Exam Simulation - Test 1 Flashcards
An assumption underlying Marlatt and Gordon’s (1985) relapse prevention (RP) model is that:
Select one:
A.
abstinence is the only goal since any drug use will trigger the “latent disease.”
B.
addictive behaviors are acquired through classical conditioning and, therefore, must be eliminated through the use of aversive conditioning and other classical conditioning techniques.
C.
addictive habit patterns can be changed through the application of self-management and self-control procedures.
D.
relapse is a result of a “treatment failure” rather than an “individual failure.”
Answer C is correct: Marlatt and Gordon’s relapse prevention model is based on social learning theory and views addictive behaviors as acquired (overlearned) habit patterns. The focus of their approach to relapse prevention is on acquiring the skills needed to reduce the risk for relapse.
Answer A: This is more consistent with the disease model of addiction.
Answer B: Although Marlatt and Gordon’s model recognizes the role of classical conditioning in the acquisition and maintenance of addictive behaviors, aversive conditioning is not a key relapse prevention technique.
Answer D: Relapse is not considered either a treatment or an individual failure but as a “transitional process” that may or may not be followed by a return to baseline levels of the target behavior.
The correct answer is: addictive habit patterns can be changed through the application of self-management and self-control procedures.
The magnitude of the standard error of means decreases when:
Select one:
A.
the sample size increases and the population standard deviation decreases.
B.
the sample size decreases and the population standard deviation increases.
C.
the number of samples increases and the population standard deviation decreases.
D.
the number of samples decreases and the population standard deviation increases.
Knowing the formula for the standard error of means would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question: The standard error of means is calculated by dividing the standard deviation of the population by the square root of the sample size.
a. CORRECT Decreasing the numerator (population standard deviation) and/or increasing the sample size would reduce the size of the standard error of means.
b. Incorrect This would increase the size of the standard error of means.
c. Incorrect It is the size of the sample, not the number of samples, that affects the magnitude of the standard error of means.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: the sample size increases and the population standard deviation decreases.
Older adults often experience an advanced sleep phase which means that they:
Select one:
A.
begin a sleep period with REM (versus non-REM) sleep.
B.
begin a sleep period with Stage 3 sleep.
C.
have trouble falling asleep at night and wake up later in the morning.
D.
get sleepier earlier in the evening and wake up earlier in the morning.
As noted in the Physiological Psychology and Psychopharmacology chapter of the written study materials, sleep patterns vary with age. For the exam, you want to be familiar with the patterns characteristic of infants and older adults.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Older adults experience an advanced sleep phase, which refers to a shift in the timing of sleep that involves getting sleepier earlier in the evening and waking up earlier in the morning.
The correct answer is: get sleepier earlier in the evening and wake up earlier in the morning.
Of the intermittent schedules of reinforcement, the variable ratio schedule produces the quickest acquisition of a behavior and the greatest resistance to extinction once reinforcement is terminated. This is because reinforcement is presented:
Select one:
A.
after a predictable number of responses.
B.
after an unpredictable number of responses.
C.
after a predictable interval of time.
D.
after an unpredictable interval of time.
Ratio schedules provide reinforcement after a prespecified number of responses, while interval schedules provide reinforcement after a prespecified period of time (as long as at least one response is made during that interval). Knowing this would have helped you choose the correct answer to this question.
a. Incorrect This describes a fixed ratio schedule.
b. CORRECT When using a variable ratio schedule, the number of responses required for reinforcement varies from trial to trial but, on the average, requires a specific number of responses. For example on a VR-10 schedule, the individual might be reinforced for 8 responses, then 12 responses, and then 10 responses. It is apparently this unpredictability that accounts for the effectiveness of this schedule in establishing and maintaining behaviors.
c. Incorrect This describes a fixed interval schedule.
d. Incorrect This describes a variable interval schedule.
The correct answer is: after an unpredictable number of responses.
A meta-analysis of the research conducted by Roberts, Walton, and Viechtbauer (2006) found that scores on which of the following personality traits continue to increase into later adulthood?
Select one:
A.
agreeableness and conscientiousness
B.
neuroticism and social vitality
C.
social vitality and agreeableness
D.
openness to experience and conscientiousness
The results of Roberts, Walton, and Viechtbauer’s (2006) meta-analysis is summarized in the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials.
a. CORRECT These investigators found that agreeableness, conscientiousness, social dominance, and emotional stability continue to increase over the lifespan.
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: agreeableness and conscientiousness
Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder is more common in males than in females among those aged:
Select one:
A.
8 to 12.
B.
22 to 26.
C.
38 to 42.
D.
52 to 56.
Answer A is correct: The rates of OCD for males and females are about equal among adolescents and adults. However, because the onset of the disorder is earlier for males than for females, OCD is more prevalent among male children than female children.
Answers B, C, and D: See explanation for answer A.
The correct answer is: 8 to 12.
Children ordinarily first show signs that they have lost their ability to distinguish between speech sounds that are not common in their native language by _________ months of age.
Select one:
A.
1 to 2
B.
5 to 6
C.
9 to 11
D.
14 to 16
The research has found that infants distinguish between speech sounds at a very early age, including sounds that are not part of their native language.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Babies can initially distinguish between speech sounds that are and are not part of their own language. This ability is subsequently lost, however, around the same time they begin to understand meaningful speech - i.e., at about 9 to 11 months of age. See, e.g., D. E. Papalia and S. W. Olds, Human development, New York: McGraw-Hill, 1995.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: 9 to 11
Research investigating the relationship between age and crystallized and fluid intelligence has found that:
Select one:
A.
crystallized and fluid intelligence both increase until the late thirties to early forties but thereafter decline.
B.
crystallized intelligence begins to decline in the late twenties to early thirties, while fluid intelligence does not begin to decline until the late fifties or early sixties.
C.
fluid intelligence begins to decline in the late twenties to early thirties, while crystallized intelligence continues to increase until age 60 or later.
D.
fluid and crystallized intelligence remain relatively stable until the late forties but crystallized intelligence begins to decline by the mid to late fifties.
A number of studies have confirmed age-related trends in crystallized and fluid intelligence. Answer C is correct. The exact timing of age-related changes in fluid and crystallized intelligence varies somewhat from study to study but, in general, the studies have found that fluid intelligence begins to decline at a relatively early age, while crystallized intelligence continues to increase into late adulthood. This answer best describes the results of the research.
The correct answer is: fluid intelligence begins to decline in the late twenties to early thirties, while crystallized intelligence continues to increase until age 60 or later.
The final group product is most affected by the performance of the member who makes the smallest contribution on which type of task?
Select one:
A.
compensatory
B.
disjunctive
C.
conjunctive
D.
additive
As noted in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials, group tasks can be describd as compensatory, disjunctive, conjunctive, or additive.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT On a conjunctive task, the group product is limited by the contribution of the worst-performing member.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: conjunctive
“Criterion deficiency” refers to:
Select one:
A.
the degree to which the conceptual criterion is not measured by the actual criterion.
B.
the degree to which the actual criterion systematically measures something other than the conceptual criterion.
C.
the degree to which the actual criterion is entirely unrelated to the conceptual criterion.
D.
the degree to which the actual criterion provides inconsistent information about the conceptual criterion.
For the exam, you want to be familiar with several terms that are used to describe the adequacy of a criterion measure. These are described in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
a. CORRECT This is the correct definition of criterion deficiency. An actual criterion (the criterion measure) is deficient to the extent that it does not measure the conceptual (or hypothetical) criterion. In other words, job performance is due to several factors, but most criterion measures are deficient because they measure only one or two of those factors.
b. Incorrect This response describes one aspect of criterion contamination.
c. Incorrect This describes another aspect of criterion contamination.
d. Incorrect This describes the unreliability of a criterion measure.
The correct answer is: the degree to which the conceptual criterion is not measured by the actual criterion.
The analysis of covariance (ANCOVA) is used to:
Select one:
A.
analyze data when a “fully crossed” research design has been used.
B.
analyze data when a study involves two or more independent variables.
C.
statistically remove the effects of an extraneous variable.
D.
statistically analyze the main and interaction effects of an extraneous variable.
The ANCOVA is one of several forms of the analysis of variance that you want to be familiar with for the licensing exam.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT The ANCOVA is used to statistically remove the effects of an extraneous variable on the dependent variable so that the effects of one or more independent variables can be more easily detected.
d. Incorrect The MANOVA is used to statistically analyze the main and interaction effects of an extraneous variable.
The correct answer is: statistically remove the effects of an extraneous variable.
Which of the following is a cause of conductive deafness?
Select one:
A.
infection of the middle ear
B.
damage to the hair cells
C.
cochlear damage
D.
lesions in the auditory cortex
There are three types of deafness: conductive, sensorineural, and central.
a. CORRECT Conductive deafness results from failure of mechanical stimulation to reach the cochlea and can be caused by an infection or obstruction in the outer or middle ear.
b. Incorrect This refers to sensorineural deafness.
c. Incorrect Damage to the cochlea results in sensorineural deafness.
d. Incorrect This is a cause of central deafness.
The correct answer is: infection of the middle ear
Which of the following aspects of the central nervous system is least well-developed at birth?
Select one:
A.
diencephalon
B.
midbrain
C.
cerebral cortex
D.
cerebellum
The brain develops both before and after birth in an orderly sequence. At birth, the infant’s brain is about one-fourth the size of an adult brain.
a. Incorrect The diencephalon consists of the thalamus and hypothalamus and is sufficiently well-developed at birth to allow for critical functions that are necessary for life.
b. Incorrect Like the diencephalon, the midbrain is relatively well-developed at birth.
c. CORRECT The cortex is not well-developed at birth, which suggests that newborn behaviors are primarily reflexive (i.e., mediated by the lower centers of the brain). Some areas of the cortex (e.g., those involved in problem-solving, self-concept, and planning) do not fully develop until adolescence or early adulthood.
d. Incorrect The cerebellum is involved in motor coordination, and the motor areas of the brain develop prior to the areas governing the higher cognitive functions.
The correct answer is: cerebral cortex
According to Wolfgang Kohler, learning:
Select one:
A.
is largely the result of trial-and-error.
B.
is the result of repeated exposure to the same or similar conditions.
C.
involves using effective encoding and retrieval cues.
D.
involves discovering relationships between elements of the problem.
Kohler is associated with insight learning, which is a sudden understanding of relationships among a set of elements relevant to a problem that leads to recognition of the solution to the problem.
a. Incorrect Kohler did not assume that learning is the result of trial-and-error.
b. Incorrect This isn’t compatible with Kohler’s theory.
c. Incorrect This doesn’t describe insight learning.
d. CORRECT Insight learning occurs when there are relationships in the problem to be discovered and the discovery of those relationships is within the organism’s cognitive capacity.
The correct answer is: involves discovering relationships between elements of the problem.
Predictors of a positive response to a tricyclic antidepressant as a treatment for Major Depressive Disorder include all of the following except:
Select one:
A.
insidious onset of symptoms.
B.
weight loss.
C.
middle and late insomnia.
D.
delusions.
The various antidepressants, to some degree, are most effective for different depressive symptoms.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Hysterical traits, multiple previous episodes, and delusions are associated with a poor response to the tricyclic drugs. The symptoms listed in responses a, b, and c (along with psychomotor disturbances and other vegetative symptoms) are predictive of a positive response.
The correct answer is: delusions.
Which of the following sleep abnormalities have been linked to Major Depressive Disorder?
Select one:
A.
increased Stage 3 and Stage 4 sleep
B.
decreased duration of REM sleep early in the night
C.
early onset of REM sleep
D.
shortened sleep latency
Answer C is correct. A decreased REM latency (earlier onset of REM sleep) is one of several sleep abnormalities associated with MDD.
Answers A, B, and D: The abnormalities listed in these answers are the opposite of what is true – i.e., MDD is associated with decreased Stage 3 and Stage 4 sleep, an increased duration of REM sleep early in the night, and a prolonged sleep latency.
The correct answer is: early onset of REM sleep
Research investigating comorbidity in children suggests that, when depression occurs in conjunction with ____________, the depression is often associated with a different course and a different family background than when it occurs alone.
Select one:
A.
an Anxiety Disorder
B.
Conduct Disorder
C.
somatic complaints
D.
learning problems
Answer B is correct: Some experts suggest that depression occurring in conjunction with Conduct Disorder is actually a different type of depression since it is associated with a lower rate of depression in adulthood as well as with a lower rate of depression among relatives. See R. Harrington, Affective disorders, in M. Rutter, et al., (Eds.), Child and Adolescent Psychiatry,Oxford, Blackwell Scientific Publications, 1994. Note that this is a difficult “distant galaxy” question that addresses a topic that few people are familiar with. For these kinds of questions, if you don’t know the answer, don’t spend too much time trying to figure them out: Make an “educated guess” and move on to the next question.
Answer A: Anxiety commonly occurs in conjunction with depressive symptoms in children. The research suggests that when anxiety and depression occur together, the depression is similar in terms of course and family background to depression that occurs without anxiety.
Answer C: There is currently no research suggesting that somatic complaints are indicative of a different form of depression.
Answer D: There is currently no evidence that suggests that learning problems are indicative of a different form of depression.
The correct answer is: Conduct Disorder
A test developer would be interested in the selection ratio, base rate, and validity coefficient of a test when she is evaluating the test’s:
Select one:
A.
differential validity.
B.
external validity.
C.
incremental validity.
D.
concurrent validity.
The selection ratio, base rate, and validity coefficient are used to estimate a test’s incremental validity using the Taylor-Russell tables.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Information on these three factors would allow the researcher to estimate a test’s incremental validity (i.e., the degree to which use of the test will increase decision-making accuracy).
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: incremental validity.
According to George Kelly (1995), a fully functioning person is one:
Select one:
A.
whose predictions about events and other people are usually correct.
B.
whose self and self-image are in a state of congruence.
C.
who is able to first identify and then achieve realistic goals in a responsible manner.
D.
who routinely experiences events with here-and-now immediacy.
Knowing that Kelly’s personal construct theory focuses on how a person “construes” (perceives, interprets, and predicts) events would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
a. CORRECT The primary goals of personal construct therapy are to identify and then revise the client’s maladaptive personal constructs so that he/she makes better predictions about events and other people.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: whose predictions about events and other people are usually correct.
Research by Patterson and his colleagues (1992) at the Oregon Social Learning Center has linked high levels of aggression in children to which of the following?
Select one:
A.
lack of empathy
B.
sociocultural norms related to aggression
C.
coercive family interactions
D.
emotional over-reactivity
Patterson and colleagues (1992) focus on family contributions to aggression.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT These investigators have concluded that families of highly aggressive children are characterized by a high degree of coercive family interactions and poor parental monitoring of children’s activities.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: coercive family interactions
The use of clomipramine in the treatment of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD):
Select one:
A.
is effective only for reducing accompanying depressive symptoms.
B.
has anti-obsessional effects both during administration and after cessation of drug use.
C.
has both antidepressant and anti-obsessional effects for as long as the drug is administered.
D.
eliminates the need for psychosocial treatment, especially in mild to moderate cases of OCD.
Answer C is correct: Research has shown that some antidepressants - including the tricyclic clomipramine - not only reduce the depressive symptoms that often accompany OCD but also reduce obsessions. However, when clomipramine is not used in conjunction with exposure with response prevention, symptoms typically return soon after the drug is stopped.
Answers A, B, and D: See explanation for answer C.
The correct answer is: has both antidepressant and anti-obsessional effects for as long as the drug is administered.
Erikson identified identity formation as the key issue during adolescence. At around age 18 or 19, this issue begins to be replaced by which of the following?
Select one:
A.
the need to “repudiate one’s choices.”
B.
the need to develop interpersonal closeness and solidarity.
C.
the need to achieve a higher degree of individuation.
D.
the need to be productive and creative.
Erikson’s stage of identity vs. role confusion is followed by intimacy vs. isolation. See the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials for additional information on Erikson’s stages of psychosocial development.
a. Incorrect Repudiation is part of identity formation.
b. CORRECT The psychosocial issues of early adulthood center on intimacy and solidarity versus isolation.
c. Incorrect Individuation is a concept associated with Levinson, not Erikson.
d. Incorrect The stage of generativity vs. stagnation is characteristic of middle adulthood.
The correct answer is: the need to develop interpersonal closeness and solidarity.
Older workers are LEAST likely to show decrements on which of the following types of work-related tasks as the result of normal age-related cognitive decline?
Select one:
A.
verbal tasks
B.
dual (multi) tasks
C.
tasks requiring inductive reasoning
D.
tasks requiring selective attention
Research has confirmed that certain aspects of cognition are more susceptible to age-related cognitive decline than other aspects are. See, e.g., A. Laville, Elderly workers, in Encyclopaedia of occupational health and safety (4th ed.), Washington, International Labour Office, 1998.
a. CORRECT Verbal ability has been found to be relatively immune to the effects of normal aging and does not begin to show declines until the late 70s or early 80s.
b. Incorrect The research has generally confirmed that increasing age is associated with decreased effectiveness on dual (multi) tasks, most likely because performance on these tasks depends on working memory, divided attention, and other abilities that are adversely affected by age-related cognitive decline.
c. Incorrect Inductive reasoning depends on fluid intelligence, which is affected by normal aging.
d. Incorrect Selective attention is also adversely affected by increasing age.
The correct answer is: verbal tasks
Men with paraplegia as the result of a spinal cord injury:
Select one:
A.
can achieve an erection but cannot ejaculate or experience orgasm.
B.
can achieve an erection and ejaculate but cannot experience orgasm.
C.
can achieve an erection and may be able to ejaculate and experience orgasm.
D.
cannot achieve an erection, ejaculate, or experience orgasm.
This is a difficult question because the consequences of spinal cord injury vary from individual to individual.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Of the answers given, this one provides the best generalization. Even with high spinal cord lesions, many men are able to experience reflexive erections; and with low spinal legions, many men experience psychic erections and ejaculation. In addition, a substantial proportion report having orgasms or sensations similar to orgasm.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: can achieve an erection and may be able to ejaculate and experience orgasm.
Which of the following occupational themes is most dissimilar to Holland’s social theme?
Select one:
A.
enterprising
B.
realistic
C.
conventional
D.
investigative
Knowing that the occupational themes are listed in order of similarity in Holland’s hexagon and that the order is represented by the acronym “RIASEC” would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT The social theme is directly opposite the realistic theme in Holland’s hexagon, which indicates that the realistic theme is most unlike the social theme.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: realistic
In an experiment, a tone is presented to a dog just before meat powder is presented numerous times so that, eventually, the dog salivates when the tone is presented alone. Then a light and the tone are simultaneously presented just before the meat powder numerous times. Based on your knowledge of “blocking,” you predict that the dog will subsequently:
Select one:
A.
salivate in response to the light when it is presented alone and continue to salivate in response to the tone when it is presented alone.
B.
salivate in response to the light when it is presented alone but salivate in response to the tone only when it is presented with the light.
C.
continue to salivate in response to the tone but not salivate in response to the light.
D.
not salivate in response to either the tone or the light.
Blocking occurs when one stimulus blocks the other from becoming a conditioned stimulus.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT In this situation, the tone will block the light from becoming a CS since the tone was the first stimulus to be paired with the meat powder. Apparently, blocking occurs because the second stimulus (the light in this case) provides redundant information and does not become linked to the unconditioned stimulus (meat powder).
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: continue to salivate in response to the tone but not salivate in response to the light.
According to Hersey and Blanchard’s situational leadership model, a manager will be most effective with an employee who is low in both ability and motivation when the manager:
Select one:
A.
provides specific instructions and closely supervises the employee’s work.
B.
encourages the employee to take responsibility for decision-making.
C.
shares ideas with the employee and supports the employee’s participation in decision-making.
D.
acts as a supportive coach.
Situational leadership theory proposes that, to be effective, managers must adopt a leadership style that matches the employee’s maturity, which is determined by a combination of the employee’s ability and motivation.
a. CORRECT This describes a “telling” style, which, according to Hersey and Blanchard, is appropriate for employees who are low in both ability and motivation.
b. Incorrect This describes a “delegating” style, which is best for employees who are high in both ability and motivation.
c. Incorrect This is characteristic of the “participating” style, which is best for employees who are high in ability but low in motivation.
d. Incorrect This is the “selling” style, which works best for employees who are low in ability but high in motivation.
The correct answer is: provides specific instructions and closely supervises the employee’s work.
For practitioners of humanistic psychotherapy, psychopathology is the result of:
Select one:
A.
blocked potential.
B.
dis-integration.
C.
unresolved conflicts.
D.
severe trauma.
Therapists classified as humanists share a belief in the inherent capacity for humans to grow toward the achievement of their potential (i.e., to achieve self-actualization).
a. CORRECT Neurosis and psychosis are generally viewed as the result of interference with the natural potential for growth and self-actualization.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: blocked potential.
Which of the following is an example of anterograde amnesia?
Select one:
A.
As the result of a head injury he received in a car accident, a man cannot remember where he was going before the accident occurred.
B.
A woman cannot remember how she got to the hospital or other events that occurred during the 24 hours after she was sexually assaulted.
C.
A high school junior who learned Spanish her freshman year is having trouble learning French because she keeps substituting Spanish words for French ones.
D.
A college student can remember information related to an important event but cannot remember how he acquired that information.
Anterograde amnesia involves a loss of memory for events that occur after the event that caused the memory loss.
a. Incorrect A loss of memory for events that occurred prior to the trauma that caused the memory impairment is referred to as retrograde amnesia.
b. CORRECT This answer provides an example of anterograde amnesia - i.e., the woman has no memory for events that occurred after the assault.
c. Incorrect This is an example of proactive interference.
d. Incorrect This is an example of source amnesia.
The correct answer is: A woman cannot remember how she got to the hospital or other events that occurred during the 24 hours after she was sexually assaulted.
Studies investigating the relationship between maternal socialization practices and children’s internalization of conscience have found that:
Select one:
A.
maternal gentle discipline is predictive of internalization regardless of a child’s temperament.
B.
maternal gentle discipline is predictive of internalization only for children who have a secure attachment.
C.
maternal gentle discipline is predictive of internalization for children who are fearful and anxious prone.
D.
maternal gentle discipline is predictive of internalization for children who are relatively fearless and non-anxious.
This question is asking about research by G. Kochanska, which found that the relationship between maternal parenting style and children’s internalization of conscience is mediated by the child’s temperament. (Socialization and temperament in the development of guilt and conscience, Child Development, 62, 1379-1392, 1991).
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT The impact of gentle discipline (use of control that de-emphasizes power assertion and emphasizes reasoning, suggestion, distraction, and positive reinforcement) is most effective in terms of internalization for children who are relatively fearful and anxious.
d. Incorrect For children who are fearless and non-anxious, a secure attachment seems to be more important than maternal parenting style for internalization of conscience.
The correct answer is: maternal gentle discipline is predictive of internalization for children who are fearful and anxious prone.
The goodness-of-fit model proposed by Thomas and Chess (1977) is supported by which of the following research findings?
Select one:
A.
Modeling and imitation are primary contributors to the development of a gender role identity.
B.
Providing a child with experiences that are slightly beyond his/her abilities maximizes opportunities for social and cognitive development.
C.
Parents who adopt an authoritative style are likely to have children who obtain high scores on measures of self-esteem, peer popularity, and scholastic achievement.
D.
Irritable temperament in children is predictive of insecure attachment only when mothers are not socially supportive.
Thomas and Chess proposed that childhood pathology is related to a lack of fit between the child’s basic temperament and the parents’ behaviors toward the child.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT This finding is consistent with the prediction made by Thomas and Chess - i.e., it is the combination of the child’s temperament and the parents’ parenting style that determines the child’s developmental outcomes.
The correct answer is: Irritable temperament in children is predictive of insecure attachment only when mothers are not socially supportive.
Damage to the right hippocampus is most likely to cause:
Select one:
A.
psychic blindness.
B.
interruption of the normal sleep-wake cycle.
C.
deficits in spatial memory.
D.
deficits in procedural memory.
The hippocampus is vital to learning and memory.
a. Incorrect Psychic blindness is a symptom of Kluver-Bucy syndrome which is caused by damage to the amygdala and temporal lobes.
b. Incorrect The research has not linked the hippocampus to the sleep-wake cycle.
c. CORRECT The right hippocampus is involved in memory for nonverbal information, including spatial and temporal memory. For example, in a study of cabdrivers, PET scans revealed that the right hippocampus was responsible for the drivers’ ability to form and recall complex routes.
d. Incorrect The hippocampus plays a role in declarative memory but does not appear to be responsible for the formation of procedural memories.
The correct answer is: deficits in spatial memory.
Which of the following best describes the course of Borderline Personality Disorder (BPD)?
Select one:
A.
Symptoms are most severe in early adulthood and, for many individuals, decrease substantially in severity by middle-age.
B.
Symptoms continue to increase in severity from early to middle-adulthood but thereafter remain stable for most individuals.
C.
Symptoms wax and wane throughout the lifespan with the most severe symptoms occuring during middle-age.
D.
Symptoms remain relatively stable throughout the lifespan with some waxing and waning in severity of symptoms that is related to factors in the individual’s environment.
Answer A is correct: A common pattern is for symptoms to be most severe and chronic in early adulthood with substantial improvement in functionng during the 30s and 40s and with most individuals no longer meeting the full diagnostic criteria for BPD by age 40.
Answers B, C, and D: See explanation for answer A.
The correct answer is: Symptoms are most severe in early adulthood and, for many individuals, decrease substantially in severity by middle-age.
When a test’s reliability coefficient is equal to ____, this means that 81% of variability in test scores is attributable to true score variability.
Select one:
A.
0.9
B.
0.81
C.
0.65
D.
0.19
Knowing that a reliability coefficient is interepreted directly in terms of true score variability would have enabled you to identify the correct answer to this question.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT When the reliability coefficient is equal to .81, this means that 81% of variability in test scores reflects true score variability and 10% reflects measurement error.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: 0.81
The vasovagel response associated with Specific Phobia, blood-injection-injury type is characterized by:
Select one:
A.
a drop in heart rate and blood pressure with xerosis and ruddiness.
B.
a sustained increase in heart rate and blood pressure with hypervigilence and xerosis.
C.
a sustained increase in heart rate and blood pressure with ruddiness and tinnitus.
D.
a drop in heart rate and blood pressure with sweating, pallor, and fainting.
Answer D is correct: The blood-injection-injury type of Specific Phobia produces a response to feared stimuli that differs from the response associated with other types of this disorder. The vasovagel response associated with this type involves a brief initial increase in heart rate and blood pressure followed by a decrease in heart rate and blood pressure that may lead to fainting. Other characteristic symptoms include sweating, pallor, nausea, and tinnitus.
Answer A: Although the vasovagal response does involve a drop in heart rate and blood pressure, it is not characterized by xerosis (dry skin) or ruddiness (blushing or redness of the skin).
Answer B: The increase in heart rate and blood pressure associated with this type of Specific Phobia is temporary and brief, not sustained.
Answer C: See explanation for answer D.
The correct answer is: a drop in heart rate and blood pressure with sweating, pallor, and fainting.
Stefan S., age 42, was laid off from his job seven months ago and has been unable to find a new one. Although Stefan is receiving some financial help from his widowed mother, he lost his new car because he wasn’t able to make the payments and is living in a studio apartment in his sister’s basement. His sister’s husband is very unhappy with this arrangement and is constantly calling Stefan a “worthless bum.” In terms of Maslow’s need hierarchy theory, Stefan’s most prepotent needs are related to:
Select one:
A.
safety/security.
B.
esteem/status.
C.
belonging.
D.
existence.
Maslow’s need hierarchy theory identifies five basic human needs: physiological, safety, belonging, status, and self-actualization. It proposes that, in terms of motivation, lower-order needs take precedence over higher-order needs.
a. CORRECT Stefan’s physiological needs (needs related to physical survival) are being met, but his safety needs are not - i.e., he does not have a job and is living in a somewhat “hostile” environment. Therefore, according to Maslow’s theory, Stefan’s safety/security needs are the primary motivators of his behavior.
b. Incorrect According to Maslow’s theory, esteem/status needs do not act as motivators until belonging needs have been satisfied.
c. Incorrect Belonging needs do not become motivators until safety needs have been satisfied.
d. Incorrect Alderfer distinguishes between three basic human needs - existence, relatedness, and growth. Alderfer’s theory predicts that existence needs would be motivators for Stefan, but this question is asking about Maslow’s theory, so answer a is the best response.
The correct answer is: safety/security.
Research investigating compliance behaviors of individuals with diabetes mellitus indicates that adherence to dietary and other treatment regimens is most problematic:
Select one:
A.
during the elementary school years.
B.
during preadolescence.
C.
during adolescence.
D.
among older adults.
Answer C is correct: Research on diabetes mellitus and other chronic illnesses has consistently shown that compliance is most problematic during adolescence. Although adolescents are more knowledgeable about their illness than younger children are, they typically exhibit a lower level of compliance.
Answers A, B, and D: See explanation for answer C.
The correct answer is: during adolescence.
As used by Lorenz (1965), the term “critical period” refers to:
Select one:
A.
the period from ages three to six months during which the basic structure of the personality is formed.
B.
periods when the infant shows predictable “growth spurts.”
C.
the third trimester when the brain is at greatest vulnerability to structural damage.
D.
a period shortly after birth during which an infant ordinarily bonds with its mother.
The term “critical period” refers to a period when a specific experience will have its greatest impact on development. Lorenz applied the term to the period during which geese bond with (imprint on) their mothers.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
d. CORRECT Lorenz found that the “critical period” for imprinting in geese is 2-3 days after birth. In other words, geese will stay close (attach) to stimuli that they are exposed to two to three days after birth. Research investigating the existence of a similar critical period in humans has been inconclusive.
The correct answer is: a period shortly after birth during which an infant ordinarily bonds with its mother.
A middle-aged man frequently experiences vivid and occasionally frightening hallucinations just as he’s beginning to fall asleep. This condition is best described as:
Select one:
A.
sleep terrors.
B.
sleep apnea.
C.
hypnagogic hallucinations.
D.
hypnopompic hallucinations.
Answer C is correct: Hypnagogic hallucinations may occur in Narcolepsy, and they are vivid hallucinations that occur during the transition from wakefulness to sleep.
Answers A and B: See explanation for answer C.
Answer D: Hypnopompic hallucinations occur during the transition from sleep to wakefulness. These may also be present in Narcolepsy.
The correct answer is: hypnagogic hallucinations.
The Health Belief Model predicts that, to modify an individual’s health-related behaviors, an intervention should focus on:
Select one:
A.
the external rewards associated with being healthy.
B.
the severity, duration, and stage of the individual’s illness.
C.
the individuals locus of control.
D.
the individuals knowledge, motivation to act, and self-efficacy beliefs.
As its name implies, the Health Belief Model focuses on the impact of an individual’s beliefs on his/her health-related behaviors.
a. Incorrect The Health Belief Model emphasizes the individual’s perceptions and beliefs rather than external conditions (e.g., rewards and punishments) that influence health-related behaviors.
b. Incorrect This is not a focus of interventions based on the Health Belief Model, which usually emphasize prevention of a disorder rather than the treatment of an existing disorder.
c. Incorrect The Health Locus of Control Model emphasizes the role of locus of control beliefs.
d. CORRECT According to the Health Belief Model, a person’s willingness to take appropriate health-related actions is related to the person’s beliefs about (1) his/her susceptibility to the illness; (2) the consequences of the illness; and (3) the benefits of and barriers to taking appropriate action. Interventions based on the Health Belief Model focus on the individual’s knowledge about the illness and methods for avoiding it; motivation to take action; and self-efficacy beliefs.
The correct answer is: the individuals knowledge, motivation to act, and self-efficacy beliefs.
In the context of exposure to the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), the term “seroconversion” refers to:
Select one:
A.
the point in time at which transmission of the virus occurred.
B.
the process of converting from antibody negative to antibody positive.
C.
the period during which the infected individual is asymptomatic.
D.
the bodys reaction to an anti-retroviral drug.
As a general term, seroconversion refers to the development of antibodies to a particular antigen (e.g., HIV).
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT In the context of HIV, seroconversion refers to the conversion from HIV negative (seronegative) to HIV positive (seropositive) as the result of the presence of antibodies. Note that, because seroconversion often does not occur until several weeks after infection, an infected individual may develop symptoms of acute HIV infection while still having a negative HIV antibody test.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: the process of converting from antibody negative to antibody positive.
An 11-year-old loves playing the piano and does so for at least one hour a day. His parents have begun to reward him for doing so by giving him a dollar for each 30 minutes that he practices and find that this increases the amount of time he spends playing the piano each day. Subsequently, the child’s parents decide to discontinue the reward. Research by Lepper, Greene, and Nisbett (1973) suggests that, once the parents discontinue the reward, which of the following will occur:
Select one:
A.
the child will continue playing the piano at the increased rate.
B.
the child will go back to playing the piano at the pre-reward rate.
C.
the child will play the piano at a rate less than the pre-reward rate.
D.
the child will initially play the piano at a reduced rate but will eventually go back to the pre-reward rate.
Research by M. R. Lepper, D. Greene, and R. E. Nisbett (1973) provided support for the overjustification hypothesis.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT The overjustification hypothesis predicts that providing an extrinsic reward for an activity that is intrinsically motivating will reduce intrinsic motivation. Consequently, when the extrinsic reward is discontinued, interest (and participation) in the activity will decline to a level below the pre-extrinsic reward level.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: the child will play the piano at a rate less than the pre-reward rate.
In their often-cited study of community mental health services and ethnicity, Sue and his colleagues (1991) found that, with regard to treatment outcomes:
Select one:
A.
Hispanic and African American clients showed substantially less improvement than Anglo and Asian American clients.
B.
Hispanic American clients showed somewhat less improvement than African, Anglo, and Asian American clients.
C.
African American clients showed somewhat less improvement than Hispanic, Anglo, and Asian American clients.
D.
Hispanic, African, and Asian American clients showed less improvement than Anglo American clients.
Sue et al. (1991) compared the outcomes of therapy for African, Hispanic, Asian, and Anglo American individuals receiving outpatient mental health services in Los Angeles county.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Sue and his colleagues found that Hispanic American clients had the best outcomes followed by Anglo, Asian, and, lastly, African Americans clients.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: African American clients showed somewhat less improvement than Hispanic, Anglo, and Asian American clients.
The results of a study by Diener et al. (1976) found that children who were trick-or-treating on Halloween were more likely to steal candy from a large bowl when the adult was unable to identify individual children when the children were in a large group. This result is explained by which of the following?
Select one:
A.
psychological reactance
B.
inoculation
C.
deindividuation
D.
scapegoating
In the study described in this question, children were more likely to steal when they were able to do so anonymously.
a. Incorrect Psychological reactance occurs when a person responds to the request of another person by acting in a way that is opposite to what is being requested because the person feels his/her personal freedom is being threatened.
b. Incorrect In the context of attitude change, inoculation refers to providing a person with arguments and counterarguments prior to hearing a persuasive message in order to reduce the likelihood that the person will be influenced by that message.
c. CORRECT Deindividuation is the increased tendency to act in antisocial ways when it is possible to do so anonymously.
d. Incorrect Scapegoating occurs when a person blames his/her problems or misfortunes on someone else.
The correct answer is: deindividuation
The research suggests that about _____ percent of children who receive a diagnosis of ADHD continue to meet the diagnostic criteria for the disorder in adolescence.
Select one:
A.
20 to 35
B.
40 to 55
C.
65 to 80
D.
85 to 90
Answer C is correct: Estimates vary but most studies indicate that between 65 and 80% of children who receive a diagnosis of ADHD continue to exhibit symptoms that meet the criteria for the diagnosis in adolescence. See, e.g., R. A. Barkley, Taking charge of ADHD: The complete, authoritative guide for parents, New York, Guilford Press, 2013.
Answers A, B, and D: See explanation for answer C.
The correct answer is: 65 to 80
For adolescents who are hospitalized with Major Depressive Disorder, which of the following is LEAST predictive of future Bipolar Disorder?
Select one:
A.
a family history of a mood disorder
B.
tricyclic-induced hypomania
C.
a gradual onset of depressive symptoms
D.
psychotic features during the depressive episode
Answer C is correct: An acute (versus gradual) onset of depressive symptoms in adolescence or early adulthood is associated with an increased risk for Bipolar Disorder.
Answer A: A number of factors (including a family history of a mood disorder) have been found to predict the development of Bipolar Disorder in individuals who have their first episode of Major Depressive Disorder as adolescents or young adults.
Answer B: Tricyclic-induced hypomania has also been linked with the later development of Bipolar Disorder.
Answer D: Psychotic features are also associated with the later development of Bipolar Disorder.
The correct answer is: a gradual onset of depressive symptoms
A teacher administers a math achievement test to the 25 students in her 6th grade class on the first day of the semester and then again on the last day of the semester to see how much they gained in math ability. To analyze the data she obtains, the teacher should use which of the following statistical tests? Select one:
A.
t-test for a single sample
B.
t-test for correlated samples
C.
t-test for uncorrelated samples
D.
t-test for multiple means
For the exam, you want to know when it is appropriate to use each of the t-tests listed in answers a, b, and c.
a. Incorrect The t-test for a single sample is used to compare an obtained sample mean to a known population mean.
b. CORRECT The t-test for correlated (dependent) samples is used to compare two related means – e.g., means obtained from the same sample at two different times.
c. Incorrect The t-test for uncorrelated (independent) means is used to compare two means obtained from unrelated samples.
d. Incorrect There is no t-test for multiple means.
The correct answer is: t-test for correlated samples
According to Patterson and his colleagues, aggression in children is linked to the use of coercive discipline by their parents. In turn, the parents’ use of coercive discipline is directly related to:
Select one:
A.
the parents’ misinterpretations of the child’s intentions when he or she misbehaves.
B.
the parents’ personality characteristics and the child’s temperament.
C.
the nature of the attachment between the child and the parent.
D.
the effectiveness of the discipline in stopping the child’s misbehavior.
Patterson’s theory regarding coercive family interactions takes into account the reciprocal influences of the parent and child.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Patterson (1992) views coercive discipline as being more likely in the presence of stressful life events, certain personality characteristics in the parents, and a temperamentally difficult child.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: the parents’ personality characteristics and the child’s temperament.
An Asian American adult has low identification with both his own culture and the culture of the dominant (Anglo) group. In terms of Berry’s model of acculturation, this is referred to as:
Select one:
A.
separation.
B.
marginalization.
C.
disintegration.
D.
encapsulation.
Berry distinguishes between four levels of acculturation based on the individual’s acceptance of his/her own cultural values and the values of the mainstream culture.
a. Incorrect As described by Berry, separation occurs when a person identifies with his/her own culture but rejects the mainstream culture.
b. CORRECT According to Berry, a person is marginalized when he/she does not accept the values, standards, customs, etc. of either culture (i.e., his/her own culture or the culture of the dominant group).
c. Incorrect This is not a term used by Berry.
d. Incorrect This is not a term used by Berry.
The correct answer is: marginalization.
A 36-year-old woman has extensive deficits in declarative memory as the result of a severe head trauma. This means that she will have trouble recalling:
Select one:
A.
what she ate for dinner the previous evening.
B.
how to ride a bicycle and what she ate for dinner.
C.
the definition of amnesia.
D.
what she ate for dinner and the definition of amnesia.
Declarative memory consists of episodic and semantic memory.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect Riding a bicycle would entail procedural memory.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Episodic memory is memory for personally experienced events (e.g., what one had for dinner the previous evening). Semantic memory is memory for factual knowledge (e.g., the definition of amnesia). Extensive impairment in declarative memory would, therefore, involve both types of memory, so this is the best answer.
The correct answer is: what she ate for dinner and the definition of amnesia.
Tourette’s Disorder, Autism Spectrum Disorder, and Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder have been most consistently linked to pathology in which areas of the brain?
Select one:
A.
amygdala and parietal lobes
B.
thalamus and parietal lobes
C.
basal ganglia and frontal lobes
D.
thalamus and frontal lobes
Research using brain imaging techniques has consistently linked abnormalities in certain areas of the brain to Tourette’s Disorder, Autism Spectrum Disorder, and OCD.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Abnormalities in the basal ganglia and frontal lobes have been implicated in all three disorders.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: basal ganglia and frontal lobes
In a research study, an investigator interested in the genetic contributors to suicide compares certain demographic, behavioral, and genetic characteristics of a sample of psychiatric patients who attempted suicide in the past month with the characteristics of the first degree and second degree biological relatives of the psychiatric patients and with “healthy controls” (non-patients). The probands in this study are the:
Select one:
A.
psychiatric patients.
B.
third-degree relatives.
C.
first-degree relatives.
D.
first- and second-degree relatives.
Answer A is correct: In research, probands (also known as index cases) are the first individuals who are brought to the attention of the investigator - i.e., the people who are manifesting the disease or other characteristics of interest. The psychiatric patients who attempted suicide in the past month are the probands in this study.
The correct answer is: psychiatric patients.
Which of the following is an example of cultural encapsulation?
Select one:
A.
A client belonging to a minority group cannot separate problems due to individual factors from those related to oppression.
B.
A White male therapist doesn’t recognize that he interprets clients’ problems from his own cultural worldview.
C.
A young woman’s conflict is related to her inability to separate from the values, attitudes, and expectations of her immigrant parents.
D.
A therapist tends to view all problems of minority clients as due to factors inherent to the client’s cultural background.
The term cultural encapsulation was used by Wrenn (1985) to describe the characteristics of a therapist who is “encapsulated” within his/her dominant culture.
a. Incorrect See explanation to response b.
b. CORRECT Culturally encapsulated therapists not only view clients’ problems through the filter of their own culture but are also unaware of doing so.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: A White male therapist doesn’t recognize that he interprets clients’ problems from his own cultural worldview.
The final stage in Cross’s (1991) Black Racial Identity Development Model is:
Select one:
A.
internalization.
B.
incorporation.
C.
integrative awareness.
D.
autonomy.
The most recent version of Cross’s model distinguishes between four stages of identity development: pre-encounter, encounter, immersion-emersion, and internalization.
a. CORRECT An African-American in the immersion stage has developed a strong ethnic identity but has also resolved global anti-white sentiments and become more bicultural.
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: internalization.
When initially hired by a company, Wally Worker is told that he’ll be receiving regular raises and bonuses as long as his work is satisfactory. Although Wally has received excellent reviews from his supervisor during his two-year period of employment, he has not been given the rewards he was promised. According to expectancy theory, which of the following of Wally’s beliefs will be most negatively affected by these circumstances?
Select one:
A.
valence
B.
autonomy
C.
expectancy
D.
instrumentality
Expectancy theory distinguishes between three beliefs that affect motivation – expectancy, instrumentality, and valence.
a. Incorrect Valence refers to the perceived value of the available rewards.
b. Incorrect Autonomy is not part of expectancy theory.
c. Incorrect Expectancy is the belief that one’s effort will result in performance.
d. CORRECT Instrumentality refers to the belief that one’s performance will be rewarded.
The correct answer is: instrumentality
Herzberg’s two-factor theory predicts that, if a worker’s job is redesigned so that she has less autonomy and responsibility but is also given a raise in salary, the worker will be:
Select one:
A.
dissatisfied.
B.
neither satisfied nor dissatisfied.
C.
satisfied.
D.
both satisfied and dissatisfied.
Herzberg’s two-factor theory distinguishes between hygiene and motivator factors.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Herzberg’s theory predicts that motivator factors produce satisfaction when they are present but have no effect on satisfaction if they are not present. In contrast, hygiene factors produce dissatisfaction when they are not adequate but have no effect on satisfaction when they’re adequate. Consequently, if the worker’s job is redesigned so that it produces few motivator factors (e.g., less autonomy and responsibility) and more adequate hygiene factors (pay), the worker will be neither satisfied nor dissatisfied.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: neither satisfied nor dissatisfied.
A young man is found guilty of driving while intoxicated and is required by the court to receive in-patient treatment at an alcohol rehabilitation center. As a therapist working at the rehabilitation center, you should be aware that:
Select one:
A.
it is not necessary to have the man sign a waiver of confidentiality since his treatment is court-ordered.
B.
it is not necessary to have the man sign a waiver of confideniality because he has apparently voluntarily chosen treatment rather than some other form of punishment.
C.
it is not necessary to have the man sign a waiver of confidentiality since no information should be given to the court in this situation under any circumstances.
D.
it is necessary to have the man sign a waiver of confidentiality before releasing any information to the court.
The best approach to answering a question on informed consents and waivers of confidentiality is to choose the most conservative answer.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Although the court has ordered the treatment, the client’s right to confidentiality is not waived. In fact, a court order is likely to be required for the release of information to it, and the information that must be released would likely be limited to objective data (see, e.g., L. C. Sobell and M. B. Sobell, Client rights in alcohol treatment programs, In. G. T. Hannah, et al. (eds.), Preservation of Client Rights, New York: The Free Press, 1981).
The correct answer is: it is necessary to have the man sign a waiver of confidentiality before releasing any information to the court.
There is evidence that stimulus exposure and antidepressants that increase serotonin levels both alleviate the symptoms of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder by reducing activity in the:
Select one:
A.
locus coeruleus.
B.
caudate nucleus.
C.
reticular activating system.
D.
inferior colliculus.
Answer B is correct: L. R. Baxter and associates found evidence that behavioral and drug treatments for OCD both reduce activity in the caudate nucleus, which is involved in converting sensory input into cognition and action and is over-active in people with OCD (Caudate glucose metabolic rate changes with both drug and behavior therapy for obsessive-compulsive disorder, Archives of General Psychiatry, 49, 681-689, 1992).
Answers A, C, and D: See explanation for answer B.
The correct answer is: caudate nucleus.
A psychophysicist is measuring “just noticeable differences” while investigating the relationship between changes in the intensity of light and her research participants’ perceptions of those changes. The measuring scale being used has:
Select one:
A.
physically equal intervals.
B.
psychologically equal intervals.
C.
physically and psychologically equal intervals.
D.
physically and psychologically unequal intervals.
Psychophysics is the study of the relationship between stimulus magnitude and perception of that stimulus.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Psychophysicists use just noticeable differences (JNDs) and similar measurements to study the relationship between changes in physical stimuli and the psychological responses to those changes. JNDs are considered to be equal; however, the corresponding physical stimuli usually are not. For example, it may take only the addition of one pound to notice a difference when you start with ten pounds but the addition of ten pounds to notice a difference when you start with 100 pounds. In each case, the JND is equal to one, but the physical differences in weight are not the same.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: psychologically equal intervals.
Dr. Ralph R. is presenting a workshop on reducing anxiety and tells the editor of a community newsletter that she can participate for free if she puts an article about the workshop in the newsletter. From an ethical perspective, this arrangement is:
Select one:
A.
acceptable as long as the arrangement doesn’t adversely affect the editor’s ability to benefit from the workshop.
B.
acceptable as long as the article provides accurate information about the workshop.
C.
unacceptable because it constitutes bartering of services, which are prohibited by ethical guidelines.
D.
unacceptable because psychologists are prohibited by ethical guidelines from compensating employees of any communication media for publicity in a news item.
This issue is explicitly addressed in Standard 5.02(b) of the APA’s Ethics Code and indirectly addressed in Principle III.31 of the Canadian Code of Ethics.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
c. Incorrect Bartering of services is not necessarily prohibited by the Ethics Code but the specific type of exchange described in this question is prohibited, which is why answer d is the best response.
d. CORRECT Standard 5.02(b) prohibits psychologists from compensating employees of the press, radio, or other commmunication media for providing publicity in a news items about the psychologist or his/her work.
The correct answer is: unacceptable because psychologists are prohibited by ethical guidelines from compensating employees of any communication media for publicity in a news item.
One problem with a decentralized communication network is that:
Select one:
A.
it is associated with low levels of employee morale.
B.
it can lead to the development of autocratic leadership.
C.
it can confuse the situation when the task is simple.
D.
it is effective only when the company’s organizational structure is also decentralized.
In a decentralized communication network, all people in the system can communicate freely with each other.
a. Incorrect This is more likely to occur with a centralized communication network.
b. Incorrect This is also more characteristic of a centralized communication network.
c. CORRECT For simple tasks (e.g., an automated production line), centralized communication networks tend to be more effective.
d. Incorrect This is not necessarily true. The most effective communication network may not necessarily be the one that matches the organizational structure.
The correct answer is: it can confuse the situation when the task is simple.
The developer of a new predictor realizes that the predictor’s criterion-related validity coefficient has been affected by “criterion contamination.” If the developer conducts a new validity study and eliminates the effects of criterion contamination, he/she can expect which of the following to occur?
Select one:
A.
The new validity coefficient will be larger in magnitude than the original coefficient.
B.
The new validity coefficient will be smaller in magnitude than the original coefficient.
C.
The new validity coefficient will be either larger or smaller in magnitude than the original coefficient.
D.
The new validity coefficient will be neither larger nor smaller in magnitude than the original coefficient.
When a rater’s knowledge of the ratees’ predictor scores affects his/her ratings of the ratees on the criterion measure (i.e., when the rater rates a ratee high on the criterion because the ratee has scored high on the predictor and vice-versa), an artificially strong relationship is created between the predictor and criterion.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Criterion contamination artificially inflates the correlation coefficient. Therefore, the elimination of criterion contamination would lower the coefficient.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: The new validity coefficient will be smaller in magnitude than the original coefficient.
In a multitrait-multimethod matrix, the __________ coefficients are correlation coefficients that provide information about a test’s convergent validity.
Select one:
A.
heterotrait-heteromethod
B.
heterotrait-monomethod
C.
monotrait-heteromethod
D.
monotrait-monomethod
A multitrait-multimethod matrix provides information about a test’s convergent and divergent (discriminant) validity.
a. Incorrect A heterotrait-heteromethod coefficient provides information about a test’s divergent validity.
b. Incorrect A heterotrait-monomethod coefficient also provides information about a test’s divergent validity.
c. CORRECT A monotrait-heteromethod coefficient indicates the correlation between the same trait being measured with different methods – i.e., it provides information about a test’s convergent validity.
d. Incorrect The monotrait-monomethod coefficient provides information about a test’s reliability.
The correct answer is: monotrait-heteromethod
A brief period of electrical stimulation of the hippocampus enhances nerve cell electrical activity in that area of the brain for minutes to hours. This is referred to as:
Select one:
A.
graded potentiation.
B.
hyperpolarization.
C.
absolute refractory period.
D.
long-term potentiation.
Interestingly, the phenomenon described in this question not only occurs in the living brain but can also be induced in cells that have been removed from the brain.
a. Incorrect Graded potentiation is a made-up term.
b. Incorrect Hyperpolarization refers to a state of inhibition.
c. Incorrect During the absolute refractory period, a cell cannot “fire” regardless of the amount of stimulation.
d. CORRECT This is the name given to the phenomenon described in this question. Long-term potentiation (LTP) is believed to underlie certain types of learning and memory.
The correct answer is: long-term potentiation.
Cognitive preparation, skills acquisition and rehearsal, and application and follow-through are the three phases of which of the following interventions?
Select one:
A.
self-control therapy
B.
self-instructional training
C.
attribution retraining
D.
stress inoculation training
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the interventions listed in the answers to this question. These are described in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Stress inoculation training was designed to help people deal with stress by improving their coping skills. It involves the stages listed in this question (although the stages are sometimes identified using slightly different names).
The correct answer is: stress inoculation training
According to Ridley (1984), “cultural paranoia” is:
Select one:
A.
a sign of depression, anxiety, or a psychotic disorder.
B.
a healthy reaction to racism.
C.
a manifestation of racist beliefs.
D.
a sign of internalized oppression.
Ridley (1984) was interested in nondisclosure by African American therapy clients and described it as the result of two types of paranoia - cultural and functional.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT According to Ridley, cultural paranoia is a healthy, adaptive reaction to racism. One result of cultural paranoia is that African American clients may mistrust a White therapist and, as a result, be unwilling to self-disclose in therapy.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: a healthy reaction to racism.
A solution-focused therapist is working with a husband and wife whose conversations frequently escalate to bitter fights. The therapist will most likely:
Select one:
A.
reduce tension during therapy sessions by having the husband and wife talk directly to her rather than to each other.
B.
instruct the couple to take a ten-minute “time-out” whenever they begin to argue at home.
C.
ask the couple if they can remember a time when they were able to talk for an extended period without arguing.
D.
ask the couple what rewards they derive from arguing.
As its name implies, solution-focused therapy focuses on solutions rather than problems.
a. Incorrect This sounds more like the approach a Bowenian family therapist would adopt.
b. Incorrect This isn’t characteristic of the solution-focused approach.
c. CORRECT Solution-focused therapists use “exceptions” to help identify solutions to a client’s problems. An exception is a time when the problem did not exist or existed in a less intense form.
d. Incorrect This is not characteristic of this approach.
The correct answer is: ask the couple if they can remember a time when they were able to talk for an extended period without arguing.
Factor analyses of Raven’s Progressive Matrices has found that it is a reliable measure of which of the following?
Select one:
A.
Spearman’s “g”
B.
Horn and Cattell’s fluid and crystallized intelligence
C.
Luria’s simultaneous and sequential processing
D.
Guilford’s convergent and divergent thinking
Knowing that Raven’s Progressive Matrices is a nonverbal measure of intelligence may have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
a. CORRECT Raven’s Progressive Matrices was originally designed to be a measure of Spearman’s “g” factor and its usefulness for this purpose has been confirmed by a number of factor analytic studies.
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: Spearman’s “g”
Carstensen’s (1993) socioemotional activity theory predicts that changes in ________ over the lifespan are related to changes in time perspective.
Select one:
A.
social self-esteem
B.
personality traits
C.
emotional reactivity
D.
social goals
Socioemotional activity theory addresses the motivational processes that underlie changes in the quality and quantity of social relationships over the lifespan.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT According to Carstenson (1993), time perspective plays a key role in determining social goals – i.e., people with a limited time perspective focus on the emotional aspects of relationships while those with an unlimited time perspective focus more on informational aspects.
The correct answer is: social goals
__________ is a neuroleptic-induced movement disorder that is characterized by a subjective feeling of restlessness accompanied by stereotypical motor movements such as fidgeting, pacing, or foot tapping.
Select one:
A.
Dystonia
B.
Akathisia
C.
Akinesia
D.
Parkinsonism
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the characteristics of the four conditions listed in the answers to this question.
a. Incorrect Dystonia is characterized by “abnormal and prolonged contraction of the muscles of the eyes …, head, neck …, limbs, or truck” (DSM-5, p. 711).
b. CORRECT The symptoms described in this question are characteristic of akathisia, which usually develops within a few weeks after starting or increasing the dose of a neuroleptic drug.
c. Incorrect Akinesia is one of the symptoms of neuroleptic-induced parkinsonism and involves a slowing or lack of normal motor function
d. Incorrect Parkinsonism involves tremor, muscle rigidity, and akinesia.
The correct answer is: Akathisia
Which of the following best describes current views regarding the use of drugs to treat delirium in older adults?
Select one:
A.
Antipsychotic drugs are contraindicated for older adults because of their ineffectiveness.
B.
Newer (atypical) antipsychotic drugs are substantially more effective than haloperidol.
C.
Haloperidol is effective but should be administered initially at a low dose and then gradually increased if necessary.
D.
Haloperidol is effective only when administered in conjunction with a benzodiazepine.
The American Psychiatric Association’s guidelines for the treatment of delirium identify haloperidol as the drug-of-choice for the treatment of this disorder, and the research has confirmed that it is as effective for older adults as it is for younger adults.
a. Incorrect The research has shown that haloperidol is about equally effective for reducing agitation, confusion, hallucinations, and certain other symptoms in older and younger adults.
b. Incorrect Although atypical antipsychotic drugs (especially risperidone) have been found useful for treating delirium, the research has not found them to be “substantially more effective” than haloperidol.
c. CORRECT Because older adults are more sensitive to the therapeutic and side effects of antipsychotics (as well as a number of other drugs), the experts recommend initiating treatment with a low dose and then increasing the dose if necessary to achieve the desired effects.
d. Incorrect The benzodiazepines are a treatment-of-choice in some cases of delirium (e.g., when it is caused by alcohol or sedative-hypnotic withdrawal), but they are not ordinarily administered in conjunction with haloperidol.
The correct answer is: Haloperidol is effective but should be administered initially at a low dose and then gradually increased if necessary.
A woman’s clothing store hires only females as sales clerks because one of the clerks’ tasks is to assist women in the store’s dressing room. In this case, the store would use which of the following standards to justify hiring only women as sales clerks?
Select one:
A.
quid pro quo
B.
business necessity
C.
bona fide occupational qualification
D.
systematic discrimination
In the situation described in the question, gender is a necessary qualification for the job.
a. Incorrect Quid pro quo is a term associated with sexual harassment and occurs when a hiring or employment decision is based on the person’s submission to or rejection of sexual advances.
b. Incorrect Business necessity is a defense to a charge of adverse impact and refers to using a discriminatory hiring practice on the ground that it is job related and necessary for the safe and efficient operation of the business. For example, considering only applicants with specific educational qualifications is a business necessity when those qualifications are necessary to perform the job at a minimum level of competence.
c. CORRECT Bona fide occupational qualification (BFOQ) is another defense to a charge of adverse impact and applies when the characteristic is an essential determinant of the genuineness of the job or must be taken into consideration to maintain community standards of morality or propriety. Gender is a BFOQ for the job described in this question.
d. Incorrect Systematic discrimination refers to a pattern of discrimination at a particular place of employment that is due to pervasive, interrelated policies and procedures.
The correct answer is: bona fide occupational qualification
The predictions of goal-setting theory appear to be most accurate for:
Select one:
A.
easy tasks and people high in need for achievement.
B.
easy tasks and people low in need for achievement.
C.
complex tasks and people high in need for achievement.
D.
complex tasks and people low in need for achievement.
While Edwin Locke (1968) considered his goal-setting theory to be applicable to all situations, the research suggests that it may apply better to certain types of tasks and certain people.
a. CORRECT There is some evidence that the predictions of goal setting theory are more accurate for simple tasks and for people who are high in need for achievement (who are more likely to commit to goals).
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: easy tasks and people high in need for achievement.
An African American client in the dissonance stage of Atkinson, Morten, and Sue’s Racial/Cultural Identity Development Model will exhibit which of the following?
Select one:
A.
self-deprecating and same-group deprecating attitudes
B.
self-appreciating but dominant-group deprecating attitudes
C.
a conflict between self-appreciating and self-deprecating attitudes and between same-group appreciating and same-group deprecating attitudes
D.
concern over the basis of his/her self-appreciating and unequivocal same-group appreciating attitudes
The stages of the Atkinson, Morten, and Sue model are each characterized by different attitudes toward oneself, one’s own (same) minority group, other minority groups, and the majority (mainstream) group.
a. Incorrect This is characteristic of the conformity stage (stage 1).
b. Incorrect This is characteristic of the resistance and immersion stage (stage 3).
c. CORRECT Not surprisingly, a person in the dissonance stage (stage 2) will be conflicted about his/her attitudes.
d. Incorrect This is characteristic of the introspection stage (stage 4).
The correct answer is: a conflict between self-appreciating and self-deprecating attitudes and between same-group appreciating and same-group deprecating attitudes
The DSM-5 requires that which of the following be ruled out as the cause of an individual’s symptoms before assigning a diagnosis of a sexual dysfunction?
Select one:
A.
other mental disorders, physiological/medical factors, and partner factors
B.
a nonsexual mental disorder, severe relationship distress, and the effects of a substance, medication, or other medical condition
C.
a nonsexual mental disorder, the effects of a substance/medication, and a lack of information about sexuality
D.
other mental disorder/condition, the effects of a substance/medication, and psychosocial factors
Answer B is correct: The following is included as a diagnostic criterion for a DSM-5 diagnosis of Erectile Disorder, Premature Ejaculation, and other sexual dysfunctions: “The sexual dysfunction is not better explained by a nonsexual mental disorder or as a consequence of severe relationship distress or other significant stressors and is not attributable to the effects of a substance/medication or another medical condition.”
Answers A, C, and D: See explanation above.
The correct answer is: a nonsexual mental disorder, severe relationship distress, and the effects of a substance, medication, or other medical condition
A practitioner of cognitive therapy is most likely to conceptualize a personality disorder as a consequence of:
Select one:
A.
impulsive action tendencies.
B.
cognitive enactments.
C.
maladaptive life scripts.
D.
compelling schemata.
Even if you are unfamiliar with the cognitive view of the personality disorders, your familiarity with cognitive therapy in general should have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Although the word “compelling” might be unfamiliar, the word “schemata” is one you want to have associated cognitive therapy. According to A. Freeman and R. C. Leaf, people with personality disorders are “generally governed by very compelling schemata,” which are not easily challenged or surrendered” [Cognitive therapy applied to personality disorders, in A. Freeman, et al. (eds.), Comprehensive Handbook of Cognitive Therapy, New York: Plenum Press, 1989].
The correct answer is: compelling schemata.
Research on which of the following found that, over time, people tend to remember a message but forget the messenger?
Select one:
A.
psychological reactance
B.
gain-loss effect
C.
sleeper effect
D.
attitude inoculation
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the phenomena listed in the answers to these questions. Information about them is provided in the Social Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Research on the sleeper effect found that the initial difference in the persuasiveness of high- and low-credible communicators disappears over time apparently because people tend to forget the source of the message.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: sleeper effect
Tiedeman and O’Hara’s (1963) model of career development emphasizes which of the following?
Select one:
A.
basic interests
B.
basic instinctual needs
C.
vocational identity
D.
locus of control
Tiedeman and O’Hara (1963) viewed career development as a process involving the acquisition of a personal vocational identity.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT According to these authors, the achievement of a personal vocational identity involves balancing integration (being part of a career field) with differentiation (retaining individuality and uniqueness).
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: vocational identity
Kohlberg argued that there is a monotonic relationship between moral judgment and moral action and proposed that, as one moves from a lower to a higher stage of moral development:
Select one:
A.
the range of possible moral actions becomes narrower and the individual assumes greater responsibility for relating his/her judgments to actions.
B.
the range of possible moral actions becomes broader and the individual assumes greater responsibility for relating his/her judgments to actions.
C.
the range of possible moral actions remains the same but the individual assumes greater responsibility for relating his/her judgments to actions.
D.
the range of possible moral actions becomes narrower but the individual’s sense of responsibility for relating his/her judgments to actions remains about the same.
Although Kohlberg believed that there is a positive relationship between moral judgment and moral action, he proposed that this relationship is much stronger at higher levels of moral development.
a. CORRECT The stronger relationship between judgment and action at higher stages is attributable to two factors: first, the range of actions suggested by the individual’s judgment narrows; and, second, the individual experiences an increasing sense of responsibility to act.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: the range of possible moral actions becomes narrower and the individual assumes greater responsibility for relating his/her judgments to actions.
As a treatment for Borderline Personality Disorder, Linehan’s (1987) dialectical behavior therapy emphasizes which of the following?
Select one:
A.
altering the client’s dysfunctional behaviors using modeling and behavior rehearsal
B.
using family therapy to alter the client’s social and emotional environment
C.
improving the client’s problem-solving and social skills
D.
strengthening the client’s weak ego
Answer C is correct: Knowing that dialectical behavior therapy (DBT) includes group skills training aimed at improving the client’s social and coping skills would have helped you identify this as the correct answer to this question.
Answers A and B: See explanation for answer C.
Answer D: Strengthening the client’s weak ego is a goal of object relations psychotherapy for Borderline Personality Disorder.
The correct answer is: improving the client’s problem-solving and social skills
B. F. Skinner attributed which of the following to accidental, noncontingent reinforcement?
Select one:
A.
experimental neurosis
B.
superstitious behavior
C.
overshadowing
D.
satiation
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the terms listed in the answers to this question. These are described in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Skinner found that his animal subjects would repeat behaviors that were accidentally reinforced and proposed that noncontingent reinforcement may account for the acquisition of superstitious behaviors in humans.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: superstitious behavior
Several authorities have noted that traditional forms of psychotherapy reflect a Eurocentric (Western) perspective that emphasizes:
Select one:
A.
a concrete non-linear approach.
B.
a linear cause-effect approach.
C. a reciprocal (interactive) approach.
D.
a directive behavioral approach.
This issue has been addressed by several experts interested in family therapy or cross-cultural counseling.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT The Eurocentric perspective emphasizes one-on-one problem-solving and adopts an atomistic, linear, and reductionist cause-effect approach.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: a linear cause-effect approach.
Which of the following types of biofeedback is likely to be most effective for reducing migraine headaches?
Select one:
A.
skin conductance
B.
blood volume pulse
C.
EMG (electromyography)
D.
EEG (electroencephalograph)
Several types of biofeedback have been evaluated as treatments for migraine headaches.
a. Incorrect Skin conductance biofeedback provides information on autonomic arousal and is used primarily to reduce stress and anxiety reactions.
b. CORRECT Several studies indicate that blood volume pulse biofeedback is as effective as or more effective than skin temperature biofeedback for treating migraine headaches. Blood volume pulse is measured using a photoplethysmograph (PPG) that monitors change in blood flow in the blood vessels beneath the skin. See, e.g., Y. Nestoriuc & A. Martin, Efficacy of biofeedback for migraine: A meta-analysis, Pain, 128(1-2), 111-127, 2007.
c. Incorrect EMG biofeedback is useful for muscle tension headaches but has not been found to be more effective than blood volume pulse biofeedback for treating migraine headaches.
d. Incorrect EEG biofeedback provides information on brain activity and is not used as a treatment for migraine headaches.
The correct answer is: blood volume pulse
To assess the plausibility of a causal theory about the relationships among a set of variables, you would use which of the following?
Select one:
A.
principal components analysis
B.
structural equation modeling
C.
canonical correlation
D.
cluster analysis
Of the four multivariate techniques listed in the answers to this question, only one is used to test a causal model or theory.
a. Incorrect Principal components analysis is similar to factor analysis and is used to identify a set of variables (components) that explains the variability in a set of tests.
b. CORRECT Structural equation modeling is used to test cause-and-effect relationships among a set of variables.
c. Incorrect Canonical correlation is used to determine the degree of association between two more more predictors and two or more criteria.
d. Incorrect As its name implies, cluster analysis is used to place variables into clusters (categories).
The correct answer is: structural equation modeling
According to Fiedler’s contingency theory of leadership, a task-motivated (“low LPC”) leader is most effective when his or her relations with subordinates are:
Select one:
A.
very good.
B.
very poor.
C.
very good or very poor.
D.
moderate.
Fiedler’s theory predicts that task-motivated (low LPC) leaders and relationship-motivated (high LPC) leaders are most effective in different circumstances. One circumstance that determines the best leadership style is the nature of leader-member relations.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Task-motivated leaders are most effective in extreme situations - that is, when leader-member relations are either very good or very poor.
d. Incorrect Relationship-motivated leaders are most effective in less extreme situations - e.g., when leader-member relations are moderate (between good and poor).
The correct answer is: very good or very poor.
The research has consistently linked increasing age with decreases in scores on measures of ____________ and suggests that these decreases may be related to declines in the efficiency of working memory.
Select one:
A.
verbal comprehension
B.
nonverbal comprehension
C.
crystallized intelligence
D.
fluid intelligence
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the difference between fluid and crystallized intelligence, including differences in their vulnerability to age-related decline.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. CORRECT The research has generally found that scores on measures of crystallized intelligence do not begin to decline until the mid-50s or later, while scores on measures of fluid intelligence begin to decline in early adulthood. In addition, there is evidence that decreases in fluid intelligence are attributable to declines in working memory.
The correct answer is: fluid intelligence
A meta-analysis of the research by Baltes and his colleagues (1999) found that instituting flextime in an organization is likely to have the LEAST beneficial effects on which of the following?
Select one:
A.
absenteeism
B.
self-rated performance
C.
satisfaction with work schedule
D.
overall job satisfaction
Unfortunately, the research on the effects of flextime and other alternative work schedules has produced inconsistent results. However, this question is asking about the results of a specific meta-analysis of the research.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Baltes et al. found that flextime had a substantial positive effects on absenteeism, satisfaction with the work schedule, and overall job satsifaction but had little effect on self-rated performance. For additional information on the Baltes et al. meta-analysis, see the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: self-rated performance
As a diathesis-stress model, Beck’s cognitive theory predicts that which of the following serves as the diathesis in the development of depressive symptomology?
Select one:
A.
dysfunctional schemas
B.
a genetic predisposition
C.
exposure to a negative event
D.
faulty attributions
Diathesis-stress models describe illness as the result of a combination of vulnerability (diathesis) and stress, with the nature of the vulnerability depending on the type of theory. Not surprisingly, Beck’s cognitive theory of depression identifies cognitive factors as the source of vulnerability.
a. CORRECT Beck’s cognitive diathesis-stress model of depression proposes that certain people have depressogenic schemas that make them vulnerable to experiencing depression when exposed to a negative life event.
b. Incorrect Beck’s cognitive theory focuses on cognitive, not biological, factors.
c. Incorrect Exposure to a negative event is the “stress” in Beck’s cognitive diathesis-stress model.
d. Incorrect Certain types of attributions - i.e., internal, stable, and global attributions - for negative outcomes are identified as the diathesis in Abramson, Metalsky, and Alloy’s (1989) hopelessness model of depression. Although their theory is a cognitive theory, this question is asking about Beck’s cognitive theory, so answer a is the best answer to this question.
The correct answer is: dysfunctional schemas
In the context of test validity, ________ is said to occur when a criterion-related validity coefficient is smaller in size for a cross-validation sample than it was for the initial sample.
Select one:
A.
criterion deficiency
B.
contracture
C.
shrinkage
D.
attenuation
Cross-validation involves re-assessing a test’s criterion-related validity on a new sample to check the generalizability of the original validity coefficient.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT The validity coefficient usually “shrinks” on cross-validation because the chance factors operating in the original sample are not all present in the cross-validation sample.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: shrinkage
When the item discrimination index (D) equals _____, this means that all of the examinees in the upper-scoring group and none of the examinees in the lower-scoring group answered the item correctly.
Select one:
A.
50
B.
1
C.
-1
D.
0
Answer B is correct. The item discrimination index ranges in value from -1.0 to +1.0. An item discrimination index of +1.0 indicates maximum discrimination between high- and low-scoring groups, with all examinees in the upper group answering the item correctly and none of the examinees in the lower group answering the item correctly.
The correct answer is: 1
