delirium and may result from kidney or liver failure or from diabetes mellitus, hypo- or hyperthyroidism, vitamin deficiency, electrolyte imbalance, severe dehydration, or a number of other conditions.
Select one:
a.
Gerstmann’s syndrome
b.
Cushing’s syndrome
c.
Wernicke’s encephalopathy
d.
Metabolic encephalopathy
If you are unfamiliar with the disorder being asked about by this question, you may have been able to identify the correct answer through the process of elimination.
a. Incorrect - Gerstmann’s syndrome is caused by damage to certain areas of the parietal lobe and involves a combination of finger agnosia, right-left confusion, agraphia, and acalculia.
b. Incorrect - Cushing’s syndrome is caused by excessively high levels of cortisol resulting from the use of glucocorticoids or an abnormality in the pituitary or adrenal gland.
c. Incorrect - Wernicke’s encephalopathy is caused by lesions in certain areas of the brain~ especially the thalamus and mammillary bodies~ often as the result of a thiamine deficiency.
d. CORRECT Metabolic encephalopathy is a state of global brain dysfunction. Its symptoms range from impairments in executive functioning to agitated delirium to coma.
The correct answer is: Metabolic encephalopathy
Job applicants complain that the biographical information blank (BIB) they are required to complete includes many items that seem entirely unrelated to their ability to do the job and argue that these items are an invasion of privacy. The concerns of these applicants suggest that the BIB lacks:
Select one:
A.
face validity.
B.
construct validity.
C.
social validity.
D.
predictive validity.
The BIB items do not seem to be measuring what they are intended to measure - in other words, they are lacking “face validity.”
a. CORRECT Face validity is not a type of validity in the same sense that content, construct, and criterion-related validity are (it is not empirically- or theoretically-determined). However, face validity is often desirable because it maximizes the motivation and interest of applicants or examinees.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: face validity.
__________ is used to determine the minimum sample size needed for a study, given a particular level of significance, expected effect size, and other factors.
Select one:
A.
Power analysis
B.
Meta-analysis
C.
Incremental analysis
D.
Sensitivity analysis
Knowing that statistical power is affected by sample size would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
a. CORRECT A common use of power analysis is to determine the minimum sample size needed, given the desired level of power, type of statistical test, level of significance, and expected effect size.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: Power analysis
Research about job satisfaction has most consistently found that:
Select one:
A.
job satisfaction is inversely related to turnover and absenteeism.
B.
job satisfaction is inversely related to age.
C.
job satisfaction is inversely related to education level.
D.
job satisfaction levels are the same for males and females.
There has been a myriad of research investigating the relationship between job satisfaction and various measures of job performance. The most consistent finding is that job satisfaction is inversely related to absenteeism and turnover.
a. CORRECT Job satisfaction has consistently been found to be inversely correlated with both turnover and absenteeism (although it appears to have a slightly stronger relationship with turnover than absenteeism).
b. Incorrect Conversely, job satisfaction tends to increase with age.
c. Incorrect Conversely, individuals with higher levels of education tend to have higher levels of satisfaction.
d. Incorrect The results of research investigating the differences between males and females have been inconsistent. Some studies indicate that males tend to be more satisfied, while others indicate that females are more satisfied.
The correct answer is: job satisfaction is inversely related to turnover and absenteeism.
Group decisions tend to be better than decisions made by individuals when:
Select one:
A.
the task requires a high degree of creativity.
B.
the group is highly cohesive.
C.
the group consists of members with complementary expertise.
D.
the group has a directive leader.
The research has shown that the effectiveness of group decision-making is affected by a number of factors (e.g., groupthink, the risky shift).
a. Incorrect Individual decisions tend to be better than group decisions for tasks that require a high degree of creativity.
b. Incorrect A high degree of cohesiveness can lead to groupthink.
c. CORRECT Not surprisingly, groups are more effective when members have different skills and knowledge.
d. Incorrect A directive leader can lead to groupthink.
The correct answer is: the group consists of members with complementary expertise.
The concepts of “job relatedness” and “business necessity” are associated with which of the following?
Select one:
A.
adverse impact
B.
truth in testing
C.
comparable worth
D.
personnel training
Job relatedness and business necessity are conditions that may permit the use of a selection procedure that is having an adverse impact for members of a protected group.
a. CORRECT If a selection or other employment procedure is found to be having adverse impact, the employer may be able to continue using the procedure if he/she can demonstrate that it is job related and a business necessity. See, e.g., the Americans with Disabilities Act and the Federal Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: adverse impact
The Spearman-Brown formula is used to:
Select one:
A.
estimate the effects of increasing or decreasing the length of a test on its reliability coefficient.
B.
estimate what a predictors validity coefficient would be if the predictor and/or criterion were perfectly reliable.
C.
determine the range within which an examinees true score is likely to fall given his/her obtained score.
D.
determine if adding or subtracting a predictor to the multiple regression equation will have a significant effect on its predictive accuracy.
For the exam, you want to have the Spearman-Brown formula linked to reliability.
a. CORRECT The Spearman-Brown formula is also known as the Spearman-Brown prophecy formula and is used to estimate the effects of adding or subtracting items to a test on its reliability coefficient. For example, if a 50-item test has a reliability coefficient of .80, the Spearman-Brown formula could be used to estimate what the test’s reliability coefficient would be if the number of items was doubled.
b. Incorrect This describes the correction for attenuation formula.
c. Incorrect The standard error of measurement is used to construct a confidence interval around an examinee’s obtained test score. The confidence interval indicates the range within which the examinees true score is likely to fall.
d. Incorrect The coefficient of multiple determination provides this information.
The correct answer is: estimate the effects of increasing or decreasing the length of a test on its reliability coefficient.
Based on the empirical research, the best conclusion that can be drawn about the effects of maternal depression on infant development is that children of depressed mothers:
Select one:
A.
are at no higher risk for future psychopathology than children whose mothers are not depressed.
B.
are at higher risk for future psychopathology although symptoms are not usually first apparent until adolescence.
C.
are at higher risk for emotional and behavioral problems during the preschool years but are essentially indistinguishable from children whose mothers are not depressed in subsequent years.
D.
are at higher risk for psychopathology and may show symptoms of disturbance as early as three months of age.
Children of depressed mothers are at higher risk for emotional and behavioral problems, although the exact nature and severity of the problems depend on several factors including early mother-child interactions.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT There is some evidence that signs of distress (e.g., elevated heart rate and greater right frontal lobe EEG asymmetry) are apparent by the time the infant is three months of age.
The correct answer is: are at higher risk for psychopathology and may show symptoms of disturbance as early as three months of age.
An insurance company is conducting a peer review and requests that you provide it with information about a current client whose fee is being paid by the company. In this situation, you are best advised to:
Select one:
A.
provide the company with the requested information only if the client is willing for you to do so.
B.
provide the company with only that information you believe to be pertinent to the review.
C.
provide the company with relevant information after ensuring that it is aware of the need to maintain confidentiality.
D.
provide the company with the requested information because the client waived confidentiality when he/she signed the insurance form.
Although this issue is not explicitly addressed in the Ethics Code, the “spirit” of the Code dictates that confidential information be treated with care.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT When a client’s therapy fee has been paid by an insurance company, it is likely that the client has already signed a waiver on his/her insurance form. In addition, therapists are expected to cooperate with peer reviews. Therefore, this is the best response. A therapist would be required to provide information to the insurance company as requested, but the therapist should release only relevant information and should take steps to ensure that confidentiality will be safeguarded.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: provide the company with relevant information after ensuring that it is aware of the need to maintain confidentiality.
An “extinction burst” occurs when:
Select one:
A.
a primary reinforcer loses its reinforcing value.
B.
a previously non-reinforced behavior is reinforced.
C.
reinforcement for a previously reinforced behavior is removed.
D.
an extinguished behavior is accidentally reinforced.
In operant conditioning (which is apparently being asked about in this question since all of the answers mention reinforcement), extinction occurs when reinforcement for a previously reinforced behavior is removed.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT This is the only response that describes the extinction process. The term “extinction burst” refers to the temporary increase in behavior that occurs when reinforcement is removed from a previously reinforced behavior.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: reinforcement for a previously reinforced behavior is removed.
Following a head injury, Jake J., age 24, exhibits a period of post-traumatic amnesia that persists for nearly one hour. Two days later, Jake is still experiencing a number of symptoms including headache, fatigue, irritability, visual disturbances, and impaired attention. Jake does not have a history of a prior head injury or psychiatric problems. In terms of prognosis, Jake can expect:
Select one:
A.
recovery of all neuropsychological functions and resolution of most or all symptoms within two to four weeks.
B.
recovery of most or all neuropsychological functions and resolution of most or all symptoms within three to six months.
C.
significant impairment of some neuropsychological functions and the presence of other symptoms for at least nine to 12 months.
D.
significant impairment of most neuropsychological functions and the presence of other symptoms for an indefinite period of time.
Post-traumatic amnesia (PTA) refers to the anterograde amnesia that occurs following a traumatic brain injury. The duration of PTA is considered to be a good predictor of outcomes following a brain injury, although the outcomes actually vary considerably from individual to individual.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Several categorization systems are available for defining severity of a traumatic brain injury based on the duration of the PTA. However, a frequently used system identifies a duration of less than one hour as a mild brain injury. In terms of recovery, most individuals experiencing a mild brain injury recover cognitive and behavioral functions and experience a resolution of other symptoms within 3 to 6 months, although a minority of individuals continues to experience some symptoms for an extended period of time. Factors associated with an increased risk for long-term impairment include female gender, previous head trauma, and history of a neurological or psychiatric problem. See, e.g., J. Ponsford et al., Factors influencing outcome following mild traumatic brain injury in adults, Journal of the International Neuropsychological Society, 6(5), 568-579, 2000.
c. Incorrect People who experience a mild head injury usually return to premorbid (or near premorbid) levels of functioning within several months. However, those who experience a moderate or severe injury are likely to experience long-term symptoms and impairments in multiple areas of functioning. Note that the research on outcomes following traumatic brain injury has produced inconsistent results and, consequently, there is only limited agreement among the experts regarding the outcomes associated with all severity levels of brain injury.
d. Incorrect See explanation for responses b and c.
The correct answer is: recovery of most or all neuropsychological functions and resolution of most or all symptoms within three to six months.
When treating a couple in which the husband has physically abused his wife and it has been clearly determined that the abuse can be classified as instrumental (vs. expressive), the best initial approach is:
Select one:
A.
to ensure that the husband and wife are physically separated and to provide them with separate therapy.
B.
to have the husband and wife sign a “no-violence contract” and to provide them with separate therapy.
C.
to have the husband and wife sign a “no-violence contract” and to provide them with conjoint therapy.
D.
to provide combined individual and group therapy for both the husband and wife.
The key to this question is noting that the abuse is instrumental rather then expressive and knowing that therapists often recommend conjoint treatment only in the latter case (see, e.g., R. N. Mack, Spouse Abuse: A Dyadic Approach, in G. R. Weeks, Treating couples, New York: Bruner/Mazel, 1989).
a. CORRECT In cases of instrumental abuse (which is brutal, dangerous, and committed with little provocation), the woman’s physical safety is the priority. Therefore, the best course of action is to make sure the husband and wife are physically separated and provided with separate therapy.
b. Incorrect See explanations for responses a and c.
c. Incorrect This is usually the treatment-of-choice in cases of expressive abuse, in which the abuse is related to the emotional life of the couple and occurs within the context of escalating conflict.
d. Incorrect See explanations for responses a and c.
The correct answer is: to ensure that the husband and wife are physically separated and to provide them with separate therapy.
From the perspective of the situational leadership model, a “telling” leadership style is most effective when an employee is:
Select one:
A.
low in ability and low in willingness.
B.
low in ability and high in willingness.
C.
high in ability and low in willingness.
D.
high in ability and high in willingness.
The situational leadership model distinguishes between four leadership styles and proposes that the optimal style depends on the employee’s maturity level, which is determined by a combination of his/her ability and willingness to take responsibility.
a. CORRECT Hersey and Blanchard recommend a telling style when the employee is low in both ability and willingness. Even if you’re not familiar with the theory, it makes sense that this type of employee would need to be told what to do.
b. Incorrect A selling style is best for this type of employee.
c. Incorrect A participating style is best for employees high in ability and low in willingness.
d. Incorrect A delegating style is optimal for this type of employee.
The correct answer is: low in ability and low in willingness.
Prospective memory:
Select one:
A.
is an aspect of working memory.
B.
contains memories of one’s personal experiences.
C.
refers to “remembering to remember.”
D.
refers to “knowing about knowing.”
Prospective memory refers to the ability to “remember to remember” (e.g., to remember an appointment in the future).
a. Incorrect Working memory is an aspect of short-term memory.
b. Incorrect This refers to episodic memory.
c. CORRECT Remembering that you have a doctor’s appointment on Thursday at 3 p.m. depends on prospective memory.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: refers to “remembering to remember.”
According to Atkinson, Morten, and Sue’s (1993) Racial/Cultural Identity Development Model, the final stage of identity development is characterized by:
Select one:
A.
assimilating into the dominant culture.
B.
developing a self-identity that is consistent with one’s racial/cultural background.
C.
adopting an identity that is independent of the minority and majority cultures.
D.
adopting a multicultural perspective.
Atkinson et al.’s (1993) model distinguishes between five stages: conformity, dissonance, resistance-immersion, introspection, and integrative awareness.
a. Incorrect Atkinson et al. do not view assimilation as the outcome of successful identity development.
b. Incorrect Although successful identity development does involve developing an ethnic identity, that identity is not necessarily reflective of the individual’s cultural/racial background in all ways. Instead, the individual chooses which elements he/she wants to incorporate into his/her identity.
c. Incorrect Atkinson’s model does not propose that being “culture-free” is an optimal state.
d. CORRECT Like most cultural/racial identity development models, the Atkinson et al. model describes the final stage as one of integration - i.e., of accepting one’s own minority culture while also recognizing and incorporating the positive contributions of the majority culture. They refer to this as adopting a multicultural perspective.
The correct answer is: adopting a multicultural perspective.
As described by Piaget, a tertiary circular reaction occurs when an infant:
Select one:
A.
repeats an interesting or enjoyable action that involves his/her own body.
B.
deliberately varies an action to discover or observe the consequences of that action.
C.
attempts to reproduce a pleasurable action that involves another person or an object.
D.
combines cognitive schemes into more complex action sequences.
Piaget defined circular reactions as the behaviors that are responsible for the development and modification of cognitive schemas during the sensorimotor stage. He described these reactions as involving six substages.
a. Incorrect This answer describes primary circular actions (substage 2).
b. CORRECT This answer accurately describes a tertiary circular reaction which can be viewed as “miniature experiments” that involve engaging in specific actions to observe their consequences (substage 5).
c. Incorrect This answer describes secondary circular actions (substage 3).
d. Incorrect This answer describes coordinated secondary circular reactions (substage 4).
The correct answer is: deliberately varies an action to discover or observe the consequences of that action.
Herzberg’s two-factor theory classifies job security, pay and benefits, relationships with co-workers, working conditions, and company policies as:
Select one:
A.
quality factors.
B.
quantity factors.
C.
motivator factors.
D.
hygiene factors.
The “two factors” in Herzberg’s two-factor theory are hygiene factors and motivator factors. According to Herzberg, hygiene factors contribute to dissatisfaction when they’re inadequate but do not contribute to satisfaction or motivation. In contrast, motivator factors do not contribute to dissatisfaction but contribute to satisfaction and motivation when they’re adequate.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT As described by Herzberg, hygiene factors include the factors listed in this question, while motivator factors include the nature of the work itself and opportunities for responsibility, achievement, and promotion.
The correct answer is: hygiene factors.
A psychologist who obtained a Ph.D. in organizational psychology wants to change her specialty to clinical psychology. To meet the requirements of APA’s guidelines regarding a change in specialty, the psychologist must:
Select one:
A.
complete an internship in clinical psychology under the supervision of a licensed clinical psychologist.
B.
complete appropriate doctoral-level classes and supervised post-doctoral training.
C.
obtain a second Ph.D. in clinical psychology from an accredited university or professional school.
D.
obtain appropriate supervision of her clinical practice.
This issue is addressed in the APA’s General Guidelines for Providers of Psychological Services and Specialty Guidelines for Clinical Psychologists.
a. Incorrect This would not be adequate.
b. CORRECT Section 1.7 of the Specialty Guidelines states that “professional psychologists who wish to qualify as clinical psychologists meet the same requirements with respect to subject matter and professional skills that apply to doctoral and postdoctoral education and training in clinical psychology.”
c. Incorrect This would not be sufficient.
d. Incorrect This would not be sufficient.
The correct answer is: complete appropriate doctoral-level classes and supervised post-doctoral training.
The Cattell-Horn-Carroll theory of cognitive abilities combines the Cattell-Horn theory of fluid intelligence and Carroll’s three stratum theory of intelligence and distinguishes between ___ broad abilities and over ___ narrow abilities.
Select one:
A.
5; 25
B.
8; 40
C.
10; 70
D.
15; 90
The Cattell-Horn-Carroll (CHC) theory has influenced the development a several intelligence tests including the fifth edition of the Stanford-Binet.
a. Incorrect See explanation for answer c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for answer c.
c. CORRECT The CHC theory distinguishes between 10 broad cognitive abilities and over 70 narrow cognitive abilities, with each broad ability being composed of several related but distinct narrow abilities. The ten broad abilities are fluid intelligence, crystallized intelligence, quantitative knowledge, reading/writing ability, short-term memory, visual processing, auditory processing, long-term storage and retrieval, processing speed, and correct decision speed/reaction time.
d. Incorrect See explanation for answer c.
The correct answer is: 10; 70
You are a community psychologist working with two rival gangs. Which of the following represents the intervention that is most likely to decrease the hostility between members of the groups?
Select one:
A.
talk to them about the different theories of aggression so that they understand the processes behind their actions
B.
have the gangs organize a protest against police brutality in their neighborhood
C.
give each group false information about the other group
D.
give each group no information about the other group
This question is related to research about the reduction of conflict.
a. Incorrect Involved explanations of psychological processes have not been shown to be effective in reducing conflict; indeed, they are rarely, if ever, effective in any therapeutic setting.
b. CORRECT Conflict can sometimes be defused by de-emphasizing the current conflict and focusing on superordinate, common goals shared by the parties.
c. Incorrect Sometimes, persuasive information is effective in reducing conflict. However, this information should be factual, not false. In addition, the receiving party must be willing to consider the information; such willingness is unlikely with gang members.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: have the gangs organize a protest against police brutality in their neighborhood
John Conger (1956) offered the tension-reduction model of alcohol consumption as an explanation for: Select one:
A.
satiation.
B.
habituation.
C.
addiction.
D.
tolerance.
J. Conger’s model provides an explanation for alcohol addiction (Reinforcement theory and the dynamics of alcoholism, Quarterly Journal of Studies on Alcohol, 17, 296-305, 1956).
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Conger’s theory proposes that drinking is reinforced by its tension reduction properties (i.e., drinking recurs because it removes anxiety and stress) and that this effect eventually leads to addiction.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: addiction.
Except under certain conditions, psychologists are ethically obligated to maintain a client’s confidentiality. Potential limitations on confidentiality should be:
Select one:
A.
discussed at the onset of the professional relationship.
B.
discussed at the onset of the professional relationship and when feasible thereafter as needed.
C.
discussed and documented in writing as soon as feasible.
D.
discussed when the psychologist deems it to be appropriate.
None of the responses given are technically “wrong,” but only one reflects the actual language of the Ethics Code and, therefore, is the best answer.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT This is the language of Standard 4.02: Discussing the Limits of Confidentiality. Documenting the discussion in writing (response c) may be a good idea but is not required.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: discussed at the onset of the professional relationship and when feasible thereafter as needed.
Alcohol Withdrawal is characterized by:
Select one:
a.
dysphoric mood, vivid dreams, insomnia or hypersomnia, and increased appetite.
b.
hand tremor, insomnia, hallucinations, and seizures.
c.
incoordination, nystagmus, impaired memory, and mood lability.
d.
dysphoric mood, pupillary dilation, insomnia, and fever.
Answer B is correct: Alcohol Withdrawal is diagnosed in the presence of at least two characteristic symptoms within several hours to a few days following cessation or reduction of alcohol consumption, e.g., hand tremor; insomnia; transient illusions or hallucinations; and generalized tonic-clonic seizures.
Answer A: These symptoms are characteristic of Stimulant Withdrawal.
Answer C: These are symptoms of Alcohol Intoxication.
Answer D: These symptoms are associated with Opioid Withdrawal.
The correct answer is: hand tremor, insomnia, hallucinations, and seizures.
When a person with an optimistic attribution style does poorly on an exam in a class he ordinarily does well in, that person will most likely say which of the following? Select one:
A.
I didn’t study hard enough.
B.
I was unlucky.
C.
The teacher gave a very hard test this time.
D.
The teacher always grades on the curve.
According to Seligman’s (1990) theory of learned optimism, the attributions of optimistic people are just the opposite of those made by depressed and other pessimistic people.
a. Incorrect This is an internal attribution and is not consistent with Seligman’s theory.
b. Incorrect This isn’t as good of a response as response c.
c. CORRECT Of the responses given, this one fits best with Seligman’s theory which proposes that optimistic people tend to make external, specific, and unstable (temporary) attributions for negative events.
d. Incorrect This is a global (rather than specific) attribution.
The correct answer is: The teacher gave a very hard test this time.
Joshua is dissatisfied with the amount of his bonus and he believes his other co-workers received more than he did. This greatly angers him. Joshua is concerned with what type of justice?
Select one:
A.
Compensatory
B.
Procedural
C.
Corrective
D.
Distributive
The correct answer is D. In fairness research, there is a focus on what a person receives (distributive justice) and how perceived goods are allocated (procedural justice), and then there is the interpersonal treatment received by individuals as the justice is carried out. For the most part, organizational justice is concerned with the ways in which employees decide if they been treated fairly in their jobs and the conditions in which those determinations influence other work-related variables. Answer A is incorrect as compensatory justice tends to be more for criminal matters and how punishment is administered to the convict. Answer B is incorrect as procedural justice would have been in this case the amount of money that the company set aside for bonuses as opposed to how much each individual receives. Answer C is incorrect as this is a type of justice that has more to do with criminal punishment than social fairness.
The correct answer is: Distributive
Which of the following would NOT be useful for alleviating the psychotic symptoms associated with schizophrenia or other psychotic disorder?
Select one:
A.
risperidone (Risperdal)
B.
olanzapine (Zyprexa)
C.
chlorpromazine (Thorazine)
D.
carbamazepine (Tegretol)
To identify the correct response to this question, you need to know that, of the four drugs listed in the answers, only one is not an antipsychotic drug.
a. Incorrect Risperidone is an atypical antipsychotic drug.
b. Incorrect Olanzapine is also an atypical antipsychotic.
c. Incorrect Chlorpromazine is a traditional antipsychotic.
d. CORRECT Carbamazepine is an anticonvulsant drug that is also useful for treating Bipolar Disorder.
The correct answer is: carbamazepine (Tegretol)
Data published by Hans Eysenck in 1952:
Select one:
A.
confirmed the effectiveness of behavioral treatments for a variety of psychological disorders.
B.
confirmed the “Dodo bird” hypothesis, which predicts that various types of therapy are equally effective for a variety of psychological disorders.
C.
challenged the notion of “spontaneous remission.”
D.
challenged the effectiveness of conventional psychotherapeutic interventions.
Eysenck’s 1952 publication sparked research on psychotherapy outcomes.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect This sounds more like the Smith, Glass, and Miller (1980) meta-analysis, which found relatively few differences between various therapeutic approaches.
c. Incorrect This is just the opposite of what Eysenck concluded.
d. CORRECT Eysenck reported that 66% of patients in eclectic therapy and 44% in psychoanalytic psychotherapy improved versus 72% of those with similar problems who did not receive therapy.
The correct answer is: challenged the effectiveness of conventional psychotherapeutic interventions.
People using the ____________ heuristic base their judgments on resemblances and similarities.
Select one:
A.
availability
B.
representativeness
C.
simulation
D.
anchoring
Kahneman and Tversky (1984) identified the four heuristics (mental shortcuts) listed in the answers.
a. Incorrect The availability heuristic involves judging the likelihood or frequency of an event based on how easy it is to retrieve information relevant to the event from long-term memory.
b. CORRECT The representativeness heuristic involves judging the likelihood or frequency of an event based on the extent to which it resembles the “typical” case. (Even if you aren’t familiar with the representativeness heuristic, you may have been able to identify the correct answer to this question since things that resemble or are similar to members of a category can be viewed as being representative of that category.)
c. Incorrect The simulation heuristic involves judging the likelihood or frequency of an event based on how easy it is to mentally simulate (imagine) the event.
d. Incorrect The anchoring and adjustment heuristic involves judging the likelihood or frequency of an event by using an anchoring (starting) point and making adjustments up or down from that point.
The correct answer is: representativeness
An evaluation of a defendant’s competence in a criminal court case is conducted to determine his/her mental status:
Select one:
A.
at the time of the evaluation.
B.
at the time the crime was committed.
C.
at the time of the arrest.
D.
prior to committing the crime.
This question is apparently asking about competence to stand trial.
a. CORRECT A psychologist may be asked to evaluate a person’s current mental status to determine if he/she is competent to stand trial (i.e., is able to understand court procedures and the charge against him/her).
b. Incorrect A psychologist would determine the person’s status at the time of the crime in order to support the insanity defense.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: at the time of the evaluation.
Research investigating the effectiveness of training first-graders in the use of rehearsal strategies has found that:
Select one:
A.
these children learn to apply rehearsal to the current task but do not generalize this knowledge to other tasks.
B.
these children learn to apply rehearsal to the current task and often generalize this knowledge to other tasks.
C.
these children learn to apply rehearsal to the current task only when they anticipate external reinforcement for doing so.
D.
these children are unable to learn to apply rehearsal to the current or future tasks.
The studies have consistently shown that children do not spontaneously and consistently use rehearsal until about age 9 or 10.
a. CORRECT This is the result reported, for example, by T. J. Keeney et al. (Spontaneous and induced verbal rehearsal in a recall task, Child Development, 38, 953-966, 1967). The first-graders in their study could be taught to use rehearsal for a specific task; however, they did not generalize this knowledge to other tasks.
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: these children learn to apply rehearsal to the current task but do not generalize this knowledge to other tasks.
The three components of a needs assessment are:
Select one:
A.
microsystem, macrosystem, and exosystem.
B.
unfreezing, changing, refreezing.
C.
worker satisfaction, worker performance, and organizational effectiveness.
D.
organization analysis, task analysis, and person analysis.
A needs assessment is conducted in organizations to determine training needs.
a. Incorrect These are systems in Bronfenbrenner’s ecological model.
b. Incorrect These are the stages in Lewin’s model of planned change.
c. Incorrect These are not the components of a needs assessment.
d. CORRECT The systems approach to needs assessment involves three types of analysis - organization, task/job, and person.
The correct answer is: organization analysis, task analysis, and person analysis.
Caplan (1970) distinguished between four types of mental health consultation. Which of the following is an example of the type he labeled “consultee-centered case consultation”?
Select one:
A.
A consultant is hired by a colleague to resolve a diagnostic dilemma she is having with a current client.
B.
A consultant is hired by a school to help school administrators evaluate the effectiveness of an existing remedial program for at-risk students.
C.
A consultant monitors a support group for administrators to help them develop better interpersonal skills.
D.
A consultant helps a teacher acquire the behavior modification skills she needs to reduce disruptions in her classroom.
As its name implies, “consultee-centered case consultation” targets the consultee.
a. Incorrect This is an example of client-centered case consultation.
b. Incorrect This is an example of program-centered administrative consultation.
c. Incorrect This is an example of consultee-centered administrative consultation.
d. CORRECT In this situation, the consultant is helping the consultee improve her skills so that she is better able to deal with future problems in the classroom. The focus of the consultation is on the consultee rather than on particular individuals who the consultee will be in contact with.
The correct answer is: A consultant helps a teacher acquire the behavior modification skills she needs to reduce disruptions in her classroom.
Which aspect of long-term memory contains memories of one’s personal experiences?
Select one:
A.
procedural
B.
episodic
C.
semantic
D.
implicit
Long-term memory can be divided into two types - procedural and declarative - and declarative memory can be further divided into semantic and episodic memory.
a. Incorrect Procedural memory contains memories of skilled responses and actions (e.g., riding a bicycle).
b. CORRECT Episodic (autobiographical) memory consists of memories for personal events (e.g., first date, graduation from college).
c. Incorrect Semantic memory contains memories of general knowledge.
d. Incorrect Implicit memory refers to memories that are recalled without conscious effort.
The correct answer is: episodic
When working with a “split-brain” patient, you would notice that he or she has the most difficulty with regard to which of the following?
Select one:
A.
reflexive functions
B.
executive functions
C.
memory functions
D.
sensory functions
Split-brain patients have had their corpus callosum severed, usually as a treatment for severe epilepsy.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT A primary function of the corpus callosum is to transfer sensory (and some motor) information from one hemisphere to the other. When the corpus callosum is severed, messages from the right brain cannot be transferred to the left brain and vice versa, and this deficit is most apparent in tasks involving sensory input.
The correct answer is: sensory functions
The participants in a research study you are conducting at a university are all students in an introductory psychology class. As part of the study, you administer a test to each student that has been found to be an excellent predictor of suicide risk. You discover that one of the student’s scores on the test indicate that he is at high risk for suicide. Your best initial course of action would be to:
Select one:
A.
contact the student’s instructor immediately.
B.
contact the student to suggest that he see a therapist at the counseling center.
C.
discuss your concerns with the student immediately.
D.
re-administer the test to the student to confirm its results.
Immediate action is the appropriate response to situations involving a high risk for suicide.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect Referral to a therapist might be the next step after talking with the student.
c. CORRECT Of the responses given, this is the best one. It implies an immediate action that would help determine if the student is actually at risk.
d. Incorrect There’s no information in this question suggesting that the test needs to be re-administered.
The correct answer is: discuss your concerns with the student immediately.
Multiple regression analysis has several advantages over the analysis of variance including all of the following except:
Select one:
A.
it eliminates the need for a two-stage analysis involving a global significance test that is followed, when appropriate, by “fine grain” significance tests.
B.
it is not limited to categorical (or categorized continuous) variables.
C.
it enables the researcher to determine if entering additional independent variables affects the dependent variable beyond the effects found for previously entered variables.
D.
it allows the researcher to estimate the effects of the independent variables on the dependent variable with the effects of measurement error removed.
At least one reason for R. A. Fisher’s development of the ANOVA was to have a mathematically simpler alternative to multiple regression for analyzing the effects of qualitative variables. However, with the availability of computers, the need for the ANOVA has been questioned.
a. Incorrect This is an advantage of multiple regression. All of the information is provided with a single analysis as opposed to the two-step process required when using the ANOVA.
b. Incorrect This is also an advantage of multiple regression. It can be used for independent variables measured on any scale of measurement and doesn’t require that continuous variables be categorized (which has the effect of reducing the usefulness of the data).
c. Incorrect The “stepwise” method of multiple regression does have this advantage.
d. CORRECT This is not an advantage of either multiple regression or the ANOVA.
The correct answer is: it allows the researcher to estimate the effects of the independent variables on the dependent variable with the effects of measurement error removed.
Anomia is a likely outcome of damage to which of the following areas of the brain?
Select one:
A.
somatosensory cortex
B.
mammillary bodies
C.
Wernickes area
D.
Papezs circuit
Knowing that anomia is a symptom of some types of aphasia and/or that it involves an inability to name familiar objects and people would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
a. Incorrect The somatosensory cortex is located in the parietal lobe and is involved in pressure, temperature, pain, and proprioception.
b. Incorrect The mammillary bodies are connected to the hypothalamus and play a role in learning and memory.
c. CORRECT Wernicke’s area is a major language area in the brain, and damage causes deficits in language comprehension and production, including an inability to name familiar objects and people.
d. Incorrect Papez’s circuit was proposed as a brain mechanism (circuit) that mediates the experience and expression of emotion.
The correct answer is: Wernickes area
For most patients with Parkinson’s Disease, depression:
Select one:
A.
is only slightly more common than it is in the general population and seems to be a reaction to the diagnosis.
B.
appears to be a reaction to the diagnosis and usually first appears when motor symptoms begin to interfere with daily functioning.
C.
appears to be endogenous to the disorder and may precede motor symptoms, especially in younger patients.
D.
appears to be endogenous to the disorder and first appears in the later stages as cognitive impairments increase.
The debate over the relationship between Parkinson’s Disease and depression has not been entirely resolved. However, there seems to be more evidence that it is endogenous to the disorder rather than simply a reaction to it.
a. Incorrect Depression is more common in those with Parkinson’s Disease than in the general population and, as noted above, it is currently believed to be endogenous to the disorder.
b. Incorrect As noted, depression is probably not just a reaction to the disorder.
c. CORRECT One source of evidence for the endogenous nature of depression in Parkinson’s Disease is the occurrence of a prodromal “parkinsonian personality,” which is characterized by melancholia, introversion, and pessimism. The early appearance of depressive symptoms is most common in younger patients and those with a family history of the disorder.
d. Incorrect As noted above, depression is an early appearing symptom in some patients.
The correct answer is: appears to be endogenous to the disorder and may precede motor symptoms, especially in younger patients.
Jung’s theory differs from Freud’s in all of the following ways except:
Select one:
A.
Jung’s perspective reflects a more optimistic view of human nature.
B.
Jung promoted a more active interchange between analyst and patient.
C.
Jung conceptualized the psyche as continuing to evolve throughout the lifespan.
D.
Jung replaced the concept of the ego with the concepts of the self and the ideal-self.
Jung’s analytic psychology differs from Freud’s psychotherapy in a number of important ways. For Jung, for example, the basic elements of the psyche are the conscious (which includes the ego) and the unconscious (which includes a personal and collective component).
a. Incorrect This is true about Jung’s perspective. He described people as being more creative and goal-directed than Freud.
b. Incorrect This also describe’s Jung’s approach.
c. Incorrect Jung placed a great deal of emphasis on changes that occur during adulthood, especially in midlife.
d. CORRECT The ego is an important part of Jung’s theory, and, although he did make use of the notion of the “self,” he considered the self to be the archetype for the ego.
The correct answer is: Jung replaced the concept of the ego with the concepts of the self and the ideal-self.
The review process used by managed care organizations (MCOs) to ensure that providers meet and maintain the requirements to participate in a health plan is referred to as:
Select one:
A.
concurrent review.
B.
credentialing.
C.
quality management.
D.
clinical audit.
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the managed care terms listed in the answers to this question.
a. IConcurrent review is the term used for utilization reviews conducted during the course of treatment.
b. CORRECT Credentialing is a formal process for determining whether or not a provider meets and maintains qualification standards and provides some legal protection for the MCO.
c. Quality management is another name for quality assurance.
d. Clinical audit is a method of quality assurance.
The correct answer is: credentialing.
As described by __________, internalization involves an internal reconstruction of an external operation.
Select one:
A.
Piaget
B.
Erikson
C.
Vygotsky
D.
Elkind
This is a difficult question, but you may have been able to identify the correct answer if you remembered that Vygotsky viewed cognitive development as being initially interpersonal (which refers to the child’s interactions with others) and then intrapersonal (which occurs when the child internalizes what he or she has learned).
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Internalization is a key concept in Vygotsky’s theory of cognitive development. For example, he described language development as a process involving a transition from social (external) speech to private (self-directed) speech to internal speech. In other words, speech first serves a social function (social speech); is then used to direct, plan, and evaluate one’s own actions (private speech); and then acts as a tool for thinking (internal speech).
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: Vygotsky
Kandel and Schwartz (1982) studied habituation in Aplysia, an invertebrate marine animal, in order to obtain information on:
Select one:
A.
neuronal processes underlying memory.
B.
environmental factors that impact sensory memory.
C.
neuronal processes underlying sexual behavior.
D.
environmental factors that affect goal-directed behavior.
The term “habituation” refers to a decrease in response strength that occurs as the result of repeated stimulation. It is considered the simplest type of learning.
a. CORRECT Kandel and Schwartz’s research with Aplysia indicated that habituation is due to a decrease in the release of a neurotransmitter.
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: neuronal processes underlying memory.
Your new client, a college freshman, says she sometimes has an "out of body" experience in which she is watching what she is doing from outside herself. She describes a recent experience in which she was in her dorm room writing a paper when she realized she couldn't feel her fingers on the computer keyboard or her feet on the floor and then suddenly felt like she was watching herself from the ceiling. The client says that these episodes make her feel like she's "going crazy" and are interfering with her ability to attend class and complete course assignments. The client's symptoms are most suggestive of a DSM-5 diagnosis of: Select one:
A.
Delusional Disorder
B.
Dissociative Fugue
C.
Depersonalization/Derealization Disorder
D.
Depersonalization Disorder
Answer C is correct: Depersonalization/Derealization Disorder is characterized by recurrent episodes of depersonalization (a sense of unreality, detachment, or being an outside observer of one’s thoughts, feelings, etc.) and/or derealization (a sense of unreality or detachment involving one’s surroundings) that cause clinically significant distress or impaired functioning.
Answer A: Delusional Disorder involves one or more delusions that last at least one month. As defined in the DSM-5, a delusion is “a false belief based on incorrect inference about external reality that is firmly held despite what almost everyone else believes and despite what constitutes incontrovertible and obvious proof or evidence to the contrary” (p. 819).
Answer B: A dissociative fugue is characterized by apparently purposeful travel with an inability to recall some or all of one’s past and is included in the DSM-5 as a specifier for Dissociative Amnesia.
Answer D: Depersonalization Disorder is not a DSM-5 diagnosis.
The correct answer is: Depersonalization/Derealization Disorder
In comparison to conventional (traditional) neuroleptics, risperidone (Risperdal), an atypical neuroleptic:
Select one:
A.
is more likely to produce tardive dyskinesia.
B.
is less likely to produce tardive dyskinesia.
C.
is equally likely to produce tardive dyskinesia.
D.
is less useful for alleviating tardive dyskinesia.
One of the advantages of many of the newer (atypical) neuroleptics is that they are associated with fewer negative side effects than the traditional neuroleptics are.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Although long-term use of risperidone can produce tardive dyskinesia, the risk for this side effect is much lower for this drug than for the traditional neuroleptics.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: is less likely to produce tardive dyskinesia.
You are beginning a therapy group for individuals dealing with mid-life issues. From your experiences with new groups, you know that, during the beginning stages of group therapy:
Select one:
A.
group members will talk through the therapist and seemingly ignore one another.
B.
group members will interact with one another and more or less ignore the therapist.
C.
group members will act quite hostile toward the therapist and resist his/her suggestions.
D.
cliques will begin to develop within the group.
In the beginning of group therapy, clients rely more on the therapist. Later, as the group members become closer, group cohesion develops and members interact more with one another.
a. CORRECT Initially, group members ignore each other and direct all of their comments and questions to the therapist.
b. Incorrect As response a suggests, interactions between group members will be sparse at the onset of therapy.
c. Incorrect Although this may be true in some cases, most group members perceive the therapist as their ally.
d. Incorrect Cliques begin to develop, if at all, after the beginning stages of group therapy.
The correct answer is: group members will talk through the therapist and seemingly ignore one another.
Which of the following intermittent schedules of reinforcement produces the highest rate of responding and the greatest resistance to extinction?
Select one:
A.
fixed interval
B.
fixed ratio
C.
variable interval
D.
variable ratio
Knowing the schedule of reinforcement of slot machines may have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT When using a variable ratio schedule, a reinforcer is provided after a variable number of responses. Of the four intermittent schedules, it is associated with the highest rate of responding and the greatest resistance to extinction once the reinforcer is no longer provided.
The correct answer is: variable ratio
Cataplexy is often triggered by which of the following?
Select one:
A.
smells associated with a traumatic event
B.
physical fatigue
C.
strong emotions
D.
stimuli associated with a feared object or event
Cataplexy is a brief episode of a sudden loss of muscle tone that is associated with narcolepsy. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Cataplexy occurs in the majority of individuals who have narcolepsy and is triggered by strong emotions (most often positive emotions such as joking and laughing but also by anger).
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: strong emotions
The best conclusion that can be drawn from research on the effects of examiner race on the cognitive test performance of African American children is that:
Select one:
A.
White examiners have significant adverse effects on the test performance of these children.
B.
White examiners often have positive effects on the test performance of these children.
C.
White examiners may have a positive, a negative, or no effect on the test performance of these children.
D.
White examiners have a negative effect on the test performance of these children only when the examiners are unable to adopt a “colorblind” perspective.
This is a controversial issues in the literature, and the results of the research have not been consistent.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT This is probably the best conclusion that can be drawn on the basis of the inconsistent research results. The inconsistency has led some experts to conclude that other factors (e.g., rapport and attitudes) are more important, although “colorblindness” has not been identified as one of these factors.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: White examiners may have a positive, a negative, or no effect on the test performance of these children.
To use scores obtained on the eight subscales of the Parental Activities Scale to predict scores on the five subscales of the Child Adjustment Profile, you would use:
Select one:
A.
multiple regression.
B.
canonical correlation.
C.
multiple discriminant analysis.
D.
cluster analysis
In this situation, multiple X scores will be used to predict multiple Y scores.
a. Incorrect Multiple regression is used when scores on two or more X variables will be used to predict a single Y score.
b. CORRECT Canonical correlation is an extension of multiple regression that is appropriate when there is more than one Y variable.
c. Incorrect Multiple discriminant analysis is used when the Y variable is nominal and two or more X variables will be used to place the examinee into a category on Y.
d. Incorrect Cluster analysis is used to identify or confirm homogeneous subgroups.
The correct answer is: canonical correlation.
In Ainsworth’s “strange situation,” a one-year old shows little distress when her mother leaves the room and ignores her when she returns. Most likely, this mother is:
Select one:
A.
neglectful or physically abusive.
B.
depressed.
C.
impatient or overstimulating.
D.
a single parent.
The child in the question is exhibiting insecure/avoidant attachment.
a. Incorrect Abuse and neglect are most associated with the disorganized/disoriented attachment pattern.
b. Incorrect Maternal depression may lead to insecure attachment, but you can’t draw this conclusion from the information given (i.e., the mother may or may not be depressed).
c. CORRECT Research by Ainsworth and her colleagues found that babies exhibiting insecure/avoidant attachment often have mothers who tend to be either very impatient and nonresponsive or, alternatively, overstimulating.
d. Incorrect Single parenthood has not been linked to the insecure/avoidant attachment pattern.
The correct answer is: impatient or overstimulating.
For the treatment of hypertension, biofeedback:
Select one:
A.
is generally ineffective.
B.
is effective only when combined with medication.
C.
is about equally as effective as relaxation training or self-monitoring of blood pressure.
D.
is more effective than relaxation training or self-monitoring of blood pressure.
The research on biofeedback is far from consistent, but biofeedback does appear to have positive effects for several problems including hypertension.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT The research has shown that, for most disorders that it has been applied to, biofeedback has beneficial effects, but these effects do not exceed those associated with other treatments. For hypertension, biofeedback seems to be about as effective as relaxation training and self-monitoring.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: is about equally as effective as relaxation training or self-monitoring of blood pressure.
To ensure that a work sample has adequate content validity, you would:
Select one:
A.
make sure that the skills required by the work sample represent the skill domain required by the job.
B.
make sure that performance on the work sample accurately distinguishes between successful and unsuccessful workers.
C.
determine if performance on the work sample corresponds to current on-the-job performance.
D.
determine if performance on the work sample accurately predicts on-the-job performance in the future.
A measure has content validity when its items represent the content (or behavior) domain the test was designed to measure.
a. CORRECT This is an accurate description of content validity.
b. Incorrect This technique would be used to establish construct or criterion-related validity.
c. Incorrect This sounds like concurrent validity (a type of criterion-related validity).
d. Incorrect This sounds like predictive validity (another type of criterion-related validity).
The correct answer is: make sure that the skills required by the work sample represent the skill domain required by the job.
Which of the following individuals is at highest risk for migraine headache?
Select one:
A.
a 35 year old female who is perfectionistic and ambitious
B.
a 60 year old female who is sensitive and conscientious
C.
a 35 year old male who is competitive and stressed
D.
a 50 year old male who exercises regularly and drinks alcohol
Migraine headaches are more common in females and have been linked with certain personality characteristics.
a. CORRECT The risk for migraine is higher for females than males; the onset of migraines is between puberty and mid-life; and personality characteristics that have been linked to migraines include perfectionism, neatness, restraint, and ambitiousness.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: a 35 year old female who is perfectionistic and ambitious
The Wonderlic Personnel Test-Revised (WPT-R) is a(n):
Select one:
A.
brief test of mental ability for adults.
B.
measure of global and facet job satisfaction.
C.
test of English-language proficiency.
D.
apparatus test of psychomotor skills.
Many of the licensing exam questions on specific tests will (like this one) require you to be familiar with the test’s purpose.
a. CORRECT In addition to knowing that the Wonderlic is a 12-minute test of mental ability for adults, you want to know that it is used to assist employers with hiring decisions.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: brief test of mental ability for adults.
Manuel is a 21-year old college student who moved to the United States from Mexico with his family when he was four years old. Manuel has many Anglo friends at school and usually dates Anglo women, but, at home, he speaks Spanish and participates in the cultural traditions practiced by his family. When asked about his ethnic identity, Manuel says, “I’m American and Hispanic, but I guess I consider myself mostly Hispanic.” Manuel is best described as:
Select one:
A.
fused.
B.
separated.
C.
assimilated.
D.
bicultural.
Different experts have labeled the different levels or categories of acculturation somewhat differently, but most distinguish between at least four levels - assimilated, integrated (bicultural), separated, and marginal.
a. Incorrect The term “fused” refers to the melting pot position in which the two separate cultures cannot be distinguished.
b. Incorrect Separation occurs when the individual is immersed in his/her own ethnic culture and is not part of the larger (dominant) culture.
c. Incorrect An assimilated individual has given up his/her own ethnic culture and identifies with the larger (dominant) culture.
d. CORRECT The bicultural individual has adopted both cultures. Biculturalism can be alternating (as in Manuel’s case) or blended.
The correct answer is: bicultural.
During the postpartum period, approximately _____ of women experience postpartum depression.
Select one:
A.
1 to 2%
B.
10 to 15%
C.
25 to 30%
D.
45 to 50%
Postpartum depression is a mood disorder that begins within several weeks following delivery.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Ten to 15% is the rate most often reported in the literature for postpartum depression in the United States. Factors associated with an increased risk for postpartum depression include having difficulty getting pregnant, having twins or triplets, having premature labor and delivery, experiencing pregnancy and birth complications, and having a baby during adolescence. See, e.g., CDC, Prevalence of self-reported postpartum depression - 17 states, 2004-2005, Morbidity and Mortality Weekly Report, 57(14), 361-366, 2008.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: 10 to 15%
As described in the DSM-5, _______________ is the likely diagnosis for an adult client who has experienced a depressed mood, a poor appetite, and impaired concentration for most of the day on most days for over two years.
Select one:
A.
Dysthymic Disorder
B.
Mood Disorder NOS
C.
Persistent Depressive Disorder
D.
Unspecified Depressive Disorder
Answer C is correct: The client’s symptoms are consistent with a diagnosis of Persistent Depressive Disorder.
Answer A: Dysthymic Disorder is not a DSM-5 diagnosis.
Answer B: Mood Disorder NOS is not a DSM-5 diagnostic category.
Answer D: Unspecified Depressive Disorder applies when a clinician does not want to indicate the reason why a client’s symptoms do not meet the criteria for a specific depressive disorder.
The correct answer is: Persistent Depressive Disorder
In the context of Porter and Lawler’s (1968) expectancy theory, __________ refers to the belief that meeting job performance goals will lead to certain outcomes.
Select one:
A.
valence
B.
instrumentality
C.
vigor
D.
expectancy
Expectancy theory predicts that motivation is a function of three beliefs: expectancy, instrumentality, and valence. For additional information on expectancy theory, see the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Instrumentality refers to the belief that good performance will be rewarded.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: instrumentality
Don Jackson, Murray Bowen, and a number of pioneers in the field of family therapy had a psychodynamic background, which they incorporated, to some degree, in their approach to family therapy. However, it is the psychoanalyst _______________ who is generally identified as the first to formally adapt and apply psychoanalytic principles to the understanding of the family.
Select one:
A.
Nathan Ackerman
B.
Carl Whitaker
C.
Richard Stuart
D.
Robert Liberman
Nathan Ackerman, a psychoanalyst and child psychiatrist, began investigating the role of family dynamics in the 1930s; and, in the 1940s, he started developing clinical techniques that applied psychoanalytic principles to the treatment of preschool children and their families.
a. CORRECT Ackerman is considered a pioneer in the assessment and treatment of families and the first to integrate the psychoanalytic approach with a systems approach in assessing and treating families.
b. Incorrect Whitaker applied experiential (humanistic) principles to family therapy.
c. Incorrect Stuart was an early contributor to behavioral family therapy.
d. Incorrect Liberman is a major figure in behavioral family therapy.
The correct answer is: Nathan Ackerman
You receive a court order requesting that you provide information about a 19-year-old client who is currently the defendant in a court case. You discuss the request with the client but he refuses to sign a waiver of confidentiality. You should:
Select one:
A.
refuse to provide the court with the requested information until you obtain a waiver from the client.
B.
refuse to provide the court with the requested information until you obtain a waiver from the client’s attorney or legal guardian.
C.
provide the court only with information that you believe will not be harmful to the client.
D.
provide the court with the requested information.
The key term in this question is “court-ordered.”
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Therapist-client privilege implies that, in most circumstances, a psychologist does not reveal confidential client information in the context of a legal proceeding without the consent of the client or his/her legal representative. There are exceptions to privilege, however, and a court order is one of these exceptions. (If the information is damaging to the client, the normal procedure is to request that it be read by the judge in camera - i.e., in the privacy of the judge’s chambers.)
The correct answer is: provide the court with the requested information.
The most prominent risk factor for drug abuse in adolescence is:
Select one:
A.
parent and family member drug use.
B.
availability of drugs.
C.
prior use of gateway drugs.
D.
depression.
Not surprisingly, past behavior is the best predictor of future behavior.
a. Incorrect Although drug use by parents or other family members is a good predictor of adolescent drug abuse, it’s not as accurate as prior drug use.
b. Incorrect This also is not as strong of a predictor as prior drug use.
c. CORRECT Use of tobacco, alcohol, and/or marijuana (which are referred to as “gateway” drugs in the literature) is the single-best predictor of illicit drug use and drug abuse by adolescents. See M. A. Pentz, Primary prevention of adolescent drug abuse, in C. B. Fisher and R. M. Lerner (Eds.), Applied developmental psychology, McGraw-Hill, New York, 1994.
d. Incorrect Depression is not as predictive as previous drug use.
The correct answer is: prior use of gateway drugs.
If an unconditioned stimulus is repeatedly presented just prior to a conditioned stimulus in order to replace an undesirable response with a more desirable one, which of the following will most likely occur?
Select one:
A.
The target response will eventually be eliminated.
B.
The target response will be suppressed (but not eliminated).
C.
The target response will paradoxically increase.
D.
The target behavior will not change in frequency.
A careful reading of this question reveals that it is describing “backwards conditioning.”
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Backwards conditioning rarely works: For classical conditioning to be effective, the conditioned stimulus must be presented before the unconditioned stimulus.
The correct answer is: The target behavior will not change in frequency.
During her third therapy session, Mrs. Maitalain, age 32, reveals that her husband has “forced her” to have sex with him two or three times in the last six months. She says that she usually agrees to have sexual relations with him but sometimes doesn’t feel like it because she’s too tired; and, in those circumstances, he sometimes uses threats and physical violence to force her to do so. Her therapist should:
Select one:
A.
inform Mrs. Maitalain that he is legally required to report these incidents to the appropriate authorities in order to protect her from future harm.
B.
make a report to the appropriate authorities only if he believes that Mrs. Maitalain is at high risk for future harm from her husband.
C.
maintain Mrs. Maitalains confidentiality but discuss her options in this situation.
D.
encourage Mrs. Maitalain to bring her husband to the next therapy session.
In most situations, psychologists must maintain the confidentiality of their clients unless the client waives his/her right to confidentiality or a breach of confidentiality is mandated by law.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Psychologists ordinarily maintain the confidentiality of a client who is the victim of spousal or partner abuse, and the primary intervention in this situation would be to ensure the safety of Mrs. Maitalain, which would include discussing her options. An exception is when there is reason to suspect that children are also at risk. Also note that some jurisdictions mandate reporting of certain types of abuse for “vulnerable adults,” but there is no information given in this question that indicates that Mrs. Maitalain is a vulnerable adult.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: maintain Mrs. Maitalains confidentiality but discuss her options in this situation.
You go out for a drink with a psychologist who is a co-worker of yours at a mental health clinic. After several beers, he accidentally lets it slip that he is currently having a sexual relationship with one of his clients. Your best course of action would be to:
Select one:
A.
discuss the matter with the clinic director as soon as possible.
B.
discuss the issue with the psychologist when he has not been drinking.
C.
make an appointment with the client to discuss the issue with her.
D.
file a formal complaint against the psychologist with the Ethics Committee.
As noted in the Ethics Code, any attempt at resolving a potential ethical violation by a psychologist must include consideration of the client’s confidentiality.
a. Incorrect Although this may be appropriate, note that this answer does not mention the issue of confidentiality. Consequently, it is not the best answer of those given.
b. CORRECT This is the best response since it is most consistent with Standard 1.04 (Informal Resolution of Ethical Violations) of the Ethics Code and does not violate the client’s confidentiality.
c. Incorrect This would not be an appropriate course of action since there is nothing in the question to imply that you already have a therapeutic relationship with the client.
d. Incorrect See explanations for responses a and b.
The correct answer is: discuss the issue with the psychologist when he has not been drinking.
Bateson, Jackson, Haley, and Weakland (1956) identified double-bind communication as an etiological factor for which of the following disorders?
Select one:
A.
Anorexia
B.
Schizophrenia
C.
Antisocial Personality Disorder
D.
Narcissistic Personality Disorder
As described by Bateson et al. (1956), double-bind communication occurs when a family member receives contradictory injunctions (messages) from another family member and is unable to comment on those injunctions or escape from them.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT The title of Bateson et al.’s 1956 paper was Toward a Theory of Schizophrenia. Their double-bind hypothesis provided an alternative to psychodynamic theory regarding the development of this disorder and proposed that the recipient of double-bind communication learns to escape the discomfort it creates by responding with similarly distorted and contradictory messages. Eventually, the individual becomes unable to understand the true meaning of his/her own messages and those of others.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: Schizophrenia
Dr. Jay tells his client, Sandy Y., to smoke cigarettes only at 10:00 a.m., 1:00 p.m., and 8:00 p.m., to smoke only while sitting in particular chairs at home and in the office, and to smoke only a certain brand of cigarettes (one that Sandy doesn’t particularly like). Dr. Jay is using the behavioral technique known as:
Select one:
A.
self-monitoring.
B.
stimulus control.
C.
overcorrection.
D.
response cost.
A number of operant techniques are used to reduce the frequency and/or strength of a behavior. One of them, stimulus control, involves stimulus discrimination, or learning to respond differently in the presence of different stimuli. When a behavior is under the control of stimuli in this manner, the behavior is said to be under stimulus control.
a. Incorrect Self-monitoring involves having a client record information about the frequency and conditions of a target behavior. For Sandy Y., self-monitoring might be initially used (i.e, she might record information about where and when she smokes) in order to determine what kind of program would be most effective for reducing her smoking.
b. CORRECT Sandy Y. has been instructed to limit (control) the number and kind of stimuli that are associated with cigarette smoking. By doing so, smoking will become associated with (under the control of) a restricted number of stimuli.
c. Incorrect Overcorrection involves applying a penalty following an undesirable behavior and then having the individual practice more appropriate behaviors in an exaggerated fashion. It is most useful for the treatment of socially inappropriate and self-injurious behaviors.
d. Incorrect Response cost involves the removal of a specific positive reinforcement each time a behavior is performed. If response cost were to be used with Sandy Y., she might have to give up an hour of watching television each time she smokes.
The correct answer is: stimulus control.
Your research study involves assessing the effects of two independent variables on three dependent variables. In this situation, you would choose to conduct a MANOVA to analyze the data you collect rather than separate factorial ANOVAs in order to:
Select one:
A.
maximize experimental variance.
B.
control an extraneous variable.
C.
increase statistical power.
D.
control the experimentwise error rate.
The multivariate analysis of variance (MANOVA) is used to simultaneously assess the effects of one or more independent variables on two or more dependent variables.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT The more statistical comparisons made within a research study, the greater the likelihood of making a Type I error. By using the MANOVA to simultaneously assess the effects of the independent variable(s) on the dependent variables, the fewer the total number of statistical comparisons, and the lower the probability of making a Type I error. (The word “error” in the term experimentwise error rate refers to a Type I error.)
The correct answer is: control the experimentwise error rate.
A strategic family therapist is working with a family in which the husband and wife have avoided their own conflicts by focusing their attention on the problems of their 9-year old son. The therapist in this situation is most likely to:
Select one:
A.
educate the parents about “triangulation.”
B.
obtain a detailed family history from the husband and wife to identify the pattern of interactions in their families of origin.
C.
give the husband and wife a homework assignment designed to foster recognition of the conflicts that exist between them.
D.
use “circular questions” to help family members gain insight into each other’s perspectives.
As its name implies, strategic family therapy involves the use of “strategies.”
a. Incorrect This is not characteristic of strategic family therapy.
b. Incorrect This is not characteristic of strategic family therapy.
c. CORRECT Of the responses given, this one is the best example of the techniques used by a strategic family therapist. The therapist is assigning the couple a task that will help them face their own conflicts.
d. Incorrect This is also not typical of strategic family therapy.
The correct answer is: give the husband and wife a homework assignment designed to foster recognition of the conflicts that exist between them.
The Examination for Professional Practice in Psychology (EPPP) is best described as:
Select one:
A.
a measure of basic knowledge of psychology.
B.
a predictor of job proficiency.
C.
an aptitude test.
D.
a way to protect the public from incompetent psychologists.
The licensing exam measures knowledge of several areas in the field of psychology.
a. CORRECT The EPPP is a measure of knowledge that candidates seeking licensure should have.
b. Incorrect This would be nice, but the test has not been validated as a measure of job proficiency.
c. Incorrect This is not an accurate description of the licensing exam.
d. Incorrect This describes licensure but not the licensing exam.
The correct answer is: a measure of basic knowledge of psychology.
Restlessness, psychomotor agitation, flushed face, diuresis, rambling speech, and muscle twitching are most suggestive of which of the following?
Select one:
A.
Alcohol Withdrawal
B.
Caffeine Intoxication
C.
Cocaine Intoxication
D.
Hyperthyroidism
It is sometimes difficult to distinguish between substance-induced disorders and medical conditions.
a. Incorrect Alcohol Withdrawal is characterized by tremor, nausea and vomiting, autonomic hyperactivity, depressed mood and irritability, transient illusions and hallucinations, and insomnia.
b. CORRECT The symptoms listed in the question are characteristic of Caffeine Intoxication.
c. Incorrect Cocaine Intoxication is marked by euphoria, grandiosity, hypervigilance, impaired judgment, rambling and incoherent speech, perspiration, chills, and visual or tactile hallucinations.
d. Incorrect Hyperthyroidism, an endocrine disorder, produces weight loss, increased appetite, intolerance to heat, tremors, and rapid heart rate.
The correct answer is: Caffeine Intoxication
For Yalom (1985), in group therapy,\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the analogue of the client-psychotherapist relationship in individual therapy and is a key factor in therapy outcome. Select one:
A.
cohesiveness
B.
family re-enactment
C.
universality
D.
identification
Answer A is correct. If you think about Yalom’s initial stages in group therapy, you might recall that it is the development of cohesiveness that moves the group forward into the working stage. Although Yalom believes that group therapy provides a number of curative factors, he emphasizes the importance of group cohesiveness and describes it as the analogue to the therapist-client relationship in individual therapy.
The correct answer is: cohesiveness
A number of researchers have attempted to determine the conditions associated with positive outcomes for children who were “at risk” at birth and during early infancy. Their studies suggest that children who recover from early deficiencies:
Select one:
A.
have higher-than-average levels of intelligence.
B.
exhibit good social responsiveness during infancy.
C.
are placed in special education classes on entering school.
D.
have mothers who do not work.
One of the most commonly-cited studies on the outcomes for at-risk children is the longitudinal study by E. Werner and R. Smith (Vulnerable but invincible, New York, McGraw-Hill, 1982). That study and others have identified several factors that predict positive outcomes for high risk (vulnerable) children.
a. Incorrect While significantly lower-than-average IQs are associated with a poor outcome, many children with average IQs have a positive outcome.
b. CORRECT Children with positive outcomes tend to be described as very active and socially responsive during infancy, and many studies have found that a positive outcome is likely to the extent that the child is able to successfully elicit attention and appropriate care from his/her caretakers.
c. Incorrect Learning disabilities (with or without special education) are associated with poorer outcomes.
d. Incorrect Many of the mothers in the Werner and Smith study worked outside the home. However, this did not seem to have a negative effect since the children often had close relationships with their grandmothers and/or siblings who acted as caretakers.
The correct answer is: exhibit good social responsiveness during infancy.
Murphy, DeBernardo, and Shoemaker’s (1998) survey of psychologists about the effects of managed care on their professional practice found that the most frequently cited negative effect was:
Select one:
A.
increased demands due to utilization review.
B.
some panels being closed to psychologists.
C.
income decline due to decreased volume of patients.
D.
increased need for supervision.
This question is referring to a survey of APA Division 42 members [M. J. Murphy, C. R., DeBernardo, & W. E. Shoemaker, Impact of managed care on independent practice and professional ethics: A survey of independent practitioners, Professional Psychology: Research and Practice, 29(1), 43-51, 1998]. The results of that survey are described in the Ethical Manual in the written study materials.
a. CORRECT Increased demand due to utilization review was the most frequently cited negative effect, with 87% of respondents referring to the increase in paperwork and 83% referring to the increase in phone contacts with third-party payors.
b. Incorrect Thirty-eight percent of respondents cited some panels being closed to psychologists.
c. Incorrect Forty percent of respondents cited a decline in income due to a decrease in the volume of patients.
d. Incorrect Increased need for supervision was not one of the effects cited by respondents.
The correct answer is: increased demands due to utilization review.
Dr. Dither is hired by the court to conduct an evaluation of a family as part of a child protection matter. Based on Dr. Dither’s evaluation and other evidence, the court determines that the child can remain at home with his family who will be provided with supervision and counseling. Six months after the case is heard in court, Dr. Dither is contacted by the mother who says she would like to begin therapy with him for issues unrelated to the child protection matter. Dr. Dither should:
Select one:
A.
agree to see the woman in therapy since the child protection matter has been resolved.
B.
agree to see the woman in therapy only if her problem is, in fact, unrelated to the child protection matter.
C.
agree to see the woman in therapy since his familiarity with her situation will be an advantage.
D.
refer the woman to a colleague.
In most situations, multiple relationships are to be avoided.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT This answer is most consistent with ethical guidelines that require psychologists to avoid multiple relationships. For example, Guideline 7 of the APA’s Guidelines for Child Custody Evaluations in Family Law Proceedings identifies providing psychotherapy to prior child custody examinees as a multiple relationship that should be avoided.
The correct answer is: refer the woman to a colleague.
A 23-year old client of yours is currently the defendant in a court case. The client’s attorney contacts you, requesting that you provide him with some information about the client from your files. The information will be helpful in preparing the client’s defense. You:
Select one:
A.
release the information since, to do so, is in the “best interests of the client.”
B.
release the information because privilege is waived in this situation.
C.
release only the information you believe is relevant to the case.
D.
discuss the release with the client before taking any additional action.
The release of confidential client information ordinarily requires a waiver from the client.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Of the responses given, this is the best one. Privilege may or may not be waived in this situation and, even if it is, you should discuss the release of confidential information (even to the client’s attorney) with the client and, in most cases, obtain a waiver.
The correct answer is: discuss the release with the client before taking any additional action.
The three overlapping stages of Meichenbaum and Jaremko’s (1982) stress inoculation training are:
Select one:
A.
formulation, problem focus, and termination.
B.
self-monitoring, self-evaluation, and self-reinforcement.
C.
cognitive modeling, overt instruction, and covert instruction.
D.
conceptualization, skills acquisition, and application.
Stress inoculation training was designed to help people cope more effectively with stress by increasing their coping skills.
a. Incorrect These are not the three stages of stress inoculation training.
b. Incorrect These are the three targets of Rehm’s self-control therapy.
c. Incorrect These are steps in Meichenbaum’s self-instructional training.
d. CORRECT Unfortunately, the names given to the three stages vary somewhat in the literature, so you need to be flexible when looking for the correct answer to a question on this technique. The first stage of stress inoculation training is ordinarily referred to as the conceptualization, education, or cognitive phase; the second stage as the skills application or training phase or the skills acquisition and rehearsal phase; and the third phase as the application or application and follow-through phase.
The correct answer is: conceptualization, skills acquisition, and application.
During the sixth week of the semester, students in an introductory psychology class meet on a Saturday morning to discuss their class project. In the first meeting, a couple of the students say they think the instructor is boring and a "bad" teacher. The other students say they disagree and that he "isn't so bad." At the end of their meeting, however, one of the students says, "Let's take a vote - how many of you agree that our instructor is one of the worst teachers you've ever had?" and every student raises his or her hand. The students' agreement about the instructor's lack of ability is an example of which of the following? Select one:
A.
social facilitation
B.
group polarization
C.
the fundamental attribution bias
D.
negative framing
In this situation, the evaluation of the instructor has become more extreme for some group members as a result of their participation in the group.
a. Incorrect Social facilitation occurs when performance on a task is improved as the result of the presence of other people.
b. CORRECT Group polarization refers to the tendency of groups to make more extreme decisions than individual group members would make alone. Of the responses given, group polarization best “fits” the situation described in this question.
c. Incorrect The fundamental attribution bias refers to the tendency to make dispositional attributions when judging the behavior of others.
d. Incorrect Negative framing refers to presenting a problem to a person in negative terms.
The correct answer is: group polarization
Interoceptive exposure involves:
Select one:
A.
exposure in imagination to objects or situations that evoke anxiety.
B.
exposure to bodily sensations associated with anxiety reactions.
C.
prolonged continuous exposure to a feared stimulus in vivo.
D.
graded (graduated) exposure to a feared stimulus first in imagination, then in vivo.
Interoceptive exposure has been found useful for reducing anxiety associated with panic attacks, PTSD, and other anxiety-related disorders.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Interoceptive exposure involves exposing the individual to internal bodily sensations (e.g., elevated heart rate, hyperventilation) associated with a panic attack or other anxiety response by having him/her inhale carbon dioxide, spin in a chair, etc.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: exposure to bodily sensations associated with anxiety reactions.
A researcher would use the Solomon four-group design to:
Select one:
A.
reduce practice effects.
B.
eliminate demand characteristics.
C.
evaluate the effects of pretesting.
D.
determine if there are any selection biases.
The Solomon four-group design combines the pretest-posttest control group design with the posttest only control group design.
a Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT The purpose of Solomon four-group design is to evaluate the effects of pretesting on a study’s internal and external validity.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: evaluate the effects of pretesting.
In mediation:
Select one:
A.
the mediator considers the preferences of all involved parties but his/her decision or problem solution is binding.
B.
the mediator makes a formal recommendation following a review of the facts, but the recommendation may or may not be accepted by the involved parties.
C.
the mediator facilitates the flow of information between the involved parties and helps them progress toward an acceptable compromise.
D.
the mediator provides the “final vote” that is needed to break a deadlock between the involved parties.
Mediation is often distinguished from fact-finding and arbitration.
a. Incorrect This sounds more like arbitration.
b. Incorrect This sounds a more like fact-finding than mediation.
c. CORRECT In mediation, a neutral third party (the mediator) uses various tactics to facilitate voluntary agreement between disputants. Mediators can make recommendations, but they have no formal power and cannot impose their solution or decision.
d. Incorrect This does not describe the role of a mediator.
The correct answer is: the mediator facilitates the flow of information between the involved parties and helps them progress toward an acceptable compromise.
Research on bystander apathy (Latane and Darley, 1968) found that a victim is most likely to obtain help from a bystander when there is:
Select one:
A.
only one bystander.
B.
between three and six bystanders.
C.
between seven and 10 bystanders.
D.
more than 12 bystanders.
A number of factors influence whether bystanders will assist the apparent victim of an accident, crime, or other emergency situation including the number of bystanders.
a. CORRECT The research has found that bystanders are less likely to offer help when in the presence of others than when alone and that the greater the number of bystanders, the less likely anyone will offer assistance.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: only one bystander.
L-dopa acts as a:
Select one:
A.
dopamine agonist.
B.
dopamine antagonist.
C.
dopamine neurotoxin.
D.
dopamine metabolite.
Some chemicals act as either agonists or antagonists in the brain.
a. CORRECT L-dopa is a precursor to dopamine, which means that it is transformed to dopamine in the brain. An agonist is a chemical that increases the amount or action of a neurotransmitter. Consequently, L-dopa is a dopamine agonist.
b. Incorrect An antagonist reduces the amount or availability of a neurotransmitter in the brain.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: dopamine agonist.
Wernicke’s area is located in the:
Select one:
A.
occipital lobe.
B.
temporal lobe.
C.
frontal lobe.
D.
parietal lobe.
Wernicke’s area is one of the primary speech areas.
a. Incorrect The occipital lobe mediates vision and visual perception.
b. CORRECT Wernicke’s area is located in the temporal lobe. Damage to this area causes Wernicke’s (receptive) aphasia.
c. Incorrect Broca’s area (the other primary speech area) is located in the frontal lobe.
d. Incorrect The parietal lobe contains the somatosensory cortex.
The correct answer is: temporal lobe.
Incentive/reward theory implies that which of the following is most important for ensuring worker motivation?
Select one:
A.
clearly tying rewards and punishments to effective performance
B.
making jobs interesting, attractive, and satisfying
C.
explicitly linking individual goals to organizational goals
D.
allowing workers to identify their preferred benefits
The implications of incentive/reward and other motivational theories are summarized by R. A. Katzell and D. E. Thompson in Work motivation: Theory and practice, American Psychologist, 45(2), 144-153, 1990.
a. Incorrect This is an implication of reinforcement theory, which is different from incentive/reward theory in its premises and implications.
b. CORRECT Incentive/reward theory is broader than reinforcement theory and emphasizes the features of the job and work environment that maximize worker interest and satisfaction.
c. Incorrect This is not a key implication of incentive/reward theory.
d. Incorrect This is also not an implication of incentive/reward theory.
The correct answer is: making jobs interesting, attractive, and satisfying
Although it is necessary to avoid stereotypes when providing services to members of ethnic and racial minority groups, some generalizations are often made. For example, when working with Hispanic and Hispanic American clients, it is important to keep in mind all of the following except:
Select one:
A.
different levels of acculturation among Hispanics can influence their perceptions of and responses to therapy.
B.
family therapy is often contraindicated because of the hierarchical nature of the Hispanic family.
C.
behavioral and other active, problem-oriented therapies are usually more acceptable than insight-oriented therapies.
D.
sex-roles tend to be demarcated clearly and are fairly rigid.
Some generalizations about the treatment of Hispanic and Hispanic American clients have been made in the literature, and you should be familiar with them for the licensing exam.
a. Incorrect This is true. There are different levels of acculturation not only between families but also within families (i.e., younger members of the family tend to be more acculturated to the white middle-class way of life).
b. CORRECT Although Hispanic families do tend to be hierarchical, this does not preclude them from family therapy. In fact, family therapy is often the treatment-of-choice because of the close relationships between family members.
c. Incorrect This is true not only for Hispanics but also members of other minority groups.
d. Incorrect This is also generally true.
The correct answer is: family therapy is often contraindicated because of the hierarchical nature of the Hispanic family.
A husband and wife avoid conflicts with one another by focusing their attention on helping their child overcome his difficulties at school. As described by Minuchin, this is an example of:
Select one:
A.
reframing.
B.
detouring.
C.
stable coalition.
D.
triangulation.
Minuchin distinguished between three types of rigid triads that help alleviate tension between two family members - detouring, stable coalition, and triangulation.
a. Incorrect Reframing is a paradoxical technique that involves providing an alternative meaning for a behavior so that it can be seen from a new perspective.
b. CORRECT Detouring occurs when parents avoid the tension between them by either blaming or overprotecting a child.
c. Incorrect A stable coalition occurs when a parent and child consistently “gang up” against the other parent.
d. Incorrect Triangulation occurs when both parents attempt to get the child to side with him or her.
The correct answer is: detouring.
The mother of a previous client of yours asks for a copy of her daughter’s records. The daughter saw you for two years and died three months ago when she was 38. You should:
Select one:
A.
send the woman a copy of the records as requested.
B.
send the woman only that information you believe will not be harmful.
C.
allow the woman to inspect the records in your office.
D.
not release any information without appropriate authorization.
Although the laws vary from jurisdiction to jurisdiction, in general, a psychologist should not release information after a client’s death without proper authorization (e.g., from the executor of the estate or the client’s legal representative).
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT This is the best course of action. See, e.g., R. I. Simon, Clinical psychiatry and the law, American Psychiatric Press, Washington, DC, 1992.
The correct answer is: not release any information without appropriate authorization.
Which of the following is a challenge that may arise from mandating Evidence Based Therapies?
Select one:
A.
The financial cost of training all of the individuals needed.
B.
The limited number of trainers with which to prepare those that are gaining skills in Evidence Based Therapies.
C.
The limited number of Evidence Based Trainings.
D.
The varied type and intensity of training that differs across regions.
The correct answer is D. Many community-based training initiatives in evidence-based psychosocial treatments have acquired significant support due to the evidence that some EBTs can be conveyed effectively into non-research and community-based settings. Although many large health organizations such as the National Health Service in the United Kingdom, the United States Department of Veterans Affairs and state mental health systems have mandated the implementation of EBTs, the intensity and type of training varies considerably across these fields. Answers A, B and C are incorrect as the main difficulty is the lack of consistency across the field, not the expense, number of trainers or lack of evidenced based therapies.
The correct answer is: The varied type and intensity of training that differs across regions.
A researcher uses a factorial ANOVA to statistically analyze the effects of four types of training strategies and three levels of self-efficacy on a measure of job performance. The results indicate that there are significant main effects of each independent variable and a significant interaction. The researcher will conclude that:
Select one:
A.
training is effective regardless of level of self-efficacy.
B.
each type of training is equally effective for each level of self-efficacy.
C.
the most effective type of training depends on level of self-efficacy.
D.
overall, training is effective only for people with a certain level of self-efficacy.
To answer this question correctly, you need to know that an interaction occurs when the effects of one independent variable differ for different levels of another independent variable.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Because the interaction is significant, this means that the effects of training type may differ for different levels of self-efficacy –e.g., training method #1 might be most effective for people with low self-efficacy, while training method #2 might be most effective for people with high self-efficacy.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: the most effective type of training depends on level of self-efficacy.
