TEST MODE - Test 2 Flashcards
On the MMPI-2, an examinee whose highest clinical scale scores are on Scales 4 and 9 is most likely to exhibit:
Select one:
A.
apathy, depression, and psychosomatic complaints.
B.
egocentrism and grandiosity.
C.
depression and hypersensitivity to criticism.
D.
antisocial behavior and impulsivity.
Knowing the names of Clinical Scales 4 and 9 may have helped you identify the correct answer to this question: Scale 4 is the Psychopathic Deviate scale, and Scale 9 is the Hypomania scale.
a. Incorrect Apathy, depression, and psychosomatic complaints are characteristic of several codes including 23/32. (Scale 2 is the Depression Scale and Scale 3 is the Hysteria scale.)
b. Incorrect Egocentrism and grandiosity are associated with the 90/09 code. (Scale 9 is the Hypomania scale and 0 is the Social Introversion scale.)
c. Incorrect Depression and hypersensitivity to criticism are associated with elevations on several scales include Scale 2 (Depression) and Scale 6 (Paranoia).
d. CORRECT The 49/94 code (highest scores on Scales 4 and 9) is associated with antisocial behaviors, sex offenses, impulsivity, and alcohol and drug abuse.
The correct answer is: antisocial behavior and impulsivity.
Gregory Herek (1992) attributes violence against gays and lesbians to cultural and psychological:
Select one:
A.
heterosexism.
B.
homophobia.
C.
paranoia.
D.
bigotry.
In his discussion of violence against gays and lesbians, G. Herek distinguishes between cultural and psychological heterosexism [Psychological heterosexism and anti-gay violence: The social psychology of bigotry. In G. M. Herek & K. T. Berrill, Hate crimes: Confronting violence against lesbians and gay men (pp. 149-169), Newbury Park, Sage, 1992].
a. CORRECT As defined by Herek, heterosexism is an “ideological system that denies, denigrates, and stigmatizes among nonheterosexual forms of behavior, identity, relationships, or community” (p. 150). He views violence against gays and lesbians to be due to a combination of psychological (individual) and cultural heterosexism.
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: heterosexism.
During his first therapy session, an Asian American client tells his non-Asian therapist that he would prefer to see an Asian psychologist. The therapist’s best course of action would be to:
Select one:
A.
discuss the issue with the client and make a referral if, after the discussion, the client says he still wants to see an Asian therapist.
B.
tell the client that she’s had experience working with members of minority groups and suggest that they see each other for at least two or three more sessions.
C.
realize that the client’s preference is a manifestation of resistance and tell him that she thinks it would be best if they saw each other for a few sessions before a referral is made.
D.
tell the client that it would be discriminatory, and therefore unethical, for her to make a referral to another therapist on the basis of race alone.
This question is fairly simple: It is never ethical to coerce a client into remaining in therapy.
a. CORRECT This is the best course of action in this type of situation. The client will not benefit from treatment if he is not comfortable with the therapist, and it would be unethical to try to “talk him into” additional sessions.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: discuss the issue with the client and make a referral if, after the discussion, the client says he still wants to see an Asian therapist.
Most children are not physically ready for toilet training until which age?
Select one:
A.
9 to 12 months
B.
12 to 18 months
C.
20 to 24 months
D.
30 to 34 months
If you’ve had any experience with young children, you may have been able to answer this question. Note that it’s asking about MOST children.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT The experts seem to vary somewhat with regard to this issue, but most consider 20 to 24 months a good time to begin toilet training.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: 20 to 24 months
Charging telephone customers for using directory assistance to obtain phone numbers in order to decrease the usage of directory assistance is an application of which of the following?
Select one:
A.
Premack Principle
B.
overcorrection
C.
negative reinforcement
D.
response cost
In this situation, money is being taken away following a behavior in order to decrease that behavior. In operant terms, this is referred to as negative punishment.
a. Incorrect The Premack Principle is a type of positive reinforcement.
b. Incorrect Overcorrection is a form of positive punishment. It involves applying a penalty (usually correcting the consequences of the behavior) following a behavior in order to decrease that behavior.
c. Incorrect Negative reinforcement is used to increase, not decrease, a behavior.
d. CORRECT Response cost is a type of negative punishment. It involves removing a specific stimulus (e.g., money) following a behavior to decrease that behavior.
The correct answer is: response cost
In addition to identifying “bounded rationality” as an impediment to rational decision-making, Herbert Simon is known for his work on:
Select one:
A.
artificial intelligence.
B.
job burnout.
C.
groupthink.
D.
organizational culture.
Although Herbert Simon is probably best known for his work on individual decision-making, he was also a pioneer in the field of artificial intelligence.
a. CORRECT Simon believed there are two main goals in using and studying computers: (1) to augment human intelligence and (2) to help understand how humans think.
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: artificial intelligence.
In terms of group therapy, premature termination has been found to depend most on the members’:
Select one:
A.
locus of control.
B.
expectations.
C.
psychological mindedness.
D.
diagnosis
One of the most consistent findings of the research on group therapy is that people who terminate prematurely from group treatment are those who have unrealistic expectations and unfavorable attitudes.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Because of the relationship between unrealistic expectations and premature termination, experts suggest that, to ensure the success of a therapy group, members should be selected through prescreening or should be given some type of pregroup training.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: expectations.
Intelligence (IQ) tests are to brainstorming and other measures of creativity as:
Select one:
A.
convergent thinking is to divergent thinking.
B.
divergent thinking is to convergent thinking.
C.
disjunctive thinking is to conjunctive thinking.
D.
conjunctive thinking is to disjunctive thinking.
Intelligence tests require an examinee to produce the correct response, while brainstorming and other measures of creativity require the examinee to come up with many ideas or solutions.
a. CORRECT Tasks that require an examinee to derive a single correct answer are assessing convergent thinking, while tasks that require the examinee to generate as many ideas as possible are evaluating divergent thinking.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
c. Incorrect Disjunctive (declarative) and conjunctive (cumulative) are two of the mental processes identified by E. Jaques’s (1994) theory about intelligence in the context of the management of work. (Note that you’re not likely to encounter Jaques’s theory on the licensing exam and these terms were included here as “distractors” only.)
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: convergent thinking is to divergent thinking.
The intense “sleep attack” associated with Narcolepsy is often accompanied by:
Select one:
A.
cataplexy.
B.
dyskinesia.
C.
ataxia.
D.
muscular rigidity.
Narcolepsy involves frequent intense periods of irresistible sleep.
a. CORRECT Sleep attacks in Narcolepsy may include cataplexy, which is a sudden loss of muscle tone.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: cataplexy.
Nadler’s (1988) systems model of planned change proposes that, to successfully implement change, managers must attend to four factors. One of these is informal organizational elements which consist of:
Select one:
A.
external (environmental) driving and restraining forces.
B.
the employees’ knowledge, skills, and expectations.
C.
the organization’s implicit beliefs, values, and behaviors.
D.
the organization’s structures, processes, and methods.
The four factors identified by Nadler (1988) are informal organizational elements, formal organizational elements, individuals (employees and managers), and tasks.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT The informal organizational elements include implicit beliefs, values, and behaviors (e.g., communication patterns, leadership approach, and work-related norms).
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: the organization’s implicit beliefs, values, and behaviors.
According to Dawis, England, and Lofquist’s (1964) theory of work adjustment, the probability that a person will be forced out of the work environment is inversely related to his/her:
Select one:
A.
satisfaction.
B.
satisfactoriness.
C.
job commitment.
D.
organizational commitment.
The theory of work adjustment predicts that job tenure is a joint function of satisfaction and satisfactoriness. Satisfaction refers to the correspondence between an employee’s vocational needs and values and the reinforcement systems provided by the job, while satisfactoriness is a function of the correspondence between an employee’s abilities and the ability requirements of the job.
a. Incorrect According to this theory, the probability that a person will voluntarily leave the work environment is inversely related to his/her satisfaction.
b. CORRECT Knowing that satisfactoriness is the extent to which an employee is able to perform a job would have helped you identify this as the correct answer. When an employee cannot perform the job because his/her abilities do not meet ability requirements of the job, the employee is likely to be fired.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: satisfactoriness.
A DSM-5 diagnosis of Schizophrenia requires the presence of two or more active-phase symptoms during a one-month period with at least one symptom being ____________ plus continuous signs of disturbance for least six months.
Select one:
A.
negative symptoms
B.
disorganized speech or disorganized behavior
C.
delusions or hallucinations
D.
delusions, hallucinations, or disorganized speech
Answer D is correct: The DSM-5 specifies that at least one of the active-phase symptoms must be delusions, hallucinations, or disorganized speech.
The correct answer is: delusions, hallucinations, or disorganized speech
Alcohol consumption by a pregnant woman is likely to have the most adverse effects on her baby’s prenatal development when the woman drinks during:
Select one:
A.
the first trimester.
B.
the second trimester.
C.
the third trimester.
D.
the first or the third trimester.
Alcohol consumption by a woman during pregnancy can have detrimental effects on the developing fetus, with the severity and extent of the effects depending on the amount of alcohol consumed and the time during which it is consumed.
a. CORRECT There does not appear to be any safe time for alcohol consumption during pregnancy. However, the worst effects overall (i.e., for many different aspects of development) are associated with drinking during the first trimester.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: the first trimester.
With regard to the serial position effect, the primacy effect is to __________ as the recency effect is to __________.
Select one:
A.
sensory memory; short-term memory
B.
short-term memory; long-term memory
C.
long-term memory; short-term memory
D.
remote long-term memory; recent long-term memory
The serial position effect is used to support the distinction between long- and short-term memory stores. It occurs when people are asked to recall a list of words immediately after reading the list, and they recall words in the beginning of the list (primacy effect) and end of the list (recency effect) better than words in the middle of the list.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT The primacy effect apparently occurs because words at the beginning of the list have been transferred to long-term memory, while the recency effect is due to the fact that the words at the end of the list are still in short-term memory.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: long-term memory; short-term memory
The Taylor-Russell tables will indicate that a new selection test is most likely to be helpful in choosing job applicants who will be satisfactory employees when:
Select one:
A.
the proportion of current employees who are considered satisfactory is less than 25%.
B.
there are only a few job openings and many applicants for the job.
C.
the majority of applicants have jobs skills in the moderate (average) range.
D.
the test has adequate “differential validity.”
Use of the Taylor-Russell tables estimates the percent of employees who will be satisfactory if a new selection technique is used, and requires three pieces of information - the test’s validity coefficient, the selection ratio, and the base rate.
a. Incorrect The proportion of current employees who are considered successful is the “base rate.” A new selection test will be most useful when the base rate is moderate (around 50%).
b. CORRECT All other things being equal, a new selection test will be most useful for selecting job applicants when the selection ratio is low (i.e., there are few jobs and many applicants).
c. Incorrect This is not a factor that is considered when using the Taylor-Russell tables to evaluate the usefulness of a selection test.
d. Incorrect This is not a factor that is considered when using the Taylor-Russell tables.
The correct answer is: there are only a few job openings and many applicants for the job.
Zajonc’s confluence model predicts that children’s intellectual growth can be either enhanced or hindered by their immediate family circumstances. Specifically, Zajonc considers __________ to be a critical factor in intellectual development.
Select one:
A.
birth order
B.
parental marital status
C.
parenting style
D.
culture
Zajonc argues that intellectual development is influenced by the intellectual environment of the home, especially as it relates to family configuration.
a. CORRECT Zajonc’s confluence model predicts that children born earlier (e.g., firstborns) tend to do slightly better on IQ and academic tests than their younger siblings due to differences in the family environment. See the Psychological Assessment chapter for additional information on the confluence model.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: birth order
According to Fiedler’s contingency model, which of the following is most important for maximizing a supervisor’s ability to effectively lead his or her employees?
Select one:
A.
Each employee is highly motivated.
B.
Each employee is very proficient at his/her job.
C.
The leader has good relationships with his/her employees.
D.
The leader is highly experienced.
Fiedler’s contingency model identifies three characteristics of the work situation that influence a leader’s ability to lead: leader-member relations, task structure, and the leader’s position power.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Of the three situational characteristics, Fiedler considered leader-member relations to be most critical. According to Fiedler, factors that affect the quality of the relationship between the leader and members are the degree to which the leader perceives members to be similar to him/her and trusts and respects them and the degree to which members like, trust, and respect the leader and are loyal to him/her.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: The leader has good relationships with his/her employees.
The intentional production of a physical symptom for the specific purpose of obtaining financial benefits is characteristic of which of the following?
Select one:
A.
Malingering
B.
Factitious Disorder
C.
Conversion Disorder
D.
Somatic Symptom Disorder
Answer A is correct: A characteristic that distinguishes Malingering from other disorders with somatic symptoms is that the goal of Malingering is to obtain an external incentive.
Answer B: Although Factitious Disorder involves the intentional production of symptoms, its goal is not to obtain an external reward.
Answers C and D: Conversion Disorder and Somatic Symptom Disorder both involve somatic symptoms, but the goal is not to obtain an external incentive.
The correct answer is: Malingering
Research on the effects of age on second-language learning has shown that the ability to achieve native-like pronunciation of a second language is:
Select one:
A.
more likely when exposure begins in early or middle childhood.
B.
more likely when exposure begins in adolescence.
C.
more likely when exposure begins in early adulthood.
D.
unrelated to the age when exposure begins.
Research on the relationship between age and second-language learning is very inconsistent and has not led to a consensus of opinion; and, perhaps, the best conclusion is that the relationship is mediated by a number of factors.
a. CORRECT While there is evidence that adolescents and adults initially make faster progress in acquiring a second language (especially with regard to syntax and morphology), individuals exposed to a second language during childhood are more likely to speak with a native accent. In other words, pronunciation is the one aspect of language learning for which there is fairly consistent evidence that “younger is better.”
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: more likely when exposure begins in early or middle childhood.
In a normal distribution of test scores, approximately ____% of scores are more than two standard deviations above the mean.
Select one:
A.
2.5
B.
5
C.
7.5
D.
10
Knowing that, in a normal distribution, approximately 95% of scores fall between the scores that are -2 and +2 standard deviations from the mean would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
a. CORRECT About 95% of scores fall between the scores that are -2 and +2 standard deviations from the mean. This means that about 2.5% of scores are less than the score that is 2 standard deviations below the mean and about 2.5% are more than the score that is 2 standard deviations above the mean.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: 2.5
According to Maslow’s need hierarchy theory, once a person’s physiological needs have been satisfied, that person will be motivated by his/her __________ needs.
Select one:
A.
social
B.
safety
C.
existence
D.
esteem
Maslow’s need hierarchy theory predicts that humans have five basic needs that emerge in a hierarchical order.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT The five needs, in order, are: physiological, safety, social, esteem, and self-actualization. Need hierarchy theory predicts that physiological needs are the first needs to act as motivators; once they are satisfied, safety needs become the source of motivation; and so on.
c. Incorrect Existence is not one of the needs identified by Maslow.
d. Incorrect Esteem needs are not motivators until physiological, safety, and social needs have been satisfied.
The correct answer is: safety
Dr. Goodman has been dating Billy Bob for seven weeks when she realizes that he is the brother of a client she has been seeing in therapy for nearly three months. Dr. Goodman’s best course of action would be to:
Select one:
A.
refer the client to another therapist immediately.
B.
stop seeing Billy Bob immediately.
C.
discuss the matter with the client as soon as possible.
D.
do nothing until it becomes evident that the situation is creating a conflict.
The APA’s Ethics Code warns against becoming involved in multiple relationships. However, it does not directly address this particular situation.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT This response is most consistent with the spirit of Standard 3.05(b) of the Ethics Code which states, “If a psychologist finds that, due to unforeseen factors, a potentially harmful multiple relationship has arisen, the psychologist takes reasonable steps to resolve it with due regard for the best interests of the affected person and maximal compliance with the Ethics Code.” It may be necessary, eventually, to refer the client to another therapist or end the relationship with Billy Bob, but neither of these would be the best initial action.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: discuss the matter with the client as soon as possible.
Treisman and Gelade’s (1980) feature integration theory would be of most interest to a psychologist conducting research on:
Select one:
A.
the impact of arousal on performance.
B.
the difference between echoic and iconic memory.
C.
visual attention.
D.
forgetting.
Knowing that the full name of feature integration theory is “feature integration theory of attention” would have helped you identify the correct answer to this questions.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT According the feature integration theory, the perception of objects involves two stages - preattentive in which the basic aspects of an object are perceived in parallel (e.g., edges, size, color) and attentive in which these features are “glued” together into a coherent whole through a serial process that depends on focal attention.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: visual attention.
At the end of her first therapy session, a middle-aged woman tells you she is presently receiving treatment from a psychiatrist. You, as an ethical psychologist, should:
Select one:
A.
inform the woman that it would be unethical to continue seeing her while she is seeing another professional.
B.
call the psychiatrist to inform him of the situation and obtain his permission to continue therapy with her.
C.
discuss the issues related to the woman’s relationship with the psychiatrist during your next session with her.
D.
allow the woman to decide when to terminate treatment with the psychiatrist.
Standard 10.04 of the Ethics Code states, “In deciding whether to offer or provide services to those already receiving mental health services elsewhere, psychologists carefully consider the treatment issues and the potential client’s/patient’s welfare. Psychologists discuss these issues with the client/patient or another legally authorized person on behalf of the client/patient in order to minimize the risk of confusion and conflict, consult with the other service providers when appropriate, and proceed with caution and sensitivity to the therapeutic issues.”
a. Incorrect Accepting the woman for treatment in this situation is not prohibited by the Ethics Code.
b. Incorrect Obtaining the permission of the psychiatrist to see the woman is not required by the Ethics Code and would violate the client’s confidentiality if it is done without her consent.
c. CORRECT This response is most consistent with the requirements of Standard 10.04.
d. Incorrect This is less consistent than answer c with Standard 10.04.
The correct answer is: discuss the issues related to the woman’s relationship with the psychiatrist during your next session with her.
The use of Haloperidol or other dopamine blocking agent for the treatment of Tourette’s Disorder:
Select one:
A.
is uncommon since these drugs are rarely effective for alleviating tics.
B.
can be problematic in many cases because of the severe side effects of these drugs.
C.
is contraindicated because these drugs exacerbate tics in most patients.
D.
should be considered only in the presence of psychotic symptoms.
Antipsychotic drugs are associated with a number of unpleasant side effects.
a. Incorrect Antipsychotic drugs are effective in about 80% of cases of Tourette’s Disorder.
b. CORRECT About 50% of people with Tourette’s Disorder who take Haloperidol or similar drug develop intolerable side effects.
c. Incorrect This is not true.
d. Incorrect This is not true. Antipsychotic drugs are useful for alleviating tics in most cases.
The correct answer is: can be problematic in many cases because of the severe side effects of these drugs.
The onset of puberty in humans occurs when certain cells in the __________ secrete gonadotropin-releasing hormones.
Select one:
A.
tectum
B.
thalamus
C.
hippocampus
D.
hypothalamus
At puberty, the gonads (testes and ovaries) produce their hormones, which, in turn, are responsible for physical sexual maturation.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Secretion of the gonadotropin-releasing hormones by the hypothalamus stimulates production and release of the gonadotropic hormones by the pituitary gland, which then stimulate the gonads to release the sex hormones.
The correct answer is: hypothalamus
A client who is a member of a minority group expresses negative feelings about her own culture and positive feelings toward the dominant (Anglo) culture. From the perspective of Atkinson, Morten, and Sue’s (1993) Racial/Cultural Identity Development Model, this client is in which stage?
Select one:
A.
conformity
B.
dissonance
C.
immersion
D.
denial
The Racial/Cultural Identity Development Model distinguishes between five stages: conformity; dissonance; resistance and immersion; introspection; and integrative awareness.
a. CORRECT This stage is characterized by a preference for the dominant culture over one’s own culture.
b. Incorrect This stage is characterized by cultural conflict and confusion.
c. Incorrect The immersion stage is marked by an active rejection of the dominant (Anglo) society and acceptance of one’s own culture.
d. Incorrect Denial is not one of the stages of this model.
The correct answer is: conformity
Sue and Sue (1990) describe the worldview of counselors and their clients in terms of two dimensions - locus of control and locus of responsibility - and propose that members of minority groups are becoming increasingly more likely to exhibit which of the following worldviews?
Select one:
A.
internal locus of control/internal locus of responsibility
B.
external locus of control/internal locus of responsibility
C.
internal locus of control/external locus of responsibility
D.
external locus of control/external locus of responsibility
D. W. Sue and D. Sue (Counseling the culturally different, New York, John Wiley, 1990) propose that an understanding of different worldviews and their impact adds to the effectiveness of cross-cultural counseling.
a. Incorrect- An internal locus of control/internal locus of responsibility is characteristic of the Westernized approach to counseling, white counselors, and white middle-class clients.
b. Incorrect- An external locus of control/internal locus of responsibility is characteristic of “marginal” individuals who have been oppressed by the dominant group.
c. CORRECT- Sue and Sue propose that minority group members are becoming increasingly aware of their own ethnic identity and the impact of racism on their lives - i.e., they are adopting a worldview that reflects an internal locus of control and an external locus of responsibility.
d. Incorrect- An external locus of control/external locus of responsibility is characteristic of a “placater” who adopts a passive role.
The correct answer is: internal locus of control/external locus of responsibility
Providing therapy to a former sex partner:
Select one:
A.
is not directly addressed by the Ethics Code but is covered by the prohibition against multiple relationships.
B.
is permissible only when it is not clinically contraindicated and the chance of exploitation is minimal.
C.
is permissible under “unusual circumstances” when at least two years have passed since the sexual relationship ended.
D.
is explicitly prohibited by the Code.
Standard 10.07 of the Ethics Code addresses the issue of therapy with former sexual partners.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect If you picked this response, you’ve mixed up the situation asked about in this question with becoming involved sexually with a former client.
d. CORRECT According to the Code, “Psychologists do not accept as therapy clients/patients persons with whom they have engaged in sexual intimacies.” There are no exceptions to this prohibition.
The correct answer is: is explicitly prohibited by the Code.
The behavioral technique known as response cost makes use of which of the following to alter a person’s behavior?
Select one:
A.
positive punishment
B.
negative punishment
C.
positive reinforcement
D.
negative reinforcement
When using response cost, a stimulus is removed each time the target behavior is performed in order to reduce or eliminate that behavior.
a. Incorrect Positive punishment involves applying a stimulus following a behavior to reduce that behavior.
b. CORRECT Negative punishment involves removing a stimulus following a behavior to reduce that behavior. In the case of response cost, the stimulus is something that the individual finds reinforcing such as money or computer privileges.
c. Incorrect Positive reinforcement involves applying a stimulus following a behavior to increase that behavior.
d. Incorrect Negative reinforcement involves removing a stimulus following a behavior to increase that behavior.
The correct answer is: negative punishment
A securely attached infant:
Select one:
A.
may or may not become upset when the parent leaves the room; is comforted by a stranger; and seeks contact with the parent on reunion.
B.
becomes upset when the parent leaves the room; is unlikely to be comforted by a stranger; and seeks comfort from the parent on reunion.
C.
becomes upset when the parent leaves the room; is comforted by a stranger; and may or may not seek contact with the parent on reunion.
D.
becomes upset when the parent leaves the room; seeks comfort from a stranger if upset; and resumes play when the parent returns.
As described in the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials, research by Ainsworth and her colleagues identified four main patterns of attachment: secure, insecure/avoidant, insecure/ambivalent, and disorganized/disoriented.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Securely attached children become upset when a parent leaves the room, are not comforted by a stranger, and, on reunion with the parent, seek contact and comfort but gradually return to play.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: becomes upset when the parent leaves the room; is unlikely to be comforted by a stranger; and seeks comfort from the parent on reunion.
__________ theory predicts that we tend to like others whose initially negative feelings toward us change to positive feelings more than we like those who have positive feelings toward us from the beginning.
Select one:
A.
Self-verification
B.
Gain-loss
C.
Social exchange
D.
Balance
For the exam, you want to be familiar with all of the theories listed in the answers to this question. Additional information on these theories is provided in the Social Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect Self-verification theory predicts that people prefer others who provide them with accurate information about themselves (i.e., with information that is consistent with their self-evaluations).
b. CORRECT Gain-loss theory predicts that we tend to like others whose initial negative feelings toward us change to positive feeling more than those who are consistently positive and, conversely, that we tend to dislike others whose initially positive feelings toward us change to negative feelings more than those who have negative feelings toward us from the beginning.
c. Incorrect Social exchange theory focuses on the rewards and costs of a relationship and predicts that we are more likely to remain in a relationship when the rewards exceed the costs of doing so.
d. Incorrect Balance theory uses the concept of cognitive consistency to explain attitude change and focuses on the relationships between three entities - the person, another person, and a third person or an idea, event, or object.
The correct answer is: Gain-loss
The unavailability of preventive health services in minority communities, a lack of quality health care in close proximity to these communities, and the delivery of substandard health care services to members of these communities is best attributed to which of the following?
Select one:
A.
subtle racism
B.
institutional racism
C.
personally mediated racism
D.
internalized racism
Several types of racism have been distinguished. For example, C. P. Jones identifies three levels of racism - institutional, personally mediated, and internalized [Levels of racism: A theoretic framework and a gardener’s tale, American Journal of Public Health, 90(8), 1212-1216, 2000].
a. Incorrect Subtle racism refers to a less blatant (more covert) form of racism, which some experts contend has replaced “old-fashioned” (overt) prejudice and discrimination. The term subtle racism is used most often to describe the beliefs, attitudes, and actions of individuals (rather than institutions).
b. CORRECT Institutional racism refers to denial or restriction of material conditions (e.g., access to health care) and access to power to members of minority groups.
c. Incorrect Personally mediated racism refers to prejudice and discrimination at the individual level.
d. Incorrect As defined by Jones, internalized racism refers to “acceptance by members of the stigmatized races of negative messages about their own abilities and intrinsic worth” (p. 1213).
The correct answer is: institutional racism
In Aaron Beck’s cognitive-behavioral therapy, interpretations and assumptions underlying a client’s problems are:
Select one:
A.
jointly explored for their origins by the therapist and client during the initial stages of therapy.
B.
identified and actively challenged or refuted by the therapist.
C.
viewed as “testable hypotheses.”
D.
viewed as “incongruent with reality.”
A key characteristic of Beck’s approach is its reliance on “collaborative empiricism.”
a. Incorrect In CBT, the focus is on the here-and-now rather than on past.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT In Beck’s cognitive-behavioral therapy, the therapist and client are co-investigators who approach the client’s problems in a scientific manner. For example, the client’s interpretations and assumptions are conceptualized and treated as testable hypotheses.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: viewed as “testable hypotheses.”
A licensed psychologist who provides individual and group therapy to adolescents and adults learns that she is HIV+. In terms of ethical requirements, the psychologist:
Select one:
A.
should refrain from initiating any professional activities that might be adversely affected by her medical condition.
B.
should obtain supervision to ensure that her medical condition does not impair her ability to provide effective services to clients.
C.
should inform her clients of her medical condition “as early as is feasible.”
D.
is not obligated to take any special actions or precautions in this situation.
Standard 2.06 of the Ethics Code applies to this situation.
a. CORRECT Standard 2.06 requires psychologists to “refrain from initiating an activity when they know or should know there is a substantial likelihood that their personal problems will prevent them from performing their work-related activities in a competent manner.” Personal problems include emotional, social, health-related and other personal issues.
b. Incorrect Although the psychologist should “take appropriate measures” if she believes her condition may interfere with the performance of her work-related duties, supervision may not be the best course of action.
c. Incorrect It is not necessary for the psychologist to inform her clients of her condition and, in some cases, may not be in the best interests of the clients to do so.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: should refrain from initiating any professional activities that might be adversely affected by her medical condition.
Your new client, Annabelle A., reports that she has felt fidgety and anxious and has been unable to sleep for the past few weeks. She also complains of heart palpitations, weight loss, and a reduced ability to pay attention to her schoolwork. Despite the cold weather, she is wearing a cotton dress without a coat or sweater. Annabelle’s symptoms are most suggestive of which of the following?
Select one:
A.
hypomania
B.
Raynaud’s disease
C.
hyperthyroidism
D.
hypoglycemia
Hyperthyroidism is characterized by speeded-up metabolism, elevated body temperature, weight loss, general excitability, nervousness, insomnia, and accelerated heart rate.
a. Incorrect A person with hypomania does display excitability and nervousness but does not exhibit such physical signs as increased body temperature and heart rate.
b. Incorrect This alternative is clearly a distractor. Raynaud’s disease involves restricted blood flow to the fingers or toes and is characterized by pallor, paresthesias, and pain.
c. CORRECT The client’s symptoms are characteristic of hyperthyroidism which is caused by an overactive thyroid gland.
d. Incorrect Hypoglycemia is characterized by hunger, dizziness, and depression.
The correct answer is: hyperthyroidism
A screening test for a disorder that has a very low base rate in the population is known to have an overall accuracy rate of 98%. When using this test to identify individuals in the general population who have the disorder, it’s important to keep in mind that the test will produce:
Select one:
A.
very few false positives but very many true positives.
B.
very few true negatives but very many false negatives.
C.
a larger number of false negatives than false positives.
D.
a larger number of false positives than false negatives.
This is a difficult question, but you may have been able to identify the correct answer if you know that a low base rate means that there are very few people in the population who have the disorder, which implies that the most likely predictive error will be to falsely identify those who do not have the disorder as having it.
a. Incorrect See explanations for answers c and d.
b. Incorrect See explanations for answers c and d.
c. Incorrect To understand why this answer is incorrect (and answer d is correct), assume that the base rate for the disorder is 1% and that you test a random sample of 10,000 people with the screening test. In this situation, 100 people will have the disease, and the test (which has a 98% accuracy rate) will correctly identify 98 of them - i.e., 98 will be true positives and 2 will be false negatives.
d. CORRECT Continuing with the example, when the base rate for the condition is 1%, 9,900 of the 10,000 people tested will not have the disease, and the test (which has a 98% accuracy rate) will correctly identify 9,702 of them - i.e., 9,702 will be true negatives and the remaining 198 will be false positives. In other words, there will be more false positives than false negatives - and this will be true whenever the predictor has a high accuracy rate and the base rate is less than 50%.
The correct answer is: a larger number of false positives than false negatives.
You are meeting with the parents of a teenage daughter who is suffering from an eating disorder. All of their children have attended this first session. You should:
Select one:
A.
obtain a release of information from all family members.
B.
clarify at the outset your relationship with each family member.
C.
refer the daughter who is the identified patient for individual therapy.
D.
include only the parents and identified patient in family therapy.
According to Standard 10.02(a) of the APA’s Ethics Code, “When psychologists agree to provide services to several persons who have a relationship (such as spouses, significant others, or parents and children), they take reasonable steps to clarify at the outset (1) which of the individuals are clients/patients and (2) the relationship the psychologist will have with each person. This clarification includes the psychologist’s role and the probable uses of the services provided or the information obtained.”
a. Incorrect See explanation above.
b. CORRECT See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: clarify at the outset your relationship with each family member.
Research investigating the usefulness of phototherapy as a treatment for seasonal affective disorder has generally found that it is:
Select one:
A.
substantially less effective than antidepressant drugs.
B.
an effective treatment and produces results comparable to those produced by antidepressant drugs.
C.
effective only when administered in conjunction with a low- to moderate-dose of an antidepressant drug.
D.
effective only for individuals who have atypical symptoms.
Many of the studies investigating the effectiveness of phototherapy (light therapy) for seasonal affective disorder (SAD) have been criticized on methodological grounds. However, the general consensus is that phototherapy is an effective treatment for this disorder.
a. Incorrect The studies suggest that phototherapy is as effective as antidepressants for reducing the symptoms of SAD.
b. CORRECT Of the answers given, this one best summarizes the existing research. See, e.g., R. N. Golden et al., The efficacy of light therapy in the treatment of mood disorders: A review and meta-analysis of the evidence, The American Journal of Psychiatry, 2005, 162, 656-662.
c. Incorrect The research has not found this to be true.
d. Incorrect The research has not found this to be true.
The correct answer is: an effective treatment and produces results comparable to those produced by antidepressant drugs.
Relaxation training seems to be less effective than biofeedback for treating which of the following disorders?
Select one:
A.
chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting
B.
tension headaches
C.
lower back pain
D.
Raynaud’s disease
For many of the disorders that have been treated with relaxation training and biofeedback, the two techniques have been found to have beneficial effects but not to differ substantially in the degree of their effectiveness.
a. Incorrect Relaxation has been found helpful in some cases of chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting; biofeedback is not a recommended treatment for this problem.
b. Incorrect Relaxation and biofeedback are about equally effective for tension headaches.
c. Incorrect Relaxation and biofeedback appear to be about equally effective for lower back pain.
d. CORRECT For Raynaud’s disease, temperature biofeedback has been found to be superior to relaxation training.
The correct answer is: Raynaud’s disease
Research on the etiology of Tourette’s syndrome has linked it to excessive activity of dopamine receptors in the:
Select one:
A.
amygdala.
B.
septum.
C.
medulla oblongata.
D.
caudate nucleus.
Tourette’s syndrome involves involuntary tics and, not surprisingly, the area of the brain associated with automatic movements has been implicated in this disorder.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT The caudate nucleus mediates automatic movement, and supersensitivity of dopamine receptors in this structure has been linked to Tourette’s syndrome.
The correct answer is: caudate nucleus.
The brother of a former client of yours calls you requesting that you release the client’s therapy records to him. The client died several months prior to this request. As an ethical psychologist, you:
Select one:
A.
release the records to him since he is a family member.
B.
release the records to him since requirements for maintaining confidentiality do not extend beyond a client’s death.
C.
release the records only after obtaining a waiver from the executor or administrator of the client’s estate.
D.
refuse to release the records under any circumstance.
Although this situation is not explicity addressed by the Ethics Code, Standard 4.05(a) states that “psychologists may disclose information with the appropriate consent of the organizational client, the individual client/patient, or another legally authorized person on behalf of the client/patient unless prohibited by law. (Also, keep in mind that, on the exam, it’s always best to choose the most “conservative” response - i.e., the response that best protects the client’s welfare.)
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT This response is most consistent with ethical requirements as well as with state laws. For example, a Massachusetts statute relevant to the practice of psychology states that “all communications … shall be deemed to be treated as confidential in perpetuity” (251 CMR 1.11). And, in jurisdictions that have similar laws, the records of a deceased client cannot (usually) be released to a family member or other person without a court order or release from the executor or administrator of the client’s estate.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: release the records only after obtaining a waiver from the executor or administrator of the client’s estate.
Prolonged exposure to stress may lead to chronic __________ by the adrenal glands.
Select one:
A.
suppression of cortisol release
B.
secretion of cortisol
C.
suppression of oxytocin release
D.
secretion of oxytocin
Knowing that cortisol is secreted by the adrenal cortex would have helped you answer this question.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Cortisol and the other corticosteroids are collectively known as the “stress hormones.” Chronic stress leads to chronic secretion of these hormones, which can cause a number of problems including increased susceptibility to infection.
c. Incorrect Oxytocin is secreted by the pituitary gland and, in females, controls uterine contractions and milk production.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: secretion of cortisol
Structural family therapy entails three overlapping steps or stages. Which of the following techniques is/are most useful during the first step?
Select one:
A.
reframing and relabeling
B.
tracking and mimesis
C.
constructing a family map
D.
enactment
The three steps in structural family therapy are joining, evaluating/diagnosing, and restructuring.
a. Incorrect Reframing and relabeling are restructuring techniques.
b. CORRECT Tracking (identifying and using the family’s values, life themes, etc.) and mimesis (adopting the family’s affective and behavioral style) are methods used to join the family system. Joining is the initial step in structural family therapy.
c. Incorrect A family map is used to facilitate the structural diagnosis of the family.
d. Incorrect Enactment is a technique used to facilitate diagnosis and restructuring of the family.
The correct answer is: tracking and mimesis
With regard to language acquisition, a child’s use of his/her knowledge of the meaning of words to make inferences about their grammatical type or structure is referred to as:
Select one:
A.
semantic bootstrapping.
B.
prosodic bootstrapping.
C.
syntactic bootstrapping.
D.
morphological bootstrapping.
This is one of those “distant galaxy” questions but considering the meaning of the words listed in the answers may have helped you recognize the correct response.
a. CORRECT Semantic refers to “meaning,” and semantic bootstrapping is a term used in the field of psycholinguistics to describe how children use their knowledge of the meaning of words to infer their syntactical category which, in turn, allows them to understand syntactical rules and construct grammatically correct sentences.
b. Incorrect Prosodic bootstrapping refers to using the prosody (pitch, rhythm, etc.) of an utterance to make deductions about syntax.
c. Incorrect Syntactic bootstrapping refers to using syntactical information to make deductions about a word’s meaning.
d. Incorrect Morphological bootstrapping refers to using knowledge about morphemes to deduce the syntax or meaning of a word - e.g., deducing that a word is an action word (verb) because it ends in “ing.”
The correct answer is: semantic bootstrapping.
If a researcher wanted to collect data quickly, within a modest budget and from a large group of people, which approach would be most appropriate?
Select one:
A.
Multi-informant reports
B.
Semi-structured interviews
C.
Psychophysiological measures
D.
Self-report methods
The correct answer is D. This information may include: personality traits, moods, thoughts, attitudes, preferences, and behaviors. The main advantages of self-report methods are quick production and scoring, and low cost. Answers A, B, and C are incorrect as they tend to be more time consuming and expensive than self-report methods.
The correct answer is: Self-report methods
Research examining the relationship between mild depression and autobiographical memory has found that, in comparison to the memories of people who are nondysphoric, the memories of people who are dysphoric are:
Select one:
A.
less detailed and more negative.
B.
more detailed and more negative.
C.
less detailed and more neutral.
D.
more detailed and more neutral.
Not surprisingly, the studies have linked depression to an increased memory for negative events.
a. CORRECT People who are dysphoric are also likely to have autobiographical memories that are less detailed than those of people who are nondysphoric. See, e.g., J. M. G. Williams & J. Scott, Autobiographical memory in depression, Psychological Medicine, 18,689-695, 1986.
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: less detailed and more negative.
Tactile sensation and visuospatial functions are mediated primarily by the:
Select one:
A.
frontal lobe.
B.
occipital lobe.
C.
parietal lobe.
D.
temporal lobe.
For the licensing exam, you want to be familiar with the primary functions of each lobe of the cerebral cortex. These are described in the Physiological Psychology and Pharmacology chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect The frontal lobe mediates motor functions, language production, personality, and executive cognitive functions.
b. Incorrect The occipital lobe is responsible for vision and visual perception.
c. CORRECT The parietal lobe receives tactile input and mediates visuospatial functions, reading, and calculation.
d. Incorrect The temporal lobe is responsible for audition, language comprehension, and memory.
The correct answer is: parietal lobe.
“In periods of crisis, such as loss, abandonment, separation, failure, and loneliness, the individual can temporarily fall back on his internal world.” This statement reflects the basic assumptions of which of the following approaches?
Select one:
A.
Gestalt therapy
B.
reality therapy
C.
object relations theory
D.
cognitive-behavioral therapy
This statement was made by Otto Kernberg (Object relations theory and clinical psychoanalysis, New York: Jason-Aronson, 1976).
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Kernberg’s statement reflects the object relations view that early social relations impact future social situations.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: object relations theory
In its early stages, Alzheimer’s disease shares several characteristics with Korsakoff’s syndrome. Specifically, both disorders are characterized by:
Select one:
A.
anterograde amnesia that affects declarative memories but not procedural memories.
B.
anterograde amnesia that affects both declarative and procedural memories.
C.
retrograde amnesia for recent and remote declarative (but not procedural) memories.
D.
retrograde amnesia for recent (but not remote) declarative and procedural memories.
Alzheimer’s disease and Korsakoff’s syndrome share several characteristics.
a. CORRECT In Alzheimer’s disease, anterograde amnesia for declarative knowledge is often the first neurological finding. It is also characteristic of Korsakoff’s syndrome.
b. Incorrect Procedural memory is left relatively intact in both disorders, and confabulation is characteristic of Korsakoff’s syndrome but not Alzheimer’s disease.
c. Incorrect In Alzheimer’s disease, there is a “flat” retrograde amnesia that emerges once the disorder has progressed to moderate levels of impairment (i.e., the amnesia affects both remote and recent memories). In Korsakoff’s syndrome, the retrograde amnesia affects recent memories while remote memories remain intact. See, e.g., N. Butters and D. C. Delis, Clinical assessment of memory disorders in amnesia and dementia, Annual Review of Psychology, 46, 493-523, 1995.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: anterograde amnesia that affects declarative memories but not procedural memories.
The police arrive at your office with an arrest warrant for one of your clients. They tell you that they need the client’s most recent address and telephone number. You should:
Select one:
A.
provide them with the information they request.
B.
make a copy of the warrant for your files before providing them with the information they request.
C.
tell them you will have to get a signed waiver from the client before you can release the information.
D.
not give them any information about the client.
An arrest warrant does not constitute an exception to the therapist-client privilege.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT In order to provide any information about the client (including the fact that he/she is a client) would require either a signed release from the client or a court-order.
The correct answer is: not give them any information about the client.
Up to 50% or more of individuals who experience a minor brain injury develop postconcussional syndrome. The majority of these individuals fully recover within __________. However, for those whose symptoms last for more than __________, symptoms may be permanent.
Select one:
A.
one to three weeks; six months
B.
one to two months; nine months
C.
one to three months; one year
D.
three to six months; two years
Postconcussional syndrome is a pattern of somatic and psychological symptoms that occur in up to 50% or more of individuals who experience a minor brain injury.
a. Incorrect See explanation for answer c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for answer c.
c. CORRECT Most individuals who develop minor symptoms following a brain injury fully recover within one to three months after the injury. A minority of individuals continues to experience symptoms for more than one year and, for these individuals, symptoms may be lifelong. See, e.g., E. L. Legome, R. Alt, and T. Wu, May 13, 2013, Postconcussive syndrome. Retrieved from http://emedicine.medscape.com/article/828904-overview.
d. Incorrect See explanation for answer c.
The correct answer is: one to three months; one year
A new client of yours, who is homosexual, tells you that he overheard his previous therapist make derogatory remarks about his sexual orientation to a co-worker. Your best course of action would be to:
Select one:
A.
discuss his option of filing a complaint against the psychologist with the Ethics Committee.
B.
file a complaint against the psychologist with the Ethics Committee yourself.
C.
call the psychologist and tell him that your client overheard his remarks.
D.
provide the client with support and remind him that there are many prejudiced people in the world.
This is a difficult question that requires a careful reading of the responses.
a. CORRECT This is usually an acceptable course of action when a client reveals that a previous therapist has acted unethically. Note that responses b and c can be eliminated because they do not address the issue of the client’s confidentiality: Before talking to the psychologist yourself or contacting the Ethics Committee, you would want to get a waiver from the client.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: discuss his option of filing a complaint against the psychologist with the Ethics Committee.
When conducting a one-way ANOVA, the F-ratio is calculated by:
Select one:
A.
dividing the mean square between (MSB) by the mean square within (MSW).
B.
dividing the mean square within (MSW) by the mean square between (MSB).
C.
dividing the mean square total (MST) by the mean square between (MSB).
D.
dividing the mean square total (MST) by the mean square within (MSW).
When using the one-way ANOVA to determine if an independent variable has had a significant effect on a dependent variable, an F-ratio is calculated by dividing the mean square between (MSB) by the mean square within (MSW).
a. CORRECT MSB provides an estimate of variability due to treatment plus error, while MSW provides an estimate of variability due to error only. When the independent variable has had an effect, MSB will be larger than MSW and the F-ratio will be larger than 1.0, and the larger the F-ratio, the more likely that the effect of the independent variable is statistically significant.
b. Incorrect See explanation for answer a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for answer a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for answer a.
The correct answer is: dividing the mean square between (MSB) by the mean square within (MSW).
According to the APA’s General Guidelines for Providers of Psychological Services, a “user” of clinical and counseling psychological services includes:
Select one:
A.
direct users of services only (“patients” and “clients”).
B.
direct users and third party purchasers of such services.
C.
direct users, third party purchasers, and sanctioners (people who have legitimate concern related to the provision of psychological services).
D.
direct users, third party purchasers, sanctioners, and public/private facilities and organizations receiving psychological services.
According to the General Guidelines, a “user” of clinical and counseling psychological services includes direct users, third party purchasers, sanctioners, and public/private facilities and organizations receiving psychological services.
a. Incorrect The users of psychological services are not limited to direct users only.
b. Incorrect The users of psychological services are not limited to direct users and third party purchasers only.
c. Incorrect The users of psychological services are not limited to direct users, third party purchasers, and sanctioners only.
d. CORRECT All of these are defined as users of psychological services in the General Guidelines.
The correct answer is: direct users, third party purchasers, sanctioners, and public/private facilities and organizations receiving psychological services.
For a diagnosis of Separation Anxiety Disorder, the DSM-5 requires symptoms of fear, anxiety, or avoidance that have lasted for at least __________ in children and adolescents or about __________ in adults.
Select one:
A.
one week; six months
B.
four weeks; six months
C.
six weeks; eight months
D.
two months; eight months
Answer B is correct: The DSM-5 specifies a minimum duration of symptoms for Separation Anxiety Disorder of “4 weeks in children and adolescents and typically 6 months in adults” (p. 191).
Answers A, C, and D: See explanation above.
The correct answer is: four weeks; six months
Research has found that the effects of sexual abuse for a child depend on several factors. Which of the following most accurately describes a finding of these studies?
Select one:
A.
The effects are less severe when the abuse was committed by a family member.
B.
The effects are less severe when the abuse was committed by a stranger.
C.
The younger the child is at the time of the initial abuse, the less severe the effects.
D.
The younger the age of the perpetrator, the more severe the effects.
Although many individuals exhibit long-term adverse effects of childhood sexual abuse, certain conditions have been linked with better outcomes. See the Lifespan Development chapter for additional information on the risk factors and consequences associated with child abuse.
a. Incorrect The effects of abuse are usually worse when the perpetrator is a family member.
b. CORRECT Abuse by a stranger is associated with less severe effects.
c. Incorrect Younger age at the time of initial abuse is associated with more damaging outcomes.
d. Incorrect The older the age of the perpetrator, the more severe the effects for the victim.
The correct answer is: The effects are less severe when the abuse was committed by a stranger.
Harry Stack Sullivan’s interpersonal approach to psychiatry identifies ____________ as the primary cause of psychopathology.
Select one:
A.
unconscious conflicts
B.
excessive anxiety
C.
obstacles to self-actualization
D.
avoidance of ultimate concerns
Sullivan believed that human behavior is motivated by two needs - the need for satisfaction and the need for security. The need for satisfaction is fulfilled by things that meet the individual’s biological needs (food, water, shelter, etc.), while the need for security is fulfilled by gratifying experiences with others.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Sullivan emphasized the role of anxiety in personality development and psychopathology. As described by Sullivan, excessive anxiety is the result of interpersonal insecurity that can be traced to problems in interpersonal relationships (especially during infancy and childhood) and is the basis for most psychiatric problems.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: excessive anxiety
Depression has been linked to:
Select one:
A.
decreased REM latency and increased REM density.
B.
decreased REM latency and decreased REM density.
C.
increased REM latency and increased REM density.
D.
increased REM latency and decreased REM density.
Depression has been linked to a number of alterations in sleep quantity and quality.
a. CORRECT The research has consistently shown that depression (especially endogenous depression) is associated with decreased sleep continuity, reduced slow-wave sleep, shortened REM latency (earlier onset of REM sleep), and increased REM density (increased frequency of rapid eye movements).
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: decreased REM latency and increased REM density.
With regard to informed consents in research, APA’sEthics Code:
Select one:
A.
requires psychologists to provide potential research participants with specific information in “reasonably understandable language” prior to consenting to participate.
B.
requires psychologists to “ensure that potential research participants understand” the information they have been given prior to consenting to participate.
C.
requires psychologists to provide potential research participants with specific information prior to consenting to participate.
D.
requires psychologists to provide potential research participants with specific information in “reasonably understandable language” and to ensure that they understand the information prior to consenting to participate.
With certain exceptions, psychologists must obtain informed consents from individuals prior to their participation in a research study.
a. CORRECT The issue of language and informed consent is addressed in Standard 3.10 of the Ethics Code. It outlines the specific information that psychologists must give potential participants, therapy clients, and others as part of the informed consent process and states that the information must be supplied in “reasonably understandable language.” The Code does not, however, explictly state that psychologists must ensure that participants understand the information.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: requires psychologists to provide potential research participants with specific information in “reasonably understandable language” prior to consenting to participate.
The APA’s (2007)Record Keeping Guidelines recommends that, in the absence of superseding laws or regulations, psychologists should retain:
Select one:
A.
the full record of an adult client until seven years after termination of therapy.
B.
the full record of an adult client until 12 years after termination of therapy.
C.
the full record of an adult client until three years after termination and a summary of the record for at least four additional years.
D.
the full record of an adult client until five years after termination and a summary of the record for at least seven additional years.
Paragraph 7 of the 2007 version of the APA’s Record Keeping Guidelines specifies that a “psychologist strives to be aware of applicable laws and regulations and to retain records for the period required by legal, regulatory, institutional, and ethical requirements.”
a. CORRECT In comments on the application of Paragraph 7, the Guidelines states that, in the absence of superseding laws or institutional regulations, “psychologists may consider retaining full records until 7 years after the last date of service delivery for adults or until 3 years after a minor reaches the age of majority, whichever is later. In some circumstances, the psychologist may wish to keep records for a longer period, weighing the risks associated with obsolete or outdated information, or privacy loss, versus potential benefits associated with preserving the records.” This answer is most consistent with these recommendations.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: the full record of an adult client until seven years after termination of therapy.
Scores on the Symbol Search, Coding, and Cancellation subtests are used to derive a score on which WAIS-IV Index?
Select one:
A.
Working Memory
B.
Perceptual Reasoning
C.
Verbal Comprehension
D.
Processing Speed
Answer D is correct. The WAIS-IV provides scores on the four Indexes listed in the answers to this question. The Processing Speed Index consists of two core subtests (Symbol Search and Coding) and one supplemental subtest (Cancellation).
Answer A: The Working Memory Index consists of two core subtests (Digit Span and Arithmetic) and one supplemental subtest (Letter-Number Sequencing).
Answer B: The Perceptual Reasoning Index consists of three core subtests (Block Design, Matrix Reasoning, and Visual Puzzles) and two supplemental subtests (Figure Weights and Picture Completion).
Answer C: The Verbal Comprehension Index consists of three core subtests (Vocabulary, Similarities, and Information) and one supplemental subtest (Comprehension).
The correct answer is: Processing Speed
Research investigating the effectiveness of treatments for Conduct Disorder has demonstrated that:
Select one:
A.
boot camps and “tough love” policies are more effective than parent management training and multisystems therapy.
B.
boot camps and “tough love” policies are as effective as parent management training and multisystems therapy.
C.
boot camps and “tough love” policies are less effective than parent management training and multisystems therapy.
D.
boot camps and “tough love” policies are effective only when they are combined with parent management training or multisystems therapy.
The research has clearly demonstrated that long-term multimodal or multisystems treatments - e.g., parent management training, functional family therapy, and multisystems therapy - are most effective for children and adolescents with Conduct Disorder.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Boot camps and other inoculation techniques have not been found to be effective and, in some cases, may actually be injurious. Therefore, they are not recommended as a stand-alone treatment or as elements of a multimodal intervention. See, e.g., AACAP, Practice parameters for the assessment and treatment of children and adolescents with Conduct Disorder, Journal of the American Academy of Child and Adolescent Psychiatry, 36(10), 122S-139S, 1997.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: boot camps and “tough love” policies are less effective than parent management training and multisystems therapy.
The Wide-Range Achievement Test is:
Select one:
A.
a brief achievement test that measures reading comprehension, spelling, and arithmetic computation.
B.
a brief achievement test that measures the basic content domains (e.g., English, science, math) taught in elementary and junior high school.
C.
a measure of academic achievement that is used to predict high school grades.
D.
a measure of academic achievement that is used to predict undergraduate grades.
The Wide-Range Achievement Test (WRAT) is a brief achievement test that can be administered to children, adolescents, and adults. The most recent version is the WRAT-4, which was published in 2006.
a. CORRECT The WRAT assesses achievement in reading, spelling, and arithmetic only.
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: a brief achievement test that measures reading comprehension, spelling, and arithmetic computation.
Sherif (1935) used the autokinetic effect to study which of the following phenomena?
Select one:
A.
conformity
B.
affiliation
C.
psychological reactance
D.
locus of control
The apparent movement of a stationary light in a dark room is referred to as the autokinetic effect.
a. CORRECT Sherif (1935) used the autokinetic effect to study conformity. He found that estimates of movement varied widely when a participant made an estimate alone but conformed to the estimates of other people when a participant was asked to provide an estimate after hearing the estimates of others.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: conformity
Structural equation modeling (SEM) is used to:
Select one:
A.
assess the length of time to the occurrence of a critical event.
B.
evaluate the causal (predictive) influences of multiple latent factors.
C.
determine, for a sample of people, how many types the sample represents.
D.
identify natural subgroupings among a collection of observations.
Structural equation modeling is a multivariate technique that is used to test causal hypotheses about the relationships among a set of factors.
a. Incorrect Survival analysis is used to evaluate the length of time to a critical event (e.g., relapse, promotion).
b. CORRECT Of the answers given, this one best describes the purpose of structural equation modeling: It allows a researcher to identify the underlying (latent) factors that relate to a set of measured variables and the nature of the causal relationships between those factors. Additional information on SEM is provided in the Statistics and Research Design chapter of the written study materials.
c. Incorrect Q-technique factor analysis is used to identify types of people in a sample of people.
d. Incorrect Cluster analysis is used to identify homogeneous subgroups in a heterogeneous collection of observations.
The correct answer is: evaluate the causal (predictive) influences of multiple latent factors.
A therapy client’s negative transference is most likely to be manifested in which of the following ways?
Select one:
A.
The client will criticize the therapist and be pessimistic about the outcomes of therapy.
B.
The client will be more willing to talk about anxiety-arousing events.
C.
The client will say whatever comes to his/her mind.
D.
The client will express unrealistic positive expectations for the outcomes of therapy.
The interpretation of a client’s transferences is an important part of psychodynamic psychotherapy.
a. CORRECT Negative transference involves the projection of negative emotions onto the therapist and may manifest itself several ways including making direct, negative comments about the effectiveness of therapy or being late for or missing appointments.
b. Incorrect Transference is a form of resistance and, consequently, is not likely to increase a client’s willingness to talk about anxiety-arousing events.
c. Incorrect This describes the psychodynamic technique of free association and is not how a client would be likely to manifest transference.
d. Incorrect Unrealistic positive expectations for the outcomes of therapy are more likely to be a manifestation of positive transference.
The correct answer is: The client will criticize the therapist and be pessimistic about the outcomes of therapy.
In schools, psychological consultants are often hired to help teachers or other school personnel resolve problems related to specific individual students. This is referred to as:
Select one:
A.
consultee-centered case consultation.
B.
client-centered case consultation.
C.
consultee-centered administrative consultation.
D.
client-centered administrative consultation.
In this situation, a consultant is working with a consultee to resolve a problem with a particular client (case).
a. Incorrect In consultee-centered consultation, the focus is on the consultee’s skills, abilities, and objectivity so that he/she can work more effectively with a particular group of clients in the future.
b. CORRECT The question describes client-centered case consultation, which is the most common form of consultation in schools and elsewhere.
c. Incorrect This type of consultation focuses on helping consultees (administrators) develop the skills they need to more effectively develop and implement programs.
d. Incorrect This is a “made-up” term.
The correct answer is: client-centered case consultation.
According to the Yerkes-Dodson law, learning and performance are maximized when:
Select one:
A.
level of arousal is low.
B.
level of arousal is moderate.
C.
elaborative rehearsal is employed.
D.
encoding specificity is high.
Yerkes and Dodson (1908) were interested in the relationship between level of arousal and the efficiency of learning and performance.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT These investigators found an inverted-U shape relationship between arousal and performance with maximum performance being associated with moderate levels of arousal.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: level of arousal is moderate.
Hemiplegia affecting the right side of the body suggests damage to the:
Select one:
A.
motor cortex in the left hemisphere.
B.
motor cortex in the right hemisphere.
C.
somatosensory cortex in the left hemisphere.
D.
somatosensory cortex in the right hemisphere.
To answer this question, you have to know that hemiplegia refers to partial or complete paralysis on one side of the body and that the right side of the body is controlled by the left side of the brain.
a. CORRECT Damage to the motor cortex could result in paralysis. Since the paralysis is on the right side of the body, this implies that the damage is to the motor cortex in the left hemisphere.
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: motor cortex in the left hemisphere.
Which of the following best describes Kohlberg’s claim about the relationship between moral judgment and moral action?
Select one:
A.
There is a strong relationship between moral judgment and moral action at all stages of moral development.
B.
The relationship between moral judgment and moral action is strongest at the lower stages of moral development.
C.
The relationship between moral judgment and moral action is strongest at the higher stages of moral development.
D.
There is no predictable relationship between moral judgment and moral action at any stage of moral development.
Kohlberg distinguished between moral judgment and moral action, and his theory of moral development focuses on moral judgment.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Kohlberg proposed that there is a greater correspondence between moral judgment and action at the higher stages of moral development because the higher stages employ more stable and generalizable standards.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: The relationship between moral judgment and moral action is strongest at the higher stages of moral development.
The gross motor milestones for children _____ years of age include pedaling a tricycle, kicking a stationary ball forward, throwing a ball overhand, going up stairs using alternate feet, and running without falling.
Select one:
A.
two
B.
three
C.
four
D.
five
For the exam, you want to be familiar with major developmental milestones. (Note that, because reported milestones for different ages vary somewhat in the literature, it’s important to consider all of the milestones listed and not over-focus on any single milestone.)
a. Incorrect Gross motor milestones for two-year-old children include climbing up on furniture, walking alone, walking up and down stairs one at a time, and catching a large ball using hands and chest.
b. CORRECT The motor skills listed in this question are gross motor milestones for three-year-old children.
c. Incorrect Gross motor milestones for four-year-old children include hopping on one foot, standing on one leg, running to kick a ball, bouncing a ball, and going down stairs using alternate feet.
d. Incorrect Gross motor milestones for five-year-old children include riding a scooter or bicycle, jumping rope, hopping on alternate feet, jumping over low obstacles, and catching a ball with both hands and arms bent.
The correct answer is: three
For Hispanic/Latino American families, the strongest family bond is most often between:
Select one:
A.
husband and wife.
B.
parent and child.
C.
brother and sister.
D.
grandparent and grandchild.
There is, of course, considerable variability in Hispanic/Latino American families, but, traditionally, family structure and relationships have had a predictable pattern.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT In traditional Hispanic/Latino and Hispanic/Latino American families, the parent-child relationship (and especially the mother-son and father-son relationship) is stronger than the husband-wife and other relationships listed in the answers to this question. See, e.g., C. Falicov, Latino families in therapy, New York, Guilford, 1998.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: parent and child.
Examinees with Mild Cognitive Impairment, Major Depression, or Traumatic Brain Injury are likely to achieve the highest score on which of the following WAIS-IV Indexes?
Select one:
A.
Perceptual Reasoning
B.
Processing Speed
C.
Verbal Comprehension
D.
Working Memory
Answer C is correct: The WAIS-IV Technical Manual reports that, of the four Indexes, examinees with Mild Cognitive Impairment, Major Depression, or Traumatic Brain Injury received the highest score on the Verbal Comprehension Index.
The correct answer is: Verbal Comprehension
Kahneman and Tversky’s (1979) notion of __________ predicts a tendency for a loss of a particular magnitude to seem more aversive to an individual than a gain of the same magnitude seems attractive.
Select one:
A.
status quo bias
B.
psychological reactance
C.
loss aversion
D.
gain/loss theory
Kahneman and Tversky’s notion of loss aversion is part of their cumulative prospect theory and refers to the tendency to weigh losses more heavily than gains.
a. Incorrect The status quo bias refers to the tendency to maintain the status quo because the disadvantages of changing are perceived to be greater than the advantages.
b. Incorrect Psychological reactance occurs when an attempt at social control causes a person to feel a loss of freedom and, in response, reacts in a way that is the opposite of what is requested or desired.
c. CORRECT According to Kahneman and Tversky’s notion of loss aversion, people experience losses more intensely than gains of the same magnitude and, consequently, are unlikely to take risks. See D. Kahneman & A. Tversky, Prospect theory: An analysis of decisions under risk, Econometrika, 47, 263-291, 1979.
d. Incorrect Gain/loss theory predicts that a complement will be valued more by a person when it comes from a critic than from someone who has bestowed compliments in the past.
The correct answer is: loss aversion
An infant with secure attachment will most likely respond to a stranger in the Strange Situation in which of the following ways?
Select one:
A.
The infant will be friendly toward the stranger when mother is present but wary of the stranger when mother is absent.
B.
The infant will be wary of the stranger when mother is present but friendly toward the stranger when mother is absent.
C.
The infant will be friendly toward the stranger when mother is either present or absent.
D.
The infant will be wary of the stranger when mother is either present or absent.
The Strange Situation was developed by Ainsworth and her colleagues (1978) to evaluate attachment in infants and consists of several events including the mother being alone with her infant, the mother and a stranger being with the infant, and the infant being alone with the stranger.
a. CORRECT Ainsworth and her colleagues found that securely attached infants were often friendly toward the stranger when mother was present but tended to be wary of the stranger when mother was absent, although some of these infants were somewhat comforted by the overtures of the stranger when separated from their mothers.
b. Incorrect This answer does not describe the behavior associated with any of the three attachment patterns initially identified by Ainsworth.
c. Incorrect In the Strange Situation, most infants with insecure-avoidant attachment reacted to the stranger in much the same way that they reacted to their mother and some were friendlier toward the stranger than their mother.
d. Incorrect Infants with insecure-ambivalent attachment were wary of the stranger when mother was either present or absent and were not calmed by the stranger when separated from their mothers.
The correct answer is: The infant will be friendly toward the stranger when mother is present but wary of the stranger when mother is absent.
A multiple regression equation yields a predicted criterion score for an examinee based on the examinee’s scores on the predictors included in a test battery. When computing a multiple regression equation, each test is weighted:
Select one:
A.
in direct proportion to its correlation with the criterion and in inverse proportion to its correlation with the other predictors in the test battery.
B.
in inverse proportion to its correlation with the criterion and in direct proportion to its correlation with the other predictors in the test battery.
C.
in direct proportion to its correlation with the criterion and with the other predictors in the test battery.
D.
in inverse proportion to its correlation with the criterion and with the other predictors in the test battery.
When choosing tests for a test battery that will be used to predict status on a criterion, each test should correlate highly with the criterion but not with the other tests in the battery in order to provide the most useful (nonredundant) information.
a. CORRECT By computing the multiple regression equation so that each test is weighted in direct proportion to its correlation with the criterion and in inverse proportion to its correlation with other tests, the test with the highest criterion-related validity and the least amount of overlap (correlation) with the other tests will be given the largest weight, while the test with the lowest criterion-related validity and the most overlap with the other tests will be given the smallest weight.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: in direct proportion to its correlation with the criterion and in inverse proportion to its correlation with the other predictors in the test battery.
In a research study, a child sits in front of a three-dimensional model of a mountain scene while another person sits on the opposite side of the mountain scene. The child is then asked to first choose a photograph that depicts the scene that he or she has observed and then to choose the picture that depicts what the other person observed. Being familiar with the research on Piaget’s stages of cognitive development, you predict that children 3 to 5 years of age will most likely:
Select one:
A.
pick the correct picture for their own point of view and pick the same (incorrect) picture for the point of view of the other person.
B.
pick the correct picture for their own point of view and pick a different (but incorrect) picture for the point of view of the other person.
C.
pick the correct pictures for their own point of view and the point of view of the other person.
D.
pick incorrect pictures for their own point of view and the point of view of the other person.
This question describes a study that is very similar to the one conducted by Piaget, which confirmed that preoperational children are egocentric - i.e., they have trouble understanding another person’s point of view.
a. CORRECT This response is consistent with the results of research conducted by Piaget and others, which found that preoperational children were usually unable to recognize that another person’s view of the mountain differed from their own. (Note, however, that some recent research suggests that young children’s perspective-taking may be affected by the type of task or other variables.)
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: pick the correct picture for their own point of view and pick the same (incorrect) picture for the point of view of the other person.
Dr. Passe is hired by a company to evaluate an employee for promotion into a high-level position. The company manager tells Dr. Passe that the employee was evaluated six years ago prior to his last promotion, and the company wants Dr. Passe to make a recommendation based on those results without an additional evaluation. Dr. Passe is concerned that some of the information from the evaluation is no longer relevant. He should:
Select one:
A.
comply with the manager’s request since it is up to her (the manager) to decide what is relevant.
B.
comply with the manager’s request but warn her of any potential limitations of her recommendation.
C.
comply with the manager’s request only if the employee agrees to the conditions.
D.
discuss with the manager the possibility that the data are obsolete and that new data should be collected.
This question is pretty straightforward. It is unethical to base decisions on obsolete data.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Psychologists have a responsibility to ensure that their recommendations are accurate, which would not be the case if they are based on obsolete data. Providing information about the possible limitations (response b) of a recommendation would be insufficient.
The correct answer is: discuss with the manager the possibility that the data are obsolete and that new data should be collected.
When conducting a one-way ANOVA to compare the effects of four different diets on weight loss, an F-ratio of _____ suggests that there may be a significant difference between the types of diets?
Select one:
A.
15.5
B.
0.9
C.
0
D.
-1.5
The F-ratio is calculated by dividing the mean square between by the mean square within. Mean square between is a measure of treatment effects plus error, while mean square within in a measure of error only.
a. CORRECT A treatment effect is suggested when the numerator of the F ratio (mean square between) is larger than the denominator (mean square within) - i.e., when the F value is greater than +1.0.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: 15.5
A client is acting in a passive-aggressive way toward a psychology intern who, in turn, becomes unconsciously passive-aggressive toward her supervisor. This is an example of which of the following?
Select one:
A.
transference
B.
countertransference
C.
over-involvement
D.
parallel process
In this situation, the intern’s behavior with the counselor is “mirroring” the client’s behavior with the intern.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT This type of mirroring is referred to as parallel process and is conceptualized as a reflection of the transference/countertransference process (which makes responses a and b only partially correct).
The correct answer is: parallel process
The tendency to overestimate personality traits as the cause of behavior and underestimate the influence of situational factors is referred to as:
Select one:
A.
the halo bias.
B.
the discounting principle.
C.
the self-serving bias.
D.
the fundamental attribution bias.
This question is asking about the tendency to make dispositional (versus situational) attributions.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT This tendency is referred to as the fundamental attribution bias. In most of the literature, it is described as occurring when an observer makes an attribution about the behavior of another person.
The correct answer is: the fundamental attribution bias.
An employer interested in increasing the creativity of workers would be best advised to do all of the following except:
Select one:
A.
provide supportive supervision.
B.
let workers know that their work will be critically evaluated.
C.
hire employees who score high on a measure of openness to experience.
D.
increase the physical distance between workers in the workplace.
Research investigating the impact of various personal and contextual characteristics on the creativity of employees was recently reviewed by C. Shalley, J. Zhou, and G. Oldham [The effects of personal and contextual effects on creativity: Where should we go from here?, Journal of Management, 30(6), 933-958, 2004].
a. Incorrect The research has confirmed that supportive supervision has a positive effect on employee creativity.
b. CORRECT Although the expectation that one’s work will be evaluated in a nonjudgmental way (i.e., that evaluations will be developmental rather than judgmental) has a positive impact on creativity, the expectation that one’s work will be critically evaluated tends to diminish creativity.
c. Incorrect Of the five personality factors, openness to experience has been found to be most strongly related to creativity.
d. Incorrect Reducing the overall density of the work environment has been linked to improvements in worker creativity.
The correct answer is: let workers know that their work will be critically evaluated.
Which of the following illustrates the use of negative reinforcement?
Select one:
A.
A child’s usual allowance is reduced by a specific amount each time he misbehaves.
B.
A child is allowed to watch television for one hour when he finishes his homework.
C.
Restrictions on a child’s activities are removed each time he helps with household chores.
D.
Restrictions on a child’s activities are imposed each time he argues with his sister.
Negative reinforcement occurs when the removal of a stimulus following a response increases the occurrence of that response.
a. Incorrect This is an example of negative punishment.
b. Incorrect This is an example of positive reinforcement.
c. CORRECT In this situation, restrictions are removed following a behavior in order to increase the behavior. This is referred to as negative reinforcement.
d. Incorrect This is also an example of negative punishment; i.e., something is being taken away following a behavior, apparently in order to decrease the behavior.
The correct answer is: Restrictions on a child’s activities are removed each time he helps with household chores.
As defined in the EEOC Uniform Guidelines, “unfairness” is a problem when:
Select one:
A.
different groups obtain consistently different scores on the predictor but similar scores on the criterion.
B.
different groups obtain consistently different scores on the criterion but similar scores on the predictor.
C.
the predictor has significantly different validity coefficients for different groups.
D.
the predictor is equally invalid for all groups.
Unfairness is one of the possible causes of adverse impact.
a. CORRECT A test is “unfair” when it has a similar validity coefficient for members of two (or more) groups and members of the groups have similar criterion performance, but members of one group consistently score lower on the predictor than members of the other group(s). In this situation, if the same predictor cutoff is used for all individuals, there may be adverse impact for members of the low-scoring group.
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect This describes differential validity.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: different groups obtain consistently different scores on the predictor but similar scores on the criterion.
Synesthesia is best conceptualized as:
Select one:
A.
a learned phenomenon.
B.
the result of imagination.
C.
a physical process in the brain.
D.
a manifestation of psychosis.
Synesthesia occurs when two or more senses are automatically and involuntarily joined so that stimulation of one sense automatically elicits another (e.g., the sound of a voice elicits a specific color).
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Although the cause of synesthesia is not clear, it is believed to be due to brain functioning. One theory attributes it to unusually dense connections between sensory regions of the brain.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: a physical process in the brain.
You are conducting a therapy group and you are now in the middle stage. You ask group members to shift from answering direct questions to talking freely about themselves. The group members show resistance to this. You should:
Select one:
A.
allow them to express their resistance.
B.
explain to them the developmental process of the group.
C.
tell them that resistance is not allowed.
D.
go back to asking direct questions.
In group therapy, resistance can take several forms and occurs most often in the early middle stage of therapy when members try to establish their preferred position in the group.
a. CORRECT By definition, resistance is a covert effort to undermine change; thus, it is best handled by being brought out into the open. Discussions should focus on the here-and-now and deal with what the resistance implies.
b. Incorrect While the developmental process of the group might be of interest to some members, this approach would do little, if anything, to deal with resistance.
c. Incorrect This strategy would probably engender more intense resistance.
d. Incorrect Capitulation to resistance amounts to reinforcement and is likely to increase its occurrence.
The correct answer is: allow them to express their resistance.
In the context of expectancy theory, “valence” refers to:
Select one:
A.
degree of effort.
B.
level of performance.
C.
need strength.
D.
subjective worth of outcomes.
Expectancy theory distinguishes between three types of beliefs that contribute to motivation - expectancy, instrumentality, and valence.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT In the context of expectancy theory, valence refers to the value of available outcomes to the individual.
The correct answer is: subjective worth of outcomes.
On a measure that assesses the “Big Five” personality factors, a high score on neuroticism, a low score on agreeableness, and a low score on conscientiousness are most likely to be obtained by a person with ____________ Personality Disorder.
Select one:
A.
Obsessive-Compulsive
B.
Narcissistic
C.
Schizoid
D.
Antisocial
Answer D is correct: The match between the Big Five personality traits and DSM’s personality disorders is summarized in T. Widiger et al., A description of the DSM-III-R and DSM-IV personality disorders with the five-factor model of personality, in P. T. Costa and T. A. Widiger (eds.), Personality disorders and the five-factor model of personality, Washington, DC, American Psychological Association, 1994. This is the pattern reported by these investigators for individuals with Antisocial Personality Disorder.
Answer A: A person with Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder is likely to obtain a high score on some aspects of neuroticism, a low score on some aspects of agreeableness, and a high score on conscientiousness.
Answer B: A person with Narcissistic Personality Disorder would obtain a high score on some aspects of neuroticism, a low score on agreeableness, and a high score on some aspects of conscientiousness.
Answer C: A person with Schizoid Personality Disorder would obtain a low score on some aspects of neuroticism, a high score on one aspect of agreeableness (compliance), and a low score on one aspect of conscientiousness (achievement striving).
The correct answer is: Antisocial
To evaluate the impact of an educational program on each student’s mastery of the information presented, which of the following would be most useful?
Select one:
A.
norm-referenced scores
B.
criterion-referenced scores
C.
standard scores
D.
ipsative scores
To determine if a student has benefited from an educational program, you would most likely want to determine how much of the information presented in the program has been retained and/or to what degree participation in the program has improved the individual’s performance on a task.
a. Incorrect Norm-referenced scores (e.g., standard scores, percentile ranks) tell you how well an examinee is doing compared to other examinees.
b. CORRECT Criterion-referenced scores tell you how well an examinee did in absolute terms (e.g., how many questions he/she answered correctly) and, therefore, would be most useful for the purpose described in the question.
c. Incorrect Standard scores are a type of norm referenced score.
d. Incorrect Ipsative scores indicate the relative strengths of the different characteristics measured by a test for the individual and would be less useful than criterion-referenced scores for the purpose described in the question.
The correct answer is: criterion-referenced scores
