Exam Simulation - Test 2 Flashcards
Dr. Andy Amato works as a psychotherapist at a community mental health clinic and has just tested positive for the HIV virus. In terms of ethical requirements, Dr. Amato:
Select one:
A.
should inform his clients of his medical condition as soon as possible.
B.
should inform his clients and employer of his medical condition as soon as possible.
C.
should refrain from initiating any professional activities that might be adversely affected by his medical condition.
D.
is not obligated to take any particular action in this situation.
Standard 2.06 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Principle II.11 of the Canadian Code of Ethics for Psychologists apply to this situation.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT This answer is most consistent with ethical guidelines. For example, Standard 2.06 requires psychologists to “refrain from initiating an activity when they know or should know that there is a substantial likelihood that their personal problems will prevent them from performing their work-related activities in a competent manner.” Personal problems include health-related issues that might compromise a psychologist’s job performance.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: should refrain from initiating any professional activities that might be adversely affected by his medical condition.
Dr. Aimee A. is in private practice and, based on her experience and the experience of her colleagues, she has concluded that clients with signs of Malingering are at high risk for suing their therapists for malpractice. As a result, Dr. A. has decided to refer clients who exhibit signs of Malingering during the first therapy session to another therapist she knows is willing to work with them. Dr. A’s practice is:
Select one:
A.
unethical.
B.
ethical only if she makes her policy about decisions related to accepting clients clear at the outset of therapy.
C.
ethical only if she makes the referral before a therapeutic relationship has been established with the client.
D.
ethical.
Although this issue isn’t directly addressed by ethical guidelines, the guidelines permit (or recommend) termination of services under certain circumstances [see, e.g., Standard 10.10 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Principle I and II (Values) and Principles II.34 and II.37 of the Canadian Code of Ethics].
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Psychologists in private practice do not have an ethical or legal duty to provide professional services to individuals they do not want to serve. Therefore, it would be acceptable to make the decision to refer a client who is exhbiting signs of Malingering after an intial therapy session. (Ethical guidelines require psychologists not to discriminate on the basis of race, gender, or any other basis proscribed by law, but litigious clients do not fall into this category.)
The correct answer is: ethical.
: Which of the following techniques would be useful for predicting status on a single dichotomous criterion using two or more predictors when the assumptions for a discriminant analysis are not met?
Select one:
A.
canonical correlation
B.
path analysis
C.
logistic regression
D.
multiple regression
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the techniques listed in the answers to this questions. Information about these techniques is provided in the Statistics and Research Design chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Logistic regression is considered more flexible than discriminanant analysis since it can be used when the data violate some of the assumptions of discriminant analysis (e.g., the assumptions of linearity, normality, and/or homogeneity of variances).
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: logistic regression
Most children do not understand that death is irreversible and universal until about _____ years of age.
Select one:
A.
four
B.
seven
C.
ten
D.
thirteen
Research has found that children typically progress through predictable stages in acquiring an understanding of death.
a. Incorrect See explanation for answer c
b. Incorrect See explanation for answer c.
c. CORRECT The age at which children understand that death is irreversible and universal varies, depending on certain factors. In general, however, most children achieve this understanding at about ten years of age.
d. Incorrect See explanation for answer c.
The correct answer is: ten
Before conducting a court-ordered evaluation of a minor, you should:
Select one:
A.
obtain an informed consent from the minor.
B.
obtain an informed consent from the minor’s legal guardian.
C.
discuss the purpose of the evaluation with the minor.
D.
make sure the minor’s legal guardian is present during the evaluation.
A court-ordered evaluation precludes the need for an informed consent, even when the person to be evaluated is a minor.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT This response is most consistent with the provisions of the Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychology (APA, 2012), which states that the subject of a court-ordered evaluation must be informed of the evaluation nature and purpose.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: discuss the purpose of the evaluation with the minor.
According to Herbert Simon (1960), “bounded discretion”:
Select one:
A.
is due to limited cognitive ability.
B.
ensures that the optimal alternative is chosen.
C.
limits a decision-maker’s choices.
D.
reduces a leader’s effectiveness in ambiguous situations.
Knowing that Simon distinguished between two models of individual decision-making (rational-economic and bounded rationality) would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Bounded discretion is also known as bounded rationality and refers to the limitations on a decision-maker’s choices resulting from certain social, legal, moral, and organizational factors.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: limits a decision-maker’s choices.
When faced with an “undifferentiated family ego mass,” a family therapist who has adopted a Bowenian approach would be most likely to do which of the following?
Select one:
A.
Help differentiate family members by becoming emotionally triangulated into family dyads.
B.
Help differentiate family members by using behavioral and cognitive-behavioral techniques that promote individuation.
C.
Work first with the most differentiated family member to help him or her achieve greater individuation.
D.
Work first with the “identified patient” to help him or her become more differentiated.
Bowenian therapists often work initially with the most mature and differentiated family.
a. Incorrect When working with two family members (usually the spouses), a Bowenian therapist becomes the third member in a therapeutic (not an emotional) triangle. Emotional triangles are a sign of dysfunction in a family.
b. Incorrect Bowenian therapists do not typically use behavioral or cognitive-behavioral techniques.
c. CORRECT Ideally, the increased individuation of the most differentiated family member will motive other family members to become less emotionally involved in the family.
d. Incorrect A Bowenian would work only with the identified patient if he/she were also the most differentiated family member, which is often not the case.
The correct answer is: Work first with the most differentiated family member to help him or her achieve greater individuation.
Adequate “floor” is especially important when a test will be used to:
Select one:
A.
make intra-individual comparisons.
B.
confirm a diagnosis of Intellectual Disability.
C.
assign students to advanced placement classes.
D.
evaluate the readiness of employees for promotion.
In the context of testing, “floor” refers to the test’s ability to discriminate among examinees at the low end of the score range.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT To make a diagnosis of Intellectual Disability and distinguish between different levels of severity, you have to be able to discriminate among individuals with low intelligence. This requires adequate “floor” - i.e., the test has to have enough easy items to distinguish between people with different levels of low intelligence.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: confirm a diagnosis of Intellectual Disability.
A waiter is waiting on a group of professors from the local university. Being familiar with social loafing theory and desiring the largest tip possible, the waiter hopes that:
Select one:
A.
each professor will leave his/her own tip.
B.
the professors will contribute anonymously to a group tip.
C.
the professors will discuss how much tip to leave.
D.
one of the professors will volunteer to leave the tip for all of the professors.
Social loafing occurs when a person contributes less as group member than he/she would have contributed if acting alone.
a. CORRECT The waiter will get the most money if each person leaves his/her own tip since this will discourage social loafing.
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: each professor will leave his/her own tip.
Several days after losing an important customer, David D., a 41-year-old sales representative, develops feelings of sadness and hopelessness. He tells his therapist that he has trouble even thinking about going out and “drumming up more business” and is concerned that his attitude may be having a negative effect on his relationships with other customers. David’s symptoms have lasted for nearly three weeks, and he has no history of a previous mental disorder. The most likely diagnosis for David is:
Select one:
A.
Adjustment Disorder with depressed mood.
B.
Adjustment Disorder, unspecified.
C.
Major Depressive Disorder.
D.
Acute Stress Disorder.
Answer A is correct: The nature and duration of David’s symptoms and the fact that they are apparently related to the loss of an important customer are consistent with the diagnostic criteria for Adjustment Disorder. Because his symptoms are those associated with depression (sadness and hopelessness), the correct diagnosis is Adjustment Disorder with depressed mood.
Answers B and D: See explanation for answer A.
Answer C: From the information provided in the question, it appears that David does not meet the full diagnostic criteria for Major Depressive Disorder.
The correct answer is: Adjustment Disorder with depressed mood.
When Angie plays the slot machines in Atlantic City, she will be reinforced on the basis of:
Select one:
A.
the number of responses between reinforcers with the number remaining the same from trial to trial.
B.
the number of responses between reinforcers with the number varying unpredictably from trial to trial.
C.
the interval of time between reinforcers with the length of time remaining constant from trial to trial.
D.
the interval of time between reinforcers with the length of time varying unpredictably from trial to trial.
Slot machines use intermittent reinforcement to reduce the likelihood of extinction.
a. Incorrect This describes a fixed ratio schedule.
b. CORRECT Angie will be reinforced on a variable ratio schedule, which is the intermittent schedule least vulnerable to extinction.
c. Incorrect This describes a fixed interval schedule.
d. Incorrect This describes a variable interval schedule.
The correct answer is: the number of responses between reinforcers with the number varying unpredictably from trial to trial.
Following a severe closed head injury caused by a car accident, a 26-year-old male exhibits anterograde and retrograde amnesia. Most likely, which of the following memories will return first during his recovery?
Select one:
A.
memory for the events that occurred just after the accident
B.
memory for events immediately before the accident
C.
memory for his birthday dinner six months prior to the accident
D.
memory for his high school graduation
Following moderate to severe head injury, a person is likely to show some degree of both anterograde and retrograde amnesia. In this situation, recovery of long-term memories typically involves a predictable pattern.
a. Incorrect Anterograde amnesia is usually more severe than retrograde amnesia, and the individual usually never recalls the incident that caused the amnesia or the events occurring after it because those events were never stored in long-term memory.
b. Incorrect See explanation for responses a and d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for responses a and d.
d. CORRECT Memories of more remote events ordinarily return first.
The correct answer is: memory for his high school graduation
In vivo exposure with response prevention has been found to be an effective treatment for Agoraphobia, Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder, and several other anxiety disorders. Studies investigating the effects of this treatment for this suggest that:
Select one:
A.
frequent, brief exposures are more effective than less frequent, longer exposures to the feared stimuli.
B.
people with high arousability are more responsive to in vivo treatments than people with low arousability.
C.
high anxiety provocation is not the key factor in its effectiveness.
D.
counterconditioning is a necessary component of treatment.
The goal of in vivo exposure is to extinguish the classically conditioned response by repeatedly exposing the person to the CS without the US.
a. Incorrect This is the opposite of what has been found to be true.
b. Incorrect Arousability has been linked to the effects of systematic desensitization, not in vivo exposure. Systematic desensitization is usually more successful for individuals low in arousability than for those high in arousability.
c. CORRECT As noted in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials, there is evidence that high anxiety arousal is NOT necessary for successful treatment with in vivo exposure.
d. Incorrect Counterconditioning is not a component of in vivo exposure.
The correct answer is: high anxiety provocation is not the key factor in its effectiveness.
Bandura’s social learning theory implies that, in organizational settings, a training program will be most effective when:
Select one:
A.
it provides immediate rewards for achieving goals.
B.
trainees participate in defining the program’s goals.
C.
trainees possess prerequisite skills before training begins.
D.
models are clearly and consistently reinforced for successful performance.
Bandura has provided guidelines for applying social learning theory to the workplace. See, e.g., R. Wood and A. Bandura, Social cognitive theory of organizational management, Academy of Management Review, 13, 361-384, 1999).
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Bandura stresses the importance of (1) self-efficacy beliefs; (2) intrinsic motivation; (3) focusing on overt activities and behaviors; and (4) ensuring that people have prerequisite skills.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. (Note that Bandura’s research indicated that it is not always necessary for the model to be rewarded in order for an observer to imitate the model’s behavior.)
The correct answer is: trainees possess prerequisite skills before training begins.
The treatment-of-choice for Specific Phobia is:
Select one:
A.
covert sensitization.
B.
exposure with response prevention.
C.
stimulus control.
D.
self-control therapy.
Answer B is correct: The treatment-of-choice for Specific Phobia is exposure with response prevention (especially in vivo exposure) that exposes the individual to the feared object or situation while preventing him or her from engaging in cognitive or behavioral avoidance.
Answers A, C, and D: See explanation for answer B.
The correct answer is: exposure with response prevention.
A psychology intern does not inform clients that he will be receiving supervision. This is:
Select one:
A.
ethical and a good practice since knowledge of the supervisory relationship could undermine his authority in therapy.
B.
ethical as long as he disguises the identity of the clients when discussing them with his supervisor.
C.
ethical as long as the client is aware that the psychologist is an intern.
D.
unethical.
To be in compliance with the APA’s Ethics Code, an intern must inform clients that he/she will be supervised and give the clients the name of the supervisor.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Standard 10.01(c)states: “When the therapist is a trainee and the legal responsibility for the treatment provided resides with the supervisor, the client/patient, as part of the informed consent procedure, is informed that the therapist is in training and is being supervised and is given the name of the supervisor.”
The correct answer is: unethical.
As defined by Gestalt therapists, ________ is a boundary disturbance that involves passively accepting and incorporating elements of the enviroment without question.
Select one:
A.
retroflection
B.
confluence
C.
introjection
D.
deflection
Gestalt therapists identify several boundary disturbances which act as defenses that keep the individual from experiencing the present in a genuine and full way.
a. Incorrect Retroflection involves doing to someone else what one wants to do to others.
b. Incorrect Confluence refers to the absence of a boundary between the self and others.
c. CORRECT Introjection occurs when a person accepts facts, values, etc. from the environment without actually understanding or assimilating them.
d. Incorrect Deflection is the use of humor, abstract generalizations, and other distractions to avoid maintaining contact with the environment.
The correct answer is: introjection
When an examinee obtains a score of 110 on a test that has a standard error of measurement of 4, there is a 2 in 3 chance that his true score falls between:
Select one:
A.
108 and 112.
B.
106 and 114.
C.
104 and 116.
D.
102 and 118.
This question is asking about confidence intervals but does so in an unexpected way.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT To identify the correct answer to this question, you’d have to recognize that 2 in 3 is equivalent to a 2/3 chance, which is close to a 68% chance. A 68% confidence interval is calculated by adding and subtracting one standard error to and from the obtained score - which, in this case, gives you a confidence interval of 106 to 114.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: 106 and 114.
You conduct a research study to assess the effects of T.V. violence on aggressive behavior. The study will take place over three consecutive weeks. During the first week, you will observe 20 children during recess for five consecutive days and calculate their average number of aggressive acts. During the second week, you will have all children observe aggressive T.V. programs for two hours on three separate days. Then, during the third week, you will again observe the children during recess for five days and calculate their average number of aggressive acts. The biggest threat to the internal validity of this study is:
Select one:
A.
carryover effects.
B.
statistical regression.
C.
selection.
D.
history.
Answer D is correct: In any single-group design involving a before and after comparison, change in status on the DV might be due to the intervention or to an external event that occurred at about the same time the intervention was applied. In other words, the study’s internal validity is threatened by history.
Answer A: Carryover effects are a problem when two or more levels of an IV are applied to the same participants.
Answer B: Statistical regression is a problem when the group or groups have been selected because of their extreme status on the DV or a related variable, which is not the case in this study.
Answer C: Selection is a problem in between-groups studies when participants cannot be randomly assigned to the different groups. This is a within-subjects study, so selection is not a threat.
The correct answer is: history.
The criminal justice system provides intervention at what level of prevention?
Select one:
A.
primary
B.
secondary
C.
tertiary
D.
quartiary
Methods of prevention are classified based on the level of intervention. Primary prevention focuses on all members of an identified group. Secondary prevention targets specific individuals who are at high risk. Tertiary prevention intervenes after the incidence of the behavior.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT The criminal justice system intervenes after an individual engages in a criminal act.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: tertiary
Validity generalization studies make use of which of the following techniques?
Select one:
A.
multiple regression
B.
meta-analysis
C.
item response theory
D.
multitrait-multimethod matrix
Validity generalization studies are conducted to determine if validity coefficients are generalizable to situations and populations other than those included in any particular validity study. Schmidt and Hunter (1977), for example, conducted validity generalization studies to evaluate and compare the criterion-related validity of personnel selection procedures.
a. Incorrect Multiple regression uses multiple predictors to predict outcome on a single criterion measure.
b. CORRECT All forms of validity generalization involve the use of some form of meta-analysis to combine the results of multiple validity studies.
c. Incorrect Item response theory is an alternative to classical test theory for conceptualizing and constructing tests.
d. Incorrect The multitrait-multimethod matrix is used to evaluate a test’s construct validity.
The correct answer is: meta-analysis
As a treatment for Tourette’s Disorder, the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs):
Select one:
A.
are more effective than haloperidol or pimozide for alleviating tics.
B.
are useful for reducing obsessive-compulsive symptoms that often accompany this disorder.
C.
cannot be used in conjunction with haloperidol or pimozide because of the risk for a toxicity syndrome.
D.
are contraindicated because of their exacerbating effects on tics.
Answer B is correct: A number of drugs are used to treat Tourette’s Disorder and comorbid symptoms. For example, an SSRI is usually useful for alleviating the obsessive-compulsive symptoms that often accompany this disorder.
Answers A, C, and D: See explanation for answer B.
The correct answer is: are useful for reducing obsessive-compulsive symptoms that often accompany this disorder.
A young man has just received a diagnosis of Narcissistic Personality Disorder. You can expect that he will display which of the following?
Select one:
A.
rapidly changing and shallow expression of emotions
B.
instability in self-image, interpersonal relationships, and mood
C.
grandiose behavior and a lack of empathy
D.
excessive emotionality and attention seeking
Answer C is correct: Narcissistic Personality Disorder involves a pervasive pattern of grandiosity, a need for admiration, and a lack of empathy.
Answer A: Rapidly changing and shallow expression of emotions are characteristic of Histroinic Personality Disorder.
Answer B: Instability in self-image, interpersonal relationships, and mood are characteristic of Borderline Personality Disorder.
Answer D: Excessive emotionality and attention seeking are characteristic of Histrionic Personality Disorder.
The correct answer is: grandiose behavior and a lack of empathy
Research on theory of mind has found that it is not until about ______ years of age that children understand that another person’s actions depend on that person’s beliefs (which may be false) rather than on the reality of the situation.
Select one:
A.
two to three
B.
four to five
C.
six to seven
D.
eight to nine
The research has found that theory of mind develops gradually during childhood in predictable stages.
a. Incorrect See explanation for answer b.
b. CORRECT By four to five years of age, children understand that a person’s beliefs about a situation may be false and that the person will act upon the false belief rather than the reality of the situation.
c. Incorrect See explanation for answer b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for answer b.
The correct answer is: four to five
Universal symbols in the delusions and hallucinations of psychotic patients would be of most interest to:
Select one:
A.
Perls.
B.
Sullivan.
C.
Adler.
D.
Jung.
The term “universal symbols” should have helped you recognize the correct answer to this question.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Of the individuals listed, only Jung incorporates the notion of universal symbols into his work. When working with psychotic patients, Jung noticed a great deal of similarity in the content of their delusions and hallucinations, and this led to the development of his theory of archetypes and the collective unconscious.
The correct answer is: Jung.
A non-custodial parent asks Dr. Maxine Miller, a school psychologist, for the results of the tests she recently administered to his 5th grade son. If Dr. Miller complies with the father’s request, she will have acted:
Select one:
A.
legally and ethically.
B.
legally but unethically.
C.
illegally and unethically.
D.
illegally but ethically.
The rights of non-custodial parents may be limited in terms of obtaining psychological services for their children. However, custody status does not necessarily affect access to certain kinds of information.
a. CORRECT The laws relevant to this situation vary from jurisdiction to jurisdiction but, in general, non-custodial parents have the right to obtain information about their children. In California, for example, the law states that “Notwithstanding any other provision of law, access to records and information pertaining to a minor child, including but not limited to medical, dental, and school records, shall not be denied to a parent because such parent is not the child”s custodial parent” (Civil Code 4600.5).
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: legally and ethically.
Which of the following memory techniques relies on the use of visual images?
Select one:
A.
acronym
B.
chunking
C.
acrostic
D.
keyword method
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the terms listed in the responses so that you can identify the correct answer to questions like this one.
a. Incorrect An acronym involves constructing a word from the first letter of the words to be memorized.
b. Incorrect Chunking involves grouping items that are to be recalled and is useful for increasing the amount of information that can be held in short-term memory.
c. Incorrect An acrostic is a phrase or rhyme that is composed of words that begin with the first letter of the words to be memorized.
d. CORRECT The keyword method is useful for paired associate tasks in which two words must be linked (e.g., foreign-language learning). It involves constructing a visual image that combines the two words.
The correct answer is: keyword method
At age 8, a girl receives a WISC FSIQ score of 144. When she is retested at age 12, she obtains a score of 138. Which of the following best accounts for this decline in her IQ score?
Select one:
A.
demand characteristics
B.
cohort effects
C.
normal aging effects
D.
statistical regression
Statistical regression refers to the tendency of extreme scores to regress toward the mean on retesting and may threaten a study’s internal validity whenever participants are chosen on the basis of their extreme scores on a pretest.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Although statistical regression is typically used in the context of scores obtained by a group of examinees (rather than an individual examinee), of the answers given, it is the best choice.
The correct answer is: statistical regression
In infants, auditory localization is first apparent:
Select one:
A.
shortly after birth.
B.
between 3 and 4 months of age.
C.
between 6 and 7 months of age.
D.
between 8 and 9 months of age.
Auditory localization is the ability to orient toward the direction of a sound.
a. CORRECT Some auditory localization is evident soon after birth, but this ability seems to disappear between two and four months of age and then reappears and gradually improves during the first year of life.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: shortly after birth.
Raymond R. tells Dr. Terry Fide that his partner is talking about harming Dr. Fide because he’s not happy with the advice that Raymond is getting in therapy. Dr. Fide knows that the partner has engaged in violent behavior in the past. In this situation, Dr. Fide:
Select one:
A.
should continue seeing Raymond in therapy and ask that Raymond bring his partner to the next session to discuss the issue.
B.
should continue seeing Raymond in therapy but, with his permission, make a report to the police department.
C.
may terminate therapy with Raymond but only after providing him with pretermination counseling and appropriate referrals.
D.
may terminate therapy with Raymond.
This issue is addressed in Standard 10.10(b) of the APA’s Ethics Code and the Values Statement for Principle II of the Canadian Code of Ethics for Psychologists.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Psychologists may terminate therapy when their well-being is threatened by the client or a person the client knows. In this situation, it is not necessary to provide notification of termination, pretermination counseling, or referrals. See, e.g., C. B. Fisher, Decoding the Ethics Code: A practical guide for psychologists, Thousand Oaks, CA, 2003.
The correct answer is: may terminate therapy with Raymond.
Six weeks after terminating therapy, Wilma W. still owes you for the last four therapy sessions. You have sent Wilma a letter asking that she contact you about her outstanding fees, but she has not responded and you would like to use a collection agency to obtain the money she owes you. As an ethical psychologist:
Select one:
A.
you will not contact a collection agency unless you informed Wilma that this was your policy during the original informed consent process.
B.
you will contact a collection agency only if Wilma contacts you and informs you that she doesn’t intend to pay her bill.
C.
you will contact a collection agency only after notifying Wilma of your intent to do so if she doesn’t respond by a specific date.
D.
you will not use a collection agency under any circumstances.
This issue is explicitly addressed in Standard 6.04(e) of the APA’s Ethics Code and indirectly addressed in Principle I.12 of the Canadian Code of Ethics.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Standard 6.04(e) states: “If the recipient of services does not pay for services as agreed, and if psychologists intend to use collection agencies or legal measures to collect the fees, psychologists first inform the person that such measures will be taken and provide that person an opportunity to make prompt payment.”
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: you will contact a collection agency only after notifying Wilma of your intent to do so if she doesn’t respond by a specific date.
Studies investigating the impact of viewing violent pornography have generally supported the predictions of which of the following?
Select one:
A.
frustration-aggression hypothesis
B.
catharsis hypothesis
C.
social learning theory
D.
vicious circle hypothesis
The research has found that exposure to pornography with violent themes increases the viewer’s aggressive behaviors as well as acceptance of violence against women.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Social learning theory predicts that we acquire behaviors by observing others engage in those behaviors. Therefore, its predictions are consistent with the results of studies investigating the effects of viewing violent pornography.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: social learning theory
A researcher designs a study in which participants will be hospitalized patients who have legal guardians. The hospital research committee has approved the project, which involves several treatments, some of which include experimental drugs that may cause harmful side effects. Before beginning the study, the researcher should:
Select one:
A.
obtain informed consents from the patients if possible.
B.
obtain informed consents from the patients’ guardians.
C.
obtain informed consents from the patients’ guardians and assent from the patients.
D.
none of the above are necessary since the study has been approved by the hospital’s research committee.
To be consistent with ethical guidelines, when an individual is not competent to give informed consent, a consent must be obtained from his/her legal guardian. In addition, the individual should be provided with information about the study in language he/she can understand.
a. Incorrect This is appropriate but insufficient.
b. Incorrect This is appropriate but insufficient.
c. CORRECT This is most consistent with ethical guidelines (see Standard 3.10 of the APA’s Ethics Code).
d. Incorrect This is not true and would represent a breach of the ethical guidelines.
The correct answer is: obtain informed consents from the patients’ guardians and assent from the patients.
Damage to the postcentral gyrus is most likely to impair which of the following?
Select one:
A.
sense of touch
B.
motor coordination
C.
vision
D.
executive cognitive functions
The postcentral gyrus contains the primary somatosensory cortex.
a. CORRECT The primary somatosensory cortex mediates touch and other skin and muscle sensations for the contralateral (opposite) side of the body.
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: sense of touch
As defined by Salvador Minuchin, triangulation is:
Select one:
A.
a therapeutic technique that helps family members achieve insight.
B.
a structural configuration that is desirable because it improves communication.
C.
a chronic boundary problem that serves a conflict-diffusing function.
D.
a chronic boundary disturbance involving “talking through” rather than “talking to.”
Although the term “triangulation” is probably most associated with Bowen, Minuchin and other family therapists also use this term.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Even if you are unfamiliar with Minuchin’s use of this term, knowing that he focuses on boundary disturbances and emphasizes the role of stress in family dysfunction would have helped you pick this as the correct response. As noted in the Clinical Psychology chapter of the written study materials, Minuchin describes several types of rigid triads (triangles) that all serve to reduce conflict and stress - i.e., triangulation, detouring, and stable coalition.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: a chronic boundary problem that serves a conflict-diffusing function.
During the process of developing a training program, you evaluate its effects on trainee satisfaction and learning to determine what changes to the program are needed to achieve maximal effectiveness. This is an example of:
Select one:
A.
needs assessment.
B.
functional analysis.
C.
summative evaluation.
D.
formative evaluation.
This question is a little vague, but it appears that the purpose of the evaluation is to make changes in the training program while it is being developed.
a. Incorrect A needs assessment is conducted to determine training needs.
b. Incorrect A functional analysis is used by behavioral psychologists to obtain information about a target behavior.
c. Incorrect A summative evaluation is conducted to determine the outcomes of a program and is less geared toward guiding future changes than a formative evaluation is.
d. CORRECT Although the question isn’t entirely clear, the evaluation sounds more like a formative one because it is conducted during program development and its results will be used to make necessary changes in the program.
The correct answer is: formative evaluation.
Research comparing the personality characteristics and psychiatric symptoms of women reporting repressed versus continuous memories of childhood sexual abuse has found that:
Select one:
A.
the two groups of women do not differ significantly in terms of personality characteristics or psychiatric symptoms.
B.
women reporting repressed memories differ from those with continuous memories in terms of dissociation but not with regard to other characteristics or symptoms.
C.
women reporting continuous memories exhibit more symptoms of PTSD than those reporting repressed memories but the two groups do not differ with regard to other characteristics or symptoms.
D.
the two groups of women show significant differences with regard to both personality characteristics and psychiatric symptoms.
This issue was addressed by R. J. McNally et al. [Personality profiles, dissociation, and absorption in women reporting repressed, recovered, or continuous memories of childhood sexual abuse, Journal of Consulting and Clinical Psychology, 68(6), 1033-1037, 2000]. Individuals in this study reporting repressed memories said they believed they had been sexually abused as children but had no autobiographical memories of the abuse.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT McNally et al. found that women with repressed memories scored higher on measures of absorption and dissociation and reported more symptoms of depression and PTSD than did women with continuous memories of childhood abuse. (Women with continuous memories did not differ significantly from nonabused women on these measures.)
The correct answer is: the two groups of women show significant differences with regard to both personality characteristics and psychiatric symptoms.
During her second therapy session, a client tells Dr. O. Pine that she is pregnant, doesn’t want to have the baby, and is planning on having an abortion. Dr. Pine is very much against abortions and is concerned that his feelings might interfere with the therapeutic relationship. As an ethical psychologist, Dr. Pine should:
Select one:
A.
discuss this issue with the client and allow her to decide if she wants to continue seeing him.
B.
continue to see the woman but make sure his feelings don’t adversely impact treatment.
C.
seek consultation with a collegue but continue to see the woman while doing so.
D.
refer the woman to another therapist.
Psychologists are not required to see every client who seeks their services.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT It’s appropriate not to treat clients when your beliefs and attitudes may impact your objectivity or otherwise harm the therapeutic process. The best course of action is this situation is to make a referral.
The correct answer is: refer the woman to another therapist.
Lithium is often the treatment-of-choice for mania, with the research indicating that 80% of patients have a favorable response to it. In recent years, however, there has been increasing interest in prescribing __________, which seem to be as effective as lithium for controlling acute manic states and stabilizing mood.
Select one:
A.
SSRIs
B.
antipsychotic drugs
C.
benzodiazepines
D.
anticonvulsant medications
Although lithium has been the standard treatment for Bipolar Disorder to reduce mania and mood fluctuations, alternative drugs have been found to be similarly effective.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Of the drugs listed, only anticonvulsant drugs (especially carbamazapine and valproate) have been found to be comparable to lithium in their beneficial effects.
The correct answer is: anticonvulsant medications
After a training program has been administered to employees, an organizational psychologist wants to determine if the instruction met its objectives in terms of the employees’ on-the-job performance. What type of evaluation will he conduct?
Select one:
A.
summative
B.
formative
C.
primary
D.
secondary
Program evaluations are usually conducted both while the program is being developed and after the program has been implemented.
a. CORRECT A summative evaluation is conducted after the administration of a program to determine if the program’s goals have been achieved.
b. Incorrect Formative evaluations are conducted during the development of a program to determine whether the program should be altered to improve its effectiveness.
c. Incorrect This is a distractor term.
d. Incorrect This is a distractor term.
The correct answer is: summative
Krumboltz’s (1996) theory of career decision-making emphasizes which of the following?
Select one:
A.
the match between the individual’s ego development and his/her career development
B.
the match between the individual’s characteristics and the characteristics of the job
C.
the individual’s ability to acquire skills that allow him/her to respond to changes in work requirements
D.
the degree to which a job fosters the individual’s ability to achieve career maturity
You receive a call from an emergency room psychiatrist who is currently treating a former client of yours who has just attempted suicide. The client has given consent for you to provide the psychiatrist with information from her records but she currently owes you for the last three sessions of therapy. In this situation:
Select one:
A.
you have no obligation to provide the records to the psychiatrist.
B.
you may withhold the records if the client has not responded to your requests for payment.
C.
you may withhold the records as long as the client was advised of this policy during the informed consent process.
D.
you may not withhold the records.
Answer D is correct. This issue is directly addressed in Standard 6.03 of the APA’s Ethics Code and indirectly addressed in Principles II.1 and II.2 of the Canadian Code of Ethics for Psychologists. Although psychologists have a right to be paid for their services, they must also avoid harming their clients, and withholding records in an emergency situation due to nonpayment of fees would jeopardize the welfare of the client.
The correct answer is: you may not withhold the records.
Patients with traumatic brain injury are likely to obtain the lowest score on which of the following WAIS-IV Indexes?
Select one:
A.
Verbal Comprehension
B.
Perceptual Reasoning
C.
Working Memory
D.
Processing Speed
Answer D is correct: The impact of brain injury on WAIS-IV scores is reported in the test’s Technical and Interpretive Manual, which indicates that individuals in the standardization sample with traumatic brain injury scored highest on Verbal Comprehension followed by Perceptual Reasoning, Working Memory, and Processing Speed.
The correct answer is: Processing Speed
Spontaneous recovery is associated with which of the following?
Select one:
A.
higher-order conditioning
B.
stimulus discrimination
C.
extinction
D.
overshadowing
Spontaneous recovery occurs when an extinguished conditioned response recurs without additional conditioning trials.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Pavlov found that, following extinction trials, dogs in his studies often spontaneously emitted the condtioned reponse, and he referred to this as spontaneous recovery. Spontaneous recovery is the reason why it is often necessary to conduct multiple extinction sessions in order to eliminate a conditioned response.
d. Incorrect See explanation for resopnse c.
The correct answer is: extinction
Which of the following is LEAST true about practitioners of feminist therapy?
Select one:
A.
They encourage female clients to express their anger.
B.
They avoid traditional diagnostic labels.
C.
They encourage female clients to accept personal responsibility for their victimization.
D.
They promote an egalitarian therapeutic relationship through self-disclosure.
A key distinguishing feature of feminist therapy is its assumption that behavior must be interpreted within an oppressive social context.
a. Incorrect Feminist therapists do encourage women to express any anger they may have repressed and to accept the consequences of expressing that anger.
b. Incorrect Feminist therapists avoid traditional labels whenever possible, including diagnostic labels.
c. CORRECT Although feminist therapists want women to take control of their lives, they avoid revictimization by not placing the blame for problems on the clients themselves.
d. Incorrect An egalitarian relationship is a crucial aspect of feminist therapy. Feminist therapists use several techniques to foster an egalitarian relationship including appropriate self-disclosure.
The correct answer is: They encourage female clients to accept personal responsibility for their victimization.
Investigators have found that, after engaging in strenuous physical activity, research participants tend to get angrier when provoked by an insult and tend to be more romantically or sexually attracted when they meet a potential partner. These findings provide support for which of the following?
Select one:
A.
misattribution hypothesis
B.
confirmatory bias
C.
catharsis hypothesis
D.
psychological reactance
This question describes situations in which prior physiological arousal affects subsequent reactions. Of the theories listed, only one applies to this type of situation.
a. CORRECT You probably had trouble answering this question if you did not know that Schachter’s two-factor theory is also referred to as the misattribution hypothesis because it predicts that arousal produced by one source (e.g., strenuous physical activity) can be misattributed to another source (e.g., an insult or a potential romantic or sexual partner). In other words, the arousal gets “transferred” to another source. On the exam, you may encounter a few questions that use terms you are unfamiliar with; and, for those question, the process of elimination might help you identify the correct answer.
b. Incorrect The confirmatory bias (which is also known as the confirmation bias) predicts that people tend to seek or pay attention to information that confirms their current beliefs.
c. Incorrect The catharsis hypothesis predicts that an act of aggression reduces a person’s arousal level which, in turn, decreases the likelihood that he/she will act aggressively in the near future.
d. Incorrect Psychological reactance is the tendency of a person to resist being influenced by others (usually by doing the opposite of what is desired or expected) when the person believes that his/her personal freedom is being threatened.
The correct answer is: misattribution hypothesis
A diagnosis of Reactive Attachment Disorder cannot be assigned without the presence of which of the following?
Select one:
A.
evidence of extreme insufficient care
B.
developmentally inappropriate social relatedness that began prior to age 2
C.
a pattern of inappropriate social relatedness in at least two settings
D.
the presence of one or more developmental delays
Answer A is correct: Reactive Attachment Disorder is characterized by inappropriate social relatedness that is related to extreme insufficient (pathogenic) care.
Answer B: The diagnosis requires that symptoms begin prior to age 5 (not age 2).
Answer C: The diagnosis does not require signs of inappropriate social relatedness in at least two settings.
Answer D: Developmental delays are not required for the diagnosis.
The correct answer is: evidence of extreme insufficient care
Outward signs of the self-conscious emotions of jealousy, empathy, and embarassment are first evident between ________ of age.
Select one:
A.
6 to 10 months
B.
10 to 18 months
C.
18 to 24 months
D.
24 to 30 months
It is not until the second year of life that children begin to exhibit outward signs of self-conscious emotions.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Jealousy, empathy, and embarassment are among the first self-conscious emotions exhibited by young children.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: 18 to 24 months
During the first session of a therapy group, the therapist emphasizes the importance of self-disclosure. Although many of the members do not go along with this group norm initially, after several weeks, most of the members are beginning to self-disclose. According to Irvin Yalom, the willingness to self-disclose during this stage of group development is most likely attributable to which of the following?
Select one:
A.
increased role conformance
B.
reduced defensiveness
C.
increased group cohesiveness
D.
reduced role induction
Yalom (1985) proposed that, regardless of the type of therapy group or the theoretical background of the group leader, self-disclosure by participants is always an essential group norm.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Yalom describes several initial stages that new groups typically pass through. By the third stage, as the result of increasing group cohesiveness, group members begin to adhere to the norm of self-disclosure even if they were resistant to doing so to begin with.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: increased group cohesiveness
A researcher uses the chi-square test to determine if the ethnic/racial make-up (i.e., White, African-American, Latino/Hispanic, Asian, Other) of a particular community on the West Coast differs significantly from a similar-sized community on the East Coast. Ten years later, she returns to the West Coast community and finds that it has not changed dramatically in size but has changed in terms of racial and ethnic group membership. The researcher now wants to determine if the West Coast community’s current ethnic/racial make-up differs significantly from the make-up she observed in that community ten years earlier and plans to compare the number of individuals in each ethnic/racial category for the two years (2000 and 2010). The researcher cannot use a chi-square test to analyze the data for her current study because:
Select one:
A.
the study now includes two independent variables.
B.
the data violate the assumption of independence.
C.
the data violate the assumption of random assignment.
D.
all of the above.
The use of any statistical test requires not only that the data are measured on a particular scale but also that certain assumptions be met.
a. Incorrect A multiple-sample chi-square test can be used when a study includes two or more independent variables.
b. CORRECT An assumption for the chi-square test is that observations are independent, which means that each individual can appear in only one category. In this study, people who lived in the community in both 2000 and 2010 would appear in two categories, which would violate this assumption.
c. Incorrect Random assignment is not an assumption for the chi-square test.
d. Incorrect Only response b is correct.
The correct answer is: the data violate the assumption of independence.
Dr. Smith is renting office space from Dr. Jones and providing him with secretarial services. Dr. Jones charges Dr. Smith on a “per patient” basis. Dr. Jones will be receiving occasional referrals from Dr. Smith. This arrangement is:
Select one:
A.
unethical because it represents “fee-splitting.”
B.
unethical because it represents a “multiple relationship.”
C.
ethical as long as the per patient fee is based on Dr. Jones’s actual costs.
D.
ethical as long as the per patient fee does not include a referral fee.
The correct answer is C. Although “fee-splitting” is not explicitly prohibited by the Ethics Code, certain restrictions apply when client fees will be shared. The per-patient fee must reflect Dr. Smith’s actual costs and can include any costs involved in making a referral.
Answer D is incorrect: A referral fee is acceptable as long as it represents the costs involved in making the referral (e.g., the time Dr. Smith spends preparing a client’s file or discussing the case with Dr. Jones).
The correct answer is: ethical as long as the per patient fee is based on Dr. Jones’s actual costs.
A criterion has a mean of 100 and a standard deviation of 9. Based on this information, you can conclude that the criterion’s standard error of estimate is between:
Select one:
A.
9 and 100.
B.
0 and 81.
C.
0 and 9.
D.
0 and 3.
Knowing the formula for the standard error of estimate may have helped you identify the correct answer to this question: The standard error of estimate is calculated by multiplying the standard deviation of the criterion scores times the square root of 1 minus the validity coefficient squared.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT The standard error of estimate equals 0 when the validity coefficient is equal to 1 (its maximum value) and equals the standard deviation when the validity coefficient is equal to 0 (its minimum value). Therefore, the standard error ranges in value from 0 to the size of the standard deviation (which, in this case, is 9).
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: 0 and 9.
Cluster analysis would be most useful for:
Select one:
A.
developing a classification scheme for individuals with various combinations of depressive symptoms.
B.
testing causal hypotheses about the factors that underlie the development of depression.
C.
identifying the optimal combination of tests to use to predict an individuals risk for developing major depressive disorder.
D.
systematically recording behavioral data while observing individuals with depressive symptoms.
As its name suggests, cluster analysis is used to “cluster” or categorize individuals. Cluster analysis can be either exploratory or confirmatory. In the first case, the goal is to identify clusters of people or other variables; in the latter, the goal is to confirm a pre-existing classification scheme.
a. CORRECT Of the situations described in the answers, this one is best suited for cluster analysis, which is useful for confirming or developing a classification scheme.
b. Incorrect Cluster analysis is not used to test causal hypotheses.
c. Incorrect Cluster analysis would not be useful for this purpose.
d. Incorrect Cluster analysis is a type of statistical analysis and is not used to record behavioral observations.
The correct answer is: developing a classification scheme for individuals with various combinations of depressive symptoms.
According to the learned helplessness model, children who consistently have extreme negative emotional reactions to failure in school are most likely attributing their academic problems to:
Select one:
A.
lack of ability.
B.
lack of effort.
C.
bad luck.
D.
task difficulty.
The negative reactions of the children described in this question are characteristic of learned helplessness.
a. CORRECT The learned helplessness model predicts that, when people view their failures as the result of global, stable, and internal causes (e.g., lack of ability), they are likely to respond to failure with depression or other strong negative emotion.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: lack of ability.
“Multicollinearity” could be expected to:
Select one:
A.
cause the values of the regression coefficients to vary substantially from sample to sample.
B.
cause the multiple correlation coefficient to vary substantially from sample to sample.
C.
increase as the number of dependent variables decreases.
D.
decrease as the correlation between independent variables increases.
Multicollinearity occurs when predictors in a multiple regression equation correlate highly with one another.
a. CORRECT When predictors are correlated and the predictors and criterion are administered to different samples and new regression coefficients (beta weights) are derived for each sample, there tends to be a great deal of fluctuation in the size of the weights. (It isn’t necessary for you to understand why this is so for the exam – just know that it is!)
b. Incorrect The actual relationship between the predictors and criterion shouldn’t change much from sample to sample as the result of multicollinearity, so the multiple correlation coefficient won’t change substantially.
c. Incorrect You may have been able to eliminate this response because it doesn’t really make any sense.
d. Incorrect By definition, multicollinearity INCREASES as the correlation between predictors increases.
The correct answer is: cause the values of the regression coefficients to vary substantially from sample to sample.
An assumption underlying item response theory is that the standard error of measurement:
Select one:
A.
is larger for shorter tests than for longer tests.
B.
is larger for examinees with average ability.
C.
is larger for examinees with very high or very low ability.
D.
is not affected by the test length or the ability level of the examinees.
Item response theory (IRT) differs from classical test theory in terms of several assumptions.
a. Incorrect One difference between IRT and classical test theory is that IRT assumes that, when certain conditions are met, shorter tests can be more reliable than longer tests.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Classical test theory is based on the assumption that the standard error of measurement is a constant that applies to all examinees, regardless of their level of ability. In contrast, IRT is based on the assumption that the standard error of measurement increases at the extremes of a distribution – i.e., is larger for individuals with very high or low ability than for those with average ability. See, e.g., R. J. Gregory, Psychological testing: History, principles, and applications, Boston, Pearson Education Group, 2004.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: is larger for examinees with very high or very low ability.
You are most likely to report “feeling crowded” in a high density situation if you are watching a:
Select one:
A.
humorous film.
B.
sexual film.
C.
violent film.
D.
documentary film.
This question is referring to a specific study on the effects of crowding (S. Worchel and E. H. Brown, The role of plausibility in influencing environmental attributions, Journal of Experimental Social Psychology, 20, 86-96, 1984).
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Participants in this study reported feeling more crowded while watching a nonarousing (documentary) film than while watching an arousing (humorous, sexual, or violent) film. Moreover, they said they enjoyed the arousing film more under crowded conditions.
The correct answer is: documentary film.
A “cover story” that causes research participants to think that the purpose of the study they are participating in is something other than what it really is would be most helpful for controlling which of the following?
Select one:
A.
Hawthorne effect
B.
Rosenthal effect
C.
demand characteristics
D.
differential attrition
In the situation described in this question, participants will not know the real purpose of the study. As long as you’re familiar with the phenomena listed in the answers, you should have been able to recognize which phenomenon would be impacted by this lack of knowledge.
a. Incorrect The Hawthorne effect is the tendency for the performance of research participants to improve as the result of the attention they receive as research participants. In other words, it is knowing that they are in a study (not knowing the purpose of the study) that impacts performance.
b. Incorrect The Rosenthal (self-fulfilling prophecy) effect refers to the impact of a teacher”s expectations about the performance of his/her students on their actual performance.
c. CORRECT Demand characteristics are cues in the experimental setting that inadvertently convey information to participants about what behavior is expected. If participants do not know what the purpose of the study is, they will be less susceptible to the effects of any cues that happen to be present.
d. Incorrect Differential attrition occurs when participants who drop out of one group differ in a systematic way from those who drop out of another group and this difference affects the study’s results.
The correct answer is: demand characteristics
If you want to determine the degree of association between variable X and variable Y when the effects of a third variable (Z) have been statistically removed from both X and Y, you would use:
Select one:
A.
zero-order correlation.
B.
second-order correlation.
C.
multiple correlation.
D.
partial correlation.
You may have been able to identify the correct answer to this question even if you have never heard of partial correlation since it sounds like what it is.
a. Incorrect A zero-order correlation is the correlation between two variables.
b. Incorrect In the context of correlation, “order” refers to the number of variables that are being controlled for. A first-order correlation controls for one other variable (which is what is described in this question), while a second-order correlation controls for two other variables.
c. Incorrect A multiple correlation coefficient is the correlation between three or more variables.
d. CORRECT Partial correlation, a type of first-order correlation, is used to determine the degree of association between two variables when the effects of a third variable have been removed from both X and Y.
The correct answer is: partial correlation.
Use of multicomponent behavior therapy in conjunction with nicotine replacement therapy as an intervention for cigarette smoking:
Select one:
A.
is no better than nicotine replacement therapy alone.
B.
is no better than behavior therapy alone.
C.
is better than nicotine replacement therapy alone only for individuals who have developed tolerance for nicotine.
D.
is better than nicotine replacement therapy alone, especially in terms of long-term effects.
Answer D is correct: There is some evidence that, in terms of short-term effects, a combined treatment does not have significant advantages over nicotine replacement therapy alone. However, in terms of long-term abstinence, the combined treatment is best. See R. C. Klesges, K. D. Ward, and M. DeBon, Smoking cessation: A successful behavioral/pharmacologic interface, Clinical Psychology Review, 16(6), 479-496, 1996.
Answers A, B, and C: See explanation for answer D.
The correct answer is: is better than nicotine replacement therapy alone, especially in terms of long-term effects.
Research comparing outcomes for children who are actively rejected or neglected by their peers has found that:
Select one:
A.
rejected children are better adjusted than neglected children and are more likely to experience a change in social status when they change social groups.
B.
rejected and neglected children are similar in terms of adjustment although neglected children are less likely to experience a change in social status when they change social groups.
C.
rejected and neglected children are similar in terms of adjustment although neglected children are more likely to experience a change in social status when they change social groups.
D.
neglected children are better adjusted than rejected children and are more likely to experience a change in social status when they change social groups.
In terms of peer acceptance, children may be classified as popular, rejected, or neglected.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT As noted in the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials, the research has found that, overall, the outcomes for neglected children are better than those for rejected children. In addition, neglected children are more likely to experience a change in peer status when they change schools or social groups.
The correct answer is: neglected children are better adjusted than rejected children and are more likely to experience a change in social status when they change social groups.
With regard to ethical guidelines, a sexual relationship between a psychologist and an adult student:
Select one:
A.
is prohibited under any conditions.
B.
is prohibited only when the relationship is likely to impair the psychologist’s effectiveness as an instructor.
C.
is prohibited only when the psychologist currently has evaluative authority over the student.
D.
is prohibited when the psychologist currently has or is likely to have evaluative authority over the student.
For the exam, you want to be familiar with ethical guidelines for sexual relationships with students, supervisees, and clients. These guidelines are discussed in the chapter on ethics and professional issues in the written study materials.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Sexual relationships with students and supervisees is addressed in Standard 7.07 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Principle II.28 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 7.07 states: “Psychologists do not engage in sexual relationships with students or supervisees who are in their department, agency, or training center or over whom psychologists have or are likely to have evaluative authority.”
The correct answer is: is prohibited when the psychologist currently has or is likely to have evaluative authority over the student.
Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder and Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder share which of the following symptoms?
Select one:
A.
prominent obsessions
B.
repetitive rituals
C.
risk aversion
D.
emotional rigidity
Answer B is correct: Both disorders involve rituals, but the goal of rituals is different for OCD and OCPD. In OCD, rituals are performed to reduce anxiety; in OCPD, rituals are related to perfectionism.
Answer A: Prominent obsessions are characteristic of OCD but not OCPD.
Answer C: Risk aversion is not a characteristic shared by the two disorders.
Answer D: Emotional rigidity is not a characteristic shared by OCD and OCPD.
The correct answer is: repetitive rituals
In factor analysis, “rotating” the factors has which of the following effects?
Select one:
A.
It changes the factor loadings for the variables and the eigenvalue for each factor.
B.
It changes the factor loadings for the variables but does not change the eigenvalue for each factor.
C.
It changes the eigenvalue for each factor but does not change the factor loadings for the variables.
D.
It does not change the eigenvalue for each factor or the factor loadings for the variables.
The purpose of rotation in factor analysis is to facilitate interpretation of the factors.
a. CORRECT Rotation alters the factor loadings for each variable and the eigenvalue for each factor (although the total of the eigenvalues remains the same). Knowing that an eigenvalue indicates the amount of variability accounted for by each factor may have helped you identify the correct answer to this question – i.e., when the factor loadings change, the eigenvalues will also change.
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: It changes the factor loadings for the variables and the eigenvalue for each factor.
A father is trying to work in the garden, but his son wants his attention and keeps whining and nagging. The father finally gives in and plays with the boy who stops whining. The father’s behavior (playing with his son) is the result of:
Select one:
A.
positive punishment.
B.
negative punishment.
C.
positive reinforcement.
D.
negative reinforcement.
The father’s play behavior has increased in this situation, which means that it is being reinforced.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT When the father plays with the child, the child stops nagging and whining. In other words, the father’s play behavior is being negatively reinforced.
The correct answer is: negative reinforcement.
Which of the following best describes a psychologist’s ethical obligation with regard to obtaining an informed consent from a research participant?
Select one:
A.
An informed consent is always required.
B.
An informed consent may be unnecessary when the study is unlikely to cause the participant harm or distress.
C.
An informed consent is unnecessary only when the study involves an anonymous survey or questionnaire or naturalistic observation.
D.
An informed consent is unnecessary only when the study involves deception and the deception meets ethical requirements.
Informed consents are addressed in Standards 8.02 and 8.05 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Principles I.19 and I.20 of the Canadian Code of Ethics.
a. Incorrect Informed consents are not always required.
b. CORRECT The potential for harm is a primary consideration when determining whether an informed consent is needed.
c. Incorrect An informed consent may not be necessary in the situations described in this answer. However, these are not the “only” situations that do not require an informed consent, so this is not the best answer.
d. Incorrect An informed consent cannot be obtained when a study involves deception, but there are other circumstances when an informed consent is not necessary, so this is not the best response.
The correct answer is: An informed consent may be unnecessary when the study is unlikely to cause the participant harm or distress.
Kaila K., age 12, is brought to therapy by her court-appointed legal guardian who says she is concerned because Kaila has recently started getting into fights with her peers and is acting disrespectfully toward her teacher. The therapist should:
Select one:
A.
see the child in therapy as requested by the guardian.
B.
see the child in therapy only after obtaining permission from one of the child’s biological parents.
C.
see the child in therapy only after obtaining permission from one of the child’s biological relatives.
D.
see the child in therapy only after obtaining permission from the court.
A child’s legal guardian has the authority to make decisions relevant to the child’s well-being.
a. CORRECT The legal guardian may authorize treatment for the child, and approval from the court or a biological relative of the child is unnecessary.
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: see the child in therapy as requested by the guardian.
Fathers who have a child who has received a diagnosis of ADHD:
Select one:
A.
tend to rate the child’s behaviors as less problematic than mothers do.
B.
tend to rate the behaviors of their son (but not daughter) with ADHD as less problematic than mothers do.
C.
tend to rate the behaviors of their daughter (but not son) with ADHD as less problematic than mothers do.
D.
tend to rate the child’s behaviors as more problematic than mothers do.
This is a difficult question because very few of the existing studies consider the reactions of fathers of children with ADHD.
a. CORRECT The limited research on this issue suggests that fathers of children with ADHD rate the behaviors of their children as less problematic. For example, E. J. Mash and C. Johnston found that fathers tend to rate the behaviors of children with ADHD as less troublesome than mothers (Parental perceptions of child behavior problems, parenting self-esteem, and mothers’ reported stress in younger and older hyperactive and normal children, Journal of Consulting and Clinical Psychology, 51, 86-99, 1983). And, more recently, Singh interviewed 39 mothers and 22 fathers of boys who had received the diagnosis of ADHD and found that only four of the fathers felt their sons’ behaviors required medical attention [Boys will be boys: Fathers’ perspectives on ADHD symptoms, diagnosis, and drug treatment, Harvard Review of Psychiatry, 11(6), 308-316, 2003].
The correct answer is: tend to rate the child’s behaviors as less problematic than mothers do.
Test-score banding is used to:
Select one:
A.
alleviate criterion contamination.
B.
equate an examinees scores on different tests.
C.
facilitate criterion-referenced interpretation.
D.
reduce adverse impact.
Test-score banding is a method of score interpretation that involves considering people who obtain scores within a specific range (band) as having equivalent scores.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Banding has been identified as a method for reducing biases in testing that contribute to group differences in test scores. Its advocates argue that it is an effective way for reducing adverse impact.
The correct answer is: reduce adverse impact.
Research suggests that, with regard to metamemory, older adults are:
Select one:
A.
more likely than younger adults to underestimate their actual memory deficits.
B.
more likely than younger adults to overestimate their actual memory deficits.
C.
just as able as younger adults to accurately estimate their actual memory deficits.
D.
better than younger adults at estimating their actual memory deficits.
The research on this topic is limited, but it appears that while older adults do, in fact, experience memory problems, they may overestimate the extent of those problems.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Metamemory refers to the ability to monitor one”s own memory processes. There is evidence that, compared to younger adults, older adults tend to view their memory loss as worse than it actually is.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: more likely than younger adults to overestimate their actual memory deficits.
In comparison to a non-hypnotic state, hypnosis is most likely to produce:
Select one:
A.
more memories in general with a smaller proportion of false memories.
B.
more memories in general with a larger proportion of false memories.
C.
fewer memories in general with a smaller proportion of false memories.
D.
fewer memories in general with a larger proportion of false memories.
Research conducted in the past decade has not been very supportive of the usefulness of hypnosis for retrieving repressed memories.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT The state of hypnosis fosters the production of information that would normally not be reported with much of that information being confabulated.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: more memories in general with a larger proportion of false memories.
Which of the following best describes research findings on the impact of serotonin levels on the eating behaviors of individuals with an Eating Disorder?
Select one:
A.
Low levels of serotonin are believed to precipitate binge eating in Bulimia and starvation in Anorexia.
B.
High levels of serotonin are believed to precipitate binge eating in Bulimia and starvation in Anorexia.
C.
High levels of serotonin are believed to precipitate starvation in Anorexia while low levels are believed to precipitate binge eating in Bulimia.
D.
Low levels of serotonin are believed to precipitate starvation in Anorexia while high levels are believed to precipitate binge eating in Bulimia.
Answer C is correct: High levels of serotonin have been linked to both appetite suppression and anxiety. Reduced caloric intake by those with Anorexia apparently fosters a sense of calm and personal control by lowering serotonin levels. Low levels of serotonin have been linked to depression and apparently contribute to binge eating in Bulimia - i.e., bingeing on sweets and carbohydrates increases serotonin levels and thereby elevates mood.
Answers A, B, and D: See explanation for answer C.
The correct answer is: High levels of serotonin are believed to precipitate starvation in Anorexia while low levels are believed to precipitate binge eating in Bulimia.
Many antipsychotic drugs are believed to exert their therapeutic effects primarily by blocking dopamine receptors (especially D2 receptors) in the brain. An exception is:
Select one:
A.
haloperidol.
B.
fluphenazine.
C.
chlorpromazine.
D.
clozapine.
Of the antipsychotic drugs listed in the responses, only one is considered to be atypical because of its effects on the nervous system.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Clozapine seems to have limited effects on D2 receptors and, instead, affects D4 and other dopamine receptors as well as serotonin and glutamate receptors.
The correct answer is: clozapine.
Encoding strategies, strategy construction, generalization, and automatization are of most interest to:
Select one:
A.
Piagetian theorists.
B.
Vygotskian theorists.
C.
information processing theorists.
D.
neo-Piagetian theorists.
Recognition that the terms listed in the question are cognitive processes may have helped you choose the correct answer to this question even if you are not familiar with all of the theories listed.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Information-processing theorists focus on the processes of the mind including those listed in this question (which are categorized as information processing “change mechanisms”).
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: information processing theorists.
A better prognosis for Schizophrenia is associated with all of the following except:
Select one:
A.
female gender.
B.
an early onset of symptoms.
C.
a family history of a mood disorder.
D.
the presence of a precipitating event.
Answer B is correct: A late (not early) onset of symptoms is associated with a better prognosis.
Answers A, C, and D: Female gender, a family history of a mood disorder, and the presence of a precipitating event have been linked to a better prognosis.
The correct answer is: an early onset of symptoms.
The item difficulty index (p) represents which scale of measurement?
Select one:
A.
ordinal
B.
interval
C.
nominal
D.
ratio
The item difficulty index (p) is calculated by dividing the number of individuals who answered the item correctly by the total number of individuals.
a. CORRECT To understand why the item difficulty index represents an ordinal scale, assume that items 1, 2, and 3 of a test are passed by 10, 20, and 30 percent of examinees, respectively, which will result in p values for these items of .10, .20, and .30. Although these values indicate that item 1 is more difficult than item 2 which, in turn, is more difficult than item 3, it is not possible to say that item 2 is twice as difficult as item 1 or that the difference in difficulty between items 1 and 2 is equal to the difference between items 2 and 3. Moreover, an item difficulty index of 0 would not mean that the item completely lacks difficulty (which doesn”t really make any sense). In other words, p values represent an ordinal scale because they do not have the property of equal intervals or an absolute zero point.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: ordinal
When developing an achievement test, it is important to keep in mind that an average item difficulty index of _____ will help ensure that scores on the test are normally distributed and that discrimination between examinees with high and low ability will be maximized.
Select one:
A.
10
B.
1
C.
0.5
D.
0
The item difficulty index (p) ranges from 0 to 1.0, with 0 indicating a very easy item and 1.0 indicating a very difficult item.
c. CORRECT For most tests, an average item difficulty level of .50 (moderate difficulty) is preferred for several reasons including those listed in this question.
The correct answer is: 0.5
When treating a patient with Delirium, a priority is to identify and then treat or remove its cause. In addition, it is important to:
Select one:
A.
make sure that the patient is provided with adequate stimulation.
B.
keep the patient in a quiet room where he/she can be monitored by a family or staff member.
C.
administer a neuroleptic to reduce the patient’s disorientation and agitation.
D.
make sure family members and friends visit regularly.
Answer B is correct: Delirium is characterized by disorientation and confusion, so an important goal is provide an environment that decreases disorientation. For example, it is important to reduce distractions and to provide a quiet, well-lit room and constant monitoring.
Answer A: Although “adequate stimulation” could be taken to mean stimulation that is appropriate for a disoriented state, this response is too vague and not as good as answer B.
Answer C: Neuroleptics may or may not be appropriate, depending on the cause of the Delirium.
Answer D: With a delirious patient, you want to provide a consistent environment, so regular visits by different people would probably be contraindicated.
The correct answer is: keep the patient in a quiet room where he/she can be monitored by a family or staff member.
When the target behavior occurs very infrequently or leaves a permanent record, the best observational technique is:
Select one:
A.
interval recording.
B.
time sampling.
C.
event recording.
D.
situational sampling.
The strategies listed in the answers are different types of behavioral observation techniques.
a. Incorrect Interval recording is useful for behaviors that have no clear beginning or end and involves dividing the time period into intervals and recording whether or not the behavior occurred during each interval.
b. Incorrect Time sampling involves checking to see if a behavior occurs during predetermined points in time and is useful for monitoring high-rate continuous behaviors.
c. CORRECT Event recording entails observing a behavior each time it occurs and is useful for infrequent behaviors and behaviors that leave a permanent record.
d. Incorrect Situational sampling involves observing a behavior in a number of different settings.
The correct answer is: event recording.
To assess the effectiveness of differential reinforcement for alleviating a child’s bad habits (i.e., nail biting, thumb-sucking, hair-pulling, and pencil-chewing), the best research design would be which of the following?
Select one:
A.
time-series
B.
Solomon four-group
C.
multiple baseline
D.
reversal
In this situation, you want to test the effectiveness of an intervention for four different behaviors, and your study will include only one participant.
a. Incorrect A time-series design is a group design that involves measuring the dependent variable multiple times before and after the intervention is applied.
b. Incorrect The Solomon four-group design is used to evaluate the effects of pretesting on the dependent variable.
c. CORRECT The multiple baseline design is a single-subject design that can be used to assess a treatment for different behaviors, settings, or participants. Additional information about the multiple-baseline design is provided in the Statistics and Research Design chapter of the written study materials.
d. Incorrect The reversal design is also a single-subject design but is not as useful as the multiple baseline design for assessing the effectiveness of a treatment for different behaviors.
The correct answer is: multiple baseline
Which of the following is NOT a DSM-5 diagnostic criterion for Bulimia Nervosa?
Select one:
A.
Binges are accompanied by a sense of a lack of control over eating.
B.
Binges are accompanied by inappropriate compensatory behaviors to prevent weight gain.
C.
People with this disorder have an intense fear of gaining weight and becoming fat.
D.
The self-esteem of people with this disorder is unduly affected by their body shape and weight.
Answer C is correct: Intense fear of gaining weight and becoming fat is a diagnostic criterion for Anorexia Nervosa but not for Bulimia Nervosa.
Answers A, B, and D: See explanation for answer C.
The correct answer is: People with this disorder have an intense fear of gaining weight and becoming fat.
With regard to terminating the life of an animal used in research, the ethics codes of the American and Canadian Psychological Associations:
Select one:
A.
prohibit this practice except in the “most unusual circumstances.”
B.
permit this practice only when the animal is experiencing pain as the result of the experimental procedures.
C.
permit this practice only with the approval of the institutional review board.
D.
permit this practice when it is done in a humane manner.
This issue is addressed by Standard 8.09(g) of the APA’s Ethics Code and Principle II.47 of the Canadian Code of Ethics.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Standard 8.09(g) of the APA’s Ethics Code states: “When it is appropriate that an animal’s life be terminated, psychologists proceed rapidly, with an effort to minimize pain and in accordance with accepted procedures.”
The correct answer is: permit this practice when it is done in a humane manner.
According to Erikson, ________ is the basic strength associated with the ego integrity vs. despair stage of psychosocial development.
Select one:
A.
courage
B.
fidelity
C.
wisdom
D.
care
Erikson distinguished between eight stages of psychosocial development and defined positive outcomes for each stage in terms of one or more basic strengths.
a. Incorrect Courage is a basic strength of the autonomy vs. shame stage.
b. Incorrect Fidelity is a basic strength of the identity vs. role confusion stage.
c. CORRECT Wisdom is the basic strength associated with the final ego integrity vs. despair stage of development.
d. Incorrec Care is a basic strength of the generativity vs. stagnation stage.
The correct answer is: wisdom
Dr. Greg Gallant meets 28-year-old Sally S. at a holiday party and is sexually attracted to her. The feelings seem mutual. However, during their conversation, he learns that Sally’s sister is one of his therapy clients. In this situation:
Select one:
A.
it would be acceptable for Dr. Gallant to date Sally.
B.
it would be acceptable for Dr. Gallant to date Sally only if her sister is a former therapy client.
C.
it would be acceptable for Dr. Gallant to date Sally only if he discusses the implications with the client before doing so.
D.
it would be acceptable for Dr. Gallant to date Sally only if he believes that doing so will not be harmful to his client.
This issue is addressed in Standard 10.06 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Principle III.31 of the Canadian Code of Ethics for Psychologists.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT The Ethics Code states that “psychologists do not engage in sexual intimacies with individuals they know to be close relatives, guardians, or significant others of current therapy clients/patients,” which implies that it may be acceptable to become involved with a relative of a former therapy client. The Canadian Code of Ethics does not explicitly distinguish between relatives of current versus former clients, but this is still the best answer of those given since the other answers state or imply that the sister is a current client.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: it would be acceptable for Dr. Gallant to date Sally only if her sister is a former therapy client.
Dr. Best is attempting to set the optimal cutoff score for a new screening test designed to identify people at risk for drug abuse. Using the data he collected when evaluating the test’s criterion-related validity, he finds that lowering the cutoff score on the screening test:
Select one:
A.
increases the number of true positives and true negatives.
B.
decreases the number of true positives and true negatives.
C.
increases the number of true and false positives.
D.
decreases the number of true and false positives.
Lowering the predictor (screening device) cutoff score increases the number of “positives” and decreases the number of “negatives.”
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT “Positives” are individuals who are identified by a predictor as having the attribute being assessed - in this case, people who are at risk for drug abuse. Lowering the predictor cutoff increases the number of true and false positives.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: increases the number of true and false positives.
The children of parents who are ______________ tend to be self-confident, socially responsible, and achievement-oriented.
Select one:
A.
low in demandingness and low in warmth
B.
low in demandingness and high in warmth
C.
high in demandingness and low in warmth
D.
high in demandingness and high in warmth
The research has linked authoritative parenting to the most positive outcomes for children and adolescents.
a. Incorrect This combination of demandingness and warmth describes rejecting-neglecting parents.
b. Incorrect This combination describes permissive parents.
c. Incorrect This combination is characteristic of authoritarian parents.
d. CORRECT Authoritative parents are high in demandingness and high in warmth (responsivity). The children of these parents tend to be better adjusted than children of rejecting-neglecting, permissive, or authoritarian parents.
The correct answer is: high in demandingness and high in warmth
As part of a peer review, an insurance company requests that you provide it with information about a client whose fee is being paid in part by the insurance company. In this situation, you should:
Select one:
A.
release information to the company only after determining that company personnel are aware of the importance of maintaining the clients confidentiality.
B.
release information to the company only after obtaining a waiver from the client.
C.
release information to the company as requested since regulations regarding client confidentiality do not apply to this situation.
D.
refuse to release information to the company.
A psychologist is required to provide the requested information for peer reviews.
a. CORRECT Of the answers given, this is the best one. Although psychologists are required to provide an insurance company with the information it has requested for a peer review, the best course of action would be to remind the company of the need to maintain the information in a way that will minimize violations of the client’s confidentiality.
b. Incorrect In this situation, you do not need to obtain a release from the client.
c. Incorrect A psychologist’s legal and ethical obligations related to client confidentiality are not entirely waived for peer reviews.
d. Incorrect As noted above, psychologists are required to provide requested information for peer reviews.
The correct answer is: release information to the company only after determining that company personnel are aware of the importance of maintaining the clients confidentiality.
Sperling (1960) had research participants stare at a blank screen onto which he flashed a display of letters for a fraction of a second and then asked them to recall as many of the letters as they could. Sperling was studying which of the following?
Select one:
A.
eidetic memory
B.
semantic memory
C.
iconic memory
D.
echoic memory
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the four terms listed in the answers to this question.
a. Incorrect Eidetic memory is also known as photographic memory and refers to visual images that are particulary vivid and detailed. Although Sperling was studying memory for visual images, this is not the best answer of those given.
b. Incorrect Semantic memory is the aspect of long-term memory that includes general knowledge.
c. CORRECT Iconic memory is the aspect of sensory memory that stores visual stimuli. Sperling was studying iconic memory.
d. Incorrect Echoic memory is the aspect of sensory memory that stores auditory stimuli.
The correct answer is: iconic memory
Which of the following best describes the difference between trauma-induced retrograde and anterograde amnesia?
Select one:
A.
Retrograde amnesia involves memory loss for events occurring before the trauma, while anterograde amnesia involves memory loss for events occurring after the trauma.
B.
Retrograde amnesia involves memory loss for events occurring after the trauma, while anterograde amnesia involves memory loss for events occurring at the time of the trauma.
C.
Retrograde amnesia involves memory loss for events that occurred in the distant past, while anterograde amnesia involves memory loss for events that occurred just before the trauma.
D.
Retrograde amnesia involves memory loss for events occurring after the trauma, while anterograde amnesia involves memory loss for events occurring before the trauma.
Amnesia (loss of memory) is categorized as anterograde or retrograde.
a. CORRECT This is a correct description of retrograde and anterograde amnesia: Retrograde amnesia is a loss of memory for events that occur before the trauma, while anterograde amnesia is a loss of memory for events that occur subsequent to the trauma.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: Retrograde amnesia involves memory loss for events occurring before the trauma, while anterograde amnesia involves memory loss for events occurring after the trauma.
According to Albert Ellis, our emotional and behavioral reactions to an event are due to our beliefs about the event rather than to the event itself. In other words, our beliefs act as a:
Select one:
A.
moderator variable.
B.
mediator variable.
C.
latent variable.
D.
suppressor variable.
Ellis’s theory proposes that beliefs mediate (are responsible for) the impact of an event on our emotional and behavioral reactions to that event.
a. Incorrect A moderator variable is a variable that affects the strength of the relationship between two other variables. For example, if the size of the correlation between a predictor and criterion differs for older and younger adults, age is a moderator variable. Note that some authors use the terms “moderator variable” and “extraneous variable” interchangeably.
b. CORRECT A mediator variable accounts for (is responsible for) the relationship between two variables.
c. Incorrect A latent variable is a theoretical variable that is believed to underlie a measured or observed variable.
d. Incorrect A suppressor variable reduces or conceals the relationship between two variables. Consequently, statistically removing the effects of a suppressor variable increases the correlation between the two variables.
The correct answer is: mediator variable.
