TEST MODE - Test 5 Flashcards
A number of studies investigating the progression of HIV infection have evaluated the impact of demographic factors. With regard to age, these studies have most consistently found that, among adults:
Select one:
A.
age is unrelated to HIV disease progression.
B.
younger age is associated with a more rapid HIV disease progression.
C.
middle age is associated with a more rapid HIV disease progression.
D.
older age is associated with a more rapid HIV disease progression.
HIV prognosis has been linked to several psychosocial risk factors including age.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT In a study conducted by Farinpour and colleagues, 1,231 HIV-seropositive men, ages 21 to 66, were followed for approximately 13 years after baseline testing. The results of the study indicated that age, general intellectual functioning, and somatic symptoms of depression were significant predictors of HIV progression and survival - i.e., older age, lower IQ, and the presence of somatic symptoms of depression were associated with a more rapid progression to AIDS, HIV-related dementia, and death. [Farinpour, R., et al., Psychosocial risk factors of HIV morbidity and mortality: Findings from the Multicenter Aids Cohort Study (MACS), Journal of Clinical and Experimental Neuropsychology, 25(5), 654-670, 2003.] These findings are consistent with the results of other studies.
The correct answer is: older age is associated with a more rapid HIV disease progression.
According to the DSM-5, the lifetime prevalence of Schizophrenia in the general population is approximately:
Select one:
A.
.01%.
B.
0.5%.
C.
5%.
D.
10%.
Estimates of the prevalence of Schizophrenia in the population vary, depending on country, race/ethnicity, and other factors.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT A lifetime prevalence rate of 0.3% and 0.7% is the rate reported in the DSM-5. Since 0.5% falls within this range, this is the best answer.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: 0.5%.
Tulving has divided memory into three types: procedural, episodic, and semantic. According to Tulving, semantic memory:
Select one:
A.
consists of internal representations of stimulus-response connections.
B.
is more affected by amnesia than procedural memory and episodic memory.
C.
includes rules for manipulating words and symbols.
D.
is coded temporally.
Tulving (1972, 1985) and others distinguish between three types of long-term memory: semantic, episodic, and procedural. Semantic memory holds all the information we need to use language, including words and the symbols for them; their meanings; their referents (what they represent); and the rules for manipulating words and symbols such as the rules for English grammar, the rules for adding and multiplying, and chemical formulas. Episodic memory holds information about how things appeared and when they occurred, such as “I broke my arm in the summer of 1977.” And procedural memory contains learned skills (procedures) and modifiable cognitive operations.
a. Incorrect This describes procedural memory.
b. Incorrect Of the three types of memory, episodic memory is usually most affected by amnesia.
c. CORRECT As noted above, this best describes semantic memory.
d. Incorrect This describes episodic memory.
The correct answer is: includes rules for manipulating words and symbols.
According to McClelland (1975), the need for power can be described in terms of which of the following two types?
Select one:
A.
instrumental and hostile
B.
referent and coercive
C.
explicit and implicit
D.
personal and socialized
McClelland described motivation as being determined by three fundamental needs – needs for affiliation, achievement, and power.
a. Incorrect Instrumental and hostile are two types of aggression distinguished in the literature.
b. Incorrect Referent and coercive are two of the bases of social power identified by French and Raven.
c. Incorrect Explicit and implicit are not the types of power described by McClelland.
d. CORRECT McClelland distinguished between personal and socialized power. People with a high need for personal power have a strong desire to dominate others, while those with a high need for socialized power are more concerned about using their influence to benefit others. According to McClelland, a high need for socialized power is associated with effectiveness as a manager.
The correct answer is: personal and socialized
Dr. Burgher is the only psychologist in a small town. His daughter’s girl scout leader wants to begin seeing Dr. Burgher to work through some family-related problems. As an ethical psychologist, Dr. Burgher should:
Select one:
A.
refuse to see the woman because to do so would constitute a “multiple relationship.”
B.
see the woman since he is the only psychologist in town and her problems are unrelated to her role as girl scout leader.
C.
determine the seriousness of the woman’s problems and base his decision about seeing the woman on the outcome of that evaluation.
D.
assess the potential for exploitation and loss of objectivity and base his decision about seeing the woman on the outcome of that assessment.
Standard 3.05 of the Ethics Code addresses multiple relationships. Keep in mind that, while multiple relationships should ordinarily be avoided, they are not absolutely prohibited.
a. Incorrect Because the psychologist is the only one in town, you’d want some additional information before deciding that he should not see his daughter’s girl scout leader.
b. Incorrect This might be acceptable, but you’d want the response to mention something about the psychologist’s ethical responsibilities in this situation.
c. Incorrect This is one of the factors that a psychologist might consider in this situation but is certainly not the only one.
d. CORRECT This is the best answer of those given because it reiterates the actual language of the Ethics Code.
The correct answer is: assess the potential for exploitation and loss of objectivity and base his decision about seeing the woman on the outcome of that assessment.
The parents of a three-year old boy ask a psychologist what they can do to reduce their son’s frequent temper tantrums. After learning that the parents pay attention to the boy whenever he has an outburst, the psychologist tells them to consistently ignore the boy each time he has a tantrum. The technique the psychologist has suggested is an example of:
Select one:
A.
shaping.
B.
negative reinforcement.
C.
extinction.
D.
overcorrection.
In the situation described in this question, the child will no longer be reinforced for engaging in temper tantrums; and, as a result, his tantrums will cease.
a. Incorrect Shaping is a type of positive reinforcement in which successive approximations to the desired response are reinforced.
b. Incorrect Negative reinforcement involves removing or withholding a stimulus following a behavior in order to increase the behavior.
c. CORRECT Extinction involves removing reinforcement from a previously reinforced behavior to reduce or eliminate it. Extinction has been found to be an effective method for reducing a child’s temper tantrums.
d. Incorrect Overcorrection is used to eliminate an undesirable behavior and establish more appropriate or desirable ones.
The correct answer is: extinction.
Experts on cross-cultural counseling note that, when working with African American clients, it is important to recognize that their past experiences in a racist society are likely to have fostered feelings of powerlessness. Consequently, a good strategy for a therapist is to adopt a:
Select one:
A.
non-directive, less active approach.
B.
problem-solving, time-limited approach.
C.
color-blind approach.
D.
neutral, educative approach.
In general, experts in the field of cross-cultural counseling agree that goal-directed therapies are most effective with members of most minority groups.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT According to M. K. Ho, “Regardless of the nature of the family’s problem(s), Black families are likely to be most responsive to problem-solving, time-limited family therapy approaches” (Family therapy with ethnic minorities, Newbury Park, Sage Publications, 1987).
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: problem-solving, time-limited approach.
The loss of memory for events that occurred during the weeks prior to a head injury is referred to as:
Select one:
A.
anterograde amnesia.
B.
retrograde amnesia.
C.
proactive interference.
D.
retroactive interference.
This question is asking about a loss of memory for events occurring before the head injury. Loss of memory can be either anterograde or retrograde.
a. Incorrect This would involve an inability to form new memories following the head injury.
b. CORRECT Retrograde amnesia refers to amnesia for events “backward in time.”
c. Incorrect Proactive interference occurs when previous learning interferes with new learning.
d. Incorrect Retroactive interference occurs when current learning interferes with the ability to retrieve previously acquired information.
The correct answer is: retrograde amnesia.
When conducting research with human participants, a psychologist should be aware that:
Select one:
A.
participants must be debriefed promptly after their participation in the study.
B.
participants must be debriefed after their participation in a study only when the study involved deception.
C.
participants must be debriefed promptly if possible or, if necessary to delay the debriefing, psychologists must reduce the risk for harm.
D.
the decision to debrief is left to the psychologist and involves considering the risk for harm to participants if they are not debriefed.
This issue is addressed in Standard 8.08 of the Ethics Code.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Research participants should be promptly provided with “appropriate information about the nature, results, and conclusions of the research.” When there must be a delay in providing such information, “psychologists take reasonable measures to reduce the risk of harm.”
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: participants must be debriefed promptly if possible or, if necessary to delay the debriefing, psychologists must reduce the risk for harm.
Which of the following best characterizes the nature of the criticism that boys and girls tend to receive from their teachers in elementary school?
Select one:
A.
Girls receive criticism directed at their behavior, whereas boys receive criticism directed at their ability.
B.
Boys receive criticism directed at their behavior, whereas girls receive criticism directed at their ability.
C.
Girls receive more criticism than boys in all respects.
D.
There is no difference in the nature of the criticism that boys and girls receive.
Research has shown that boys receive more criticism, whereas girls receive more praise during their elementary school years.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Furthermore, the nature of the criticism varies: boys are more often criticized for incorrect behavior and girls are more often criticized for a lack of ability.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: Boys receive criticism directed at their behavior, whereas girls receive criticism directed at their ability.
A child with dyslexia who has not responded to interventions that target his reading problems would receive a DSM-5 diagnosis of:
Select one:
A.
Academic Skills Disorder with impaired reading.
B.
Reading Disorder.
C.
Learning Disorder NOS.
D.
Specific Learning Disorder with impairment in reading.
Answer D is correct: The appropriate diagnosis for dyslexia is Specific Learning Disorder with the specifier “impairment in reading.”
The correct answer is: Specific Learning Disorder with impairment in reading.
In working with a client who has received a diagnosis of Dissociative Identity Disorder, a cognitive therapist’s initial goal would be:
Select one:
A.
to collaborate with the client to identify specific treatment goals.
B.
to make a “cognitive diagnosis” for the purpose of developing a concrete treatment plan.
C.
to identify the cognitive antecedents and consequences that are sustaining the client’s multiple personalities.
D.
to establish a working alliance that provides the client with a sense of safety.
In her discussion of the cognitive treatment of Multiple Personality Disorder–now termed Dissociative Identity Disorder, C. G. Fine (in A. Freeman (Ed.), Comprehensive casebook of cognitive therapy, 1992) emphasizes the importance of establishing a therapeutic relationship with the client. Her position is consistent with that of other cognitive therapists who view the development of a therapeutic alliance as a critical initial step in treatment.
a. Incorrect Although cognitive therapy is collaborative, the identification of treatment goals would follow the establishment of a working alliance.
b. Incorrect The term “cognitive diagnosis” is a made-up term. Also, treatment planning is not an initial step but, instead, follows establishing a working alliance and identifying or clarifying the client’s problems.
c. Incorrect Cognitive therapists do look at antecedents (e.g., automatic thoughts as well as aspects of the client’s background that may have contributed to the client’s problem) and consequences. However, this is not an initial step in therapy.
d. CORRECT As noted above, an initial goal in cognitive therapy is to establish a good working alliance.
The correct answer is: to establish a working alliance that provides the client with a sense of safety.
Your new client, Jay J., age 31, complains that he’s had trouble falling asleep at night for a number of years but that it’s become a more significant problem since he got married last year because his sleep problems are now keeping his wife awake. You instruct Jay to go to bed only when he feels tired; to get out of bed, go to another room, and engage in a relaxing activity if he doesn’t fall asleep within about 20 minutes after going to bed; to use the bed only for sleep and sexual activity; to get up in the morning at about the same time regardless of how much sleep he’s had; and to avoid napping. You are using which of the following techniques?
Select one:
A.
habit reversal
B.
Premack principle
C.
stimulus control
D.
overcorrection
The intervention described in this question involves strengthening the bed and bedroom as cues for sleep and weakening them as cues for other activities.
a. Incorrect Habit reversal training is a multicomponent behavioral treatment that is used to reduce habitual behaviors that are undesirable and serve no adaptive function (e.g., hair pulling, nail biting, tics).
b. Incorrect The Premack principle is an application of positive reinforcement and involves reinforcing a low frequency behavior (e.g., completing homework) with a high frequency behavior (e.g., playing video games) to increase the low frequency behavior.
c. CORRECT Stimulus control involves increasing the links between certain cues and a behavior in order to increase the frequency of that behavior. It was originally applied to the treatment of sleep problems by R. Bootzin [A stimulus control treatment for insomnia, American Psychological Association Proceedings, 395-396, 1972}.
d. Incorrect Overcorrection is used to eliminate an undesirable behavior and involves having the individual correct the consequences of his/her behavior (restitution) and/or practice corrective behaviors (positive practice).
The correct answer is: stimulus control
According to Piaget, the key feature of the _______________ stage is the development of the “semiotic function.”
Select one:
A.
concrete operational
B.
preoperational
C.
sensorimotor
D.
formal operational
The semiotic function refers to the ability to use a symbol, object, or word to stand for something.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT The preoperational stage extends from ages 2 to 7. During this stage, thought becomes symbolic in form.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: preoperational
To help a depressed client identify the cognitive errors and distortions that are affecting her interpretation of current life events, a practitioner of Beck’s cognitive therapy would:
Select one:
A.
rely primarily on didactic techniques.
B.
make use of Socratic questioning.
C.
rely on verbal persuasion.
D.
use paradoxical techniques to overcome resistance.
A key characteristic of Beck’s cognitive therapy is the use of guided discovery, which involves the use of questions.
a. Incorrect Although Beck uses didactic methods to explain the theory underlying the cognitive approach, they are not as useful as questioning for helping a client identify his or her cognitive errors and distortions.
b. CORRECT Inductive (Socratic) questioning is an essential component of Beck’s approach. It is used to guide clients through the process of identifying the impact of their cognitions on their emotions and behaviors and alternative ways of thinking.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: make use of Socratic questioning.
The endoplasmic reticulum is involved in:
Select one:
A.
processing incoming visual stimuli.
B.
processing incoming auditory stimuli.
C.
transporting proteins and fats.
D.
storing neurotransmitters.
The endoplasmic reticulum is a system of channels in the cell body of the neuron.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT The rough portion of the endoplasmic reticulum plays a role in the synthesis and transportation of proteins, while the smooth portion is involved in the synthesis and transportation of fats.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: transporting proteins and fats.
Youngsters begin to describe themselves in terms of personality attributes - e.g., “I’m smart,” “I’m friendly,” “I’m shy”:
Select one:
A.
in early childhood (ages 2-6).
B.
at the beginning of middle childhood (ages 7-8).
C.
toward the end of middle childhood (ages 10-12).
D.
in early adolescence (ages 13-14).
Children’s descriptions of themselves are affected by their self-concept, which develops in a predictable way during childhood.
a. Incorrect In early childhood, children describe themselves primarily in terms of specific behaviors.
b. Incorrect At the beginning of middle childhood, children start to describe themselves in terms of their physical competencies - e.g., “I’m good at …”
c. CORRECT Toward the end of middle childhood, a child’s self-concept becomes increasingly based on personality traits.
d. Incorrect Children begin to describe themselves in terms of personality traits prior to adolescence.
The correct answer is: toward the end of middle childhood (ages 10-12).
Your new client is a 20-year-old college student who says she’s failing her classes because of her anxiety. She states that she has to force herself to leave her dorm room to go to class, and when she does, she avoids the “quad” and other large open spaces because she’s afraid she’ll have a panic attack. The client tells you that, when in large open spaces, she can’t breathe and her heart races, she feels like she’s going to die, and she’s afraid that no one will help her if she has an attack. She says that she experiences the same problem when she’s part of a crowd and avoids going anywhere where there’s likely to be a “lot of people,” which has made it hard for her to have a social life. Based on this information, the most likely DSM-5 diagnosis for this client is:
Select one:
A.
Panic Disorder with Agoraphobia
B.
Agoraphobia
C.
Agoraphobia without History of Panic Disorder
D.
Specific Phobia, situational type
Answer B is correct: A DSM-5 diagnosis of Agoraphobia requires the presence of marked fear of or anxiety about at least two of five situations (using public transportation, being in open spaces, being in enclosed spaces, standing in line or being part of a crowd, and being outside the home alone). The individual fears or avoids these situations due to a concern that escape might be difficult or help will be unavailable in case he/she develops incapacitating or embarrassing symptoms; and the situations nearly always provoke fear or anxiety and are actively avoided, require the presence of a companion, or are endured with intense fear or anxiety.
Answers A and C: Panic Disorder with Agoraphobia and Agoraphobia Without History of Panic Disorder are not DSM-5 diagnoses.
Answer D: It can be difficult to differentiate Agoraphobia from Specific Phobia, situational type; but, when the individual’s fear is limited to only one of the situations associated with Agoraphobia and is due to something other than a fear that escape might be difficult or help will be unavailable when symptoms occur, the diagnosis is Specific Phobia, situational type.
The correct answer is: Agoraphobia
When taking the Stroop test, an examinee may have trouble correctly naming the color of ink that a word is printed in because:
Select one:
A.
the word is projected to his/her right visual field only.
B.
the word is projected to his/her left visual field only.
C.
the word names a color that differs from the color of the ink.
D.
the word is a non-pronounceable “nonsense syllable.”
When administering the Stroop Color-Word Association Test, the examinee names the color of the ink of printed words.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Development of the Stroop Test was based on the observation that people can read words faster than they can identify and name colors. When words that name colors are printed in a different color ink (e.g., when the word red is printed in blue), the prepotent response is to say red.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: the word names a color that differs from the color of the ink.
The various approaches to behavior family therapy differ with regard to goals and strategies but most share a focus on which of the following?
Select one:
A.
helping family members develop new meanings for problematic behaviors.
B.
using resistance and paradox to alter maladaptive behaviors.
C.
altering transactional patterns as a means of fostering insight.
D.
enhancing problem-solving and communication skills.
Behavioral approaches to family therapy combine principles of operant conditioning, social learning theory, and social exchange theory.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Behavioral family therapies focus on observable behaviors and use contingent reinforcement and other behavioral techniques to modify behaviors, especially those related to problem-solving and communication.
The correct answer is: enhancing problem-solving and communication skills.
An amputee experiences a sensation on his missing limb whenever he is touched on his lower lip. This is referred to as:
Select one:
A.
phantom limb.
B.
super-added phantom.
C.
referred phantom sensation.
D.
adventitious synesthesia.
Several terms are used to describe the phantom phenomena that may occur following amputation of a limb.
a. Incorrect Phantom limb (also known as phantom limb sensation) involves experiencing a sensation other than pain in the missing limb without any type of external stimulation.
b. Incorrect Super-added phantom involves experiencing the feeling of an object (e.g., a ring or watch) on the missing limb.
c. CORRECT Referred phantom sensation occurs when a person experiences a sensation in the missing limb when a stimulus is applied to another part of his/her body. There is evidence that this phenomenon is due to cortical remapping, which involves a reorganization of nerve fibers in the somatosensory cortex. See, e.g., V. S. Ramachandran, D. C. Rogers-Ramachandran, and M. Stewart, Perceptual correlates of massive cortical reorganization, Science, 258(5085), 1159-1160, 1992.
d. Incorrect Adventitious synesthesia is the only term listed in the answers that is NOT associated with amputation. Synesthesia is a rare neurological condition in which stimulation of one sensory modality triggers a sensation in another sensory modality; and adventitious synesthesia refers to synesthesia that is due to epilepsy, stroke, the use of drugs, or other non-genetic cause.
The correct answer is: referred phantom sensation.
Dr. Callow is a licensed psychologist who has recently been hired by a mental health clinic. Several of his new patients are members of a culturally diverse group that he has not worked with before. His training, however, is appropriate for the services he will provide. As an ethical psychologist, Dr. Callow should:
Select one:
A.
refuse to work with these patients.
B.
take a relevant APA-approved continuing education course.
C.
obtain consultation from a therapist who does have experience with members of this group.
D.
see the patients and seek consultation only if he experiences any problems during the course of therapy.
Several Standards of the Ethics Code apply to this situation. For example, Standard 2.01(b) states that when differences in race or ethnicity might affect a psychologist’s ability to work, he/she obtains “the training, experience, consultation, or supervision necessary to ensure the competence of [his/her] services.”
a. Incorrect Since it appears that expertise in working with members of this culturally-diverse group is important for his position at the mental health clinic, it would be better for Dr. Callow to gain that expertise.
b. Incorrect Taking a course does not seem to be sufficient in this situation.
c. CORRECT Of the answers given, this one seems to represent the most ethical course of action. It is consistent with the requirements of Standard 2.01(c), which states that “Psychologists planning to provide services, teach, or conduct research involving populations, areas, techniques, or technologies new to them undertake relevant education, training, supervised experience, consultation, or study.” Even though he has had no prior experience with members of this group, consultation would be the best course of action for Dr. Callow because he is competent to provide the type of treatment.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. It would be better for Dr. Callow to seek consultation prior to treating these populations, and not “only” if a problem arises.
The correct answer is: obtain consultation from a therapist who does have experience with members of this group.
Research investigating the effects of Head Start and similar compensatory education programs has found that these programs:
Select one:
A.
have few benefits in terms of academic achievement or other outcomes.
B.
have some short-term benefits in terms of academic achievement only.
C.
have benefits in terms of academic outcomes, social adjustment, and employment.
D.
have few benefits in terms of academic outcomes but some benefits in terms of of social adjustment and employment.
Answer C is correct. Longitudinal studies have found that the immediate effects of compensatory education programs on IQ are often not maintained but that these programs have other positive academic, social, and occupational consequences. Answer C is the best option. The answer summarizes the results of longitudinal studies which have found that improvements in IQ test scores are often not maintained but that children who attend these programs often obtain higher achievement test scores, are less likely to drop out of school, and have lower rates of delinquency and unemployment.
The correct answer is: have benefits in terms of academic outcomes, social adjustment, and employment.
A test developer uses a multitrait-multimethod matrix to organize the data she has collected in a validation study of her newly developed self-report measure of self-esteem. The matrix indicates that the correlation between her self-report measure of self-esteem and an established (previously validated) teacher rating of self-esteem is .91. This correlation coefficient is referred to as a:
Select one:
A.
monotrait-heteromethod coefficient.
B.
monotrait-monomethod coefficient.
C.
heterotrait-heteromethod coefficient.
D.
heterotrait-monomethod coefficient.
Knowing that, in the context of the multitrait-multimethod matrix, “hetero” means different and “mono” means same would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
a. CORRECT The monotrait-heteromethod coefficient indicates the correlation between two different measures of the same trait - e.g., two different measures of self-esteem.
b. Incorrect The monotrait-monomethod coefficient is a reliability coefficient and indicates the correlation of the test with itself (“same trait-same method”).
c. Incorrect The heterotrait-heteromethod coefficient indicates the correlation between two different methods that measure different traits (e.g., a self-report measure of self-esteem and a teacher rating of locus of control).
d. Incorrect The heterotrait-monomethod coefficient indicates the correlation between two similar methods that measure different traits (e.g., a self-report measure of self-esteem and a self-report measure of locus of control).
The correct answer is: monotrait-heteromethod coefficient.
Use of which of the following designs involves administering each level of the independent variable to participants so that it appears the same number of times in each position (first, second, etc.)?
Select one:
A.
factorial
B.
time-series
C.
Latin square
D.
Solomon
Answer C is correct: For the exam, you want to be familiar with the designs listed in the answers to this question. These are described in the Statistics and Research Design chapter of the written study materials. The Latin square design is a type of counterbalanced design that assures that each treatment (level of the IV) appears an equal number of times in each ordinal position.
The correct answer is: Latin square
Which of the following best describes the difference between escape and avoidance conditioning?
Select one:
A.
Escape conditioning is the result of positive reinforcement, while avoidance conditioning is the result of negative reinforcement.
B.
Escape conditioning is the result of negative reinforcement, while avoidance conditioning is the result of negative punishment.
C.
Escape and avoidance conditioning are both the result of negative reinforcement, but only escape conditioning combines negative reinforcement with classical conditioning.
D.
Escape and avoidance conditioning are both the result of negative reinforcement, but only avoidance conditioning combines negative reinforcement with classical conditioning.
Knowing that escape and avoidance conditioning are both applications of negative reinforcement would have allowed you to eliminate answers a and b.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Escape and avoidance conditioning both result in an increase in behavior because performance of the behavior results in the removal or termination of a stimulus (negative reinforcer). The difference between the two procedures is that avoidance conditioning involves presentation of a cue (positive discriminative stimulus) that signals that a negative reinforcer is about to be applied so that the organism can perform the target behavior prior to delivery of the negative reinforcer and, therefore, avoid exposure to it. The connection between the cue and negative reinforcer is the result of classical conditioning.
The correct answer is: Escape and avoidance conditioning are both the result of negative reinforcement, but only avoidance conditioning combines negative reinforcement with classical conditioning.
In their prospective study of patients who underwent sex reassignment surgery, Smith et al. (2005) found that:
Select one:
A.
the majority of patients no longer expressed gender dysphoria following surgery.
B.
the majority of patients continued to express gender dysphoria following surgery.
C.
the majority of patients expressed an increase in gender dysphoria following surgery.
D.
the majority of female-to-male (but not male-to-female) patients expressed an increase in gender dysphoria following surgery.
This is a difficult question because it’s asking about a particular study. However, being generally familiar with the research on outcomes of sex reassignment surgery would have helped you identify the correct response.
Answer A is correct. Smith and colleagues found that the 162 adults in their study reported that they no longer experienced gender dysphoria following sex reassignment surgery, and the majority were functioning well psychologically, socially, and sexually [Sex reassignment: Outcomes and predictors of treatment for adolescent and adult transsexuals, Psychological Medicine, 35(1), 89-99, 2005]. The outcomes of this study are consistent with the findings of other recent research.
The correct answer is: the majority of patients no longer expressed gender dysphoria following surgery.
From the perspective of Tuckman and Jensen’s (1977) model of group formation, an emphasis on socializing and developing close relationships is characteristic of the __________ stage.
Select one:
A.
norming
B.
forming
C.
performing
D.
storming
Tuckman and Jensen (1977) distinguished between five stages of group development – forming, storming, norming, performing, and adjourning.
a. CORRECT The norming stage is characterized by worker agreement, congruence, and participation in social activities. It can become a “period of play” as the task becomes temporarily abandoned by workers. Additional information about the Tuckman and Jensen’s stages is provided in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: norming
Thirty-six-year-old Abraham was in a car accident. Aside from receiving many broken bones, he experienced significant head trauma. Months after the car accident, he systematically begins forgetting things and it is progressively becoming worse. What is the most likely reason he is experiencing memory loss?
Select one:
A.
He may be experiencing early onset Alzheimers brought on by the trauma of the car accident
B.
There may be psychological trauma that he is experiencing which is affecting his memory processing because he is refusing to address the car accident
C.
There may be a genetic defect in his brain became worse from the trauma of the car accident
D.
His hippocampus may have been damaged, along with other parts of his brain which is now affecting his memory
The correct answer is D. It is most likely that Abraham is experiencing some form of anterograde amnesia as a result from the damage to his hippocampus. Answer A is incorrect as early onset Alzheimers is very rare, and it is unlikely that the car accident was a trigger. Although answer B has some possibility, it would not necessarily be progressively getting worse, nor do we have any reason to believe from the vignette that Abraham has been actively refusing to address the car accident. Answer C is incorrect; though it is possible, it is statistically unlikely, and he would have been showing symptoms prior to the accident if that were the correct diagnosis.
The correct answer is: His hippocampus may have been damaged, along with other parts of his brain which is now affecting his memory
Which of the following is true about the use of hypnotically induced testimony in legal proceedings?
Select one:
A.
Hypnotically induced testimony is permitted in all jurisdictions as long as the hypnotherapist is licensed or certified.
B.
Hypnotically induced testimony is permitted in all jurisdictions only when there is no contradictory evidence.
C.
Hypnotically induced testimony is permitted in some jurisdictions under specific conditions (e.g., when corroborating evidence is available).
D.
Hypnotically induced testimony is not permitted in any jurisdiction under any conditions.
The studies have generally found memories elicited under hypnosis to be unreliable, and laws regarding the admissibility of hypnotically induced testimony in legal proceedings are consistent with these findings.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Of the answers given, this one best describes the current status of the admissibility of hypnotically induced testimony in legal proceedings. Many jurisdictions have adopted a “per se exclusion” that excludes testimony about memories that first occurred during or after hypnosis. In other jurisdictions, a “totality of circumstances test” is used, which requires that certain guidelines or conditions be met so that it is unlikely that hypnosis impacted the individual’s memory.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: Hypnotically induced testimony is permitted in some jurisdictions under specific conditions (e.g., when corroborating evidence is available).
In the context of test construction, __________ refers to the extent to which test items contribute to achieving the stated goals or purpose of testing.
Select one:
A.
relevance
B.
reliability
C.
significance
D.
verification
This is a fairly easy question since “relevance” is what it sounds like.
a. CORRECT Test items are relevant when they are germane to the purpose of testing. For example, some educators use a “test relevance index” to determine the extent to which test items on achievement tests are relevant to the goals of the curriculum.
b. Incorrect Reliability refers to the consistency of scores and is used as an index of the degree to which test scores are unaffected by random (measurement) error.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: relevance
According to the “hostile attribution bias” (Crick & Dodge, 1994; Dodge, 1980):
Select one:
A.
people with moderate to severe depression are less likely than people with mild or no depression to interpret the ambiguous actions of others as intentionally hostile.
B.
aggressive children are more likely than nonaggressive children to interpret the ambiguous actions of peers as intentionally hostile.
C.
authoritarian parents are more likely than authoritative parents to interpret the actions of their children as hostile.
D.
people are more likely to attribute the hostility of others to dispositional factors than to situational factors.
The hostile attribution bias is used to explain the reactions of aggressive children to the behaviors of peers.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT This is an accurate description of the prediction of the hostile attribution bias, which was originally described by Dodge (1980). It predicts that aggressive children are more likely than nonaggressive children to interpret the ambiguous behaviors of peers as intentionally hostile and, therefore, to react to those peers with aggressive, hostile behaviors. The hostile attribution bias is believed to be due to deficits in social information processing.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: aggressive children are more likely than nonaggressive children to interpret the ambiguous actions of peers as intentionally hostile.
Which of the following is used as an index of inter-rater reliability?
Select one:
A.
percent agreement
B.
coefficient alpha
C.
coefficient of equivalence
D.
Spearman-Brown formula
Inter-rater reliability is of concern for tests that are subjectively scored.
a. CORRECT Inter-reliability can be evaluated by correlating the scores assigned by two or more raters (e.g., the kappa statistic) or by calculating percent agreement.
b. Incorrect Coefficient alpha is used to measure internal consistency reliability.
c. Incorrect Coefficient of equivalence is another name for the alternative forms reliability coefficient.
d. Incorrect The Spearman-Brown formula is used to estimate the effects of shortening or lengthening a test on its reliability coefficient.
The correct answer is: percent agreement
Melanie Klein considered the actions of children during play therapy to be equivalent to an adult client’s free associations. Anna Freud, in commenting on Klein’s conclusions:
Select one:
A.
agreed that play therapy could be used as a substitute for free association.
B.
argued that the actions of children during play therapy are better considered a form of “acting out.”
C.
argued that the actions of children during play therapy are better interpreted as a form of resistance.
D.
concluded that play therapy is counterproductive in the analysis of children.
Anna Freud regarded play therapy as a useful tool in the analysis of children but rejected Klein”s use of play therapy as a substitute for free association.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT In her paper “Acting Out” (The Writings of Anna Freud, Volume IX), Freud notes that, in pre-latency children, motor actions are the legitimate media of expression and communication of impulses; and, consequently, during that period, play is a form of “acting out.”
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: argued that the actions of children during play therapy are better considered a form of “acting out.”
A psychologist who has been seeing a prison inmate in therapy is asked by the parole board to evaluate the inmate to determine his readiness for parole. The psychologist should:
Select one:
A.
agree to do so since she is already familiar with the inmates readiness for parole.
B.
agree to do so only if the inmate agrees and signs a waiver of confidentiality.
C.
agree to do so only if she has the expertise necessary to make an informed parole recommendation.
D.
decline to conduct the evaluation because doing so would constitute a multiple relationship.
This issue is addressed in the APA’s Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychology and by L. E. Weinberger and S. Sreenivassan in Ethical principles of correctional psychology in W. O’Donohue & K. Ferguson (Eds.), Handbook of professional ethics for psychologists, Thousand Oaks, CA, Sage Publ., 2003.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Weinberger and Sreenivassan state that, when a psychologist is acing as an individual’s (inmate’s) therapist “and is then asked (regardless by whom) to function as the individual’s evaluator, the psychologist is engaging in a multiple relationship” if he/she agrees to do so (p. 367).
The correct answer is: decline to conduct the evaluation because doing so would constitute a multiple relationship.
A distinguishing feature of the Montessori method is its:
Select one:
A.
emphasis on cooperative learning and group achievement.
B.
use of art and music to teach academic subjects.
C.
assumption that all learning stems from sense perception.
D.
placement of children in classes on the basis of developmental level rather than chronological age.
The Montessori method was originally developed for intellectually disabled children but has been shown to be effective for the general population and is not only used in preschool but also in elementary and high school as well.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT The Montessori method is characterized by the use of special materials designed to teach sense discrimination. For example, to facilitate the teaching of reading, large letters of the alphabet are covered with sandpaper.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: assumption that all learning stems from sense perception.
According to Aaron Beck, the core link between depression and suicide is:
Select one:
A.
learned helplessness.
B.
lack of social support.
C.
severe symptoms.
D.
feelings of hopelessness.
Beck has conducted longitudinal research to identify the best predictors of suicide among depressed individuals. When answering questions about Beck, keep in mind that he focuses primarily on distorted cognitions rather than on overt behaviors or other external phenomena.
a. Incorrect Learned helplessness is associated with Seligman.
b. Incorrect Other investigators have linked lack of social support to depression, but this is not something that Beck stresses.
c. Incorrect Beck actually found that severity of symptoms was not a very accurate predictor of suicide.
d. CORRECT In one study, Beck found that scores on his hopelessness scale accurately predicted suicide in 91% of cases. See A. T. Beck et al., Hopelessness and eventual suicide: A 10-year prospective study of patients hospitalized with suicidal ideation, American Journal of Psychiatry, 142(5), 559-563, 1985.
The correct answer is: feelings of hopelessness.
Self-verification theory (Swann, Pelham, and Krull, 1989) predicts that a depressed person will prefer evaluations from others that:
Select one:
A.
are consistently non-evaluative.
B.
are non-emotion-arousing.
C.
confirm his/her own negative self-evaluations.
D.
contradict his/her own negative self-evaluations.
Swann et al. (1989) conclude that people prefer feedback that is consistent with their own self-beliefs.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Research assessing the validity of self-verification theory has, among other things, confirmed that depressed people and people with low self-esteem prefer evaluations that are consistent with their own negative self-evaluations.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: confirm his/her own negative self-evaluations.
A drug that mimics or enhances the effects of a neurotransmitter is referred to as:
Select one:
A.
an agonist.
B.
an antagonist.
C.
ionotropic.
D.
metabotropic.
Drugs that increase or decrease the effects of neurotransmitters and hormones are referred to, respectively, as agonist and antagonists.
a. CORRECT An agonist increases activity of nerve cells by stimulating the production of a neurotransmitter or hormone, or stimulation of receptors for that neurotransmitter or hormone.
b. Incorrect An antagonist blocks the effects of a neurotransmitter or hormone.
c. Incorrect An ionotropic effect is a synaptic effect that depends on the rapid opening of a “gate” in the synaptic membrane.
d. Incorrect A metabotropic effect is a synaptic effect that depends on metabolic reactions.
The correct answer is: an agonist.
From the perspective of object-relations theory, projective identification is illustrated by which of the following?
Select one:
A.
A woman who doesn’t want to own her feelings of love and hate manipulates another person into experiencing them.
B.
A child kicks and pushes his mother away from him even though he actually longs for her attention.
C.
A man continuously interprets his wife’s behavior as an attempt to “mother” him.
D.
A therapist reacts to lower-SES clients in ways consistent with stereotypes she formed during her internship.
Klein introduced the notion of projective identification and defined it as a mechanism that is revealed in fantasies in which the subject inserts the self (in part or whole) into the object in order to possess or control the object. It can be considered a type of projection.
a. CORRECT Projective identification underlies a number of pathological conditions and is responsible for severe difficulties in establishing one’s own identity and in feeling secure enough to establish relationships with others. See, e.g., C. Cooper, Psychodynamic therapy: The Kleinian approach, in W. Dryden (Ed.), Handbook of individual therapy, London, Sage, 1996.
b. Incorrect This is an example of splitting.
c. Incorrect This sounds more like transference.
d. Incorrect This is an example of theme interference.
The correct answer is: A woman who doesn’t want to own her feelings of love and hate manipulates another person into experiencing them.
As defined in Atkinson, Morten, and Sue’s (1993) Racial/Cultural Identity Development Model, a person who has contradictory appreciating and depreciating attitudes toward both his/her own culture and the dominant (majority) culture is in which of the following stages?
Select one:
A.
resistance
B.
dissonance
C.
conformity
D.
disintegration
The stages of Atkinson, Morten, and Sue’s Racial/Cultural Identity Development Model are characterized by different combinations of attitudes toward oneself, one’s own racial/cultural minority group, other minority groups, and the dominant (majority) group.
a. Incorrect The resistance/immersion stage is characterized by a preference for one’s own group.
b. CORRECT The dissonance stage is characterized by conflicting attitudes toward one’s own group and the majority group.
c. Incorrect A person in the conformity stage prefers the dominant group.
d. Incorrect Disintegration is not one of the stages in the Atkinson, Morten, and Sue model.
The correct answer is: dissonance
A movie viewer is MOST likely to say he/she feels uncomfortable in a crowded movie theater when the movie is:
Select one:
A.
a violent action film.
B.
a sexually arousing film.
C.
a boring documentary.
D.
an amusing comedy.
The subjective effects of crowding depend on several factors including the nature of the environment and task.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT S. Worchel and E. H. Brown (The role of plausibility in influencing environment attributions, Journal of Experimental Social Psychology, 20, 86-96, 1984) found that crowding is experienced as less uncomfortable or stressful in attention-grabbing, arousing situations than in unarousing or uninteresting situations.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: a boring documentary.
During an interview, a job applicant exhibits one or two very positive characteristics. These characteristics then influence how the interviewer evaluates the applicant on other unrelated characteristics so that her overall impression is very favorable. This is an example of which of the following?
Select one:
A.
halo error
B.
contrast effect
C.
leniency bias
D.
fundamental attribution bias
In this situation, the interviewer’s overall evaluation of the applicant has been influenced by one or two very positive characteristics.
a. CORRECT This is best described as a positive halo error.
b. Incorrect A contrast effect occurs when the evaluation of an applicant is affected by a previous applicant; e.g., if the previous applicant was very poor, a mediocre applicant is likely to be evaluated more favorably than he/she would if the previous applicant had excellent qualifications.
c. Incorrect A leniency bias is occurring when a rater tends to rate everyone highly.
d. Incorrect The fundamental attribution bias refers to the tendency to attribute the behavior of others to dispositional (versus situational) factors.
The correct answer is: halo error
Surveys have found that women in which of the following groups report the highest lifetime rate of victimization by an intimate partner?
Select one:
A.
White Americans
B.
African Americans
C.
Asians/Pacific Islanders
D.
American Indians/Alaska Natives
Statistics on the lifetime rates of victimization by an intimate partner are reported by P. Tjaden and N. Thoennes in Extent, nature and consequences of intimate partner violence: Findings from the National Violence Against Women Study, U. S. Department of Justice, 2000.
a. Incorrect Tjaden and Thoennes report a lifetime rate of victimization by an intimate partner of 24.8% for White females (i.e., 24.8% of White females in their sample reported having been the victim of intimate partner rape, physical assault, or stalking).
b. Incorrect For African American females, these investigators obtained a rate of 29.1%.
c. Incorrect For Asian/Pacific Islander females, Tjaden and Thoennes obtained a rate of 15.0%.
d. CORRECT Tjaden and Thoennes report a lifetime rate for American Indians/Alaska Natives of 37.5%. They note that this higher rate for American Indian/Alaska Native women is consistent with previous research but state that it is not clear whether the rate is actually due to more violent experiences or an increased willingness to report them.
The correct answer is: American Indians/Alaska Natives
Tetraplegia is most likely to be the outcome of spinal cord injury at the ________ level.
Select one:
A.
T9-T12
B.
L2-L5
C.
S3-S5
D.
C1-C7
The spinal cord consists of 31 segments that are divided into five groups which are, from the top to the bottom of the spinal cord, cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal.
a. Incorrect An injury at the lower thoracic level (T9-T12) produces paraplegia. People with this injury have some trunk control and may be able to walk short distances with an assistive device.
b. Incorrect Injury at the lumbar level causes leg weakness and numbness, with the severity depending on the extent and location of the injury.
c. Incorrect Injury at the lower sacral level (S3-S5) causes loss of bladder and bowel control and numbness in the perineum.
d. CORRECT To identify this as the correct answer, you would have to know that tetraplegia is now the more commonly used term for quadriplegia and that it is the result of injury at the cervical level.
The correct answer is: C1-C7
The Introduction and Applicability section of the APA’s Ethics Code notes that the APA may take action against a member after his/her:
Select one:
A.
conviction of a felony.
B.
conviction of a felony or misdemeanor.
C.
conviction of a felony or misdemeanor only when the offense is clearly related to the psychologists professional role.
D.
conviction of a felony only when the offense resulted in a loss or suspension of licensure.
The Introduction and Applicability section of the Ethics Code states that the Code “applies only to psychologists’ activities that are part of their scientific, educational, or professional roles as psychologists.” However, this section also identifies exceptions to this general rule.
a. CORRECT The Introduction and Applicability section states that the APA “may take action against a member after his or her conviction of a felony, expulsion or suspension from an affiliated state psychological association, or suspension or loss of licensure.” It does not place qualifications on these exceptions and it does not apply to misdemeanors.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: conviction of a felony.
Which of the following sections of the APA’s Ethical Principles of Psychologists and Code of Conduct provide(s) “aspirational goals to guide psychologists toward the highest ideals of psychology”?
Select one:
A.
Introduction and Preamble
B.
Preamble only
C.
Preamble and General Principles
D.
Ethical Standards
The correct answer is C. The Ethics Code is divided into four sections: Introduction, Preamble, General Principles, and Ethical Standards. As defined in the Ethics Code, the purpose of both the Preamble and General Principles is to provide “aspirational goals.”
a. The Introduction “discusses the intent, organization, procedural considerations, and scope of application of the Ethics Code.”
d. The Ethical Standards “set forth enforceable rules.”
The correct answer is: Preamble and General Principles
Research on the impact of downsizing indicates that which of the following is a key contributor to survivor syndrome?
Select one:
A.
the lack of adequate outplacement programs.
B.
perceived unfairness and inequity in the layoff procedures among employees.
C.
the adoption of a Theory Y management style by supervisors during the layoff process.
D.
a pre-existing sense of learned helplessness among employees.
Survivor syndrome refers to characteristic symptoms exhibited by individuals who remain on-the-job during downsizing.
a. Incorrect Outplacement programs are important for the adjustment of individuals who have been laid off rather than for those who are still on-the-job.
b. CORRECT Providing information to employees about the purpose of layoffs, steps taken to avoid or minimize layoffs, and how layoff decisions are made has been found to be an effective way for minimizing negative reactions among downsizing survivors.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: perceived unfairness and inequity in the layoff procedures among employees.
If you are most concerned about the reliability of an achievement test you will be administering to high school freshmen, which of the following types of tests would you be least likely to use?
Select one:
A.
fill-in-the-blank
B.
four-alternative multiple-choice
C.
true-false
D.
essay
A test’s reliability is affected by a number of factors including the likelihood that test items can be answered correctly by chance alone (i.e., by guessing). The greater the likelihood that examinees can choose the correct answer by guessing, the lower the reliability.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Of the types of test items listed, true/false items are most likely to be answered correctly by chance alone. Consequently, this kind of test will tend to have the lowest reliability coefficient.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: true-false
Studies on concurrent schedules of reinforcement have found that an organism’s relative frequency of responding to one alternative corresponds to the relative frequency of reinforcement for responses to that alternative. This phenomenon is referred to as:
Select one:
A.
the law of effect.
B.
the matching law.
C.
Rescorla-Wagner theory.
D.
the Premack principle.
The research has supported the “common sense” conclusion that an organism will respond to two different stimuli in proportion to the amount of reinforcement received for those responses.
a. Incorrect Although the law of effect does make predictions about the effect of positive reinforcement, this answer is not as good (precise) as response b.
b. CORRECT The matching law states that, when using concurrent schedules of reinforcement, the proportion of responses will match the proportion of reinforcements.
c. Incorrect The Rescorla-Wagner theory predicts that the degree or strength of conditioning depends on how “surprising” (unexpected) the association between the CS and US is: The more surprising the US, the more conditioning will occur.
d. Incorrect The Premack principle is a type of positive reinforcement in which a high frequency behavior is used as the reinforcer for a low frequency behavior.
The correct answer is: the matching law.
Although stuttering in children is often difficult to treat, there is some evidence that ____________ is the most effective approach.
Select one:
A.
stress inoculation
B.
covert sensitization
C.
regulated breathing
D.
dialectical behavior therapy
Several studies have found regulated breathing to be effective for people who stutter.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Regulated breathing involves instructing the person to stop speaking when a stuttering episode occurs and to take a deep breath before continuing. It is often combined with awareness training and social support and, in this format, is referred to as habit reversal training.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: regulated breathing
The word HEART is projected onto a screen so that HE is projected to the subject’s left visual field only while ART is projected to the subject’s right visual field only. If the subject in the experiment is a “split brain” patient, you would expect him/her to report seeing:
Select one:
A.
HE only.
B.
ART only.
C.
ART HE.
D.
HE ART.
Results of studies on split-brain patients have shown that the left hemisphere in most people is specialized for language. To identify the correct answer to this question, you’d have to remember that information in the right visual field goes to the left hemisphere, while information in the left visual field goes to the right hemisphere.
a. Incorrect When HE is projected to the left visual field, it is processed by the right hemisphere and, because the patient is a split-brain patient, it is not transferred to the left hemisphere. Therefore, the patient will not be able to say HE.
b. CORRECT This is the result reported by Sperry (1970). Because ART was projected to the patient’s right visual field, it was processed by the left hemisphere which is specialized for language in most people. Thus, a split-brain patient could report seeing ART.
c. Incorrect Split-brain patients did not report reversals in Sperry’s study.
d. Incorrect Split-brain patients can verbally report only what is projected to the left hemisphere.
The correct answer is: ART only.
As described in the DSM-5, the five core symptoms of the Schizophrenia Spectrum Disorders are:
Select one:
A.
delusions, hallucinations, negative symptoms, impaired cognition, and disorganized speech.
B.
disorganized thinking, delusions, hallucinations, negative symptoms, and depersonalization or derealization.
C.
hallucinations, negative symptoms, grossly disorganized or abnormal motor behavior, delusions, and disorganized thinking.
D.
grossly disorganized or abnormal motor behavior, hallucinations, negative symptoms, affective instability, and delusions.
Answer C is correct: Hallucinations, negative symptoms (e.g., diminished emotional expression, avolition), grossly disorganized or abnormal motor behavior, delusions, and disorganized thinking are the five core symptoms of Schizophrenia and other Schizophrenia Spectrum Disorders.
Answer A: Impaired cognition is an associated feature of Schizophrenia but is not one of the five core symptoms of the Schizophrenia Spectrum Disorders.
Answer B: Depersonalization and derealization are associated symptoms of Schizophrenia but are not the core symptoms of the Schizophrenia Spectrum Disorders.
Answer D: Affective instability is characteristic of Schizoaffective Disorder, which has the same symptoms as Schizophrenia with the addition of a disturbance in mood.
The correct answer is: hallucinations, negative symptoms, grossly disorganized or abnormal motor behavior, delusions, and disorganized thinking.
Which of the following is not a necessary condition for a claim of malpractice against a therapist:
Select one:
A.
the therapist must have had a duty to the client.
B.
the therapist must have acted in a negligent or otherwise improper manner.
C.
there must be a causal relationship between the therapist’s negligence and the harm claimed by the client.
D.
there must be no “reasonable doubt” that an alternative course of action (treatment) was available.
Legally, three conditions must be met for a claim of malpractice. These are defined by answers a, b, and c.
a. Incorrect This is a condition for malpractice.
b. Incorrect This is a condition for malpractice.
c. Incorrect This is a condition for malpractice.
d. CORRECT This is not a condition for malpractice.
The correct answer is: there must be no “reasonable doubt” that an alternative course of action (treatment) was available.
One of your current clients is a 31-year old man who was sexually abused as a child. During the fifth session, he tells you that he’s been having fantasies about sexual contacts with children. He says he has not acted on these feelings but is concerned about them. You should:
Select one:
A.
advise him that you are required to make a report with the authorities.
B.
attempt to determine the degree of risk that he will act on his fantasies.
C.
tell him that this is not unusual for someone who has been sexually abused and continue to work on this issue in therapy.
D.
contact his wife to see if she has noticed any changes in the behavior of their three children.
A psychologist is required to report suspected or known cases of child abuse. From the information presented in this question, however, there is no reason to suspect that abuse has actually occurred.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT This is the best response of those given. Obviously, the man’s fantasies are a “red flag” that must be taken seriously and dealt with directly.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: attempt to determine the degree of risk that he will act on his fantasies.
In the context of Freudian psychoanalysis, the goal of confrontation is to:
Select one:
A.
reduce the client’s resistance.
B.
clarify a client’s statements.
C.
help the client see a behavior in a new way.
D.
foster the development of transference.
Freudian psychoanalysis can be conceptualized as involving four processes - confrontation, clarification, interpretation, and working through.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect This sounds more like the goal of clarification.
c. CORRECT When using confrontation, the therapist makes a statement or asks a question that connects the client’s behavior to an unconscious motivation or conflict.
d. Incorrect This is not the goal of confrontation.
The correct answer is: help the client see a behavior in a new way.
Research on the impact of parents’ gender stereotypes about math ability on their children’s interest in math has found that:
Select one:
A.
maternal and paternal stereotypes have an impact on the math interest of boys but not girls.
B.
maternal and paternal stereotypes have an impact on the math interest of both boys and girls.
C.
maternal stereotypes have an impact on the math interest of boys but not girls.
D.
paternal stereotypes have an impact on the math interest of girls but not boys.
Not surprisingly, the research has found that parental stereotypes about academic ability affect the academic and career interests of offspring.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Studies have found that, while the gender discrepancy in math achievement has declined in recent years, girls continue to be less likely to choose a math-related major in college or career in mathematics. In addition, the research has confirmed that maternal and paternal gender-related attitudes, beliefs, and behaviors are a key contributor to the disparity in interest in math and perceptions about math ability. Interestingly, a longitudinal study by Bleeker et al. suggests that the father’s gender stereotypes may have a different impact than the stereotypes of the mother - i.e., while father’s stereotypes are associated with an increased interest in math among boys and a decreased interest among girls, the mother’s stereotypes are associated with a decreased interest for both boys and girls (J. E. Bleeker et al., “I can, but I don’t want to”: The impact of parents, interests, and activities on gender differences in math, in A. M. Gallagher and J. C. Kaufman (Eds.), Gender differences in mathematics: An integrative psychological approach, New York, Cambridge University Press, 2005).
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: maternal and paternal stereotypes have an impact on the math interest of both boys and girls.
Curriculum-based measurement is most useful for:
Select one:
A.
determining the cognitive processes a student uses to solve complex problems.
B.
regularly monitoring a student’s progress to obtain the information needed to make instructional decisions.
C.
comparing what a student can do alone and can do with prompts, physical support, or other types of assistance.
D.
determining if a student can apply his/her knowledge and skills to real-life activities and projects.
As its name implies, curriculum-based measurement (CBM) is used to evaluate a student’s performance with regard to the current curriculum.
a. Incorrect This describes protocol analysis.
b. CORRECT CBM consists of brief standardized measures that provide information on a student’s progress within a curriculum and are useful for assisting with instructional decision-making.
c. Incorrect This describes dynamic assessment.
d. Incorrect This describes authentic assessment.
The correct answer is: regularly monitoring a student’s progress to obtain the information needed to make instructional decisions.
A therapist who believes the therapeutic change process should focus on altering the client’s environment is adopting which of the following approaches?
Select one:
A.
alloplastic
B.
autoplastic
C.
emic
D.
etic
To answer this question, you must be familiar with the definitions for the terms listed in the responses.
a. CORRECT Alloplastic refers to changing or adapting to the environment by effecting changes in the environment.
b. Incorrect Autoplastic (“self-change”) refers to changing or adapting to the environment by altering one’s own behaviors or responses.
c. Incorrect Adopting an emic perspective involves focusing on the intrinsic distinctions that are meaningful to members of a particular culture or society.
d. Incorrect Adopting an etic perspective involves focusing on extrinsic distinctions that have meaning for the observer of the culture or society.
The correct answer is: alloplastic
Privilege:
Select one:
A.
can be waived by the client.
B.
can be waived by the client’s therapist.
C.
can be waived only by the court.
D.
is waived by the attorney in a legal proceeding.
rivilege refers to a client’s right to confidentiality in legal proceedings. Privilege is legally defined and belongs to the client. For additional information on privilege, see the chapter on ethics and professional issues in the written study materials.
a. CORRECT The client is the holder of the privilege and can waive privilege.
b. Incorrect A therapist can “assert the privilege” but he/she cannot waive it.
c. Incorrect There are legal exceptions to privilege, but the court cannot “waive” privilege.
d. Incorrect As noted above, only the client can waive privilege.
The correct answer is: can be waived by the client.
On Holland’s Self-Directed Search, the frequency with which an examinee’s code occurred in the standardization sample is referred to as:
Select one:
A.
congruence.
B.
commonness.
C.
consistency.
D.
coherence.
A person’s summary code on Holland’s Self-Directed Search (SDS) can be interpreted in several ways.
a. Incorrect Congruence refers to the degree of match between a person’s expressed and measured interests.
b. CORRECT The score report for the SDS provides information on congruence, consistency, coherence, differentiation, and commonness. Commonness indicates the degree to which an examinee’s code occurred in the standardization sample (i.e., the percent of people in the sample who obtained the same code).
c. Incorrect Consistency refers to the distance between the examinee’s first two code letters on the RIASEC hexagon. When the first two code letters are adjacent in the hexagon, the individual’s consistency is high.
d. Incorrect Coherence is the degree to which an individual’s interests belong to the same Holland category.
The correct answer is: commonness.
In the context of cognitive-behavioral family therapy (Schwebel and Fine, 1994), “family ___________” refers to a set of cognitions that family members possess and that shape how they understand and approach family life.
Select one:
A.
prototype
B.
map
C.
script
D.
schema
Even if you are unfamiliar with cognitive-behavioral family therapy, familiarity with cognitive-behavioral therapy in general should have helped you select the correct answer to this question
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Schemas are a key concept in cognitive-behavioral therapy and in cognitive-behavioral family therapy. However, in the latter, they are conceptualized more narrowly as the cognitive frameworks that family members have about family functioning. See A. Schwebel and M. Fine, Understanding and helping the family: A cognitive-behavioral model, Hillsdale, NJ, Erlbaum, 1994.
The correct answer is: schema
From the perspective of classical conditioning, persistence of phobias is best explained by which of the following?
Select one:
A.
The person with a phobia avoids the conditioned stimulus.
B.
The fear is automatically conditioned.
C.
The phobia represents an unconditioned response.
D.
The person with a phobia fears fear itself.
Phobic individuals typically avoid the conditioned stimuli that elicit an anxiety or fear reaction.
a. CORRECT Because the phobic individual avoids the conditioned stimulus, he/she never has an opportunity to learn that exposure to it will not result in negative consequences (i.e., that the CS will not be followed by the US). Thus, extinction of the anxiety response does not occur.
b. Incorrect “Automatically conditioned” doesn’t make sense.
c. Incorrect From a classical conditioning perspective, phobic reactions are conditioned, not unconditioned, responses.
d. Incorrect Although this may be true in some cases, it does not explain why phobias are so persistent.
The correct answer is: The person with a phobia avoids the conditioned stimulus.
Al A., a lonely, single, middle-aged psychologist and college professor, is invited to a play by a graduate student, Betty B., who Al finds sexually attractive. Betty has returned to school after a 15-year absence and has been divorced for three years. If Al accepts Betty’s invitation, he will:
Select one:
A.
be acting unethically because the Ethics Code prohibits professors from dating students.
B.
not be acting unethically as long as he doesn’t become sexually involved with Betty.
C.
not be acting unethically as long as Betty is a graduate student in a department other than the one Al teaches in.
D.
not be acting unethically because this situation is not covered by the Ethics Code.
Dating students is addressed by two Standards of the APA’s Ethics Code: Standard 3.05 discourages multiple relationships and Standard 7.07 prohibits sexual relationships with students over whom a psychologist has direct or evaluative authority.
a. Incorrect The Ethics Code does not explicitly prohibit psychologists from dating all students but only those over whom they have evaluative authority. It also prohibits multiple relationships only when the relationship may harm or exploit the other person.
b. Incorrect If Betty is a graduate student in the psychology department and/or is likely to be in one of Al’s classes, dating her would be prohibited by the multiple relationship clause.
c. CORRECT If Betty is a student in another department, it would likely be acceptable for Al to accompany her to the play and become involved with her.
d. Incorrect As noted above, this situation is covered by the Ethics Code.
The correct answer is: not be acting unethically as long as Betty is a graduate student in a department other than the one Al teaches in.
Of the following, the best predictor of suicide is generally considered to be:
Select one:
A.
lack of social support.
B.
increase in somatic symptoms.
C.
family history of suicide.
D.
prior suicide attempt(s).
Once again, the best predictor of future behavior is past behavior.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT One of the most frequently cited facts in the literature on the predictors of suicide is that a previous suicide attempt is often the best predictor of death by suicide, with reported rates ranging from 40 to 80% of people who commit suicide having made one or more previous attempts.
The correct answer is: prior suicide attempt(s).
During a group therapy session, a few group members complain that some of the members have not been disclosing information about themselves. Other members become defensive and say that they don’t feel like they should be required to talk about themselves. A therapist relying on the approach advocated by Irvin Yalom (1985) would:
Select one:
A.
regard the conflict as a normal stage of group development and not intervene.
B.
interpret the conflict as resistance.
C.
encourage members to discuss the meaning of the conflict for them.
D.
clarify the function of self-disclosure in therapy.
Yalom views group therapy as a social microcosm that provides opportunities to work through problems in new, more adaptive ways.
a. Incorrect Although Yalom views conflict as an expected part of the group process, this is not the best response. See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT This is most consistent with Yalom’s belief that group therapy provides several “curative factors” including interpersonal learning and self-understanding.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: encourage members to discuss the meaning of the conflict for them.
Goal-setting theory, equity theory, and expectancy theory share in common which of the following?
Select one:
A.
a focus on peer (co-worker) influences on job performance
B.
the premise that behavior is motivated by its consequences
C.
the belief that feedback is a necessary condition of effort
D.
the assumption that human cognition affects behavior
The three theories are cognitive theories that view motivation and performance as directly linked to cognitive events.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT The cognitive event in goal-setting theory is the conscious acceptance of the goals; in equity theory it is self-other comparisons; and in expectancy theory it is beliefs related to effort/performance and performance/outcomes.
The correct answer is: the assumption that human cognition affects behavior
One criticism of anger management training for children is that its positive effects are limited because:
Select one:
A.
children are unable to develop control over angry feelings and behaviors.
B.
children tend to blame others for their anger.
C.
it places too much emphasis on behavior (versus cognition).
D.
it places too much emphasis on the individual (versus social) factors.
Although there are many approaches to anger management training, most programs are based on a cognitive-behavioral approach that emphasizes the individual’s perceptions, feelings, and behaviors.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT One problem with most anger management training programs is that they focus on the individual and ignore the role of interpersonal or systemic factors. The importance of broadening the focus is supported by research showing that targeting individual, family, peer, and community relationships increases the effectiveness of anger management programs (e.g., E. Morley and S. B. Rossman, Helping at-risk youth: Lessons from community-based initiatives, Washington, D.C., The Urban Institute, 1997).
The correct answer is: it places too much emphasis on the individual (versus social) factors.
According to Sternberg’s (1998) triarchic theory, intelligence consists of which of the following three factors?
Select one:
A.
general, broad, and specialized
B.
analytical, creative, and practical
C.
attention, processing, and planning
D.
general, fluid, and crystallized
As its name suggests, Sternberg’s triarchic theory describes intelligence in terms of three facets or domains.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Sternberg’s theory distinguishes between the three facets of intelligence listed in this answer. According to Sternberg, analytical intelligence is the componential facet of intelligence and consists of metacomponents, performance components, and knowledge-acquisition components; creative intelligence is the experiential facet; and practical intelligence is the contextual facet.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: analytical, creative, and practical
For retention of information in long-term memory, which of the following seems to be the most critical?
Select one:
A.
visual encoding
B.
repetition
C.
time
D.
meaningful organization
Research on memory indicates that semantic encoding produces the best retention and retrieval.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Encoding semantically–that is, in terms of meaning–helps ensure that information will be transferred to long-term memory and that the information is more easily retrieved.
The correct answer is: meaningful organization
The research suggests that a person with Alcohol Use Disorder is most likely to meet the diagnostic criteria for which of the following?
Select one:
A.
Borderline Personality Disorder
B.
Paranoid Personality Disorder
C.
Antisocial Personality Disorder
D.
Avoidant Personality Disorder
The studies have found that at least 50% of individuals with Alcohol or other Substance Use Disorder also meet the criteria for at least one personality disorder, with the DSM Cluster B personality disorders being most prevalent.
a. Incorrect See explanation for answer c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for answer c.
c. CORRECT Most studies have found that Antisocial and Borderline Personality Disorders are the personality disorders that co-occur most frequently with Alcohol Use Disorder, with Antisocial Personality Disorder being more common than Borderline Personality Disorder. See, e.g., K. J. Sher, J. A. Martinez, and A. K. Littlefield, Alcohol use and alcohol use disorders, in D. H. Barlow (ed.), Oxford handbook of clinical psychology (pp. 405-445), New York, Oxford University Press, 2014.
d. Incorrect See explanation for answer c.
The correct answer is: Antisocial Personality Disorder
According to Erikson, the purpose of play is to:
Select one:
A.
release “unemployed energy.”
B.
reduce tension by re-enacting prior experiences.
C.
socially construct knowledge within the zone of proximal development.
D.
master social and emotional experiences.
Knowing that Erikson describes development as involving eight psychosocial stages would have enabled you to identify the correct answer to this question even if you’re unfamiliar with his view of play.
a. Incorrect Play was described as an opportunity to release surplus energy by Spencer, Schiller, and other evolutionary theorists.
b. Incorrect Freud described children’s play as the result of a “repetition compulsion.”
c. Incorrect Vygotsky’s sociocultural theory of development describes knowledge as socially constructed and conceptualizes symbolic play as an opportunity to practice behaviors in situations that require less precision and accuracy than would be required in reality.
d. CORRECT Erikson (1977) describes play as a function of the ego that allows children to master and control social and emotional experiences. Through play, children learn about themselves and their social environments.
The correct answer is: master social and emotional experiences.
Theories of career choice and development can be categorized in terms of four basic types. The theories of Tiedeman and O’Hara (1963) and Tiedeman and Miller-Tiedeman (1984) are examples of the __________ approach.
Select one:
A.
developmental
B.
trait-oriented
C.
reinforcement-based
D.
personality
S. H. Osipow distinguishes between the four types of theories listed in the responses to this questions (Convergence in theories of career choice and development, Journal of Vocational Behavior, 36, 122-131, 1990).
a. CORRECT The vocational identity theory proposed by Tiedeman and colleagues is classified as a developmental approach. (Super’s theory also represents this approach.)
b. Incorrect Parson’s (1939) and Holland’s (1988) theories are trait-oriented approaches.
c. Incorrect Krumboltz’s (1979) social learning theory is classified by Osipow as a reinforcement-based approach.
d. Incorrect Roe’s (1984) theory emphasizes the role of personality.
The correct answer is: developmental
Which of the following most accurately describes current laws related to a health professional’s obligation when the professional learns that a client or patient who has tested positive for the HIV virus has not told his/her partner of the diagnosis and is having unsafe sex with the partner?
Select one:
A.
All 50 states have laws that require health professionals to breach confidentiality in this situation.
B.
All 50 states have laws that require health professionals not to breach confidentiality in this situation.
C.
All 50 states have laws that allow health professionals to determine whether or not to breach confidentiality in this situation.
D.
The laws regarding breach of confidentiality by health professionals in this situation vary from state to state.
As noted in the chapter on ethics and professional issues in the written study materials, the laws on this issue vary from jurisdiction to jurisdiction.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Some states prohibit health practitioners from notifying partners of patients with HIV/AIDS, while others require them to do so.
The correct answer is: The laws regarding breach of confidentiality by health professionals in this situation vary from state to state.
Cross-sectional research conducted in the 1960s and 1970s on marital satisfaction across the lifespan generally found:
Select one:
A.
a U-shaped pattern with the lowest levels of reported satisfaction during the middle adult years.
B.
an inverted U-shaped pattern with the lowest levels of reported satisfaction during the early adult and older adult years.
C.
a positive linear pattern with reported satisfaction gradually increasing over the lifespan.
D.
a negative linear pattern with reported satisfaction gradually decreasing over the lifespan.
Cross-sectional research conducted in the 1960s and 1970s (e.g., Burr, 1970; Rollins and Cameron, 1974) identified a consistent pattern for marital satisfaction over the lifespan.
a. CORRECT The cross-sectional studies found the lowest reported levels of marital satisfaction (especially among women) during the middle adult years - i.e., among those who had been married for 11 to 30 years. This result was often attributed by the researchers to the presence of adolescents in the family. Note that more recent longitudinal studies have not entirely confirmed the earlier findings (e.g., Vallant and Vallant, 1993).
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: a U-shaped pattern with the lowest levels of reported satisfaction during the middle adult years.
A structural family therapist would use a family map to:
Select one:
A.
facilitate interactions between family members during a therapy session.
B.
help family members recognize differences in their perceptions.
C.
identify family values, life themes, and significant life events.
D.
clarify the nature of the boundaries between family subsystems.
Knowing that boundaries are a key focus of Minuchin’s structural family therapy would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
a. Incorrect This describes the goal of enactment.
b. Incorrect This is a goal of circular questions, which are used by Milan systematic family therapists.
c. Incorrect Identifying and using family values, life themes, and significant life events in conversations during therapy is referred to as tracking.
d. CORRECT A family map is used to help make a structural diagnosis of a family by clarifying its boundaries, coalitions, alignments, etc.
The correct answer is: clarify the nature of the boundaries between family subsystems.
Children between the ages of approximately _______ years are in the phallic stage of psychosexual development according to Freud and in the initiative vs. guilt stage of psychosocial development according to Erikson.
Select one:
A.
1 to 3
B.
3 to 6
C.
6 to 12
D.
12 to 15
Knowing the order of Freud’s psychosexual stages and Erikson’s psychosocial stages may have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
a. Incorrect Children between the ages of 1 and 3 years are in the second stage of psychosexual development and psychosocial development. Freud referred to the second stage as the anal stage and Erikson referred to the conflict associated with this stage as autonomy vs. shame.
b. CORRECT Children between the ages of 3 and 6 are in the third stage of psychosexual development and psychosocial development. Freud referred to the third stage as the phallic stage and Erikson identified the conflict of this stage as involving initiative vs. guilt.
c. Incorrect Children between the ages of 6 and 12 years are in the fourth stage of psychosexual development and psychosocial development. Freud named this the latency stage and Erikson described the conflict of this stage as involving industry vs. inferiority.
d. Incorrect Freud’s final (fifth) stage of psychosexual development is the genital stage and is characteristic of adolescence. Erikson described the major conflict of adolescence as involving identity vs. identity (role) confusion.
The correct answer is: 3 to 6
Of the “big five” personality traits, ____________ has most consistently been linked to job performance across a variety of jobs.
Select one:
A.
emotional stability
B.
agreeableness
C.
conscientiousness
D.
openness to experience
The big five personality traits are extraversion/introversion, emotional stability, agreeableness, conscientiousness, and openness to experience.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT This was the conclusion reached, for example, by M. R. Barrick and M. K. Mount, based on their meta-analysis of the research (The big five personality dimensions and job performance: A meta-analysis, Personnel Psychology, 1991, 44, 1-25).
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: conscientiousness
In response to questions included in the Adult Attachment Interview, a 34-year old mother describes her childhood relationships with her own parents as very positive, but she is unable to come up with specific examples of pleasant experiences with them. Although she says this inability is due to poor memory, she is able to recall other events that occurred during early childhood. Most likely, this woman’s 13-month old baby will exhibit which of the following attachment patterns in the Strange Situation?
Select one:
A.
secure
B.
avoidant
C.
resistant
D.
disorganized/disoriented
This question is asking about research linking a mother’s responses to the Adult Attachment Interview to the attachment pattern exhibited by her child. Additional information about this research is provided in the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect Parents categorized as “autonomous” on the Adult Attachment Interview are most likely to have children who exhibit a secure attachment pattern. In response to interview questions, these parents describe their childhood relationships with parents as either negative or positive and are able to provide specific examples that support their descriptions.
b. CORRECT Parents categorized as “dismissing” describe their relations with parents in positive terms but are unable to recall specific examples that support their descriptions. They most often have children who exhibit avoidant attachment in the Strange Situation.
c. Incorrect Parents categorized as “preoccupied” often have resistant children. These parents describe their childhood relationships in negative or confused ways but are unable to provide specific examples to support their descriptions.
d. Incorrect The children of “unresolved/disorganized” parents often exhibit a disorganized/disoriented attachment pattern.
The correct answer is: avoidant
Expressive aphasia is to Broca’s area as ____________ aphasia is to Wernicke’s area.
Select one:
A.
global
B.
conduction
C.
impressive
D.
transcortical
There are many different kinds of aphasia, and, unfortunately, several go by more than one name. The types of aphasia you want to be familiar with for the exam are described in the Physiological Psychology and Psychopharmacology chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect Global aphasia involves deficits in comprehension, repetition, and output and is due to damage to several regions of the brain including the cortex and basal ganglia.
b. Incorrect Conduction aphasia is caused by damage to nerves that connect Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas.
c. CORRECT Wernicke’s aphasia has several names including sensory, receptive, and impressive aphasia.
d. Incorrect Transcortical aphasia is caused by lesions outside Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas that disconnect those areas from other regions of the brain.
The correct answer is: impressive
A therapist instructs a client who suffers from insomnia to polish his hardwood floors for at least two hours whenever he wakes up during the night. Apparently this therapist is familiar with the work of:
Select one:
A.
Luigi Boscolo.
B.
Milton Erickson.
C.
Salvador Minuchin.
D.
Marquis de Sade.
The task described in the question is an example of an “ordeal.”
a. Incorrect Luigi Boscolo is affiliated with the Milan systemic school of family therapy, which is not associated with the use of ordeals.
b. CORRECT For the exam, you should have paradoxical techniques and ordeals associated with Milton Erickson and Jay Haley (who was strongly influenced by Erickson).
c. Incorrect The use of ordeals is more associated with Erickson and Haley than with Minuchin.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: Milton Erickson.
Smith, Glass, and Miller’s (1980) use of meta-analysis involved:
Select one:
A.
counting the number of psychotherapy outcome studies that found a statistically significant difference between treatment and no-treatment groups.
B.
statistically comparing the number of psychotherapy outcomes studies that did and did not find significant treatment effects.
C.
determining the average magnitude of the outcome of psychotherapy across a large number of outcome studies.
D.
using initial symptom severity and type and duration of treatment to predict average treatment outcome.
Smith et al. combined the results of 475 studies on the effectiveness of psychotherapy (Smith, M. L., Glass, G. V., & Miller, R. L., The benefits of psychotherapy, Baltimore, Johns Hopkins University Press, 1980).
a. Incorrect This response describes the “box score” method, not meta-analysis.
b. Incorrect This response describes using an inferential statistical test to compare outcome data for two groups.
c. CORRECT When using meta-analysis, the outcomes of each study are converted to a common metric - i.e., an effect size - and an average effect size is calculated.
d. Incorrect This response describes multiple regression.
The correct answer is: determining the average magnitude of the outcome of psychotherapy across a large number of outcome studies.
Dr. R. B. Traight obtains the permission from a child’s mother and father before beginning an evaluation that will be used by the court to help determine custody rights. Before the evaluation is completed, however, the mother withdraws her consent. Dr. Traight should:
Select one:
A.
make a custody recommendation on the basis of the information he has already obtained.
B.
continue the evaluation since the father has not withdrawn his consent.
C.
continue the evaluation since both parents gave their consent prior to beginning the evaluation.
D.
contact the court to determine the appropriate course of action.
Normally, a psychologist would not evaluate a child without the consent of both parents.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Given the limited information provided in this question, this is the best response of those given. Whenever one parent does not give consent (or withdraws his/her consent) for an evaluation in a custody case, the psychologist should seek guidance from the court on how to proceed.
The correct answer is: contact the court to determine the appropriate course of action.
Males and females are given several vignettes that each present a situation that describes sexually toned behaviors by an employer toward an employee. Based on your knowledge of the research, you predict that:
Select one:
A.
males will be significantly more likely than females to rate the behavior of the employers as sexual harassment regardless of the severity the behaviors.
B.
females will be significantly more likely than males to rate the behavior of the employers as sexual harassment regardless of the severity of the behaviors.
C.
females will be significantly more likely than males to rate the behaviors of the employers as sexual harassment, but only for behaviors that are mild to moderate in severity.
D.
females will be significantly more likely than males to rate the behaviors of the employers as sexual harassment, but only for behaviors that represent severe harassment.
Perhaps not surprisingly, one of the most consistently replicated findings of the research on sexual harassment is that women are more likely than men to rate sexually toned and/or sexually ambiguous behaviors as constituting sexual harassment.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Significant gender differences in judgments of sexual harassment have been confirmed for mild to moderate cases of harassment. However, in severe cases, men and women are equally as likely to judge a sexually-toned behavior as sexual harassment. See, e.g., C. W. Williams et al., An attributional (causal dimensional) analysis of perceptions of sexual harassment, Journal of Applied Social Psychology, 25, 1169-1183, 1995.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: females will be significantly more likely than males to rate the behaviors of the employers as sexual harassment, but only for behaviors that are mild to moderate in severity.
In organizations, employee surveys are most often conducted to:
Select one:
A.
determine the effects of an organization-wide intervention.
B.
evaluate employee attitudes and opinions about an intervention.
C.
identify employees who would benefit from an intervention.
D.
allow employees to evaluate the job performance of their co-workers.
The term “survey” is rather vague and refers to a variety of information-gathering techniques. However, in general, surveys are used to obtain information about respondents’ feelings and opinions.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Survey feedback is an example of the use of surveys in organizations. It is an organizational development (OD) strategy that involves obtaining information about employees’ opinions about specific aspects of the organization and using this information to identify and correct problems.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: evaluate employee attitudes and opinions about an intervention.
Two rats are being conditioned to push a button in order to receive a food pellet. During the acquisition of this behavior, both rats were reinforced using a continuous schedule of reinforcement. After their response rates peaked and then declined, one rat began to receive two food pellets after each button push, whereas the second rat continued to received a single pellet after each response. Despite this difference in the amount of reinforcement, the response rate (i.e., the number of button pushes) for both rats remained the same. This is most likely attributable to which of the following?
Select one:
A.
extinction
B.
habituation
C.
satiation
D.
inhibition
Both rats in this experiment were treated the same until after their response rates plateaued and then began to decline. At that point, one rat received two food pellets and the other continued to receive only one. However, both rats responded at the same rate even though one received more reinforcement.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Satiation occurs when a reinforcer loses its reinforcing value. In this experiment, there is evidence that both rats have become satiated because their responses had declined. So an extra food pellet will not have any more impact than a single food pellet.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: satiation
Survey feedback is a method of organizational development that is based on the premise that:
Select one:
A.
people are not usually open and honest with each other.
B.
work teams are the basic foundation of an organization.
C.
organizational output is a function of both production and people.
D.
employees need to understand an organization’s strengths and weaknesses.
Organization development encompasses a variety of techniques.
a. Incorrect This sounds more like sensitivity training.
b. Incorrect This is an assumption underlying the technique known as team building.
c. Incorrect This describes an assumption underlying organizational grid training.
d. CORRECT The survey feedback technique involves collecting data about the strengths and weaknesses of an organization from employees at all levels; providing employees with the results of the survey; and helping employees use the data to identify ways to overcome current problems.
The correct answer is: employees need to understand an organization’s strengths and weaknesses.
In multiple regression, an inverse correlation between a predictor and the criterion:
Select one:
A.
indicates that a mistake has been made.
B.
suggests that the predictor should be eliminated from the analysis.
C.
is indicated by a low regression coefficient.
D.
is indicated by a negative regression coefficient.
An inverse correlation between two variables simply means that as values on one variable increase, the values on the other variable decrease.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT In a multiple regression equation, the direction of the correlation between a predictor and criterion is indicated by the sign of the regression coefficient. When there is an inverse (negative) correlation between the variables, the sign is negative.
The correct answer is: is indicated by a negative regression coefficient.
Research examining the effects of divorce suggests that maladjustment in children following the divorce of their parents is most likely the result of which of the following?
Select one:
A.
the parent’s separation
B.
parental disharmony
C.
disruption in lifestyle
D.
diminished parental control
One of the more consistent findings of the research is that parental conflict is a major cause of maladjustment in children in both intact and divorced families.
a. Incorrect The separation itself seems to be less predictive of maladjustment than parental conflict.
b. CORRECT Conflict (disharmony) has been found to be more critical than the separation. Children of divorced parents show less maladjustment when the conflict between their parents is minimal.
c. Incorrect This is of less importance than parental disharmony.
d. Incorrect Although this does occur, it is not as strongly linked to maladjustment as parental conflict.
The correct answer is: parental disharmony
According to Maslow’s theory of motivation, when a person’s prepotent need is ungratified:
Select one:
A.
the person becomes less motivated.
B.
the person may “regress” to a lower-level need.
C.
the ungratified need continues to be a primary motivator.
D.
the ungratified need continues to be a primary motivator only when there is a good chance that it will eventually be satisfied.
Maslow’s theory predicts that only ungratified needs motivate behavior and that progression through the need hierarchy always goes from lower-order needs to higher-order needs.
a. Incorrect This is the opposite of what Maslow’s theory predicts.
b. Incorrect This is predicted by Alderfer’s ERG theory, not Maslow’s theory.
c. CORRECT According to Maslow, an ungratified need is the primary source of motivation.
d. Incorrect This isn’t predicted by Maslow’s theory.
The correct answer is: the ungratified need continues to be a primary motivator.
