Physiological Psychology/Psychopharmacology - Domain Quiz Flashcards
1
Q
Hydrocephalus involves which of the following structures?
Select one:
a. cerebellum
b. brain stem
c. substantia nigra
d. cerebral ventricles
A
Hydrocephalus is one of several disorders that have been linked to ventricular abnormalities.
Answer D is correct: Hydrocephalus (“water head”) is caused by a build-up of cerebrospinal fluid in the cerebral ventricles.
The correct answer is: cerebral ventricles
2
Q
Memory loss associated with Alzheimer’s dementia has been most consistently linked to abnormal levels of which of the following neurotransmitters?
Select one:
a. epinephrine
b. norepinephrine
c. serotonin
d. acetylcholine
A
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the major functions and disorders associated with the neurotransmitters listed in the answers to this questions. This information is provided in the Physiological Psychology and Psychopharmacology chapter of the written study materials.
Answer D is correct: Acetylcholine (ACh) has been implicated in memory loss associated with Alzheimer’s dementia. More specifically, degeneration of cholinergic (ACh) cells in the entorhinal cortex and other areas that communicate directly with the hippocampus has been linked to this disorder.
The correct answer is: acetylcholine
3
Q
Regional cerebral blood flow (rCBF) serves as an index of neural activity when using which of the following techniques?
Select one:
a. EEG
b. PET
c. CT
d. MRI
A
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the techniques listed in the answers to this question.
Answer B is correct: Positron-emission tomography (PET) is a functional brain imaging technique that provides information on the functional activities of the brain (e.g., regional cerebral blood flow). CT and MRI are both structural techniques that provide information on the physical structure (rather than activity) of the brain. Additional information on these techniques is provided in the Physiological Psychology and Psychopharmacology chapter of the written study materials.
Answer A is incorrect: An electroencephalographic (EEG) provides information about electrical activity in the brain.
The correct answer is: PET
4
Q
Spinal cord injury at the sacral level will cause:
Select one:
a. loss of control of the fingers and hands.
b. loss of functioning in the arms and legs.
c. loss of functioning in the hips and legs.
d. poor trunk control.
A
The 31 pairs of spinal nerves are divided into five groups or regions. These are, from top to bottom:
CERVICAL (arms/legs - quad) (fingers/hands) THORACIC (or fingers/hands) (trunk) LUMBAR SACRAL (hips/legs) COCCYGEAL (trunk)
Answer C is correct: Damage at the sacral level causes a loss of functioning in the hips and legs. Knowing that the sacral nerves are near the bottom of the spinal cord would have helped you recognize this as the correct response.
Answer A is incorrect: Loss of control of the fingers and hands is caused by damage to a lower cervical nerve (C6 to C8) or to a combination of damage to a lower cervical nerve and T1 (the first thoracic nerve).
Answer B is incorrect: Quadriplegia (loss of functioning in the arms and legs) results from damage at the cervical level.
Answer D is incorrect: Loss of control of the trunk area is caused by damage at the thoracic level (especially T1 through T8).
The correct answer is: loss of functioning in the hips and legs.
5
Q
The all-or-none principle applies to which of the following?
Select one:
a. neurotransmitter re-uptake
b. action potential
c. neurogenesis
d. synaptogenesis
A
The neuron’s action potential operates on the all-or-none principle.
Answer B is correct: The all-or-none principle states that the magnitude of an action potential is independent of the intensity of the stimulation that produced it.
Answer A is incorrect: The all-or-none principle is not relevant to the re-uptake of neurotransmitters.
Answer C is incorrect: Neurogenesis refers to the creation of new neurons.
Answer D is incorrect: Synaptogenesis is the formation of synapses.
The correct answer is: action potential
6
Q
Which of the following is most likely to be useful for treating Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder?
Select one:
a. a drug that blocks the reuptake of serotonin
b. a drug that increases cholinergic activity
c. a drug that blocks the release of GABA
d. a drug that increases the availability of cortisol
A
Knowing that the SSRIs have been found effective for treating OCD would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
Answer A is correct: The SSRIs block the reuptake of serotonin at nerve synapses and have been found to be effective for treating a number of disorders including OCD.
The correct answer is: a drug that blocks the reuptake of serotonin
7
Q
All sensory systems except __________ have connections through the thalamus.
Select one:
a. touch
b. vision
c. audition
d. olfaction
A
The thalamus acts as a “relay station” for all of the senses except one.
Answer D is correct: Of the senses, only olfaction is not part of the thalamic relay system.
The correct answer is: olfaction
8
Q
A middle-aged man exhibits slurred speech, a lack of coordination, and tremors. If his symptoms are due to brain damage, the most likely location of the damage is the:
Select one:
a. hippocampus.
b. cerebellum.
c. parietal lobe.
d. medulla.
A
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the functions of all of the structures listed in the answers to this question. Additional information about these structures is provided in the Physiological Psychology and Psychopharmacology chapter of the written study materials.
Answer B is correct: The cerebellum is important for coordination, posture, and balance, and damage can result in ataxia which involves the symptoms listed in this question.
Answer A is incorrect: The hippocampus is involved in learning and memory.
Answer C is incorrect: The parietal lobe contains the somatosensory cortex and is involved in pressure, temperature, pain, proprioception, and gustation.
Answer D is incorrect: The medulla is a hindbrain structure that influences the flow of information between the spinal cord and the brain.
The correct answer is: cerebellum.
9
Q
An adult with damage to his hippocampus can be expected to:
Select one:
a. experience episodes of unprovoked aggressiveness and rage.
b. forget events that occur after the accident that caused the damage.
c. have trouble falling asleep at night.
d. exhibit “pseudodepression.”
A
Knowing that the hippocampus is involved in learning and memory would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
Answer B is correct: The hippocampus is responsible for memory consolidation, and damage produces impairments in the ability to transfer information from short- to long-term memory.
The correct answer is: forget events that occur after the accident that caused the damage.
10
Q
A split-brain patient is staring straight ahead when the word “headband” is flashed directly in front of her. The woman will most likely report seeing which of the following?
Select one:
a. headband
b. head
c. band
d. bandhead
A
Split-brain patients are individuals whose corpus callosums have been severed as a treatment for epilepsy.
Answer C is correct: Because her corpus callosum has been severed, the woman will only be able to verbally state what was directly perceived by her left hemisphere, which is what was in the right visual field of both eyes – i.e., the word “band.” (Since most people are left-hemisphere dominant for language, you can assume that this would be the most likely outcome.)
The correct answer is: band
11
Q
Damage to the prefrontal cortex is most likely to produce deficits in:
Select one:
a. visual processing.
b. executive cognitive functions.
c. the ability to comprehend speech.
d. fine motor coordination.
A
The prefrontal cortex is located in the frontal lobe and is involved in a variety of complex behaviors.
Answer B is correct: In addition to mediating higher-order (executive) cognitive functions, the prefrontal cortex is involved in emotion, memory, attention, and self-awareness.
The correct answer is: executive cognitive functions.
12
Q
Damage to which of the following would most likely result in impairments in the organization and coordination of voluntary motor responses?
Select one:
a. mammillary bodies
b. suprachiasmatic nucleus
c. cingulate gyrus
d. basal ganglia
A
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the functions associated with each of the structures listed in the answers to this question.
Answer D is correct: The basal ganglia include the caudate nucleus, putamen, globus pallidus, and substantia nigra. These structures play an important role in planning, organizing, and coordinating voluntary movement.
Answer A is incorrect: The mammillary bodies are part of the hypothalamus and are involved in learning and memory. Damage can result in anterograde amnesia.
Answer B is incorrect: The suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) is also part of the hypothalamus and mediates the sleep-wake cycle and other circadian rhythms.
Answer C is incorrect: The cingulate gyrus is part of the limbic system and is involved in the regulation of aggressive behavior and the coordination of sensory input with emotions, including emotional responses to pain.
The correct answer is: basal ganglia
13
Q
Following a head injury, a women exhibits dressing apraxia and tactile agnosia and doesn’t comb the hair on the left side of her head. Which area of her brain has most likely been damaged?
Select one:
a. frontal lobe
b. parietal lobe
c. temporal lobe
d. occipital lobe
A
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the consequences of damage to the four lobes of the cerebral cortex that are described in the Physiological Psychology and Psychopharmacology chapter of the written study materials.
Answer B is correct: Tactile agnosia, contralateral neglect, and some types of apraxia are caused by damage to certain areas of the parietal lobe.
The correct answer is: parietal lobe
14
Q
Following a stroke, a woman is unable to recognize the faces of her relatives and her two pet dogs as well as her own face in the mirror. This condition is referred to as:
Select one:
a. apraxia.
b. psychic blindness.
c. prosopagnosia.
d. anosognosia.
A
The symptoms described in this question are caused by damage at the junction of the occipital, temporal, and parietal lobes.
Answer C is correct: Prosopagnosia is the inability to recognize familiar faces.
Answer A is incorrect: Apraxia is the inability to perform skilled motor movements in the absence of impaired motor functioning.
Answer B is incorrect: Psychic blindness is an inability to recognize the meaning or significance of objects or events.
Answer D is incorrect: Anosognosia is the inability to recognize one’s own neurological symptoms.
The correct answer is: prosopagnosia.
15
Q
Research conducted in the 1930s found that ablation of the anterior temporal lobes in male rhesus monkeys produced a variety of symptoms including hypersexuality, placidity, oral tendencies, and psychic blindness. This condition is known as __________ syndrome.
Select one:
a. Kluver-Bucy
b. Gerstmann’s
c. Grave’s
d. Wernicke-Korsakoff
A
For the exam, you want to be familar with the causes and symptoms of the four disorders listed in the answers to this question. Additional information about them is provided in the Physiological Psychology and Psychopharmacology chapter of the written study materials.
Answer A is correct: The symptoms described in this question are characteristic of Kluver-Bucy syndrome.
Answer B is incorrect: Gerstmann’s syndrome is due to damage to the left parietal lobe.
Answer C is incorrect: Grave’s disease is another name for hyperthyroidism.
Answer D is incorrect: Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome is due to atrophy of neurons in certain areas of the thalamus and is believed to be due to a thiamine deficiency.
The correct answer is: Kluver-Bucy
16
Q
The body’s circadian rhythms are controlled by the:
Select one:
a. suprachiasmatic nucleus.
b. caudate nucleus.
c. basal ganglia.
d. hippocampus.
A
Circadian rhythms are bodily functions that fluctuate in a predictable way about every 24 hours.
Answer A is correct: The suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) is part of the hypothalamus and acts as the body’s “biological clock” and is responsible for many of the body’s circadian rhythms.
The correct answer is: suprachiasmatic nucleus.
17
Q
The corpus callosum is:
Select one:
a. a highly convoluted structure located in the hindbrain.
b. a midbrain structure that mediates vision.
c. a bundle of fibers that connects Wernicke’s and Broca’s areas.
d. a bundle of fibers that connects the right and left hemispheres.
A
The right and left hemispheres of the brain are connected by several bundles of fibers.
Answer D is correct: The corpus callosum is the largest bundle of fibers that connects the two hemispheres and allows information sent directly to one hemisphere to be shared with the other hemisphere.
The correct answer is: a bundle of fibers that connects the right and left hemispheres.
18
Q
Which of the following structures is part of the hindbrain?
Select one:
a. reticular formation
b. hypothalamus
c. medulla oblongata
d. cingulate cortex
A
The hindbrain is located behind the midbrain.
Answer C is correct: The hindbrain consists of the medulla (which is also known as the medulla oblongata), the pons, and the cerebellum.
Answer A is incorrect: The reticular formation is one of the midbrain structures.
Answer B is incorrect: The hypothalamus is a forebrain structure.
Answer D is incorrect: The cingulate cortex is part of the limbic system, which is located in the forebrain.
The correct answer is: medulla oblongata
19
Q
According to __________, sensation is an exponential function of stimulus intensity.
Select one:
a. Steven’s Power Law
b. Weber’s Law
c. Fechner’s Law
d. Thorndike’s Law of Effect
A
Steven’s Power Law, Weber’s Law, and Fechner’s Law are three psychophysical laws that you want to be familiar with for the licensing exam.
Answer A is correct: Stevens’s investigations into sensation and perception led to his description of sensation as an EXPONENTIAL FUNCTION of stimulus intensity.
Answer B is incorrect: Weber’s Law states that, the MORE INTENSE THE STIMULUS, the GEATER THE INCREASE IN STIMULUS INTENSITY NEEDED for the increase to produce a just noticeable difference in stimulus intensity.
Answer C is incorrect: Fechner’s Law states that physical stimulus changes are LOGARITHMICALLY RELATED to their psychological sensations.
Answer D is incorrect: Thorndike’s Law of Effect is not a psychophysical law.
The correct answer is: Steven’s Power Law
20
Q
A man is exhibiting synesthesia when he says that he:
Select one:
a. cannot perceive pain.
b. cannot identify people by their physical appearance.
c. experiences different musical notes as different colors.
d. experiences blackouts whenever he hears certain words.
A
In the situation described in this question, the stimulation of one sensory modality triggers a sensation in another sensory modality. This is referred to as synesthesia.
Answer C is correct: Experiencing sounds as colors is one type of synesthesia.
The correct answer is: experiences different musical notes as different colors.
21
Q
Gate control theory is useful for:
Select one:
a. identifying methods for controlling pain.
b. explaining color vision.
c. understanding why it is difficult to acquire a second language.
d. understanding the mechanisms underlying depth perception.
A
As long as you have gate control theory associated with pain, it would have been easy to identify the correct answer to this question.
Answer A is correct: According to gate control theory, stimulation of certain nerves in the skin or brain can inhibit the transmission of pain messages in other nerves.
The correct answer is: identifying methods for controlling pain.
22
Q
Negative afterimages provide support for which of the following?
Select one:
a. trichromatic theory
b. opponent-process theory
c. gate control theory
d. place theory
A
A negative afterimage involves seeing an image of an object in its complementary (opponent) color after staring at the object for a period of time and then looking at a neutral background.
Answer B is correct: Opponent-process theory distinguishes between three types of bipolar receptors – red-green, yellow-blue, and white-black. The presence of afterimages supports this theory.
Answer A is incorrect: Trichromatic theory distinguishes between three types of color receptors – red, blue, and green.
Answer C is incorrect: Gate control theory is a theory of pain perception.
Answer D is incorrect: Place theory is a theory of pitch perception.
The correct answer is: opponent-process theory
23
Q
Retinal disparity helps explain:
Select one:
a. depth perception for objects that are far away.
b. depth perception for objects that are close.
c. the ability to see objects in the periphery of our vision.
d. the ability to see objects directly in front of us.
A
Depth perception depends on a combination of binocular and monocular cues.
Answer B is correct: Binocular cues are responsible for depth perception for OBJECTS AT CLOSE DISTANCES and include convergence and retinal disparity. Additional information on depth perception is provided in the Physiological Psychology and Psychopharmacology chapter of the written study materials.
Answer A is incorrect: Monocular cues contribute to depth perception for OBJECTS AT A DISTANCE and include the relative size of objects, the overlap of objects, and linear and atmospheric perspective.
Answer C is incorrect: See explanation for Answer B.
Answer D is incorrect: See explanation for Answer B.
The correct answer is: depth perception for objects that are close.
24
Q
A researcher investigating the chemical correlates of memory would be most likely to find that administration of which of the following would improve memory consolidation in older adults?
Select one:
a. LGN
b. THC
c. RNA
d. GABA
A
Older adults with severe memory impairments have been found to exhibit a significant improvement in memory consolidation following administration of yeast RNA (Cameron, 1958). Although this research result has not always been replicated in humans, it has been consistently found in animals.
Answer C is correct: As noted above, there is evidence that RNA is associated with memory consolidation.
Answer A is incorrect: This is the abbreviation for the lateral geniculate nucleus in the brain.
Answer B is incorrect: THC, the active ingredient in marijuana, has not been found to improve memory.
Answer D is incorrect: GABA, an inhibitory neurotransmitter found in the central nervous system, has not been linked with improved memory.
The correct answer is: RNA
25
Difficulty repeating words, phrases, or sentences uttered by another person is characteristic of all of the following types of aphasia except:
Select one:
a. Broca's aphasia.
b. Wernicke's aphasia.
c. transcortical aphasia.
d. conduction aphasia.
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the similarities and differences of the types of aphasia listed in the answers to this question.
Answer C is correct: Transcortical aphasia is distinguished from the other types of aphasia by an unimpaired ability to repeat words, phrases, or sentences spoken by another person. Information about the major types of aphasia is provided in the Physiological Psychology and Psychopharmacology chapter of the written study materials.
The correct answer is: transcortical aphasia.
26
H.M. underwent a bilateral medial temporal lobectomy as treatment for severe epilepsy. Following the surgery, H.M. exhibited which of the following?
Select one:
a. expressive aphasia
b. receptive aphasia
c. impairments in recent long-term memory
d. impairments in remote long-term memory
Following surgery, H.M. exhibited a number of memory impairments.
Answer C is correct: Although H.M.'s short-term and remote long-term memory were intact, he was unable to form new long-term memories and had trouble remembering events that occurred a few years prior to the surgery.
The correct answer is: impairments in recent long-term memory.
27
Long-term potentiation (LTP) is believed to underlie:
Select one:
a. the sleep or wake cycle.
b. the experience of emotion.
c. motor coordination.
d. learning and memory.
Long-term potentiation refers to the greater responsivity of a postsynaptic neuron to low-intensity stimulation by a presynaptic neuron for a period of time after it has been barraged by high-frequency stimulation.
Answer D is correct: Long-term potentiation has been observed in the hippocampus, which is involved in memory consolidation.
The correct answer is: learning and memory.
28
Wernicke's aphasia involves:
Select one:
a. fluent output, impaired repetition, intact comprehension.
b. nonfluent output, disturbed repetition, abnormal comprehension.
c. nonfluent output, poor repetition, intact comprehension.
d. fluent output, impaired repetition, poor comprehension
The term "aphasia" refers to a loss of language functioning as the result of brain impairment.
Answer D is correct: Fluent speech that is devoid of content, impaired repetition, and poor comprehension of written and spoken language are symptoms of Wernicke's aphasia. Additional information about the types of aphasia is provided in the Physiological Psychology and Psychopharmacology chapter of the written study materials.
Answer A is incorrect: This describes conduction aphasia. [FLUENT OUTPUT, IMPAIRED REPETITION, INTACT COMPREHENSION]
Answer B is incorrect: This describes global aphasia. [NONFLUENT OUTPUT, DISTURBED REPETITION, ABNORMAL COMPREHENSION]
Answer C is incorrect These symptoms are characteristic of Broca's aphasia. [NONFLUENT OUTPUT, POOR REPETITION, INTACT COMPREHENSION]
The correct answer is: fluent output, impaired repetition, poor comprehension
29
A change in facial expression can actually produce a change in affect. This is predicted by which of the following theories?
Select one:
a. Cannon-Bard
b. James-Lange
c. Schachter-Singer
d. Seinfeld-Kramer
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the major assumptions of the three theories of emotion listed in Answers A, B, and C. Information about these theories is provided in the Physiological Psychology and Psychopharmacology chapter of the written study materials.
Answer B is correct: The James-Lange theory is a peripheralist theory that predicts that emotions represent perceptions of bodily reactions to sensory stimuli -- in other words, "I'm happy because I'm smiling."
The correct answer is: James-Lange
30
Lazarus's (1991) cognitive appraisal theory describes ____________ as involving an evaluation of a situation as irrelevant, positive-benign, or stressful.
Select one:
a. primary appraisal
b. secondary appraisal
c. tertiary appraisal
d. re-appraisal
Lazarus's theory distinguishes between three types of appraisal -- primary appraisal, secondary appraisal, and re-appraisal.
Answer A is correct: PRIMARY APPRAISAL is the individual's initial appraisal of an event as irrelevant, positive-benign, or stressful with regard to his or her own well-being.
Answer B is incorrect: SECONDARY APPRAISAL is the person's evaluation of the resources he or she has to cope with the event.
Answer C is incorrect: Tertiary appraisal is not included in Lazarus's theory.
Answer D is incorrect: RE-APPRAISAL occurs when the person monitors the situation and, as necessary, alters his or her previous appraisals.
The correct answer is: primary appraisal
31
Lesions to the right (non-dominant) hemisphere would most likely produce:
Select one:
a. ataxia.
b. coma.
c. catastrophic reactions.
d. indifference or euphoria.
The two hemispheres play somewhat different roles in the regulation of emotion.
Answer D is correct: Areas in the right hemisphere mediate negative emotions, and damage to these areas can produce indifference, apathy, or undue cheerfulness.
Answer A is incorrect: See explanation for Answer D.
Answer B is incorrect: See explanation for Answer D.
Answer C is incorrect: Areas in the left hemisphere govern happiness and other positive emotions, and damage to these areas can produce severe depression, anxiety, or other catastrophic reactions.
The correct answer is: indifference or euphoria
32
Selye's "general adaptation syndrome" (GAS) involves which of the following phases?
Select one:
a. alarm, resistance, exhaustion
b. denial, alarm, resolution
c. alarm, resistance, resolution
d. dissociation, realization, acceptance
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the stages of the GAS and the characteristics of each stage. This information is provided in the Physiological Psychology and Psychopharmacology chapter of the written study materials.
Answer A is correct: According to Selye, the response to stress is basically the same regardless of the nature of the stress and involves three stages -- alarm, resistance, and exhaustion.
A
R
E
The correct answer is: alarm, resistance, exhaustion
33
The ________ plays a key role in the attachment of emotions to memory.
Select one:
a. substantia nigra
b. thalamus
c. medulla oblongata
d. amygdala
Knowing that the structures of the limbic system are involved in the mediation of emotion would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
Answer D is correct: The amygdala is part of the limbic system. It integrates, coordinates, and directs emotional activities, attaches emotions to memories, and is involved in the recall of emotionally charged experiences.
The correct answer is: amygdala
34
Alpha waves are replaced by theta waves during ________ sleep.
Select one:
a. stage 1
b. stage 2
c. stage 3
d. stage 4
Sleep is divided into five stages on the basis of the EEG pattern: Stages 1 through 4 and REM.
Answer A is correct: Immediately before falling asleep a person is in a state of drowsiness that is characterized by alpha waves. Then, during stage 1 sleep, alpha waves are replaced by theta waves. Information on the EEG patterns and other characteristics associated with the five stages of sleep is provided in the Physiological Psychology and Psychopharmacology chapter of the written study materials.
The correct answer is: stage 1
35
As a treatment for the unpleasant symptoms associated with menopause, hormone replacement therapy (HRT) ordinarily targets which of the following?
Select one:
a. estrogen only or estrogen plus progesterone
b. estrogen only or estrogen plus testosterone
c. estrogen plus androstenedione
d. progesterone plus androstenedione
Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is prescribed as a treatment for hot flashes, night sweats, vaginal dryness, and other undesirable symptoms associated with menopause.
Answer A is correct: There are two major types of HRT -- estrogen only or estrogen plus progesterone. (Although testosterone is sometimes included, this is relatively rare and done only when estrogen and progesterone have not adequately alleviated symptoms.)
The correct answer is: estrogen only or estrogen plus progesterone
36
In comparison to young children, older adults:
Select one:
a. are more likely to begin the sleep period with REM sleep.
b. spend a greater proportion of the sleep period in Stage 4 sleep.
c. spend a smaller proportion of the sleep period in REM sleep.
d. all of the above.
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the major differences in sleep patterns over the lifespan.
Answer C is correct: During the first two to three months of life, infants begin a sleep period with REM sleep, which then gradually changes to NREM sleep. This sequence subsequently reverses. In addition, total sleep time, stage 4 sleep, and REM sleep all decrease from childhood to adulthood.
The correct answer is: spend a smaller proportion of the sleep period in REM sleep.
37
Sexual dimorphism refers to:
Select one:
a. differences in sexual orientation.
b. differences in the sexual response cycle.
c. sex-related differences in physical appearance.
d. sex-related differences in sex hormones.
The term "sexually dimorphic" was originally used by Darwin to describe species in which males and females look different and is now more generally used to refer to sex-related differences in physical appearance.
Answer C is correct: Human males and females differ in terms of physical appearance in a number of ways, and recent studies have confirmed that differences are also apparent in certain structures of the brain including the corpus callosum, hippocampus, and SCN.
The correct answer is: sex-related differences in physical appearance.
38
The development of the secondary sex characteristics occurs when the __________ secretes chemicals that stimulate the pituitary gland which, in turn, releases the gonadotropic hormones.
Select one:
a. hypothalamus
b. thalamus
c. putamen
d. substantia nigra
The hypothalamus is part of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis.
Answer A is correct: At puberty, an increase in gonadal hormones influences the emergence of the secondary sex characteristics, and this is mediated by activity in the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis.
The correct answer is: hypothalamus
39
A(n) ________ seizure affects movement and sensation on one side of the body without a loss of consciousness.
Select one:
a. absence
b. clonic
c. complex partial
d. simple partial
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the types of seizures listed in the answers to this question. These are described in the Physiological Psychology and Psychopharmacology chapter of the written study materials.
Answer D is correct: Simple partial seizures affect one side of the body (at least initially) and do not involve a loss of consciousness.
The correct answer is: simple partial
40
As the result of a closed-head injury caused by a skateboard accident, a 19-year-old loses her ability to recall events that occurred during the two years prior to the injury. When her memories begin to return, she is most likely to recall which of the following first?
Select one:
a. the events that caused the accident
b. the events that occurred several hours before the accident
c. the fight she had with her boyfriend one month before the accident
d. the trip she took with her family 18 months before the accident
The pattern of memory recovery following a traumatic brain injury is referred to as "shrinking retrograde amnesia."
Answer D is correct: For TBI patients with retrograde amnesia, the most remote memories are the first to return.
The correct answer is: the trip she took with her family 18 months before the accident
41
A stroke involving the middle cerebral artery and affecting the dominant (left) hemisphere is most likely to cause which of the following?
Select one:
a. contralateral visual field loss and visual agnosia
b. contralateral hemianesthesia and aphasia
c. contralateral hemiplegia and impaired judgment and insight
d. contralateral visual field loss and memory impairment
The symptoms of stroke depend on the artery and hemisphere of the brain affected and are summarized in the section on neurological, psychophysiological, and endocrine disorders in the Physiological Psychology and Psychopharmacology chapter of the written study materials.
Answer B is correct: A stroke involving the middle cerebral artery may produce contralateral hemiplegia and hemianesthesia, contralateral visual field loss, and, when the dominant hemisphere is affected, aphasia.
The correct answer is: contralateral hemianesthesia and aphasia
42
A young woman says that she always feels cold, is frequently depressed and has trouble concentrating, is lethargic and has lost interest in sex, and has gained weight even though she doesn't eat much. These symptoms are most suggestive of which of the following endocrine disorders?
Select one:
a. diabetes insipidus
b. hypothyroidism
c. hypoglycemia
d. Grave's disease
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the symptoms of the endocrine disorders listed in the answers to this question.
Answer B is correct: Hypothyroidism is caused by hyposecretion of thyroxine and is associated with the symptoms listed in this question.
Answer A is incorrect: Diabetes insipidus is caused by hyposecretion of antidiuretic hormone and produces excessive urination.
Answer C is incorrect: Hypoglycemia is caused by excessive insulin which produces low blood glucose and produces hunger, dizziness, blurred vision, anxiety, and depression.
Answer D is incorrect: Grave's disease is another name for hyperthyroidism, which is caused by hypersecretion of thyroxin and is associated with an elevated body temperature, increased appetite with weight loss, emotional lability, and reduced attention span.
The correct answer is: hypothyroidism
43
For many patients with mild traumatic brain injury, the greatest amount of recovery occurs during the first ________ following the injury.
Select one:
a. 3 weeks
b. 3 months
c. 6 months
d. 9 months
Recovery from a mild traumatic brain injury (TBI) depends on several factors and, therefore, varies from person to person. However, some generalizations can be made.
Answer B is correct: For the majority of individuals with mild TBI, the greatest amount of recovery occurs during the first three months following the injury.
The correct answer is: 3 months
44
Quantitative genetic methods are used to determine the ________ of genetic and environmental dynamics, while molecular genetic methods are used to classify ________ responsible for genetic influence.
Select one:
a. net effect; certain genes
b. difference; methods
c. animal models; complex traits
d. research; mutations
Answer A is correct: Quantitative genetic methods are used when the goal is to determine the net effect of genetic and environmental dynamics on differences in intricate traits. Molecular genetic methods identify which specific genes are responsible for genetic influence.
The correct answer is: net effect; certain genes
45
Research on symptoms associated with Parkinson's disease suggests that depression:
Select one:
a. is a very rare symptom that occurs in less than 10% of patients.
b. is part of a patient's reaction to the disease and most often develops shortly after the diagnosis is confirmed.
c. may be endogeneous to the disease rather than just a reaction to it.
d. is a late-occuring symptom that signals the onset of dementia.
In about 20% of individuals with Parkinson's disease, depression precedes motor symptoms; and up to 50% experience prominent depressive symptoms at some time during their illness.
Answer C is correct: The fact that some patients with this disorder experience depression as an initial symptoms suggests that it may be endogenous to the disorder (i.e, is part of the pathology of the disease and not just a reaction to it.)
Answer A is incorrect: Depression is not a "very rare" symptom for patients with Parkinson's disease.
Answer B is incorrect: See explanations for Answer C.
Answer B is incorrect: See explanations for Answer C.
The correct answer is: may be endogeneous to the disease rather than just a reaction to it.
46
A 72-year-old man is prescribed lithium for Bipolar Disorder. In terms of side effects, the man can most likely expect which of the following?
Select one:
a. shuffling gait
b. visual disturbances
c. shortness of breath
d. fine hand tremor
Common side effects of lithium include gastrointestinal symptoms, fine hand tremor and shakiness, fatigue, restlessness, polyuria, and polydipsia.
Answer D is correct: Fine hand tremor is a common side effect of lithium, especially for older adults.
The correct answer is: fine hand tremor
47
A(n) __________ does not produce a response on its own but interferes with or prevents the action of a neurotransmitter.
Select one:
a. agonist
b. inverse agonist
c. partial agonist
d. antagonist
The terms agonist and antagonist are used to describe the effects of psychoactive drugs.
Answer D is correct: An antagonist produces no activity in a nerve cell on its own but, instead, reduces or blocks the effects of a neurotransmitter or agonist.
Answer A is incorrect: An agonist produces effects similar to those produced by a neurotransmitter.
Answer B is incorrect: An inverse agonist produces an effect opposite to the effect produced by a neurotransmitter or an agonist.
Answer C is incorrect: A partial agonist produces an effect that is similar (but not identical) to the effect produced by a neurotransmitter or agonist.
The correct answer is: antagonist
48
Drugs that block the activity of __________ produce dry mouth, blurred vision, postural hypotension, urinary retention, and tachycardia.
Select one:
a. 5-HT
b. glycine
c. ACh
d. glutamate
Dry mouth, blurred vision, postural hypotension, urinary retention, and tachycardia are anticholinergic effects.
Answer C is correct: ACh (acetylcholine) is one of the neurotransmitters classified as "cholinergic." Drugs that block ACh activity produce anticholinergic effects.
The correct answer is: ACh
49
In comparison to the tricyclics, fluoxetine and other SSRIs:
Select one:
a. are more likely to cause cognitive impairment.
b. are less cardiotoxic.
c. have a slower onset of therapeutic effects.
d. all of the above.
Overall, the SSRIs are associated with fewer side effects than the tricyclics.
Answer B is correct: An important advantage of the SSRIs is that they are less cardiotoxic than the tricyclics.
Answer A is incorrect: The SSRIS are LESS likely to cause cognitive impairment.
Answer C is incorrect: The SSRIs have a SLIGHTLY MORE RAPID ONSET of therapeutic effects, although both can produce an improvement in symptoms within two to four weeks.
Answer D is incorrect: Only Answer B is true.
The correct answer is: are less cardiotoxic.
50
The atypical neuroleptic clozapine (Clozaril):
Select one:
a. has a slower (longer) onset of therapeutic effects than the traditional neuroleptics do.
b. is less effective than the traditional neuroleptics for negative symptoms.
c. is more likely than the traditional neuroleptics to produce tardive dyskinesia.
d. does not produce anticholinergic side effects.
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the differences between the traditional and atypical neuroleptic (antipsychotic) drugs. These are described in the Physiological Psychology and Psychopharmacology chapter of the written study materials.
Answer A is correct: A disadvantage of Clozapine and other atypical neuroleptics is that they have a slower onset of therapeutic effects than the traditional neuroleptics.
Answer B is incorrect: An advantage of the atypical drugs is that they alleviate both the positive and negative symptoms of Schizophrenia.
Answer C is incorrect: The atypical drugs are less likely to produce tardive dyskinesia.
Answer D is incorrect: Anticholinergic side effects are common for the atypical neuroleptics.
The correct answer is: has a slower (longer) onset of therapeutic effects than the traditional neuroleptics do.
51
Therapeutic drug monitoring relies on measuring specific drugs to maintain a concentration in the patient's bloodstream for what purpose?
Select one:
a. Prevent individuals with substance use disorders from overdosing on illicit substances
b. Optimize dosage regimens
c. Reduce undesired side-effects of medications
d. Identify chromosomal abnormalities that may be affected by specific drugs
Answer B is correct: Therapeutic drug monitoring (TDM) operates on the assumption that there is a connection between the concentration of a drug in a patient's bloodstream and the therapeutic effects that patient experiences. Answers A and C may occur as a result of TDM, but it is not the main goal. Identifying chromosomal abnormalities (Answer D) would occur through genetic testing, not TDM.
The correct answer is: Optimize dosage regimens
52
Unilateral damage to the left (dominant) hemisphere is least likely to result in an inability to:
Select one:
A. memorize vocabulary words.
B. construct a daily schedule.
C. read a map.
D. use the process of elimination to answer multiple-choice questions.
Although the two hemispheres of the cerebral cortex play a role in most behaviors, each hemisphere specializes with regard to certain functions. For most people language, math, and analytical thinking are left hemisphere functions, while the understanding of spatial relations, creativity, intuitive thinking, and the ability to recognize faces are right hemisphere functions.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Of the activities listed in the answers, the ability to read a map would most likely be impaired by damage to the right hemisphere. In contrast, damage to the left hemisphere would have the effects listed in answers a, b, and d.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: read a map.
53
Soon after starting to take an antidepressant, a young woman develops several undesirable side effects including dry mouth, urinary retention, constipation, and blurred vision. Which of the following would be most useful for alleviating these symptoms?
Select one:
A. caffeine
B. antihistamine
C. dopamine agonist
D. cholinergic agonist
The woman's symptoms are anticholinergic side effects that are caused by the antidepressant drug's interference with acetylcholine activity.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Cholinergic agonists (e.g., bethanechol) increase acetylcholine activity by enhancing the activity of endogenous acetylcholine or by binding to and activating acetylcholine receptors. A cholinergic agonist would help alleviate the woman's anticholinergic side effects.
The correct answer is: cholinergic agonist
54
The neurotransmitter acetylcholine:
Select one:
A. is involved in voluntary movements.
B. decreases alertness and increases the duration of sleep.
C. is implicated in the development of the psychotic disorders.
D. is involved in the control of pain.
Acetylcholine (ACh) has been linked to several functions including control of skeletal and smooth muscles, learning and memory, and the activities of the parasympathetic nervous system.
a. CORRECT The skeletal muscles, which are involved in voluntary movement, are activated by the release of ACh by motor neurons.
b. Incorrect Alterness and the duration of sleep are affected by serotonin levels.
c. Incorrect Dopamine plays a role in the development of psychotic disorders.
d. Incorrect The endorphins are involved in the control of pain.
The correct answer is: is involved in voluntary movements.
55
When taken by an older adult as a treatment for Bipolar Disorder, lithium is most likely to produce which of the following side effects?
Select one:
A. fine hand tremor, polyuria, and confusion
B. elevated blood pressure and tachycardia
C. nausea, appetite loss, and headache
D. confusion, memory loss, and ataxia
As a general rule, older adults are more susceptible than younger adults to the therapeutic and side effects of many drugs.
a. CORRECT Relatively low doses of lithium can produce these side effects in older adults.
b. Incorrect Stimulant drugs are associated with the side effects listed in this answer.
c. Incorrect These are side effects of the SSRIs.
d. Incorrect These are common side effects of the benzodiazepines.
The correct answer is: fine hand tremor, polyuria, and confusion
56
In terms of total sleep time, the proportion of Stage 4 sleep in adulthood:
Select one:
A. increases from early to late adulthood.
B. decreases until middle age (about age 45) and thereafter stabilizes.
C. remains stable until late adulthood (age 70) and thereafter increases.
D. decreases from early to late adulthood.
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the predictable age-related changes in sleep patterns that are described in the Physiological Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Stages 3 and 4 (especially Stage 4) sleep show a gradual decline over the lifespan, with older adults spending most of their sleep time in Stages 1 and 2 sleep.
The correct answer is: decreases from early to late adulthood.
57
Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
Select one:
A. migraine headache: unilateral throbbing pain, nausea, irritability, and pain that worsens with routine physical activity
B. cluster headache: dull throbbing pain that begins with an aura and is exacerbated by bright light
C. tension headache: bilateral steady dull pain and a feeling of tightness in the head that may be accompanied by sleep disturbances and impaired concentration
D. sinus headache: throbbing pain that is localized around the eyes and is made worse by bending over
The various types of headache listed in the answers involve different symptoms. Note that this question is asking which type of headache is described incorrectly.
a. Incorrect This accurately describes a migraine headache.
b. CORRECT A cluster headache is characterized by sharp, penetrating, or burning pain behind the eye or in the temple, a stuffy or runny nose, and a red, flushed face.
c. Incorrect This accurately describes a tension headache.
d. Incorrect This accurately describes a sinus headache.
The correct answer is: cluster headache: dull throbbing pain that begins with an aura and is exacerbated by bright light
58
The benzodiazepines exert their therapeutic effects by:
Select one:
A. decreasing GABA levels.
B. increasing GABA activity.
C. decreasing ACh levels.
D. increasing ACh activity
Knowing that GABA is an inhibitory neurotransmitter and that the benzodiazepines are anti-anxiety drugs would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT The benzodiazepines enhance the efficiency of GABA activity at receptor sites and thereby decrease anxiety and enhance sleep.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: increasing GABA activity.
59
Nausea, stomach cramps, excessive thirstiness, increased frequency of urination, muscle weakness, impaired memory, fine hand tremor, and weight gain are side effects most associated with which of the following?
Select one:
A. lithium
B. carbamazepine
C. methylphenidate
D. fluoxetine
Unfortunately, some of the symptoms included in the question are side effects of more than one of the drugs listed in the answers, which makes this a difficult question.
a. CORRECT The symptoms given in the question are potential side effects of lithium, which is used to treat Bipolar Disorder.
b. Incorrect Carbamazepine (Tegretol), an anticonvulsant, is also used to treat Bipolar Disorder. However, its common side effects include dizziness, drowsiness, nausea and vomiting, headache, and ataxia.
c. Incorrect Methylphenidate, a CNS stimulant, is associated with insomnia, reduced appetite, nervousness, tremor, and cardiac arrhythmias.
d. Incorrect Nausea, appetite loss, anxiety, tremor, dry mouth, sweating, tiredness or weakness, and disturbances in sexuality are common side effects of fluoxetine and other SSRIs.
The correct answer is: lithium
60
Papez's circuit is a network of nerves that mediates:
Select one:
A. the expression of emotion.
B. the immune system's reaction to stress.
C. the emergence of secondary sex characteristics during puberty.
D. the attachment of emotion to memories.
Papez (1937) was among the first researchers to identify the neural structures that control emotional expression.
a. CORRECT Included in Papez's circuit are the hippocampus, mammillary bodies, thalamus, amygdala, and cingulate gyrus.
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: the expression of emotion.
61
As the result of a head injury sustained in a car accident, a young woman exhibits retrograde amnesia. Once her memories begin to return, which of the following is likely to be recovered first?
Select one:
A. memory for events that occurred several weeks before the accident
B. memory for events that occurred during the hour before the accident
C. memory for events related to the accident
D. memory for events that occurred after the accident
The pattern of memory impairment and recovery following head injury was originally described by Ribot in 1882.
a. CORRECT Recent memories (including memory for the traumatic event) are most susceptible to disruption as the result of trauma. Remote memories are less affected and, when they are lost, are ordinarily the first to be recovered.
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: memory for events that occurred several weeks before the accident
62
The _____________ predicts that the size of an action potential is independent of the intensity of the stimulus that initiated it.
Select one:
A. all-or-none principle
B. rate law
C. principle of equipotentiality
D. doctrine of specific nerve energies
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the basic properties of the neuron, which are described in the Physiological Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
a. CORRECT According to the all-or-none principle, as long as a nerve cell receives the minimal degree of stimulation required to trigger an action potential, the action potential is the same size regardless of the amount of stimulation.
b. Incorrect The rate law predicts that variations in the intensity of a stimulus are coded by the frequency of the axon's firing - i.e., the more intense the stimulus, the greater the rate of responding.
c. Incorrect The principle (law) of equipotentiality proposes that, when an area of the cortex is damaged, other intact areas of the cortex can take over the functions of the damaged area.
d. Incorrect The doctrine of specific nerve energies predicts that each sensory neuron is sensitive to all forms of energy but always evokes the same sensation.
The correct answer is: all-or-none principle
63
An agonist drug exerts its effects by:
Select one:
A. blocking an endogenous neurotransmitters access to a receptor site.
B. exerting the opposite effect of an endogenous neurotransmitter.
C. facilitating the reuptake of an endogenous neurotransmitter.
D. mimicking the effect of an endogenous neurotransmitter at a receptor site.
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the actions of agonists, inverse agonists, partial agonists, and antagonists, which are described in the Physiological Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect This is one of the ways that an antagonist drug exerts its effects.
b. Incorrect This answer describes the action of an inverse agonist.
c. Incorrect This does not describe the action of an agonist drug.
d. CORRECT Agonists exert their effects by mimicking a neurotransmitter and thereby activating or stimulating receptor cells or by facilitating the action of a neurotransmitter at receptor sites.
The correct answer is: mimicking the effect of an endogenous neurotransmitter at a receptor site.
64
Prospective memory is the ability to remember to execute an intended act in the future and is believed to be supported by activity in which of the following areas of the brain?
Select one:
A. basal ganglia
B. corpus callosum
C. prefrontal cortex
D. reticular formation
A number of brain regions and structures are involved in learning and memory including the hippocampus, amygdala, thalamus, basal ganglia, and prefrontal cortex. Information on the specific roles of these structures is provided in the Physiological Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect The basal ganglia play a role in procedural and implicit memory.
b. Incorrect The corpus callosum has not been identified as a mediator of prospective memory.
c. CORRECT Areas in the prefrontal cortex play an important role in several aspects of memory including prospective, episodic, and working memory.
d. Incorrect The reticular formation is involved in several functions including respiration, posture, locomotion, and REM sleep, but it has not been linked to memory functions.
The correct answer is: prefrontal cortex
65
Results of Schachter and Singer's (1962) "epinephrine study" led them to conclude that a person's subjective emotional response to an event:
Select one:
A. is determined entirely by environmental cues.
B. is determined entirely by the persons physiological reaction to the event.
C. depends primarily on the simultaneous activation of certain peripheral and brain mechanisms.
D. depends on a combination of the persons physical reaction to and cognitive interpretation of the event.
Theories of emotion differ with regard to the degree to which they emphasize the role of peripheral and central factors.
a. Incorrect Schachter and Singer's theory recognizes the role of environmental factors in the experience of emotion but does not attribute emotion entirely to environmental cues.
b. Incorrect This sounds like the James-Lange theory of emotion which stresses the importance of peripheral factors.
c. Incorrect This sounds like the Cannon-Bard theory of emotions.
d. CORRECT According to Schachter and Singer's (1962) two-factor theory, subjective emotional experience is the consequence of a combination of physical arousal and cognitive interpretation of that arousal and the context in which it occurs.
The correct answer is: depends on a combination of the persons physical reaction to and cognitive interpretation of the event.
66
Damage to the temporal lobe is most likely to result in:
Select one:
A. contralateral neglect.
B. apraxia.
C. memory loss.
D. homonymous hemianopsia.
The temporal lobe plays an important role in several important functions including auditory sensation and perception, language comprehension, and long-term memory.
a. Incorrect Contralateral neglect is a possible consequence of parietal lobe damage.
b. Incorrect Apraxia is caused by damage to the parietal or frontal lobe.
c. CORRECT Damage to the dominant temporal lobe may cause verbal memory loss, while damage to the nondominant temporal lobe may produce nonverbal memory loss.
d. Incorrect This refers to loss of one-half of the visual field in each eye and is due to damage to the occipital lobe.
The correct answer is: memory loss.
67
Many psychoactive drugs produce __________ side effects such as dry mouth, blurred vision, urinary retention, constipation, decreased perspiration, and tachycardia.
Select one:
A. serotoninergic
B. cholinergic
C. anticholinergic
D. dopaminergic
Antipsychotics, antidepressants, and a number of other drugs produce the side effects listed in this question.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Anticholinergic side effects result when the amount of acetylcholine (ACh) in the central and peripheral nervous systems is reduced.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: anticholinergic
68
Long-term potentiation is believed to play a critical role in which of the following?
Select one:
A. emotional experience and expression
B. the production of language
C. sexual behavior
D. learning and memory
Long-term potentiation (LTP) is a physiological process that involves physical modification of nerve synapses, especially at glutamate receptors in the hippocampus.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT LTP is believed to play an important role in the synaptic changes that underlie learning and memory.
The correct answer is: learning and memory
69
During the night, the mother of an 8-month old baby sleeps soundly. Although street noise and the barking of the neighbor's dog do not awaken her, she immediately awakens to the sound of her baby's cries. The brain structure most responsible for this phenomenon is the:
Select one:
A. frontal lobe.
B. ARAS.
C. hippocampus.
D. substantia nigra.
Knowing that ARAS stands for "ascending reticular activating system" may have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
a. Incorrect Areas of the frontal lobe are involved in emotion, language, memory, and higher-order cognitive abilities.
b. CORRECT The ARAS acts as a "sensory screening system" that arouses the brain whenever important information must be processed.
c. Incorrect The hippocampus plays an important role in memory consolidation.
d. Incorrect The substantia nigra is part of the basal ganglia and is involved in movement and certain types of learning. Abnormalities in the substantia nigra have been linked to Parkinson's disease, Schizophrenia, and epilepsy.
The correct answer is: ARAS.
70
Damage to the reticular activating system is most likely to cause which of the following?
Select one:
A. deficits in explicit memory
B. disruptions in the sleep-wake cycle
C. impaired balance and coordination
D. Kluver-Bucy syndrome
The reticular activating system (RAS) is a complex, net-like system of nuclei and fibers that extends from the spinal cord into the brain.
a. Incorrect Damage to the hippocampus is associated with deficits in explicit memory.
b. CORRECT Damage to the RAS disrupts the sleep-wake cycle and can produce a permanent, coma-like state.
c. Incorrect Damage to the cerebellum would cause impaired balance and coordination.
d. Incorrect Kluver-Bucy syndrome is characterized by reduced fear, increased docility, compulsive oral behaviors, altered dietary habits, an inability to recognize visual stimuli, and hypersexuality. It is caused by lesions in amygdala, hippocampus, and certain areas of the temporal lobe.
The correct answer is: disruptions in the sleep-wake cycle
71
When used as a treatment for ADHD, the most common initial side effects of methylphenidate (Ritalin) are:
Select one:
A. skin rash and itching.
B. paresthesias.
C. joint pain and muscle cramps.
D. insomnia and reduced appetite.
Knowing that methylphenidate is a central nervous system stimulant would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
a. Incorrect Skin rash and itching may occur but are less common that insomnia and appetite loss.
b. Incorrect Paresthesias are not a side effect associated with methylphenidate.
c. Incorrect Joint pain and muscle cramps may occur, but they are much less common than insomnia and appetite loss.
d. CORRECT For most individuals taking methylphenidate as a treatment for ADHD, the drug's initial side effect is difficulty sleeping. Other common side effects include decreased appetite, nervousness, irritability, and nausea and abdominal pain.
The correct answer is: insomnia and reduced appetite.
72
If you're in an accident that causes damage to your cerebellum, you're most likely to:
Select one:
A. have trouble playing tennis.
B. forget what occurred just prior to the accident.
C. have trouble identifying the source of familiar odors.
D. find it difficult to do simple arithmetic calculations.
The cerebellum is involved in the regulation of balance and coordination.
a. CORRECT Of the activities listed in the answers, playing tennis is most likely to be adversely affected by damage to the cerebellum.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: have trouble playing tennis.
73
During the initial ___________ stage of the development of the central nervous system, new cells are produced inside the neural tube.
Select one:
A. differentiation
B. proliferation
C. synaptogenesis
D. apoptosis
The development of the central nervous system involves five stages: proliferation, migration, differentiation, myelination, and synaptogenesis.
a. Incorrect Differentiation is the third stage in brain development and occurs when neurons of different types develop their own unique features.
b. CORRECT This question accurately describes the first stage of brain development - i.e., the generation of new cells is referred to as proliferation.
c. Incorrect Synaptogenesis is the formation of synapses and is the last of the five stages.
d. Incorrect Apoptosis refers to cell death. During the development of the CNS, too many cells are produced, and apoptosis is a normal process.
The correct answer is: proliferation
74
The _____________ mediates the body's physical homeostasis.
Select one:
A. cingulate gyrus
B. hypothalamus
C. cerebellum
D. adrenal medulla
Homeostasis refers to maintaining functions within a fixed or optimal range.
a. Incorrect The cingulate gyrus is part of the limbic system and is believed to be responsible for focusing attention on emotionally significant events, linking sensory input to emotions, mediating emotional reactions to pain, and regulating aggressive behavior.
b. CORRECT A primary function of the hypothalamus is to maintain the body's homeostasis with regard to temperature, blood pressure, fluid and electrolyte balance, and other bodily states.
c. Incorrect The cerebellum is important for balance and posture and is vital to the performance of coordinated and refined motor movements.
d. Incorrect The adrenal medulla is the core of the adrenal gland and is involved in several functions that are similar to those of the sympathetic nervous system. It plays an important role in the body's reaction to stress.
The correct answer is: hypothalamus
75
___________ is caused by an excessive accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid in the ventricles.
Select one:
A. Spina bifida
B. Meningitis
C. Hydrocephalus
D. Encephalitis
Knowing that hydrocephalus means "water head" would have helped you identify it as the correct answer to this question.
a. Incorrect Spinal bifida is a neural tube defect caused by a failure of the fetus's spine to close appropriately during early development.
b. Incorrect Meningitis is inflammation of the membranes of the brain and spinal cord and is a possible cause of acquired hydrocephalus.
c. CORRECT The accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid in the ventricles (usually as the result of an obstruction) causes hydrocephalus which results in increased intracranial pressure and can lead to brain damage.
d. Incorrect Encephalitis is an inflammation of the brain that is usually caused by a virus.
The correct answer is: Hydrocephalus
76
Bob B. always perceives the sound of a piano as blue, the sound of a violin as green, and the sound of a trumpet as purple. This condition is referred to as:
Select one:
A. achromatopsia.
B. paresthesia.
C. synesthesia.
D. simultagnosia.
Bob B. is perceiving sounds as colors.
a. Incorrect Achromatopsia is a congenital deficit in the perception of color.
b. Incorrect Paresthesias are abnormal neurological sensations - e.g., numbness, tingling, burning.
c. CORRECT Synesthesia refers to a sensation that occurs in one sense modality when another modality has been stimulated - e.g., perceiving auditory stimuli as color.
d. Incorrect Simultagnosia is an inability to recognize multiple elements in a visual object or scene.
The correct answer is: synesthesia.
77
Sleep patterns vary somewhat with age. For example, during the first few months of life, infants begin a sleep period with:
Select one:
A. REM sleep.
B. Stage 2 sleep.
C. Stage 3 sleep.
D. Stage 4 sleep.
The sleep pattern of newborns is quite different from that of older children and adults.
a. CORRECT The four stages of non-REM sleep are relatively indistinguishable during the first few months of life. Also, in contrast to older children, adolescents, and adults, newborns begin a sleep period with REM sleep.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: REM sleep.
78
Drowsiness (sedation) is most likely to be an initial side effect of which of the following antidepressants?
Select one:
A. fluoxetine (Prozac)
B. paroxetine (Paxil)
C. sertraline (Zoloft)
D. doxepin (Sinequan)
The tricyclic antidepressants are, in general, more sedating than the SSRIs.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Doxepin is a tricyclic antidepressant, and drowsiness is one of the most common side effects of this drug (although it tends to decrease over time). In contrast, the drugs listed in answers a, b, and c are SSRIs and are less likely than doxepin to produce sedation.
The correct answer is: doxepin (Sinequan)
79
The sleep-wake cycle and other circadian rhythms are controlled by which of the following structures of the brain?
Select one:
A. extrapyramidal system
B. reticular activating system
C. lateral geniculate nucleus
D. suprachiasmatic nucleus
The suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) is located in the hypothalamus just above the optic chiasm.
a. Incorrect The extrapyramidal system is a network of neurons that is involved in movement.
b. Incorrect The reticular activating system is a network of neurons that extends from the spinal cord into the brain and is involved in motivation and arousal.
c. Incorrect The lateral geniculate nucleus is part of the thalamus and is involved in the processing of information related to vision.
d. CORRECT The SCN is the "primary circadian pacemaker" in mammals and is responsible for circadian rhythms related to sleep, temperature, blood pressure, the production of hormones, and other functions.
The correct answer is: suprachiasmatic nucleus
80
Carbamazepine and several other anticonvulsant drugs were originally used to treat seizure disorders but are now also used to treat:
Select one:
A. Paraphilias.
B. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder.
C. Bipolar Disorder.
D. Autistic Disorder.
Carbamazepine and other anticonvulsants (e.g., valproic acid and clonazepam) have been identified as effective treatments for only one of the disorders listed in the answers to this question.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Carbamazepine and other anticonvulsant drugs are often useful for treating bipolar disorder for individuals who have not responded to lithium, and there is some evidence that they are particularly effective as mood stabilizers for "rapid cyclers" (individuals who experience frequent mood swings).
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: Bipolar Disorder.
81
Two types of quasi-experimental methods are used to identify the influence of different genes on complex traits. The _________ uses identical or fraternal twins as participants, while the _________ uses children raised by non-biological parents to classify differences in genetic versus environmental influences.
Select one:
A. Molecular genetic method; quantitative genetic method
B. Quantitative genetic method; molecular genetic method
C. Twin method; adoption method
D. Adoption method; twin method
The correct answer is C. Molecular and quantitative genetic methods are typically carried out in research laboratories. Because genes and environments cannot be manipulated for experimental purposes, the twin method and the adoption method provide quasi-experimental methods of teasing apart the influences of genetics versus the environment.
The correct answer is: Twin method; adoption method
82
Research on the role of hormones on sexual arousal suggest that androgen:
Select one:
A. is responsible for arousal in females but not in males.
B. is responsible for arousal in males but not in females.
C. is responsible for arousal in males and females.
D. does not impact arousal in either females or males.
The effects of androgen on sexual arousal vary from individual to individual, but it does appear to have a positive impact for both men and women.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT For men, androgen affects sexual interest and arousal, at least up to a point. Beyond that point, the relationship tends to level off. For women, androgen is more effective than estrogen for restoring sexual arousal following menopause or removal of the sex organs.
d. Incorrect See explanation for resonse c.
The correct answer is: is responsible for arousal in males and females.
83
L-dopa is used to alleviate the symptoms of:
Select one:
A. tardive dyskinesia.
B. Parkinson's disease.
C. Schizophrenia.
D. Tourettes Disorder.
L-dopa (levodopa) is a precursor to dopamine.
a. Incorrect In some patients with tardive dyskinesia, L-dopa exacerbates symptoms, apparently because the long-term use of an antipsychotic drug has increased their sensitivity to dopamine.
b. CORRECT Parkinson's disease is due to deficiencies of dopamine in certain areas of the brain; and administering L-dopa increases dopamine levels and alleviates the symptoms of the disorder, especially in its initial stages.
c. Incorrect Schizophrenia is due to oversensitivity to dopamine, and L-dopa would exacerbate its symptoms.
d. Incorrect L-dopa may actually induce the symptoms of Tourette's Disorder.
The correct answer is: Parkinson's disease.
84
The thalamus acts as a "relay station" for incoming signals from all of the senses except:
Select one:
A. olfaction.
B. gustation.
C. vision.
D. audition.
The thalamus receives afferent impulses from all of the senses except olfaction and transmits this information to appropriate areas in the cerebral cortex.
a. CORRECT As noted above, incoming signals related to smell (olfaction) are not relayed to higher areas of the brain through the thalamus. Instead, olfactory signals are sent to the olfactory bulb which then forwards the signals to other areas of the brain.
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: olfaction.
85
When an individual's alcohol consumption affects the normal functioning of his or her cerebellum, the individual may exhibit which of the following?
Select one:
A. ataxia
B. aphagia
C. akathisia
D. apraxia
Knowing that the cerebellum is involved in balance and posture would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
a. CORRECT Ataxia involves the loss of ability to coordinate voluntary movements and can be caused by a variety of factors including damage to the cerebellum, the ingestion of certain drugs, and diseases that affect muscle coordination (e.g., cerebral palsy).
b. Incorrect Aphagia (also known as dysphagia) refers to difficulty in swallowing or eating.
c. Incorrect Akathisia is characterized by motor restlessness, especially in the arms and legs. It is one of the side effects of the neuroleptic drugs.
d. Incorrect Apraxia involves an inability to perform skilled movements that is not due to muscle weakness, a loss of motor coordination, sensory loss, or a lack of comprehension or cooperation.
The correct answer is: ataxia
86
Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
Select one:
A. alpha waves: relaxed alertness
B. beta waves: waking consciousness
C. delta waves: deep sleep
D. theta waves: sudden arousal from sleep
Each of the brain waves listed in the answers is associated with a different physiological state. Note that this question is asking which response represents an incorrect match.
a. Incorrect Alpha waves predominate during states of relaxed wakefulness.
b. Incorrect Beta waves predominate during states of alert wakefulness.
c. Incorrect Delta waves occur during periods of deep sleep.
d. CORRECT Theta waves occur when a person is in a deeply relaxed, drowsy state. Theta waves predominate during Stage 2 sleep.
The correct answer is: theta waves: sudden arousal from sleep
87
Endocrine disorders often mimic psychiatric disorders. For example, hypothyroidism often includes symptoms suggestive of:
Select one:
A. a phobic disorder, delirium, or mania.
B. mania, anorexia, or OCD.
C. OCD, depression, or a phobic disorder.
D. depression, psychosis, or dementia.
Hypothyroidism and other endocrine disorders may produce symptoms that are characteristic of certain psychiatric disorders. The symptoms of the endocrine disorders you're most likely to encounter on the exam are described in the Physiological Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT The symptoms of hypothyroidism (e.g., impaired memory and concentration, depression, apathy, confusion, thought disorders, hallucinations) overlap with those associated with depression, psychosis, and dementia.
The correct answer is: depression, psychosis, or dementia.
88
Selye (1956) proposed that which of the following endocrine glands mediate the general adaptation syndrome?
Select one:
A. thyroid and thymus
B. adrenal and pituitary
C. thyroid and parathyroid
D. pancreas and pineal
According to Selye (1956), the general adaptation syndrome consists of three stages: alarm, resistance, and exhaustion.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Selye proposed that the general adaptation syndrome is mediated primarily by the adrenal and pituitary glands. For example, during the initial alarm stage, the hypothalamus activates the adrenal medulla which increases the production of epinephrine. Additional information about the general adaptation syndrome is provided in the Physiological Psychology chapter.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: adrenal and pituitary
89
The primary symptoms of Korsakoff's syndrome are:
Select one:
A. amnesia and confabulation.
B. visual and auditory hallucinations.
C. irritability and aggression.
D. aphasia and disorientation.
Korsakoff's syndrome is caused by a thiamine deficiency that is often related to chronic alcoholism and causes degeneration of cells in certain areas of the thalamus.
a. CORRECT The primary symptoms of Korsakoff's syndrome are anterograde and retrograde amnesia and confabulation (inventing events to fill in memory gaps).
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: amnesia and confabulation.
90
Propranolol and other beta-adrenergic blocking drugs:
Select one:
A. are most effective for reducing palpitations, tachycardia, tremor, and other somatic manifestations of anxiety.
B. are most effective for reducing worry, apprehension, and other psychic (subjective) manifestations of anxiety.
C. are equally effective for reducing the somatic and the psychic manifestations of anxiety.
D. are equally ineffective for reducing the somatic and the psychic manifestations of anxiety.
Beta-adrenergic blocking drugs (beta-blockers) are used to treat a number of disorders including anxiety.
a. CORRECT The beta-blockers reduce the somatic (peripheral) symptoms of anxiety but do not directly affect its subjective manifestations.
b. Incorrect Through their effects on the somatic symptoms of anxiety, these drugs may indirectly affect (reduce) the subjective experience of anxiety. However, their direct effects are on the somatic symptoms of anxiety.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: are most effective for reducing palpitations, tachycardia, tremor, and other somatic manifestations of anxiety.
91
Which of the following would be most useful for alleviating an attack of hyperventilation?
Select one:
A. an ice pack
B. an antacid
C. a glass of water
D. a paper bag
Hyperventilation is a rapid deep-breathing attack that involves a drop in carbon dioxide, leading to respiratory alkalosis and cerebral hypoxia. Symptoms include chest pain, shortness of breath, tingling and numbness in the hands and feet, dizziness, and impaired concentration and memory.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Breathing into a paper bag alleviates hyperventilation by increasing the level of carbon dioxide in the bloodstream.
The correct answer is: a paper bag
92
Tourette's Disorder has been most consistently linked to abnormalities in which of the following structures of the brain?
Select one:
A. dentate gyrus
B. pons
C. basal ganglia
D. mammillary bodies
Tourette's Disorder is a tic disorder that involves a combination of motor and vocal tics.
a. Incorrect The dentate gyrus is part of the hippocampus and is believed to be involved in memory consolidation.
b. Incorrect The pons is a hindbrain structure that relays sensory information between the cerebellum and cortex, mediates reflexes related to breathing, and may play a role in sleep and dreaming.
c. CORRECT The basal ganglia are involved in the control of movement and include the corpus striatum, caudate nucleus, putamen, and globus pallidus. Basal ganglia dysfunction has been implicated in a number of disorders including Tourette's Disorder, ADHD, OCD, and Schizophrenia.
d. Incorrect The mammillary bodies are connected to the hypothalamus, are involved in memory, and may play a role in the anterograde amnesia associated with Korsakoff's syndrome.
The correct answer is: basal ganglia
93
According to Weber's law, the more intense a stimulus, the greater the increase in stimulus intensity required for the increase to be perceived. In other words, Weber's law deals with:
Select one:
A. just noticeable differences.
B. absolute thresholds.
C. stimulus intensities.
D. absolute limens.
There are several psychophysical laws that you should be familiar with for the licensing exam, and these are described in the Physiological Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
a. CORRECT A just noticeable difference is the minimum difference in stimulus intensity required for an individual to notice a difference from the previous intensity. For instance, if you are in a room lit by a 120 watt light bulb, and you don"t notice a difference in brightness until the wattage is increased to 130, the just noticeable difference is 10 watts. Weber's law states that the more intense a stimulus, the greater the increase in stimulus intensity must be for the increase to be noticed.
b. Incorrect An absolute threshold is the minimum stimulus intensity required to produce a specific sensation. For example, if you don't notice any light in a room unless the wattage of a light bulb is two or more, then two watts is the absolute threshold.
c. Incorrect Stimulus intensities are measured in terms such as watts, decibels, and Hz. While Weber's law is concerned with stimulus intensities, it more specifically deals with just noticeable differences.
d. Incorrect Absolute limen is another term for absolute threshold.
The correct answer is: just noticeable differences.
94
A lesion in the right (nondominant) parietal lobe is most likely to cause which of the following?
Select one:
A. contralateral neglect.
B. apperceptive agnosia
C. receptive aphasia
D. pseudodepression or pseudopsychopathy
Knowing that the parietal lobe controls the somatosensory functions of the body may have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
a. CORRECT Contralateral neglect involves a lack of attention to or interest in one side of the body. It is usually results from damage to the right parietal lobe and involves the left side of the body.
b. Incorrect Apperceptive agnosia (an inability to recognize the basic shape of objects) is caused by lesions in certain areas of the occipital lobe.
c. Incorrect Receptive (Wernicke's) aphasia is caused by damage to Wernicke's area, which is in the temporal lobe.
d. Incorrect Pseudodepression and pseudopsychopathy are caused by damage to certain areas of the frontal lobe.
The correct answer is: contralateral neglect.
95
The hypothalamus is believed to be involved in all of the following functions EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. hunger and thirst.
B. sexual arousal.
C. sleep-wake cycle.
D. vision and audition.
The hypothalamus, although small in size, is one of the most important areas of the brain.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT The hypothalamus mediates a wide range of autonomic, endocrine, and behavioral functions including emotional states, the sleep-wake cycle, hunger and thirst, sexual behavior and reproduction, and temperature. However, it is not involved in vision or audition.
The correct answer is: vision and audition.
96
The initial therapeutic effect of a conventional (traditional) antipsychotic drug will most likely be:
Select one:
A. an increase in goal-directed behaviors.
B. an improvement in dysphoria.
C. a reduction in memory deficits.
D. a reduction in hallucinations and delusions.
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the primary differences between the conventional and atypical antipsychotics, which are summarized in the Physiological Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Knowing that the conventional antipsychotics are most effective for reducing the positive symptoms of Schizophrenia would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. (The positive symptoms of Schizophrenia represent an excess or distortion of normal functions and include hallucinations and delusions, while the negative symptoms represent a reduction or absence of normal functions and include avolition, anhedonia, and alogia.)
The correct answer is: a reduction in hallucinations and delusions.
97
A stroke involving the left middle cerebral artery is most likely to cause which of the following?
Select one:
A. right-sided hemiplegia or hemiparesis, nystagmus, and vertigo
B. left-sided hemiplegia or hemiparesis, double vision, and facial paralysis
C. right-sided hemiplegia or hemiparesis, right-sided hyposthesia, and aphasia
D. left-sided hemiplegia or hemiparesis, left-sided hyposthesia, and prosopagnosia
Knowing that the left hemisphere controls functions on the right side of the body, while the right hemisphere controls functions on the left side of the body would have helped you eliminate answers b and d.
a. Incorrect Nystagmus and vertigo are signs of a stroke involving the vertebral artery.
b. Incorrect Double vision and facial paralysis are signs of a stroke involving the basilar artery.
c. CORRECT The middle cerebral artery provides blood to many regions of the brain, and the most common symptoms of stroke involving this artery include contralateral hemiplegia or hemiparesis and hyposthesia (lack of sensation). In addition, when the stroke involves the left cerebral artery, aphasia and apraxia may also occur.
d. Incorrect These symptoms would be caused by a stroke involving the right middle cerebral artery.
The correct answer is: right-sided hemiplegia or hemiparesis, right-sided hyposthesia, and aphasia
98
Retinal disparity refers to:
Select one:
A. the use of both eyes to perceive depth or distance.
B. the use of one eye to distinguish an object from its background.
C. the difference between the right and left visual fields.
D. the difference between near and far vision.
Retinal disparity is also known as binocular disparity and refers to the fact that our two eyes see the world from two different positions
a. CORRECT Retinal disparity contributes to depth perception for objects at relatively close distance (within about 18 to 20 feet), while other cues such as shadows and the relative motion of objects contribute to depth perception at larger distances.
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: the use of both eyes to perceive depth or distance.
99
A person with prosopagnosia:
Select one:
A. cannot draw a picture of a face when asked to do so.
B. does not recognize a picture of a face as a face.
C. cannot distinguish one face from another.
D. forgets to wash one side of his/her face.
Prosopagnosia is the inability to recognize or identify individual faces.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT A person with prosopagnosia is unable to recognize familiar faces including, in some cases, his/her own face in a mirror or picture.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: cannot distinguish one face from another.
100
The research has confirmed that the _________ is responsible for our ability to recall emotionally charged events better than neutral events.
Select one:
A. amygdala
B. medulla oblongata
C. substantia nigra
D. putamen
Knowing that only one of the brain structures listed in the answers is associated with emotion would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
a. CORRECT The amygdala is believed to be responsible for emotional memory, which refers to memory for events that evoke strong emotions.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: amygdala
101
According to ________________, physical stimulus changes are logarithmically related to their psychological sensations.
Select one:
A. Webers law
B. Fechners law
C. Lashleys law of equipotentiality
D. Thorndikes law of effect
This question is asking about one of the psychophysical laws that attempt to explain the relationship between sensation and perception. Information about these laws is provided in the Physiological Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect According to Weber's law, the MORE INTENSE STIMULUS, the GREATER INCREASE IN STIMULUS INTENSITY REQUIRED for the increase to be perceived.
b. CORRECT Fechner's law proposes that sensation is a LOGARITHMIC function of stimulus intensity - i.e., that a person's experience of stimulus intensity increases arithmetically as the stimulus intensity increases geometrically.
c. Incorrect Lashley's law of equipotentiality is not a psychophysical law but proposes that, when an area of the cortex is damaged, other areas can take over the functions of the damaged area.
d. Incorrect Thorndike's law of effect is not a psychophysical law but, instead, a precursor to Skinner's operant conditioning. It predicts that behaviors that are followed by "satisfying consequences" are likely to occur again.
The correct answer is: Fechners law
102
Which of the following psychiatric symptoms are most associated with Huntington's disease?
Select one:
A. depression and irritability
B. hallucinations and delusions
C. anorexia and anxiety
D. sleep and sexual disturbances
Mood symptoms, especially dysthymia and depression, are early symptoms in about 40% of cases of Huntington"s disease.
a. CORRECT Early reports linked Huntington's disease to psychotic symptoms, but more recent, better-controlled studies have found that affective symptoms are more common and are often the first signs of the disorder.
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: depression and irritability
103
Studies using the seaslug Aplysia as the research subject have provided information on which of the following?
Select one:
A. pain sensitivity
B. stimulus and response generalization
C. habituation and sensitization
D. synaptogenesis
Because of its simple nervous system and the relatively large size of its neurons, the seaslug Aplysia has been a popular subject for researchers interested in the physiology of learning.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Researchers using Aplysia as their research subject have investigated the neural changes associated with habitation, sensitization, and classical conditioning.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: habituation and sensitization
104
A person with Wernicke's aphasia will:
Select one:
A. have trouble understanding language without substantial deficits in producing language.
B. have trouble producing language without substantial deficits in understanding language.
C. have trouble understanding language and will speak slowly and with great difficulty.
D. have trouble understanding language and will have speech that is fluent but is largely devoid of meaning.
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the major types of aphasia that are described in the Physiological Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect This describes Broca's aphasia.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Wernicke's aphasia is also known as receptive aphasia and involves deficits in both production and comprehension of language. In terms of production, people with Wernicke's aphasia exhibit speech that is rapid and fluent but is largely devoid of meaning.
The correct answer is: have trouble understanding language and will have speech that is fluent but is largely devoid of meaning.
105
Following abrupt cessation of a sedative after long-term use, REM sleep would be expected to:
Select one:
A. increase to above normal levels.
B. increase to normal levels.
C. decrease to below normal levels.
D. decrease to normal levels.
Although sedative drugs increase the total sleep time, they decrease the amount or proportion of REM sleep.
a. CORRECT Abrupt cessation of a sedative following long-term use typically results in a "REM rebound," which is characterized by an above-normal amount or proportion of REM sleep.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: increase to above normal levels.
106
Parkinson's disease is caused by a progressive degeneration of dopamine-producing cells in the:
Select one:
A. suprachiasmatic nucleus.
B. insular cortex.
C. substantia nigra.
D. entorhinal cortex.
Parkinson's disease has been linked to a degeneration of nerves cells in specific regions of the brain.
a. Incorrect The suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) is located in the hypothalamus and is involved the regulation of the body's circadian rhythms.
b. Incorrect The insular cortex is involved in speech and in the processing of autonomic and sensory information.
c. CORRECT Knowing that the substantia nigra is involved in the control of movement would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. The degeneration of dopamine-producing cells in the substantia nigra results in the motor symptoms associated with this disorder.
d. Incorrect The entorhinal cortex plays a role (in conjunction with the hippocampus) in memory consolidation and is one of the first areas of the brain to be affected by Alzheimer's disease.
The correct answer is: substantia nigra.
107
Which type of research provides more accurate data about genetic testing?
Select one:
A. Research involving animal models
B. Research involving human models
C. Neither A or B
D. Both A and B are equally accurate
The correct answer is A. Due to the nature of genetic testing, some level of manipulation of genes and environment is required to identify which genes are responsible for various traits. This level of manipulation is achievable when using animal models in a laboratory, but is not as feasible with human models.
The correct answer is: Research involving animal models
108
The neurotransmitter GABA is a(n):
Select one:
A. amino acid that plays an inhibitory role regardless of its location in the brain.
B. amino acid that plays an excitatory role regardless of its location in the brain.
C. amino acid that plays an inhibitory or excitatory role, depending on its location in the brain.
D. neuropeptide that plays an inhibitory or excitatory role, depending on its location in the brain.
The neurotransmitters can be classified in terms of their chemical make-up and their effects on post-synaptic neurons.
a. CORRECT Many neurotransmitters serve both excitatory and inhibitory functions. GABA, an amino acid, is one of the neurotransmitters that serves only one of these functions - i.e., it is an inhibitory neurotransmitter.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect GABA is an amino acid, not a neuropeptide. (The neuropeptide neurotransmitters include substance P and the endorphins.)
The correct answer is: amino acid that plays an inhibitory role regardless of its location in the brain.
109
There are two major types of color-blindness: Monochromats are totally color-blind, while dichromats are insensitive to one of two color pairs (red/green or blue/yellow). The existence of dichromats supports which of the following theories of color vision?
Select one:
A. trichromatic theory
B. opponent-process theory
C. place theory
D. dual-process theory
Answer B is correct. There are two major theories of color vision: trichromatic and opponent-process. According to opponent-process theory, there are three sets of cones: one that is sensitive to white and black, another to red and green, and a third to yellow and blue. Color-blindness results from the absence of one or more of these sets of cones and, therefore, explains why dichromats cannot distinguish between either red and green or blue and yellow.
a. Incorrect- Trichromatic theory postulates that the human eye has three types of color receptors (red, green, and blue) and that the perception of different colors is due to a combination of the responses of these three receptors.
c. Incorrect-Place theory is a theory of audition, not vision.
d. Incorrect-According to dual-process theory, a response made by an individual to a stimulus involves two stages - a decision as to whether or not to respond and a decision as to which alternative response to make. It is not a theory of color vision.
The correct answer is: opponent-process theory
110
___________ is a communication disorder that is characterized by difficulties in regulating the rate, rhythm, pitch, and loudness of speech.
Select one:
A. Dysarthria
B. Paraphasia
C. Dysprosody
D. Anomia
The pattern of stress and intonation in speech is referred to as prosody.
a. Incorrect Dysarthria is a motor speech disorder that produces problems related to articulation.
b. Incorrect Paraphasia is a type of aphasia that involves the use of unintended syllables, words, or phrases (e.g., unintentionally substituting one word for another).
c. CORRECT Dysprosody is a disruption in speech melody and rhythm and is characteristic of Broca's aphasia and other nonfluent aphasias. Although dysprosody has traditionally been linked to right hemisphere damage, its presence in Broca's aphasia suggests that prosody is also governed, to some degree, by the left hemisphere.
d. Incorrect Anomia is a type of aphasia involving an inability to recall the names of familiar objects.
The correct answer is: Dysprosody
111
Which of the following neuroimaging techniques would NOT be useful for studying the functional activity of the brain (e.g., blood flow, glucose metabolism, or oxygen consumption)?
Select one:
A. CT
B. SPECT
C. fMRI
D. PET
The various neuroimaging techniques can be categorized as either structural or functional techniques.
a. CORRECT CT (computed tomography) is a structural technique and provides information on brain structure. In contrast, the techniques listed in answers b, c, and d are functional techniques and provide information on the functional activities of the brain.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: CT
112
Spinal cord injury at the ________ level is most likely to result in quadriplegia.
Select one:
A. lumbar
B. sacral
C. cervical
D. thoracic
The 31 pairs of spinal nerves are divided into five groups or regions. These are, from the top to the bottom of the spinal cord, cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal.
a. Incorrect Damage at the lumbar level is likely to cause some loss of functioning in the HIPS AND LEGS.
b. Incorrect Damage at the sacral level also causes loss of functioning in the HIPS AND LEGS.
c. CORRECT Quadriplegia (the loss of sensory and motor functioning in the arms and legs) results from damage at the cervical level.
d. Incorrect Paraplegia (loss of functioning in the LEGS) is caused by damage at the thoracic level.
The correct answer is: cervical
113
As the result of a brain injury, Walter W. cannot recognize familiar objects by touch. Most likely, Walter has damage to his _______ lobes.
Select one:
A. parietal
B. occipital
C. temporal
D. frontal
Walter is exhibiting somatosensory (tactile) agnosia.
a. CORRECT The parietal lobes contain the somatosensory cortex, which processes information from the skin senses (touch, temperature, pressure, etc.). Damage to the parietal lobes may produce somatosensory agnosia which is characterized by a lack of awareness of one side of the body and/or an inability to recognize familiar objects by touch.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: parietal
114
Lesions in the right (nondominant) hemisphere of the cerebral cortex are most likely to have which of the following effects?
Select one:
A. increase catastrophic reactions to benign events
B. produce indifference or excessive cheerfulness
C. produce excessive fear and anger
D. decrease talkativeness
Although the studies suggest that simple left-right distinctions about the brain are not entirely accurate, some generalizations can be made. With regard to emotions, the left hemisphere mediates positive emotions, while the right hemisphere mediates negative emotions.
a. Incorrect This is associated with damage to the left hemisphere.
b. CORRECT The right hemisphere governs negative emotions, and lesions to this side of the brain produce an opposite effect - i.e., indifference, emotional lability, and atypical humor (e.g., either not responding to jokes or cartoons or laughing even when they are not understood).
c. Incorrect This is the opposite of what is true.
d. Incorrect This is also the opposite of what is true. Lesions in the right hemisphere often increase talkativeness.
The correct answer is: produce indifference or excessive cheerfulness
115
Damage to Broca's area produces _______________, while damage to Wernicke's area results in ______________.
Select one:
A. expressive aphasia; conduction aphasia
B. conduction aphasia; transcortical aphasia
C. expressive aphasia; receptive aphasia
D. receptive aphasia; expressive aphasia
Broca's and Wernicke's areas are the two primary language areas of the brain. Information on the types of aphasia produced by damage to these areas and other types of aphasia is provided in the Physiological Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect Damage to Broca's area does cause expressive aphasia, but damage to Wernicke's area does not produce conduction aphasia. Conduction (associative) aphasia is is caused by damage to the arcuate fasciculus, which connects Wernicke's and Broca's areas.
b. Incorrect Damage to Broca's area does not cause conduction aphasia, and damage to Wernicke's area does not cause transcortical aphasia, which results when lesions outside Broca's and Wernicke's areas isolate these areas from other regions of the brain.
c. CORRECT Damage to Broca's area causes an inability to produce language (expressive aphasia), while damage to Wernicke's area is associated with an inability to understand written or spoken language with fluent but unintelligible speech (receptive aphasia).
d. Incorrect This is the opposite of what is true.
The correct answer is: expressive aphasia; receptive aphasia
116
_________ waves are characteristic of an awake but rested and relaxed state.
Select one:
A. Beta
B. Delta
C. Theta
D. Alpha
Different states of wakefulness and sleep are associated with different brain wave patterns.
a. Incorrect Beta waves occur during awake, alert states.
b. Incorrect Delta waves are characteristic of Stage 3 and Stage 4 (deep) sleep.
c. Incorrect Theta waves are associated with deep relaxation and drowsiness and predominate during Stage 2 sleep.
d. CORRECT Alpha waves are regular high-amplitude, low frequency waves that are recorded during states of restfulness and relaxation.
The correct answer is: Alpha
117
Lazarus's (1982, 1991), cognitive appraisal theory proposes that cognitive appraisal of a situation precedes the emotional reaction to that situation and distinguishes between three types of appraisal. These are:
Select one:
A. unconscious, preconscious, and conscious appraisal.
B. primary appraisal, secondary appraisal, and re-appraisal.
C. structural, phonemic, and semantic appraisal.
D. peripheral appraisal, central appraisal, and re-appraisal.
Lazarus proposed that cognitive appraisal (evaluation) of a situation is an important determinant of our emotional reaction to the situation.
a. Incorrect These are not the three types of appraisal identified by Lazarus.
b. CORRECT Lazarus divided cognitive appraisal into three types: Primary appraisal refers to our evaluation of the situation as positive, stressful, or irrelevant to our well-being. Secondary appraisal refers to our evaluation of the resources we have to cope with the situation. Finally, re-appraisal refers to monitoring of the situation and modifying our primary and secondary appraisals when necessary.
c. Incorrect Structural, phonemic, and semantic are the three levels of memory proposed by the levels of processing model.
d. Incorrect These are not the three types of appraisal identified by Lazarus.
The correct answer is: primary appraisal, secondary appraisal, and re-appraisal.
118
Complex partial seizures originating in the temporal lobe are most likely to cause which of the following symptoms?
Select one:
A. speech arrest or other disturbance in speech.
B. pain or tingling on one side of the body
C. a feeling of deja vu or jamais vu
D. visual hallucinations or vision loss
Complex partial seizures are due to abnormal electrical activity in one region of the brain.
a. Incorrect Speech arrest and other speech disturbances are symptoms of frontal lobe seizures.
b. Incorrect Pain, tingling, or other bodily sensations are caused by abnormal electrical activity in the parietal lobe.
c. CORRECT Typical symptoms of seizure activity in the temporal lobe are a change in perception, a sudden alteration in emotions, and/or a sense of deja vu or jamais vu (a sense of familiarity or unfamiliarity, respectively). Symptoms associated with seizures in the four lobes of the cerebral cortex are summarized in the Physiological Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
d. Incorrect Visual abnormalities (e.g., hallucinations, flashing lights, or vision loss) are symptoms of abnormal electrical activity in the occipital lobe.
The correct answer is: a feeling of deja vu or jamais vu
119
Sperry and Gazzaniga's (1967) research on "split-brain" patients provided evidence for which of the following?
Select one:
A. brain lateralization
B. neural networks
C. pleasure centers in the brain
D. the fight-or-flight response
Sperry and Gazzaniga's "split-brain" patients had their corpus callosums severed in order to control severe epilepsy. The consequences of this surgery are described in the Physiological Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
a. CORRECT Results of the studies on these patients confirmed that each hemisphere specializes with regard to certain functions - e.g., in most people, the left hemisphere is dominant for language and logical, analytical thinking, while the right hemisphere is primarily responsible for spatial perception, holistic thinking, and creativity.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: brain lateralization
120
____________, a late-appearing side effect of the conventional antipsychotic drugs, is characterized by repetitive, involuntary tic-like movements of the face, eyelids, mouth, tongue, extremities, and/or trunk.
Select one:
A. Acute dystonia
B. Parkinsonism
C. Tardive dyskinesia
D. Akathisia
Answer C is correct. For the exam, you'll want to be familiar with the symptoms of all of the conditions listed in the answers to this question. Tardive dyskinesia is a serious and potentially irreversible side effect of antipsychotics (especially the conventional drugs), and the question describes its primary symptoms.
Answer A: Incorrect - Acute dystonia is an early-onset side effect of antipsychotics. Its primary symptoms are muscle spasms and slow abnormal movements, most often in the eyes, jaw, and tongue.
Answer B: Incorrect - Parkinsonism is an intermediate-onset side effect of antipsychotic drugs. Its symptoms include muscle rigidity, impaired balance, gait changes, tremors, changes in facial expressions and speech, and muscle cramps.
Answer D: Incorrect - Akathisia is another intermediate-onset side effect of antipsychotics. It involves an uncomfortable sense of restlessness that may be accompanied by foot-tapping, leg shaking, or pacing.
The correct answer is: Tardive dyskinesia
121
A primary concern about the long-term use of chlorpromazine is that it may result in the development of which of the following?
Select one:
A. acute hypertensive crisis
B. profound anterograde amnesia
C. tardive dyskinesia
D. renal toxicity
This question requires you to know that chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic drug and that antipsychotics are associated with a number of adverse side effects.
a. Incorrect An acute hypertensive crisis is a potential side effect of the MAOIs.
b. Incorrect Anterograde amnesia is a potential side effect of triazolam and other benzodiazepines.
c. CORRECT The long-term use of an antipsychotic drug - especially chlorpromazine or other conventional antipsychotic - can result in tardive dyskinesia, a neurological movement disorder involving involuntary movements of the lips, tongue, face, trunk, and extremities (e.g., facial grimacing, tongue protrusion, guitar and piano-playing movements).
d. Incorrect Renal toxicity is associated with the use of lithium.
The correct answer is: tardive dyskinesia
122
The onset of puberty in humans occurs when gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) is secreted by the:
Select one:
A. hippocampus.
B. hypothalamus.
C. adrenal glands.
D. thalamus.
At puberty, the gonads (testes and ovaries) produce hormones that, in turn, are responsible for physical sexual maturation.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Secretion of gonadotropin-releasing hormone by the hypothalamus stimulates production and release of the gonadotropic hormones by the pituitary gland. These hormones then stimulate the gonads to release the sex hormones which trigger sexual development.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: hypothalamus.
123
Which of the following describes the "rebound effect" that is associated with the use of a benzodiazepine as a treatment for anxiety?
Select one:
A. the persistence of symptoms when the drug is prescribed in high dose
B. the re-emergence of symptoms after long-term use of the drug
C. an initial paradoxical increase in symptoms when the drug is prescribed in a low dose
D. a temporary increase in the severity of symptoms when the drug is abruptly discontinued
Abrupt discontinuation of a benzodiazepine may result in "rebound hyperexcitability."
Answer D is correct. A person taking a benzodiazepine for anxiety, for example, may experience rebound anxiety when he or she stops taking the drug, especially when cessation is abrupt rather than gradual. Rebound symptoms are often more severe than the original symptoms.
The correct answer is: a temporary increase in the severity of symptoms when the drug is abruptly discontinued
124
After the image of an object is projected exclusively to Olivia O.'s left visual field (right hemisphere), Olivia is unable to verbally name the object but can pick the object out of a group of objects hidden from view with her left hand. Damage to which of the following would explain this phenomenon?
Select one:
A. visual association cortex
B. prefrontal association cortex
C. arcuate fasciculus
D. corpus callosum
Olivia's behavior is characteristic of individuals whose corpus callosum has been severed to control severe epilepsy (i.e., "split-brain patients"). Additional information on the effects of severing the corpus callosum is provided in the Physiological Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect Damage to the visual association cortex can result in visual agnosia (an inability to recognize a familiar object by sight). Olivia recognizes the object but cannot verbally name it.
b. Incorrect The prefrontal association cortex is involved in complex functions related to perception, emotion, memory, and thinking. Damage to this area may produce subtle personality and behavioral changes (e.g., apathy, impulsivity, inappropriate silliness).
c. Incorrect The arcuate fasciculus connects the brain"s receptive language center (Wernicke's area) with its expressive language center (Broca's area). Damage to the arcuate fasciculus causes conduction aphasia.
d. CORRECT The corpus callosum is the major bundle of fibers that connects the right and left hemispheres of the brain, and damage to this structure reduces interhemispheric communication and can produce the behavior described in this question.
The correct answer is: corpus callosum
125
Hans Selye's (1956) general adaptation syndrome predicts that we respond to stress with a predictable pattern that involves which of the following three stages?
Select one:
A. disorganization, mobilization, and adaptation
B. exhaustion, accommodation, and recovery
C. preparation, survival, and rebuilding
D. alarm, resistance, and exhaustion
Selye's general adaptation syndrome (GAS) is based on the assumption that people respond to all types of prolonged stress in the same manner.
a. Incorrect These have been identified as stages in reaction to a crisis.
b. Incorrect These are not the three stages identified by Selye.
c. Incorrect These have been identified as the three stages of responding to a disaster.
d. CORRECT Alarm, resistance, and exhaustion are the three stages identified by Selye. Each is defined by different physiological responses that are mediated primarily by the adrenal and pituitary glands. See the Physiological Psychology chapter for additional information on these stages.
The correct answer is: alarm, resistance, and exhaustion
126
Chronic stress due to depression or other factors may cause impairments in memory as a result of the effects of _______ and other stress hormones on the hippocampus.
Select one:
A. GABA
B. cortisol
C. somatotropin
D. melatonin
Knowing that cortisol is a stress hormone would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question even if you're unfamiliar with its impact on memory.
a. Incorrect GABA is an inhibitory neurotransmitter that plays a role in seizure and anxiety disorders, motor control, and sleep.
b. CORRECT Secretion of cortisol, a stress hormone, by the adrenal gland is influenced by the activity of the hypothalamus and pituitary gland. It has been recently linked to memory impairments associated with stress.
c. Incorrect Somatotropin is also known as growth hormone and stimulates growth throughout the body.
d. Incorrect Abnormalities in melatonin have been linked to seasonal affective disorder.
The correct answer is: cortisol
127
The James-Lange theory of emotions emphasizes which of the following?
Select one:
A. cognitive appraisal of the situation.
B. perceptions of bodily reactions to stimuli.
C. social comparisons.
D. the activity of the endocrine system.
The James-Lange theory is a peripheralist theory of emotion that focuses on perceptions of bodily reactions to stimuli.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT According to James-Lange theory, our emotions are based on our perceptions or interpretations of bodily responses -- e.g., "I must be afraid because my heart is racing and my knees are shaking."
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: perceptions of bodily reactions to stimuli.
128
_____________ involves partial or complete colorblindness due either to a loss of functioning of the cone cells or damage to the occipitotemporal region of the brain.
Select one:
A. Anosognosia
B. Alexia
C. Achromatopsia
D. Agnosia
For the exam, you'll want to be familiar with the characteristics of all of the conditions listed in the answers to this question.
a. Incorrect Anosognosia is the failure to recognize one's own neurological symptoms.
b. Incorrect Alexia is an inability to read or understand written words.
c. CORRECT Even if you're unfamiliar with achromatopsia, you would have been able to identify this as the correct answer if you know that "chroma" refers to color.
d. Incorrect Agnosia is the inability to recognize familiar objects or sounds.
The correct answer is: Achromatopsia
129
The effectiveness of clomipramine as the treatment for Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD) provides support for the hypothesis that this disorder is related to abnormalities in brain levels of:
Select one:
A. acetylcholine.
B. epinephrine.
C. dopamine.
D. serotonin.
Clomipramine and other antidepressants exert their effects by altering levels of norepinephrine, serotonin, and/or dopamine.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT A current theory about the cause of OCD is that it stems from low serotonin levels. This theory is supported by the fact that clomipramine (a tricyclic antidepressant that has anti-obsessional effects) blocks the reuptake of serotonin by presynaptic neurons.
The correct answer is: serotonin.
130
Gate control theory predicts that:
Select one:
A. a neural mechanism in the spinal cord either blocks pain signals or allows them to be transmitted to the brain.
B. although each sensory neuron is sensitive to all forms of energy, it always evokes the same sensation.
C. some auditory stimuli are encoded in terms of the frequency of neural firing.
D. motivation arises from constant imbalances in homeostasis.
Knowing that gate control theory is a theory of pain perception would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
a. CORRECT According to gate control theory, certain areas of the spinal cord receive input not only from pain receptors but also from other skin receptors; and if these other receptors are sufficiently active, they "close" the gate to pain signals and, thereby, keep those signals from reaching the brain. Gate control theory explains why applying heat or cold to the site of an injury immediately relieves the pain.
b. Incorrect This is predicted by Muller's doctrine of specific nerve energies.
c. Incorrect This describes frequency (volley) theory, which is a theory of audition.
d. Incorrect This sounds like drive reduction theory.
The correct answer is: a neural mechanism in the spinal cord either blocks pain signals or allows them to be transmitted to the brain.
131
Which of the following is an example of sexual dimorphism?
Select one:
A. The hypothalamus, corpus callosum, and several other regions of the human brain exhibit consistent gender-related differences in structure and activity.
B. The gonads in human males and females are undifferentiated until six to eight weeks after conception.
C. Sex hormones play a more important role in the adult sexual behavior of lower animals than in the adult sexual behavior of humans.
D. The effects of spinal cord injury on sexual functioning depend on the severity and location of the injury.
Sexual dimorphism refers to systematic gender-related differences in physical characteristics. Recent research has confirmed that certain structures in the brain are sexually dimorphic.
a. CORRECT The hypothalamus is one of the structures of the human brain that is sexually dimorphic. For example, the size of the hypothalamus and its secretion of growth hormone differs for males and females.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: The hypothalamus, corpus callosum, and several other regions of the human brain exhibit consistent gender-related differences in structure and activity.
132
While relaxing in front of the TV, Dexter D. is suddenly startled by strange noises coming from his basement and, as a result, his blood pressure increases, his heart starts racing, and he begins to sweat. Dexter's physical reactions to the strange noises are mediated by his __________ nervous system.
Select one:
A. enteric
B. somatic
C. sympathetic
D. parasympathetic
Dexter is exhibiting physical signs associated with the "fight-or-flight" response.
a. Incorrect The enteric nervous system is sometimes categorized as part of the autonomic nervous system. It is a network of nerves located in the gastrointestinal tract and is believed to be involved in several functions including gastrointestinal motility and secretions, activities of the endocrine system, and regulation of immune and inflammatory processes.
b. Incorrect The somatic nervous system consists of sensory nerves that carry signals from the sensory receptors to the CNS and motor nerves that carry signals from the CNS to the skeletal muscles. It is responsible for activities that are ordinarily considered voluntary.
c. CORRECT The sympathetic nervous system is a branch of the autonomic nervous system. It mediates arousal and the expenditure of energy and prepares the body for fight or flight.
d. Incorrect The parasympathetic nervous system is another branch of the autonomic nervous system. It is involved in the conservation of energy and is active during digestion and periods of rest and relaxation.
The correct answer is: sympathetic
133
The fact that OCD is treated by sertraline suggests that:
Select one:
A.
OCD is caused by a hypersensitivity to serotonin.
B.
OCD may be caused by an insufficient amount of serotonin.
C.
OCD symptoms are cured by increasing norepinephrine levels.
D.
Pharmacological treatment is the first-line treatment choice for OCD.
The correct answer is B.
Sertraline (Zoloft) is an SSRI, which means that it functions to increase the level of serotonin available in the synapse by inhibiting its reuptake. Given that serotonin is involved in mood modulation, as well as in obsessive thoughts (and other bodily processes, including sleep and appetite), sertraline is used to treat OCD, along with depression, panic disorder, and social anxiety. Because it is effective in alleviating the symptoms of OCD, it is suggested that OCD is associated with a lack of serotonin in the synapse. SSRIs are "selective," which means that they are highly specific to serotonin receptors; thus, they do not have an effect on norepinephrine or dopamine levels. Answer A is incorrect, as OCD is associated with low serotonin levels. Answer C is incorrect, as sertraline is an SSRI and does not directly affect norepinephrine levels. Furthermore, OCD is treated by raising levels of serotonin, not norepinephrine. Pharmacological treatments in conjunction with psychotherapy are superior for treating OCD as opposed to pharmacological treatments alone (answer D).
134
Which of the following structures are part of the basal ganglia?
Select one:
A.
Caudate nucleus, putamen, globus pallidus
B.
Pituitary, hippocampus, amygdala
C.
Hippocampus, amygdala, thalamus
D.
Ventral tegmental area, reticular formation, substantia nigra
The correct answer is A.
The basal ganglia comprise several distinct but interconnected nuclei. These nuclei include the caudate, putamen, and globus pallidus. Answer B is incorrect, as the pituitary is an endocrine gland located at the base of the brain, close to the hypothalamus, whereas the hippocampus and amygdala are parts of the limbic system. Because of their close connections, the striatum, substantia nigra, and thalamus are often associated with the basal ganglia but are not actually components of the basal ganglia. Answer C is incorrect, as the hippocampus, amygdala, and thalamus are part of the limbic system. Answer D is incorrect, as the ventral tegmental area, reticular formation, and substantia nigra are structures of the midbrain. The substantia nigra, however, is often associated with the basal ganglia.
135
The basal ganglia are primarily involved in which of the following?
Select one:
A.
Regulating emotional expression
B.
Focusing attention on a particular task
C.
Facilitating smooth and coordinated automated movements
D.
Relaying information between the limbic system and cortical areas
The correct answer is C.
The basal ganglia inhibit extraneous movements during automated movements, serving to make these automated movements more coordinated. Disruption of the basal ganglia contributes to the excessive motor symptoms observed in both Parkinson's disease and Huntington's disease. While the basal ganglia are primarily associated with coordinated motor movement, they are also associated with the processing of automated thoughts and emotions. Answers A and B are incorrect, as these are not primary functions of the basal ganglia. Answer D is incorrect, as this is the function of the thalamus.
136
Damage to the __________ may lead to involuntary movements and jerks, tics and involuntary speech, or difficulty executing simple learned behaviors, such as walking.
Select one:
A.
hippocampus
B.
supplementary motor area
C.
basal ganglia
D.
reticular activating system
The correct answer is C.
Through the activation of inhibitory GABAergic neurons, the basal ganglia typically function to inhibit excessive motor movements, particularly during involuntary actions and learned behaviors. When there is damage to or degeneration of the nuclei of the basal ganglia, excessive movements such as jerks, tics, or difficulty coordinating movements can occur. Answer A is incorrect, as damage to the hippocampus leads to memory impairments. Answer B is a distractor. Answer D is incorrect, as the reticular activating system is involved in the sleep/wake cycle.
137
Which of the following might be a typical side effect of benzodiazepines?
Select one:
A.
Drowsiness
B.
Agitation
C.
Insomnia
D.
Suicidal ideation
The correct answer is A.
Drowsiness is a typical side effect. For the rest of the answers, although paradoxical effects may occur in rare cases, these are not typical side effects. Thus, answers B, C, and D are incorrect.
138
Johnny stopped taking benzodiazepines. To his dismay, he felt anxious, agitated, and nervous. What is Johnny experiencing?
Select one:
A.
A re-emergence of his old anxiety disorder
B.
Paradoxical agitation
C.
Rebound effects
D.
Mental frustration syndrome
The correct answer is C.
Oftentimes, symptoms for which the benzodiazepines were originally prescribed re-emerge when medication is discontinued. Sometimes, this results from withdrawal and is called a rebound effect. Answer A is incorrect, as it is incomplete; specifically, although those might be symptoms of Johnny's old anxiety disorder, the precise term is "rebound effects." Answer B is incorrect, as paradoxical agitation would not occur upon discontinuing the medication but rather as side effects of the medication. There is no such diagnosis as mental frustration syndrome, which makes answer D incorrect.
139
Which statement is true about benzodiazepines?
Select one:
A.
Long-acting benzodiazepines have short elimination times and exit the body quickly.
B.
Benzodiazepines work much like a GABA antagonist.
C.
Excessive use of benzodiazepines produces cross-tolerance.
D.
Benzodiazepines can be used to treat insomnia and delusions.
The correct answer is C.
The excessive use of benzodiazepines has been found to produce cross-tolerance. Because other substances, such as alcohol and possibly barbiturates, produce their effects by binding to GABA receptors, long-term or excessive use of benzodiazepines can produce this cross-tolerance. Cross-tolerance might occur if a patient taking benzodiazepines becomes increasingly tolerant to the effects of alcohol. Long-acting benzodiazepines have lengthy elimination times and accumulate quickly in the body, which makes answer A false. Benzodiazepines work much like a GABA agonist (mimicking how GABA works in the body), not an antagonist, which makes answer B false. Benzodiazepines are used to treat insomnia and anxiety disorders, not delusions, which makes answer D false.
140
According to the DSM-5, in order to meet diagnostic criteria for ADHD, symptoms of hyperactivity-impulsivity and/or inattention must be present in at least two different situations for __________ months and must be present before the age of __________.
Select one:
A.
six; twelve
B.
four; six
C.
three; seven
D.
nine; six
The correct answer is A.
ADHD is considered a childhood-onset disorder. The diagnostic criteria in the DSM-5 specifically indicate that symptoms of ADHD must be present by the age of 12 and must last for at least six months in two different settings. Therefore, a child who displays hyperactive behaviors at home but has no difficulty in school would not meet criteria for ADHD. Answers B, C, and D are false.
141
Abnormalities in which of the following structures have been implicated in ADHD?
Select one:
A.
Thalamus
B.
Hypothalamus
C.
Reticular activating system
D.
Caudate nucleus
The correct answer is D.
Studies have shown decreased volume of several brain structures in individuals with ADHD. These structures include the frontal cortex, cerebellar vermis, and the basal ganglia. The caudate nucleus is one of the nuclei included in the basal ganglia, and brain imaging studies have shown reduced volume in the caudate nucleus among individuals with ADHD. Answers A, B, and C are therefore incorrect.
142
Which of the following medications might be prescribed to someone with ADHD and a known substance use disorder history?
Select one:
A.
Dexedrine
B.
Lithium
C.
Strattera
D.
Ritalin
The correct answer is C.
Several of the drugs used to treat ADHD are addictive and therefore not recommended for use with an individual with a substance use disorder history. Strattera is a non-addictive drug that functions to inhibit the reuptake of norepinephrine. Because it is non-addictive it is preferred for use in individuals with known substance abuse histories. Answer D is incorrect; Ritalin is a stimulant that is frequently abused, which clearly shows it would not be indicated for an individual with a history of substance abuse. Answer B is incorrect, as lithium is a mood stabilizer that is not used to treat ADHD but bipolar disorder. Answer A is also incorrect, as Dexedrine is also a stimulant that has been used to treat ADHD. It is frequently abused, due to the euphoric high that it produces. For this reason, it is also not recommended for use in individuals with a drug abuse history.
143
The law that might help a movie producer determine how much more light to bring into a shot before the audience sees a brighter image is:
Select one:
A.
The Weber-Fechner law.
B.
Webster's law.
C.
Einstein's theory of relativity.
D.
The law of action and reaction.
The correct answer is A.
The Weber-Fechner law seeks to explain the difference between the actual physical intensity of a stimulus (auditory, visual, tactile, etc.) and the perceived intensity of the stimulus. Further, the law explains the amount of physical change that is necessary to produce a perceived change. The relationship between actual change and perceived change is logarithmic, meaning that the amount of change necessary is different at different levels of intensity. For example, at lower volumes, a change of only a few decibels may be necessary to perceive a change in volume, whereas the addition of the same number of decibels at louder volumes may not be perceived as a change in volume.
144
The Weber-Fechner law is concerned with:
Select one:
A.
Predicting the "maximum noticeable threshold."
B.
Determining the "minimum noticeable threshold."
C.
Predicting the "just noticeable difference."
D.
Determining the "maximum noticeable difference."
The correct answer is C.
The JND is the minimum amount of physical change in a sensory stimulus that is required in order to result in a change in the perception of the stimulus. The JND is an important component of the Weber-Fechner law (also known as Weber's law).
145
Marfan's syndrome and Von Willebrand disease share which of the following common characteristics?
Select one:
A.
They are both neurological disorders
B.
They are both endocrine disorders
C.
They are both autosomal dominant genetic disorders
D.
They share nothing in common
The correct answer is C.
Both Marfan's syndrome and Von Willebrand disease are autosomal dominant genetic disorders, meaning that only one copy of the defective gene is necessary to inherit the disorder and that the gene is located on a non-sex chromosome (not the X or Y chromosome); they are not neurological disorders, which makes answer A incorrect. Marfan's syndrome is a disorder of the connective tissue, while Von Willebrand disease is a bleeding disorder in which blood platelets do not effectively stick together or to the walls of the blood vessel to form a clot, which makes them foreign to endocrine disorders, making answer B false. There is some commonality between both Marfan's syndrome and Von Willebrand disease, which makes answer D incorrect. Both Marfan's syndrome and Von Willebrand Disease vary in severity.
146
Patients with Von Willebrand disease should be advised to:
Select one:
A.
Use assistive devices such as a walker or cane to provide stabilization and limit falls.
B.
Check blood sugar regularly and correct low blood sugar by eating a snack or small piece of candy.
C.
Participate in physical therapy to promote muscle development and maintain motor coordination.
D.
Inform their dentists of the disorder before procedures and refrain from taking blood thinning medications such as aspirin.
The correct answer is D.
Von Willebrand disease is a bleeding disorder that is characterized by prolonged bleeding due to difficulty clotting. This can be especially problematic after medical surgery or dental procedures. Therefore, it is important that dentists are notified of Von Willebrand disease. In addition, medications like aspirin and ibuprofen are blood thinners that decrease clotting and can cause complications in individuals with Von Willebrand disease. Use of assistive devices such as a walker or cane to provide stabilization and limit falls is not the treatment for Von Willenbrand disease, which makes answer A incorrect. Checking blood sugar levels is also not a treatment for Von Willebrand disease, which makes answer B incorrect. Participating in physical therapy to promote muscle development and maintain motor coordination is also not a treatment for Von Willebrand disease, which makes answer C false.
147
The likelihood of inheriting Von Willebrand disease if one parent is afflicted is:
Select one:
A.
25%.
B.
50%.
C.
75%.
D.
100%.
The correct answer is B.
Von Willebrand disease is an autosomal dominant genetic disorder, and it is the most common inherited bleeding disorder. Because it is an autosomal dominant disorder, only one copy of the defective gene is necessary to inherit the disorder. Therefore, if one parent is afflicted by Von Willebrand disease (and only carries one copy of the defective gene), then the likelihood that children will inherit the disorder is 50%. If both parents have the disorder (and each has one copy), then the likelihood of children inheriting the disorder is 75% (answer C). When an individual carries two copies of the gene (one inherited from each parent), the symptoms are typically more severe. Answers A and D are distractors.
148
Bilateral medial-temporal lobectomy, such as the procedure performed on H. M., results in:
Select one:
A.
Severe anterograde amnesia and some retrograde amnesia.
B.
Mild anterograde amnesia and severe retrograde amnesia.
C.
Mild anterograde amnesia and no retrograde amnesia.
D.
No anterograde amnesia and severe retrograde amnesia.
The correct answer is A.
Bilateral removal of the medial-temporal lobes results in severe anterograde amnesia (inability to encode new long-term memories) and some retrograde amnesia. H. M., the most famous case study of human memory, received a bilateral medial-temporal lobectomy to relieve him of severe epilepsy. Following surgery, H. M. had severe and total anterograde amnesia and partial retrograde amnesia. He could recall events in his early childhood; however, he lost memories of events that occurred closer to his surgery, and he could not form long-term memories following surgery. Answer B is incorrect, as this is the opposite of what is true. Mild anterograde amnesia and no retrograde amnesia are not the effects of bilateral removal of medial-temporal lobes, which makes answer C incorrect. Anterograde amnesia is severe and there is some retrograde amnesia, not severe retrograde amnesia, making answer D incorrect.
149
Korsakoff's syndrome is often preceded by a neurological condition known as Wernicke's encephalopathy. Which of the following is NOT a prominent symptom of Wernicke's encephalopathy?
Select one:
A.
Nystagmus
B.
Confusion
C.
Ataxia
D.
Echolalia
The correct answer is D.
The common symptoms of Wernicke's encephalopathy include nystagmus, confusion, and ataxia, but not echolalia (the repeating of words just heard).
150
A married couple is seeking counseling because the wife is concerned about her husband's behavior and they have had problems in their relationship involving alcohol. The wife says her husband has difficulty remembering events that have happened in their life, from where they went for their first anniversary to where they first met, and oftentimes he recreates events that they never experienced. She also mentioned that he has problems retaining new information. He says he does not have a problem with remembering anything and insists that she is making things up. Based on this information, the husband has what condition?
Select one:
A.
Substance-induced delirium
B.
Wernicke's encephalopathy
C.
Korsakoff's syndrome
D.
Thiamine-deficient amnestic disorder
The correct answer is C.
Substance-induced amnestic disorder, commonly called Korsakoff's syndrome, is marked by the inability to learn new information and the inability to recall past information or events. People with Korsakoff's may also confabulate information to fill in the gaps of their memory. Delirium (answer A) is characterized by a disturbance in consciousness accompanied by a disturbance in cognition or perception including memory deficits (usually impaired short-term memory), disorientation (usually to time and place), and language impairments. Wernicke's encephalopathy (answer B) includes symptoms of confusion, loss of muscle coordination and/or planning (ataxia), and nystagmus (rapid, involuntary eye movements); these symptoms often precede Korsakoff's syndrome. Though Korsakoff's syndrome is caused by a deficiency in thiamine, answer D is not a true disorder.
151
Roger is a 53-year-old man who has been diagnosed with Korsakoff's syndrome. He is most likely to have difficulty when asked to:
Select one:
A.
Cook his favorite meal.
B.
Dial his home phone number.
C.
Summarize what he read in the morning newspaper.
D.
Recall his first day of high school.
The correct answer is C.
Declarative memory (for words and facts), which is linked to tasks like recalling the content of a newspaper, is most likely to be impaired in Korsakoff's syndrome. Over-learned tasks like cooking a favorite meal (answer A) or dialing a home phone number (answer B), or recall of distant memories (e.g., the first day of high school; answer D) are more likely to be spared.
152
Shortly before presenting her research findings to the other faculty in her department, Anna noticed that her heart was racing. Anna experienced a symptom of:
Select one:
A.
Arrhythmia.
B.
Tachycardia.
C.
Bradycardia.
D.
Angina.
The correct answer is B.
Tachycardia is defined as a heart rate of more than 100 beats per minute. Tachycardia can occur due to a range of causes, including temporary causes such as anxiety and stress, fever, and drug use, or more permanent causes such as congenital heart conditions, heart disease, or damage due to previous heart attack. While tachycardia is a type of arrhythmia (answer A), arrhythmia is a broader term that refers to a range of conditions in which there is abnormal electrical activity in the heart. Bradycardia (answer C), which is also a type of arrhythmia, refers to a slow heart rate (slower than 60 beats per minute). Angina (answer D) refers to chest pain that occurs as the result of insufficient oxygen to the heart.
153
Cerebral blood flow is reduced during which phase of sleep?
Select one:
A.
Stage one
B.
Stage two
C.
Stage three
D.
Stage four
The correct answer is D.
Cerebral blood flow is reduced during stage four sleep.
154
Which of the following statements regarding sleep cycles is true?
Select one:
A.
As we age, we spend less time in REM sleep.
B.
As we age, we spend more time in REM sleep.
C.
As we age, delta sleep increases while theta activity decreases.
D.
Sleep occurs in much the same way throughout one's lifetime; any deviations from normal are sleep disorders.
The correct answer is A.
As individuals age, they spend less time in REM sleep. Answer B is incorrect because as individuals age, they spend less time in REM sleep, not more. Answer C is incorrect because the amount of time spent in delta sleep varies across the lifespan. Answer D is incorrect, as sleep patterns change across the lifespan.
155
Sleep spindles and K-complexes occur at which stage of sleep?
Select one:
A.
Stage one
B.
Stage two
C.
Stage three
D.
Stage four
The correct answer is B.
Sleep spindles and K-complexes occur during stage two sleep.
156
Beta blockers are used to treat which of the following conditions?
Select one:
A.
Asthma
B.
Tachycardia
C.
Bradycardia
D.
Beta-insulin-dependent diabetes
The correct answer is B.
Beta blockers are medications that block the effects of epinephrine and norepinephrine. Epinephrine and norepinephrine are hormones and neurotransmitters that contribute to the sympathetic nervous system by increasing heart rate and contracting blood vessels, releasing glucose from stores, and generally preparing the body for the fight-or-flight response. By blocking the effects of epinephrine and norepinephrine, beta blockers (such as propranolol) decrease heart rate and lower blood pressure. They are also used to treat anxiety and stage fright.
157
For the past several months, Ken has been experiencing dizziness, fatigue, weakness, and fainting. Ken's doctor diagnosed him with bradycardia. After several tests, it was concluded that the bradycardia was not due to hypothyroidism, abnormal potassium levels, drug use, or any medications that Ken is taking. Given these circumstances, Ken's doctor may consider treating Ken's bradycardia with:
Select one:
A.
Beta blockers.
B.
Vagus nerve stimulation.
C.
Iron supplements.
D.
A pacemaker.
The correct answer is D.
A pacemaker is a small battery-operated device that is implanted just below the collarbone and that stimulates the heart through small electrical wires that go from the pacemaker to the muscles of the heart. Electrical signals from the pacemaker are sent to the heart at a pre-determined rate, which regulates the beating of the heart and makes it beat faster and more regularly. Beta blockers (answer A) are used to treat tachycardia, a heart rate that is too fast. Vagus nerve stimulation (answer B) is used to treat intractable epilepsy. Iron supplements (answer C) are used to treat iron deficiency, which is associated with fatigue, weakness, irritability, and hair loss.
158
The cluster of four symptoms, namely, agraphia, acalculia, left-right confusion, and finger agnosia, is often called:
Select one:
A.
Klüver-Bucy syndrome.
B.
Gerstmann's syndrome.
C.
Ganser syndrome.
D.
Gerstmann-Sträussler-Scheinker syndrome.
The correct answer is B.
Gerstmann's syndrome is a disorder that involves four specific impairments, namely, agraphia, acalculia, left-right confusion, and finger agnosia. Gerstmann's syndrome is associated with damage to the left angular gyrus, a structure located in the parietal lobe. Klüver-Bucy syndrome (answer A) is associated with damage to (or removal of) the medial temporal lobes and the amygdala in particular. Ganser syndrome (answer C), which has been considered both a dissociative disorder and a factitious disorder, involves providing nonsense answers to questions, amnesia, confusion, and echolalia. Ganser syndrome is thought to be a reaction to extreme stress. Gerstmann-Sträussler-Scheinker (answer D) syndrome is a very rare fatal neurodegenerative disease that is associated with memory loss, dysarthria, and ataxia.
159
Gerstmann's syndrome is associated with which symptom cluster?
Select one:
A.
Alexia, agraphia, acalculia, and aphasia
B.
Finger agnosia, tactile agnosia, synesthesia, and anterograde amnesia
C.
Agraphia, left-right confusion, finger agnosia, and acalculia
D.
Left-right confusion, unilateral neglect, paresis, and loss of muscle control
The correct answer is C.
Gerstmann's syndrome is associated with four specific symptoms, namely, agraphia, left-right confusion, finger agnosia, and acalculia. Agraphia is associated with spelling errors, inappropriate use of upper- and lower-case letters, illegible writing, and difficulty expressing thoughts in writing. The agraphia found in Gerstmann's syndrome is not due to impaired motor skills or poor muscle tone. Finger agnosia involves an inability to identify fingers, differentiate them from one another, or orient them on command. Acalculia is sometimes called dyscalculia and refers to a difficulty understanding the rules of arithmetic.
160
Following stroke, a cluster of four symptoms—acalculia, finger agnosia, agraphia, and left-right confusion—can result from damage to which structure?
Select one:
A.
Left angular gyrus
B.
Right hippocampus
C.
Left orbitofrontal cortex
D.
Dorsal-prefrontal cortex
The correct answer is A.
The left angular gyrus is a structure located in the parietal lobe. Because of its location behind Wernicke's area and on the margin of the occipital and temporal lobes, the angular gyrus coordinates visual (the occipital lobe is the primary visual processing center), auditory (the temporal lobe contains the primary auditory cortex), and language information (which is processed in Wernicke's area). Damage to the left angular gyrus, as can occur from stroke or traumatic brain injury, can result in Gerstmann's syndrome, which is a collection of four specific symptoms, namely, finger agnosia, left-right confusion, acalculia, and agraphia.
161
A split-brain patient presented with a picture of a cup in her right visual field will NOT be able to:
Select one:
A.
Name the object.
B.
Identify the object with her left hand.
C.
Identify the object with her right hand.
D.
Repeat the object's name when it is whispered in her left ear.
The correct answer is B.
"Split brain" is the name given to patients who have had their corpus callosum severed. Information that is presented to the right visual field is processed by the left hemisphere (where the language centers are also located). Therefore, a split-brain patient would be able to name the object (answer A). The patient would also be able to identify the object with her right hand (answer C), as tactile information from the right hand is also processed in the left hemisphere. There is no contralateral processing of auditory information and therefore the patient would be able to say the object’s name if it were whispered in her left ear (answer D). Information from the left hand is processed by the right hemisphere, which, because of the severed corpus callosum, has no knowledge of what was presented to the right visual field. Therefore, the left hand would not be able to identify the object.
162
Roger Sperry won the Nobel Prize in 1981 for his research with split-brain patients, which led to a greater understanding of the lateralization of brain function. Lateralization of brain function can best be defined as:
Select one:
A.
The differential distribution of brain functions, including cognitive, language, and visual processing, between the two hemispheres.
B.
The primary use of only one brain hemisphere to process all sensory information.
C.
The tendency for a part of the brain to take on the functions of a nearby structure if damage occurs to that structure.
D.
The neglect of one side of the body that may occur when a there is a stroke in the contralateral side of the brain.
The correct answer is A.
Lateralization of brain function refers to the different functions of each hemisphere. Most notably, language functions are located in the left hemisphere in 97% of the population. In addition, the left hemisphere is associated with rational and logical thought processing, whereas the right hemisphere is associated with creative and intuitive thought processing. Therefore, although each hemisphere contains the same structures, the functions of those structures are slightly different. Because answers B, C, and D do not fit the description of lateralization, these choices are false.
163
When describing the functions associated with the right hemisphere, the right hemisphere is typically associated with:
Select one:
A.
Rational and analytic thought.
B.
Creativity and spatial awareness.
C.
The primary language centers of the brain.
D.
Positive emotions and memory.
The correct answer is B.
The right hemisphere is associated with creativity, musicality, spatial awareness, intuitive thought, and negative emotions. The left hemisphere, on the other hand, is associated with rational and analytic thought (answer A). The left hemisphere also houses the language centers of the brain (answer C; Broca's area and Wernicke's area) and positive emotions (answer D).
164
At age 34, Jay developed depression. Soon thereafter, he began to experience facial twitches and irregular jerky movements of his arms. Jay is most likely suffering from:
Select one:
A.
Parkinson's disease.
B.
Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease.
C.
Huntington's disease.
D.
Multiple sclerosis.
The correct answer is C.
Huntington's disease (HD) is a hereditary neurodegenerative disorder with onset typically in the mid-30s to mid-40s. It is characterized by choreic motor movements (irregular rapid jerky movements) that interfere with normal functioning, as well as depression, irritability, and cognitive changes. Cognitive changes can include dementia, which is characterized by confusion, memory loss, and personality changes. HD occurs due to an excessive number of trinucleotide repeats in the huntingtin gene. Parkinson's disease (answer A) is also a degenerative disorder. It occurs due to a loss of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra and is characterized by uncontrollable tremor, rigidity, and slowing of physical movement. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (answer B) is an acquired disease that is associated with rapid deterioration and dementia. Multiple sclerosis (answer D) occurs due to demyelination of the axons in the brain and spinal cord.
165
Huntington's disease (HD) is associated with which of the following?
Select one:
A.
Amyloid plaques in the brain
B.
Neuronal demyelination
C.
Degeneration in the caudate nucleus
D.
Overactivity in the temporal lobe
The correct answer is C.
HD is associated with atrophy and degeneration of neurons in the caudate nucleus, putamen, and deep layers of the cerebral cortex. Amyloid plaques (answer A) are found in Alzheimer's disease. Demyelination of neuronal axons (answer B) is associated with multiple sclerosis. Overactivity in the temporal lobe (answer D) is associated with temporal lobe epilepsy.
166
Diagnosis of Huntington's disease (HD) primarily includes:
Select one:
A.
Family history interview and neuropsychological testing.
B.
Brain imaging and behavioral observation.
C.
Behavioral observation and neuropsychological testing.
D.
Family history interview and genetic testing.
The correct answer is D.
HD is an autosomal, dominant genetic disorder. Therefore, if one parent has the disease, there is a 50% chance that a child will inherit the disease. Given this pattern of inheritance, a family history interview that assesses for HD is necessary as part of the diagnostic evaluation. If the family history interview reveals that there is a family history of HD, then genetic testing can be completed to determine whether a specific individual inherited the defective huntingtin gene.
167
Joe remained stunted in growth, despite reaching sexual maturity. The physician suspected reduced activity in his:
Select one:
A.
Thyroid gland.
B.
HPG axis.
C.
Gonads.
D.
Anterior pituitary lobe.
The correct answer is D.
The anterior pituitary lobe releases somatotropin, which is also known as GH. Stunted growth occurs when GH balance is disrupted. The thyroid gland makes and stores hormones that help regulate heart rate, blood pressure, body temperature, and the rate at which food is digested, which makes answer A false. Answer B is incorrect, as premature activity of the HPG axis can lead to early sexual maturation, which is known as precocious puberty; however, this does not affect physical growth. Answer C is incorrect, as the gonads release hormones that are necessary for sexual maturation.
168
Sexual maturation is facilitated by the activity of:
Select one:
A.
The pineal gland.
B.
The adrenal gland.
C.
The pituitary gland.
D.
The thyroid gland.
The correct answer is C.
The anterior lobe of the pituitary gland releases gonadotropic hormones, which facilitate sexual maturation.
169
Cortisol is known to affect the structure and function of which brain region?
Select one:
A.
Anterior cingulate cortex
B.
Hippocampus
C.
Basal ganglia
D.
Striatum
The correct answer is B.
Atrophy of the hippocampus in humans and animals exposed to severe stress is believed to be caused by prolonged exposure to high concentrations of cortisol.
170
Dorsolateral prefrontal cortex damage leads to impairments in:
Select one:
A.
Long-term memory.
B.
Memory for sensory events.
C.
Constructive memory.
D.
Working memory.
The correct answer is D.
The dorsolateral prefrontal cortex is an area of the frontal lobe that has connections with the thalamus, basal ganglia, and hippocampus. The frontal lobes are important for executive functioning, which refers to one's ability to plan, organize, sequence, and anticipate consequences. Working memory is an important component of these higher-order cognitive processes. Therefore, it is not surprising that the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex is involved in working memory. Working memory is the ability to hold information in short-term memory, while at the same time manipulate and monitor the information. Research has found that individuals with damage to the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex have impairments in working memory.
171
Damage to the hippocampus leads to:
Select one:
A.
Impairments in working memory.
B.
Difficulty identifying names of objects.
C.
Complete retrograde amnesia.
D.
Impairments with spatial navigation.
The correct answer is D.
The hippocampus is associated with the encoding of memories and the conversion of short-term memories into long-term memories. It is also associated with the coding of spatial memories, such as one's memory for the layout of one's town or home. Therefore, damage to the hippocampus leads to difficulty with spatial navigation and can result in a tendency to get lost or disoriented in what should be a familiar environment. The hippocampus is not the location where memories are stored. Thus, damage to the hippocampus would not cause complete amnesia for events prior to the damage (retrograde amnesia; answer C). It is also not involved in working memory (answer A) or an inability to recall names of objects (a condition known as visual agnosia; answer B).
172
Procedural memory is __________; declarative memory is __________.
Select one:
A.
implicit; explicit
B.
explicit; implicit
C.
short-term; long-term
D.
long-term; short-term
The correct answer is A.
Procedural memory is memory that is retrieved without conscious effort, such as knowing how to ride a bike or play the violin. This type of memory is also called implicit memory. Declarative memory refers to memories that can be consciously retrieved and described. They can be memories for facts or specific events. Declarative memory is also called explicit memory.
173
The two types of cells that are located in the back of the eye on the retina are called:
Select one:
A.
Rods and cones.
B.
Glia and astrocytes.
C.
Photoreceptors and ganglion.
D.
Purkinje and glia.
The correct answer is A.
Rods and cones are the two types of photoreceptors on the retina at the back of the eye. Rods are located on the periphery and are used to process vision in low lighting. Cones are in the center of the retina and process visual information in normal lighting. They have better acuity than rods and also process color information. Answer B is incorrect, as glia are cells that provide support and protection for the brain's neurons, whereas astrocytes are a type of glial cell located in the brain and spinal cord that have a characteristic star shape. A ganglion (answer C) is a mass of nerve cell bodies. Purkinje cells (answer D) are neurons located in the cerebellar cortex.
174
Achromatopsia causes a loss in the ability to:
Select one:
A.
Name the color of the sky.
B.
Determine whether certain color or object combinations are likely.
C.
Associate object color with smells and sounds.
D.
Distinguish between color hues.
The correct answer is D.
Achromatopsia is the inability to distinguish between color hues. Individuals with achromatopsia see the world in shades of gray. When it is due to damage to the V4 area of the visual cortex, it is referred to as cerebral achromatopsia. This may be due to trauma, hemorrhage, or tumor. Achromatopsia can also be congenital, resulting from genetic abnormalities.
175
Damage to area V5 is likely to cause which of the following?
Select one:
A.
Difficulty perceiving color
B.
Difficulty perceiving form
C.
Difficulty perceiving object form during movement
D.
Difficulty perceiving object form during rest
The correct answer is C.
Like areas V3 and V4, the V5 area of the visual cortex has specialized functioning. V5 primarily processes information related to movement. Therefore, damage to the V5 area results in an inability to see objects that are in motion. Perception of objects that are stationary, however, is unaffected.
176
Synesthesia is defined as:
Select one:
A.
A condition in which an individual is unable to differentiate between colors.
B.
A condition in which an individual is unable to simultaneously see and integrate multiple aspects of the environment or an object.
C.
A condition in which an individual experiences numbness or tingling sensations in the skin.
D.
A condition in which an individual stimulation of a sensory modality leads to an automatic secondary sensory experience.
The correct answer is D.
Answer A is incorrect because it refers to achromatopsia, not synesthesia. Answer B is incorrect because it refers to simultagnosia. Answer C is incorrect because it refers to paresthesia.
177
Bob reports that sounds have sights associated with them. When he hears a duck quack, he sees pebbles, but when he hears a cow moo, he sees squirrels playing flutes. Bob has a condition called:
Select one:
A.
Synthamnesia.
B.
Synthetic amnesia.
C.
Synescopia.
D.
Synesthesia.
The correct answer is D.
Answers A and C are made-up terms; answer B is unrelated to the presentation described in this scenario.
178
An individual who reports seeing sounds and smelling sights is likely to be diagnosed with:
Select one:
A.
Malingering.
B.
Prosopagnosia.
C.
Substance-induced tactile hallucinations.
D.
Synesthesia.
The correct answer is D.
Synesthesia is a rare neurological condition resulting in stimulation of secondary sensory pathways. People with this condition may see sounds or smell sights. Malingering (answer A) is the intentional production of symptoms expected to result in some gain for the individual. Prosopagnosia (answer B) is the inability to recognize faces. A person may experience tactile (sense) hallucinations from the intake of a substance, but answer C is a distractor answer and not an actual diagnosis.
179
Korsakoff's syndrome and Wernicke's encephalopathy are caused by:
Select one:
A.
GABA hypersensitivity.
B.
Alcohol psychosis.
C.
Thiamine deficiency.
D.
Chronic hyperglycemia.
The correct answer is C.
Thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency causes impairments in the body's ability to metabolize carbohydrates, which limits the production of amino acids and glucose-derived neurotransmitters. Chronic thiamine deficiency leads to cell death and brain damage in the medial temporal lobes, mammillary bodies, cerebellum (particularly the Purkinje cells), pons, and midbrain. This results in the symptoms associated with Korsakoff's syndrome and Wernicke's encephalopathy. Chronic hyperglycemia (answer D) is associated with diabetes and, if not controlled, can lead to kidney, cardiovascular, and neurological damage.
180
Ataxia is a common symptom of __________ and results from damage to __________.
Select one:
A.
Huntington's disease; the cerebellum
B.
Wernicke's disease; Wernicke's area
C.
Korsakoff's syndrome, the mammillary bodies
D.
Wernicke's disease; the cerebellum
The correct answer is D.
Ataxia, which refers to uncoordinated motor movements, is one of the three symptoms included in the triad of impairments associated with Wernicke's disease. Ataxia results from damage in the cerebellum and, in particular, degeneration of the Purkinje cells, which are located in the cerebellar cortex. Huntington's disease also involves motor symptoms, but the types of motor movements associated with Huntington's disease are called chorea (answer A). Choreic movements are irregular, involuntary, jerky movements. Huntington's disease primarily involves damage to the striatum (a part of the basal ganglia), although the cerebellum is also involved. The mammillary bodies are a part of the hypothalamus and receive information from the hippocampus. While they are damaged in Korsakoff's syndrome (answer C), this damage is associated with the memory impairments seen in the disease.
181
Why is Korsakoff's syndrome most commonly observed among chronic alcoholics?
Select one:
A.
Alcohol itself interferes with thiamine absorption, and poor nutrition (reduced thiamine intake) is common among chronic alcoholics.
B.
Alcohol itself is toxic and causes brain damage in the brain structures that are associated with Korsakoff's syndrome.
C.
Alcoholics have higher rates of smoking than the general population, and nicotine causes the brain damage associated with Korsakoff's syndrome.
D.
The same genes that predispose an individual to alcoholism have also been implicated in the development of Korsakoff's syndrome.
The correct answer is A.
Korsakoff's syndrome is caused by chronic thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency. Alcoholics are at higher risk of having Korsakoff's syndrome because the presence of alcohol makes it more difficult to absorb thiamine in the intestines, and because alcoholics are more likely to have reduced thiamine intake due to poor nutrition. While Korsakoff's syndrome is most frequently observed among alcoholics, individuals with other diseases and disorders that are associated with poor nutrition are also at risk for developing Korsakoff's syndrome.
182
MRI is different from fMRI because MRI identifies brain __________, whereas fMRI measures brain __________.
Select one:
A.
lesions; structure
B.
function; lesions
C.
structure; function
D.
function; structure
The correct answer is C.
Answer A is incorrect because fMRI does not measure brain structure; it measures brain function. Additionally, fMRI is not typically used to assess brain lesions. Answers B and D are incorrect because MRI does not measure brain function; it measures brain structure.
183
Two important clinical applications of EEG include evaluation of __________ and __________.
Select one:
A.
sleep disturbance; posttraumatic brain swelling
B.
brain lesions; insomnia
C.
sleep patterns; epilepsy
D.
stroke; sleep patterns
The correct answer is C.
EEG is often used to evaluate sleep patterns and epilepsy. Sleep disturbance (answer A) is a distractor term, and posttraumatic brain swelling would be best evaluated using a different measure, such as MRI. Brain lesions (answer B) are typically evaluated using MRI or CT. On occasion, insomnia may be assessed using EEG. Stroke (answer D) is typically evaluated using MRI or CT.
184
EEG is a useful brain imaging technique but is limited in its utility because:
Select one:
A.
It can generate electricity but not X-rays or ultrasonic waves.
B.
It is well suited to study cognitive processes but less suited to study epilepsy.
C.
It provides relatively poor spatial resolution.
D.
It provides relatively poor temporal resolution.
The correct answer is C.
EEG provides excellent temporal resolution (on the order of milliseconds) but it has poor spatial resolution. Answer A is incorrect, as EEG does not use sound waves. EEG measures the difference in electrical potential in multiple brain areas. Answer B is incorrect, as one of the most useful applications of EEG is to study epilepsy. Answer D is incorrect because EEG does not generate electricity; it only measures the electricity that is already present in the brain.
185
Which test is known to measure selective attention and inhibition?
Select one:
A.
Color-word Stroop test
B.
WCST
C.
GCS
D.
WAIS-IV and WISC-V
The correct answer is A.
This test evaluates the ability to inhibit an automatic or pre-learned response, and poor performance on this test is indicative of problems with selective attention and inhibition. The GCS (answer C) is the most commonly used system for classifying TBI severity. The WAIS-IV and WISC-V (answer D) measure crystallized and fluid intelligence. The WCST (answer B) measures shifting mental set and problem-solving.
186
Knowledge and skills that are acquired over a lifetime and involve learning from past experiences are referred to as __________ intelligence.
Select one:
A.
academic
B.
crystallized
C.
emotional
D.
fluid
The correct answer is B.
Crystallized intelligence refers to knowledge and skills that are acquired via learning. Academic abilities are not usually referred to as "academic intelligence" (answer A) but are rather measured as "academic achievement." Fluid intelligence (answer D) refers to the ability to apply knowledge, learning, reasoning, speed of processing, and so forth. Emotional intelligence (answer C) refers to the ability to identify, assess, and manage emotions.
187
A neuropsychologist uses precisely the same test materials for each client, regardless of the referral question. This approach to neuropsychological assessment is known as:
Select one:
A.
Standardized approach.
B.
Process approach.
C.
Battery approach.
D.
Non-individualized approach.
The correct answer is C.
The battery approach refers to a neuropsychological approach in which each client receives the same test materials regardless of the referral type. The process approach (answer B) refers to choosing measures for each individual client and referral question. Answers A and D are distractors.
188
__________ is to grand mal seizures as absence is to __________ seizures.
Select one:
A.
Clonic; petit mal
B.
Symptomatic; atonic
C.
Akinetic; myoclonic
D.
Tonic-clonic; petit mal
The correct answer is D.
Grand mal seizures are also referred to as tonic-clonic seizures; absence seizures are also referred to as petit mal seizures. Both grand mal and absence seizures are types of generalized seizures, meaning that the disruption in brain activity involves the entire brain, rather than a specific localized section (as it does in partial seizures). Grand mal seizures are considered the most severe type of seizure and may be preceded by an aura, followed by loss of consciousness, body tensing and convulsing, and loss of bladder control. Recovery following the seizure may include fatigue, confusion, and headache. Absence seizures also involve a loss of consciousness, but present as a staring spell and, occasionally, subtle body movement.
189
In what situation is surgical intervention for seizures, which includes removal of a part of the brain, most likely to be considered as an option for the treatment of epilepsy?
Select one:
A.
When the seizures are found to be generalized seizures and interfere with vital functions
B.
When the seizures are located in a specific area of the brain that is not associated with vital functions
C.
When the seizures are uncontrolled by medication and onset of seizures occurs before age three
D.
When the seizures are associated with loss of consciousness and atonia
The correct answer is B.
Surgical intervention for seizures is considered if the seizures are severe, have not responded to medications, can be localized to a specific area of the brain, and the area of the brain with the abnormal activity is not associated with vital functions, such as language or memory. This is especially the case for surgical interventions that involve removing the part of the brain that is displaying abnormal electrical activity. Other surgical interventions, such as making cuts in the brain to decrease the spread of abnormal activity throughout the brain, may be used if the location of the seizure is not focal.
190
Which type of seizure is accompanied by minimal eye-blinking movements, a brief loss of consciousness or awareness, and quick recovery?
Select one:
A.
Clonic
B.
Tonic
C.
Akinetic
D.
Absence
The correct answer is D.
The primary symptom of an absence seizure is staring (with minimal to no eye blinking or eye movements). During the staring spell, the individual is unaware of what is going on and does not respond to their name or to noise. The individual may also engage in purposeless movements (such as wandering around) and may or may not have subtle twitching of the arms or legs. The seizure is typically brief and involves a quick recovery, with the individual often quickly resuming whatever activity they were engaged in prior to the seizure. Typically, there is little awareness that the seizure occurred.
191
Extrapyramidal side effects do not include the following:
Select one:
A.
dystonia.
B.
akathisia.
C.
tardive dyskinesia.
D.
hypotension.
The correct answer is D.
Hypotension is an adrenergic side effect, not an extrapyramidal side effect. Answers A, B, and C are incorrect because they are extrapyramidal side effects.
192
Typical antipsychotics such as thorazine and haloperidol are less effective than atypical antipsychotics in:
Select one:
A.
treating schizophrenia.
B.
controlling negative symptoms of schizophrenia.
C.
avoiding extrapyramidal side effects.
D.
increasing dopamine levels.
The correct answer is C.
Typical antipsychotics are associated with higher rates of EPS.
193
Which statement is true of an action potential?
Select one:
A.
An action potential increases proportionally in size with the strength of the stimulus; stronger stimuli evoke larger action potentials.
B.
An action potential remains the same in size regardless of the strength of the stimulus; stronger stimuli evoke action potentials of the same size.
C.
An action potential increases exponentially in size with the strength of the stimulus; stronger stimuli evoke larger action potentials.
D.
An action potential decreases in size with the strength of the stimulus; stronger stimuli evoke smaller action potentials because of a phenomenon called neuronal exhaustion.
The correct answer is B.
Action potentials occur when the threshold of excitation is reached. The size of the action potential does not change, regardless of the strength of the stimuli (in contrast to answers A, C, and D).
194
What is the all-or-none principle?
Select one:
A.
Given a stimulus, either all the neurons or none must fire within a given neuronal bundle.
B.
Given a stimulus, the number of neurons that fire is proportional to the strength of the stimulus.
C.
Neurons fire only when a minimum threshold intensity has been reached.
D.
Neurons fire differentially depending upon the type of stimulus received.
The correct answer is C.
Action potentials occur when the threshold of excitation has been reached. The all-or-none principle is not related to the number of neurons fired (contrasting answers A and B). Neurons always fire with the same intensity regardless of the type of stimulus (contrasting answer D).
195
Which statement describes the rate law?
Select one:
A.
The strength of a response is proportional to the rate of firing of the neurons.
B.
The strength of a response is proportional to the number of neurons firing.
C.
The strength of a response is proportional to the strength of the stimulus.
D.
The strength of a response is proportional to the amount of time in which the neurons fire.
The correct answer is A.
Answer B is incorrect because the number of neurons firing does not pertain to the rate law. Answer C is incorrect because the strength of the stimulus is not taken into consideration in the rate law. Answer D is incorrect because the amount of time in which neurons fire is not relevant to the rate law.
196
__________ is said to have occurred when the __________ initiates a fear response to a neutral stimulus that was previously paired with a feared stimulus.
Select one:
A.
Operant conditioning; amygdala
B.
Discrete learning; hypothalamus
C.
Classical conditioning; substantia nigra
D.
Classical conditioning; amygdala
The correct answer is D.
The amygdala is associated with classical conditioning in four ways. Specifically, it receives information from sensory systems; regulates emotions such as fear, aggression, and pleasure; attaches emotions to memories; and activates the sympathetic nervous system. When a neutral stimulus becomes a conditioned stimulus through classical conditioning, the amygdala will activate the sympathetic nervous system in the presence of the neutral stimulus alone. Thus, a fear response may result from seeing a neutral stimulus (e.g., the park where one was bit by a dog) even when the actual threatening stimulus (e.g., the dog) is not present. Operant conditioning is the use of rewards and punishments to change behavior, making answer A incorrect. Answer B is incorrect, as it refers to learning of separate, distinct events, a distinct process from classical conditioning. Furthermore, the hypothalamus is not directly involved in fear conditioning, as it is involved with maintaining homeostasis in the body, regulating temperature, and controlling hunger, thirst, and circadian cycles. Answer C is incorrect, as the substantia nigra is not involved in fear response, but in addiction and movement.
197
Fear and anger responses are mediated by which of the following structures?
Select one:
A.
Thalamus
B.
Pituitary gland
C.
Amygdala
D.
Hippocampus
The correct answer is C.
The amygdala plays an important role in fear and anger responses to threatening stimuli by receiving information regarding the threat from sensory systems (e.g., olfaction, vision, and sound) and activating the sympathetic nervous system in response to this sensory information. Answer A is incorrect as, instead of activating automatic responses to fear, the thalamus acts as a "relay station" in the brain, receiving sensory and motor signals and sending these signals to the cerebral cortex. Answer B is incorrect; although the pituitary gland, an endocrine "master gland," is part of the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis, and as such is involved in the stress response, this would not be the first choice here. The pituitary gland releases pituitary hormone, which has a variety of functions, including controlling growth, blood pressure, breast milk production, and metabolism. Answer D is incorrect as the hippocampus is associated with formation of spatial, visual, and verbal memories and is involved in memory consolidation, which entails transferring information from short-term to long-term memory.
198
Damage to the amygdala produces which of the following symptom clusters?
Select one:
A.
Emotional bluntedness, hypersexuality, hyperorality, and visual agnosia
B.
Severe anterograde and retrograde amnesia, confabulation, and lack of insight
C.
Loss of balance, muscle rigidity, and dementia
D.
Changes in personality, poor impulse control, and executive functioning difficulty
The correct answer is A.
Damage to the amygdala is associated with emotional bluntedness, hypersexuality, mouthing of objects (hyperorality), and an inability to identify objects or faces (visual agnosia). This constellation of symptoms is characteristic of Klüver-Bucy syndrome, which occurs after bilateral damage to the amygdala. Answer B is incorrect as severe anterograde and retrograde amnesia, confabulation, and lack of insight are symptoms of Korsakoff's syndrome. Answer C is also incorrect as loss of balance, muscle rigidity, and dementia are associated with a variety of disorders, including Lewy body dementia and Parkinson's disease. While Parkinson's is primarily a movement disorder, it may be associated with Alzheimer's-like dementia. Answer D is incorrect as changes in personality, poor impulse control, and executive functioning difficulty are all symptoms associated with damage to the frontal lobes.
199
Mr. and Mrs. Chase brought their daughter Vanessa to a psychiatrist because they were concerned about her restricted food intake, significant loss of body weight, irritability, and depressed mood. Upon an interview with the psychiatrist, Vanessa indicated that she did not believe that she was underweight and did not understand why her parents were concerned. Vanessa's presentation is most consistent with which disorder?
Select one:
A.
Bulimia nervosa
B.
Major depressive disorder
C.
Borderline personality disorder
D.
Anorexia nervosa
The correct answer is D.
Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder that is associated with restricted food intake, body weight significantly low for one's age and height, refusal to maintain a healthy weight, fear of gaining weight, and a distorted perception of one's current body shape and size. Symptoms of depression, such as irritability and depressed mood, may also be present, and are often related to the state of semi-starvation caused by anorexia. Individuals with anorexia do not typically see their eating habits and perceptions of body image as a problem. Answer A is incorrect, as bulimia nervosa is marked by episodes of binge eating and inappropriate compensatory behaviors to prevent weight gain, such as purging, use of laxatives, and excessive exercising. Answer B is also incorrect; although Vanessa may suffer from depression as well, her symptom presentation is consistent with anorexia nervosa, not with major depressive disorder. Answer C is incorrect, as borderline personality disorder is not hallmarked by restricted food intake or a fear of gaining weight. Rather, some of its hallmarks are impairments in affect regulation, low ego strength, and an intense fear of abandonment. However, bulimia nervosa is a common comorbid diagnosis with this personality disorder.
200
Individuals with anorexia may have physiological abnormalities, such as bradycardia, anemia, and leukopenia. These conditions are also found in which of the following populations?
Select one:
A.
Individuals suffering from starvation or semi-starvation
B.
Individuals suffering from alcohol withdrawal
C.
Adults with bulimia
D.
Individuals with anxiety
The correct answer is A.
The physiological symptoms that are often found in individuals with anorexia are related to their extremely low body weight and state of semi-starvation. Bradycardia (slow heart rate), anemia, and leukopenia (low white blood cell count) are conditions that are found in people suffering from starvation. When individuals with anorexia gain weight and are re-nourished, these conditions improve. Answer B is incorrect, as alcohol withdrawal causes autonomic hyperactivity (e.g., sweating, tachycardia), hand tremors, insomnia, nausea or vomiting, short-lived hallucinations or illusions, psychomotor agitation, and/or grand mal seizures. Answer C is a distractor. Bulimia is also an eating disorder but, unlike anorexia, it does not involve the refusal to maintain normal weight and its associated health consequences. Answer D is incorrect, as anxiety is not related to bradycardia (the opposite may be true), anemia, or leukopenia.
201
Anorexia nervosa is difficult to treat because:
Select one:
A.
Affected individuals are usually in denial.
B.
The mood swings of patients cause them to be non-compliant with medication.
C.
Anorexia nervosa is genetic in etiology and treatment-resistant.
D.
Anorexia nervosa causes permanent changes in the neurotransmitters involved in hunger control.
The correct answer is A.
Anorexia is an eating disorder that is characterized by low body weight, refusal to maintain a healthy body weight, and distortion of body image. While anorexic individuals are significantly underweight, they do not see themselves as such and often continue to seek to lose weight. Because of their denial of the situation, individuals with anorexia do not typically seek treatment themselves but are either brought to treatment by other concerned individuals (e.g., friends or family) or by a physician due to the resulting health issues (e.g., bradycardia). As a consequence, they are difficult to engage in treatment. Answer B is incorrect, as anorexia is not directly associated with mood swings and does not have an effective pharmacological treatment with which one can be non-compliant. Answer C is incorrect, as anorexia may involve a genetic link, but is a much more complex disorder than that. In addition, the genetic link is not directly correlated with treatment resistance. Answer D is false, as anorexia does not cause permanent changes in the brain.
202
In tension headaches, pain is typically experienced as:
Select one:
A.
A tightening band of pressure around the forehead.
B.
A burning sensation behind the eyes.
C.
An intermittent pulsating sensation.
D.
A feeling of fullness in the cheeks and brow.
The correct answer is A.
As tension headaches are often marked by tightening pressure in the forehead region. The other responses are incorrect, as answer B is associated with cluster headache, answer C with migraine headache, and answer D with sinus headache.
203
Which of the following factors is least likely to trigger a migraine headache?
Select one:
A.
Use of oral contraception
B.
Consuming monosodium glutamate
C.
Changes in sleep patterns
D.
Sustained contraction of muscles in the neck
The correct answer is D.
Muscle contraction is related to tension headaches, rather than migraine headaches. The other responses are incorrect, as they are all potential triggers of migraine headaches.
204
Which medications are used to treat anxiety?
Select one:
A.
SSRIs
B.
Mood stabilizers
C.
Antipsychotics
D.
SSRIs and benzodiazepines
The correct answer is D.
Both benzodiazepines and SSRIs have been found to be effective in the treatment of anxiety. Benzodiazepines function to counteract the lower levels of GABA observed in individuals with anxiety by binding to receptors on the GABAergic neurons. SSRIs function to increase levels of serotonin in the synapse by limiting the reuptake of serotonin into the presynaptic neuron. Because of their strong addictive quality, benzodiazepines are typically only prescribed for acute anxiety and are not recommended for long-term use. Answer A is incomplete. Answer B is incorrect, as mood stabilizers are used to treat bipolar disorder. Answer C is incorrect, as antipsychotics are mainly used to treat psychotic symptoms, such as those present in schizophrenia.
205
Which of the following neurotransmitters has been least implicated in anxiety?
Select one:
A.
Serotonin
B.
Glutamate
C.
Norepinephrine
D.
GABA
The correct answer is B.
Although glutamate is an excitatory neurotransmitter, glutamate is the least involved in the development of anxiety disorders among the available options. Answers A, C, and D are all incorrect, as serotonin, GABA, and norepinephrine have all been implicated in anxiety (with disruption in different neurotransmitters being involved in different types of anxiety disorders). The drugs used to treat anxiety target these disruptions.
206
Which of the following classes of medications is NOT known to be effective in the treatment of anxiety disorders?
Select one:
A.
Benzodiazepines
B.
Neuroleptics
C.
SNRIs
D.
SSRIs
The correct answer is B.
Neuroleptic medications are also known as antipsychotic medications. These include Abilify, Risperdal, and Haldol. Antipsychotics are typically used to treat symptoms associated with psychosis and are not used in the treatment of anxiety. Answer A is incorrect as benzodiazepines, such as Xanax and clonazepam, are used to treat anxiety; however, because of their addictive potential and the risk of rebound symptoms, the use of benzodiazepines in anxiety treatment is usually temporary and limited. Answers C and D are incorrect as well; while SSRIs are typically the first line of pharmacologic treatment for anxiety, Effexor (venlafaxine), which is an SNRI, has shown good efficacy in treating anxiety and is quickly replacing SSRIs as the most popular treatment choice for anxiety.
207
Which of the following is the primary function of the thalamus?
Select one:
A.
Storing long-term memories
B.
Relaying sensory information to the cortex
C.
Processing emotional stimuli
D.
Regulating the body's endocrine system
The correct answer is B.
The thalamus is primarily considered a relay station for sensory information. Answer A is incorrect because the hippocampus, rather than the thalamus, is primarily involved in consolidating long-term memories. Answer C is not the preferred answer because while the thalamus may be involved in processing some types of emotional information (e.g., emotionally arousing information), this is not one of its primary functions. Answer D is incorrect because the hypothalamus, rather than the thalamus, is involved in regulating the endocrine system.
208
Which of the following brain structures is involved in the relay of visual information from the eyes to the primary visual cortex?
Select one:
A.
Cingulate cortex
B.
Somatosensory cortex
C.
Thalamus
D.
Hypothalamus
The correct answer is C.
The LGN of the thalamus projects visual information from the eyes to the primary visual cortex. Answer A is incorrect because the cingulate is not involved in the relay of visual information. Answer B is incorrect because the somatosensory cortex is not involved in the relay of visual information; rather, it is involved in sensation perception. Answer D is incorrect because the hypothalamus is not involved in the relay of visual information.
209
The thalamus is located in the:
Select one:
A.
Mesencephalon.
B.
Diencephalon.
C.
Telencephalon.
D.
Rhombencephalon.
The correct answer is B.
The thalamus is located in the diencephalon.
210
Phenylketonuria differs from Tay-Sachs in that:
Select one:
A.
Phenylketonuria is inherited, whereas Tay-Sachs is not.
B.
Tay-Sachs is inherited, whereas phenylketonuria is not.
C.
Phenylketonuria causes premature death, whereas Tay-Sachs does not.
D.
Phenylketonuria can be treated, whereas Tay-Sachs cannot.
The correct answer is D.
Phenylketonuria, an autosomal recessive disorder, involves an inability to metabolize phenylalanine and can be effectively treated if individuals with the disorder adhere to a strict diet that includes extremely low levels of phenylalanine. Tay-Sachs disease is also an autosomal recessive disorder. It involves an inability to degrade and eliminate the waste that is produced by the functioning of brain cells. There is currently no treatment for Tay-Sachs disease and it typically results in death by age five.
211
A primary difference between phenylketonuria and Down syndrome is that:
Select one:
A.
Phenylketonuria causes premature death, whereas individuals with Down syndrome live to adulthood.
B.
Phenylketonuria is genetically inherited, whereas Down syndrome is not necessarily inherited.
C.
If not caught at birth, phenylketonuria may produce severe mental retardation, whereas Down syndrome is generally associated with individuals with average IQs.
D.
Phenylketonuria can be cured if diagnosed at birth, whereas Down syndrome cannot.
The correct answer is B.
Phenylketonuria is a genetic disorder that results when the recessive variant of the gene is inherited from both parents. When only one recessive gene is inherited, the individual is considered a carrier and does not express symptoms of the disorder. Down syndrome is a chromosomal disorder in which there is an extra chromosome 21, or part of an extra chromosome 21. This can either occur prior to conception, when the sperm or egg cell is produced with an extra 21, or after conception, when the cells are dividing. The latter method is more rare and results in what is known as mosaic Down syndrome, a condition in which some but not all cells in the body have trisomy 21.
212
Eric and Elizabeth are ready to start a family. Because Elizabeth has PKU, however, they decide to see a genetic counselor to determine the chances that their baby will have PKU. What will the genetic counselor tell the couple?
Select one:
A.
PKU is an autosomal dominant genetic disorder; therefore, the baby will have PKU because Elizabeth has PKU.
B.
Elizabeth's PKU was well treated throughout her life; hence, she has less than a 50% chance of passing the condition on to her child.
C.
If Eric is found through genetic testing to be a carrier of the disorder, the baby will have a 50% chance of having PKU.
D.
If Eric is a carrier, but has not developed symptoms of PKU by the time of conception, the baby has no chance of inheriting the disorder.
The correct answer is C.
PKU is an autosomal recessive genetic disorder, which means that in order to have the disorder, one must inherit the recessive gene for PKU from both parents. Although Eric does not have PKU, he may be a carrier for PKU, which means he inherited one recessive PKU gene from one of his parents. In order to know the risk to the baby, Eric will have to complete genetic testing. If it is found that he is a carrier, then the baby will have a 50% chance of inheriting the disorder; the baby will get one recessive gene from its mother and either another recessive gene from its father (and then have PKU) or a dominant gene from its father (and be a carrier for PKU). This rationale makes answer A incorrect, as the baby will have to inherit the gene from both parents in order to have the disorder. Answer B is incorrect, as it does not matter how well treated Elizabeth was; she will still pass the gene to her child since she has two copies. Answer D is also incorrect, as a carrier does not develop symptoms and, in addition, he would still have a 50% chance of passing it down to his child as a carrier.
213
The very last brain structure to develop is:
Select one:
A.
The limbic system.
B.
The cingulate cortex.
C.
The occipital lobe.
D.
The frontal cortex.
The correct answer is D.
The frontal cortex is the last brain area to develop. Because the brain develops in an inward-out manner, the frontal cortex is not fully developed at birth. In fact, development of the frontal cortex, which is responsible for cognition and executive functioning skills such as planning, sequencing, anticipating consequences, and organizing, continues to develop into adolescence and young adulthood.
214
Which of the following aspects of brain development occurs almost exclusively prior to birth?
Select one:
A.
Myelination
B.
Synaptic formation
C.
Neurogenesis
D.
Synaptic pruning
The correct answer is C.
Neurogenesis refers to the generation of neural cells. During fetal brain development, there is a very rapid rate of neurogenesis, which results in an overproliferation of cells in the brain at birth. After birth, the brain cells mature, develop dendrites and axons, and make connections with other neurons. After the first two years of life, the cells that have not made connections and are unnecessary are pruned (i.e., they "die off"), with the resulting brain having fewer neurons than it did at birth. Contrary to prior beliefs that neurogenesis did not occur in adulthood, recent research has found that neurogenesis continues into adulthood, although not at the same rate as it occurs during brain development in utero. Myelination (answer A) is the process in which myelin forms around the axon of a neuron. Synaptic formation (answer B), also known as synaptogenesis, involves the formation of synapses, which occurs during early brain development. Synaptic pruning (answer D) is a neurological regulatory process involving the reduction of the overall number of overproduced or weak neurons to form more efficient synaptic configurations.
215
Which of the following steps is an integral aspect of brain development and necessary for normal brain functioning that is paradoxically an undoing of what occurred earlier in brain development?
Select one:
A.
Synaptic pruning
B.
Demyelination
C.
Dedifferentiation
D.
Remigration
The correct answer is A.
The brain contains an overabundance of cells at birth (approximately 100 billion). After birth, the brain cells mature by developing dendrites and axons and making connections with other neurons. After the first two years of life, a period of synaptic pruning occurs, whereby neurons are killed off in order to make the brain more efficient by removing weaker synapses and neurons that are not functioning properly. Neurons that have been most active during the first few years of life, and therefore have the strongest connections, will be preserved. Demyelination (answer B) is a nervous system disease in which the myelin sheath of the neurons is damaged. Dedifferentiation (answer C) involves the regression of a specialized cell or tissue to a simpler, unspecialized form.
216
The catecholamine hypothesis implicates which of the following neurotransmitters in depression?
Select one:
A.
Serotonin
B.
Norepinephrine
C.
Dopamine
D.
GABA
The correct answer is B.
The catecholamine hypothesis specifically pertains to the role of norepinephrine. Answer A is incorrect because although low serotonergic activity has been implicated in depression, the catecholamine hypothesis of depression pertains to norepinephrine rather than serotonin. Answer C is incorrect because although dopamine has been implicated in depression, the catecholamine hypothesis does not include dopamine. Answer D is incorrect because the catecholamine hypothesis does not include GABA.
217
Which of the following is a theory of depression?
Select one:
A.
The dopamine principle
B.
The theory of serotonergic overactivity
C.
The affective hypothesis
D.
The catecholamine hypothesis
The correct answer is D.
The catecholamine hypothesis is supported by pharmacological studies that have shown that both MAOIs and TCAs are efficacious in treating depression via their effects on norepinephrine.
218
The catecholamine hypothesis, proposed in the 1960s, was derived from the fact that:
Select one:
A.
Serotonin, administered intravenously, alleviates depression.
B.
MAOIs exert their effects via norepinephrine.
C.
Fluoxetine alleviates depression in previously resistant individuals.
D.
Dopamine and norepinephrine maintain biochemical equilibrium in the brain.
The correct answer is B.
The catecholamine hypothesis is supported by pharmacological studies that have shown that both MAOIs and TCAs are efficacious in treating depression via their effects on norepinephrine.
219
The main function of the Golgi apparatus is to:
Select one:
A.
Synthesize protein.
B.
Manufacture energy.
C.
Process, sort, package, and deliver proteins and lipids.
D.
Create chromosomes.
The correct answer is C.
The primary function of the Golgi apparatus is to process, sort, package, and deliver proteins and lipids that were manufactured by the RER and the SER. Answer A is incorrect because protein synthesis occurs on ER surfaces. Answer B is incorrect because cellular energy is manufactured in the mitochondria.
220
Which of the following cellular organelles participate(s) in protein synthesis?
Select one:
A.
Cytoplasm
B.
Golgi apparatus
C.
ER
D.
Mitochondria
The correct answer is C.
ER surfaces are used for protein synthesis. Answer A is incorrect because the cell contents are suspended in the cytosol (or cytoplasm), but it is not directly involved in protein synthesis. Answer B is incorrect because the Golgi apparatus is used for processing, sorting, packaging, and delivering proteins, lipids, and other materials; it is not used directly in protein synthesis. Answer D is incorrect because the cell's energy is manufactured in the mitochrondria; they are not directly involved in protein synthesis.
221
Which of the following cell organelles can duplicate without nuclear division?
Select one:
A.
Mitochondria
B.
Cell membranes
C.
The ER
D.
The centrosome
The correct answer is A.
The mitochondria are the only cell organelles that can self-replicate. They contain their own nucleic material, mitochrondrial DNA.
222
```
Cerebral palsy (CP) is most often caused by:
Select one:
```
A.
Alcohol consumption during pregnancy.
B.
A chromosomal abnormality.
C.
Abnormal fetal development.
D.
A genetic abnormality.
The correct answer is C.
CP is typically acquired in utero, when there is abnormal fetal development which results in brain damage. Although doctors frequently cannot pinpoint the exact cause of CP in every case, CP that is acquired in utero has been found to result from maternal health issues or infections during pregnancy. While some cases of congenital CP are due to random mutations of the genes responsible for brain development (answer D), this accounts for a smaller percentage of cases of CP. Alcohol consumption during pregnancy (answer A) is associated with fetal alcohol spectrum disorder, while chromosomal abnormalities (answer B) are associated with a variety of other disorders, including Down syndrome, Klinefelter's syndrome (XXY syndrome), and Fragile X syndrome.
223
In addition to the motor symptoms associated with cerebral palsy (CP), other symptoms can include:
Select one:
A.
Seizures and learning disabilities.
B.
Progressive memory loss and spasms.
C.
Poor social skills and sensory sensitivities.
D.
Incontinence and hyperlexia.
The correct answer is A.
While the term "cerebral palsy" is primarily associated with impaired motor movements, CP can also be associated with other symptoms, including seizures and learning disabilities, in addition to mental retardation, drooling, and hearing or vision problems.
224
Which of the following statements is true about cerebral palsy (CP)?
Select one:
A.
It is progressive.
B.
It can occur as the result of infectious disease.
C.
It always causes mental retardation.
D.
It occurs only in babies who are born premature.
The correct answer is B.
CP that is acquired in utero can be caused when a woman has an infectious disease such as rubella, cytomegalovirus, or chickenpox during pregnancy. CP is not progressive (answer A) and is associated with mental retardation (answer C) in approximately half of the cases. Premature birth (answer D) is one of several risk factors for CP, including low birth weight, multiple births, and being in the breech position at the beginning of labor, among others.
225
Individuals who use which of the following coping strategies are most likely to develop chronic pain and disability?
Select one:
A.
Active
B.
Passive
C.
Chronic pain occurs through biological processes that are not affected by coping strategies
D.
Any coping strategy works well for pain management, as long as it is correctly applied
The correct answer is B.
Individuals who use passive coping strategies to cope with pain, such as avoiding physical activity or social interactions, are more likely to develop chronic pain. This is due to a cycle that develops, by which an individual becomes less active, which causes a loss in physical strength, which in turn causes greater physiological symptoms of pain. In addition, with greater withdrawal from one's regular activities such as social interactions and work, depressive symptoms may become greater, which also contributes to greater pain sensitivity and lower pain threshold.
226
For an individual with acute pain, a physician is most likely to prescribe __________. For an individual with chronic pain, a physician is most like to prescribe __________.
Select one:
A.
anti-inflammatories; opiates
B.
opiates; antidepressants
C.
opiates; non-pharmaceutical interventions
D.
mood stabilizers; benzodiazepines
The correct answer is B.
While opiates are effective in treating moderate to severe pain, they are highly addictive. Prolonged use of opiates can lead to tolerance, which is the need for greater amounts of the drug in order to experience the effect. Therefore, antidepressants are typically used to treat chronic pain. Antidepressants may also be effective, because individuals with chronic pain often have co-occurring depression. Therefore the medication may be effective in treating both the depression and the chronic pain. Non-pharmaceutical interventions for pain exist, which focus on coping strategies, beliefs about pain, and negative reinforcement of the pain. While these interventions can be helpful in reducing pain, they are not typically the first line of intervention.
227
Nine months ago Phillip suffered a lower back injury while lifting a table at work. Although his back injury has improved and his doctors have indicated that he can return to work, Phillip continues to experience pain. He generally lies on the couch all day and his wife prepares his meals and takes care of the home. Which of the following is contributing to Phillip's continued perception of pain?
Select one:
A.
Positive reinforcement
B.
Classical conditioning
C.
Negative reinforcement
D.
Exposure-response prevention
The correct answer is C.
Negative reinforcement is the best choice given the options available. Negative reinforcement is defined as the withdrawal or avoiding of a negative or aversive condition. In this example, the perception of pain is negatively reinforced by not going to work, feeling less pain while on the couch, and not having to do as many chores around the home.
228
The brain structure associated with cognitive function, particularly response selection and negotiating conflict, is:
Select one:
A.
The rACC.
B.
The pCC.
C.
The sgCC.
D.
The dACC.
The correct answer is D.
The dACC is involved in cognitive function, including response selection and negotiating conflict. Answer A is incorrect; the rACC is involved in regulating emotional processes. Answer B is incorrect, as the pCC is involved in using relevant information to guide the task at hand. Answer C is also incorrect; the sgCC is related to inhibition processes as well as engagement levels during tasks.
229
The dACC is located:
Select one:
A.
Superior to the corpus callosum.
B.
Inferior to the corpus callosum.
C.
Superior to the genu of the corpus callosum.
D.
Inferior to the genu of the corpus callosum.
The correct answer is C.
The dACC is located superior to the genu (or elbow) of the corpus callosum. Answers A and B are incomplete and distractors. Answer D is incorrect, as this is where the rACC is located.
230
The rACC is located:
Select one:
A.
Inferior to the corpus callosum.
B.
Superior to the corpus callosum.
C.
Superior to the genu of the corpus callosum.
D.
Inferior to the genu of the corpus callosum.
The correct answer is D.
The rACC is located inferior to the genu (or elbow) of the corpus callosum. Answers A and B are incomplete and distractors. Answer C is incorrect, as this is where the dACC is located.
231
Which of the following best distinguishes dementia from delirium?
Select one:
A.
Dementia is associated with retrograde amnesia, while delirium is not.
B.
Dementia is most likely to occur in older adults, while delirium is equally distributed across all ages.
C.
Delirium includes changes in language functioning, while dementia does not.
D.
Dementia is associated with permanent changes in brain functioning, while delirium is not.
The correct answer is D.
Delirium is a reversible condition that can be improved by treating the underlying cause of the condition, which is typically a serious medical or mental health condition. Once the underlying condition is treated, the delirium clears. Dementia is associated with permanent changes in brain structure and function and is therefore irreversible. Both dementia and delirium are associated with retrograde amnesia; therefore, answer A is incorrect. In addition, both conditions are most prevalent in older adults; therefore, answer B is incorrect. Both conditions include changes in language functioning, which makes answer C is incorrect; however, the associated language impairments may differ. Delirium is typically associated with rambling, incoherent speech, while dementia is associated with difficulty remembering words or producing speech.
232
An 80-year-old man presents at an emergency room. His daughter reports that her father's forgetfulness is becoming increasingly taxing on the family. She brought him in because he became agitated when she tried to feed him this morning. He did not seem to remember her, began rambling incoherently, and appeared disoriented. The most likely cause is:
Select one:
A.
Delirium.
B.
Dementia.
C.
Anterograde amnesia.
D.
Malingering for attention.
The correct answer is A.
Delirium involves a sudden change in cognitive functioning, mood, alertness, language, and orientation. Delirium is most common in older adults, as events such as stress or infection can trigger delirium in an individual who is already affected by liver failure, kidney failure, heart disease, or malnutrition. Dementia (answer B) occurs more gradually and includes a progression from forgetfulness that does not interfere with everyday functioning (mild cognitive impairment), which can lead to the individual becoming lost in familiar locations, forgetting details about his or her life, losing things, losing interest in activities, or experiencing an inability to take care of him or herself. Delirium can occur in individuals with dementia. In this example, the individual's forgetfulness and inability to feed himself are most consistent with dementia. However, the sudden change in his ability to remember his daughter, his disorientation, and the rambling speech are most consistent with delirium.
233
Following a serious motor vehicle accident, a police officer acts confused, is disoriented to place and time, and his speech is incoherent. Furthermore, he is unable to recall the events that transpired a few seconds prior to the occurrence of the accident and does not know how he was transported to the hospital. He is most likely suffering from:
Select one:
A.
Delirium.
B.
Anterograde amnesia.
C.
Cryptomnesia.
D.
Delirium and anterograde amnesia.
The correct answer is D.
While delirium is typically associated with an underlying medical condition, it can also occur as the result of traumatic brain injury or other physical injury, particularly if the injury involves a significant amount of blood loss. In this example, the police officer's sudden onset of confusion, disorientation to time and place, and incoherent speech are consistent with delirium. His inability to remember what occurred immediately prior to and following the accident is consistent with anterograde amnesia. Anterograde amnesia (in addition to retrograde amnesia) is often associated with delirium.
234
The link between dopamine and schizophrenia is supported by which of the following observations?
Select one:
A.
Muscular rigidity in Parkinson's
B.
Amphetamine-induced psychosis
C.
The blocking of the neurotransmitter in the synaptic cleft
D.
Administration of L-dopa diminishes symptoms of schizophrenia
The correct answer is B.
Amphetamine is a dopamine agonist, meaning that it works on the dopaminergic neurons in the brain. Side effects of amphetamine include hallucinations, delusions, and psychosis. Because these symptoms are consistent with the symptoms seen in schizophrenia and are associated with the dopamine agonist, it has been proposed that increased dopamine may play a role in schizophrenia (dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia). The effect of hallucinations comes not just from the blocking of the reuptake (answer C) but also the increase of dopamine in the brain. The muscular rigidity in Parkinson's (answer A) is not related to the link between dopamine and schizophrenia. The administration of L-dopa (answer D) would increase rather than diminish symptoms of schizophrenia.
235
Because L-dopa is a dopamine __________, its administration worsens __________.
Select one:
A.
antagonist; muscle inflexibility
B.
antagonist; psychosis
C.
agonist; psychosis
D.
agonist; muscle inflexibility
The correct answer is C.
L-dopa is a dopamine agonist, meaning that it increases the availability of dopamine in the brain. L-dopa is used to treat Parkinson's disease, a condition in which there is reduction of dopamine in the brain due to degeneration of the dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra. Administration of L-dopa therefore acts to help compensate for this loss of dopamine. L-dopa, however, can also lead to hallucinations, delusions, and psychosis if its administration leads to extremely high levels of dopamine in the brain.
236
Parkinson's is associated with loss of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra. However, Parkinson's disease is treated with L-dopa, rather than dopamine. Why is this the case?
Select one:
A.
Administration of dopamine directly can increase risk for heart attack and stroke.
B.
L-dopa can cross the blood-brain barrier, while dopamine cannot.
C.
L-dopa is a dopamine antagonist and therefore is more effective.
D.
L-dopa makes dopamine, norepinephrine, tyrosine, and epinephrine, which the brain needs to function.
The correct answer is B.
Dopamine is a neurotransmitter that is produced in the brain and that cannot cross the blood-brain barrier. L-dopa is a precursor to dopamine, and it is able to cross the blood-brain barrier and is therefore administered instead of dopamine to treat Parkinson's disease. L-dopa is a dopamine agonist (not an antagonist, as in answer C), meaning that it functions to increase levels of dopamine in the brain. L-dopa is then converted to dopamine through an enzymatic process in the brain. There is no connection between dopamine and risk of heart attacks or strokes (answer A). Although L-dopa makes dopamine, norepinephrine, and epinephrine, it does not make tyrosine (answer D). Tyrosine is an amino acid found in various foods that is metabolized into L-dopa.
237
The stage of HIV infection at which an individual develops detectable antibodies is called:
Select one:
A.
Antibody conversion.
B.
Seroconversion.
C.
Minimum threshold stage.
D.
Individuals with HIV infection never develop antibodies against the virus.
The correct answer is B.
Following the primary infection stage, during which the virus proliferates rapidly in the body and mild flu-like symptoms may be present, the body responds by creating antibodies to the virus. The creation of HIV antibodies is called seroconversion. Tests used to detect HIV infection test for the presence of these antibodies. In the first several months of infection, if seroconversion is not complete, an HIV test may produce a false negative result. Despite the negative result, the individual is infectious during this time and can transmit HIV to others.
238
Seroconversion refers to the stage at which individuals with HIV:
Select one:
A.
Transition from the chronic phase to crisis phase of infection.
B.
Stop producing antibodies against the virus.
C.
Transition from the acute phase to the chronic phase of infection.
D.
Develop AIDS.
The correct answer is C.
The acute phase refers to the time immediately following infection, when the virus begins invading the body. An individual may present with flu-like symptoms during this time. The body responds by producing HIV antibodies, which begin to target the virus, resulting in alleviation of the flu-like symptoms. Seroconversion involves the production of these antibodies and represents the transition from the acute to the chronic phase of the infection. Due to the presence of the antibodies, the individual is asymptomatic during the initial stage of the chronic phase; however, the virus continues to attack the body, resulting in a progressively weakened immune system.
239
Which of the following is true of the chronic stage of HIV infection?
Select one:
A.
The immune system continually fights the virus and weakens
B.
The individual is extremely susceptible to opportunistic infection
C.
There are severe flu-like symptoms and an extremely low CD4+ T cell count
D.
This is when seroconversion of the immune system no longer takes place
The correct answer is A.
Following the primary infection stage, an individual with HIV enters the chronic stage and is typically asymptomatic. This may last up to 10 years. Although the individual does not experience any symptoms, his or her immune system is continually fighting the virus and gradually becomes weakened. Individuals in the chronic phase can still transmit the virus to others. Tests for HIV at this point will be positive due to the presence of antibodies for HIV. Opportunistic infections (answer B) begin to occur toward the very end of the chronic phase and into the fourth stage, in which the individual develops AIDS. Answer C describes the acute stage, in which a person first contracts HIV. Seroconversion is the process whereby the body develops antibodies to fight the virus, leading to a lack of symptoms in the chronic stage (answer D).
240
Low glucose levels lead to a condition that produces which of the following symptoms?
Select one:
A.
Thirst, headaches, blurry vision, frequent urination, and difficulty concentrating
B.
Dizziness, sweating, confusion, and difficulty speaking
C.
Weight gain, depression, loss of pleasure for life and life activities
D.
Increased sweating, depression, confusion, and dizziness
The correct answer is B.
Low glucose levels, also known as hypoglycemia, result in feeling dizzy or confused, having difficulty speaking, and increased sweating (particularly if the hypoglycemia occurs at night). Thirst, headaches, blurry vision, frequent urination, and difficulty concentrating (answer A) are symptoms of hyperglycemia. Weight gain, depression, and loss of pleasure (answer C) are symptoms of hypothyroidism. Answer D is a distractor answer.
241
Leah presents to her doctor complaining of frequent episodes of shakiness, anxiety, rapid heart rate, dizziness, and fatigue. Leah reports that she is especially concerned because she sees herself as a healthy person; she exercises at least two hours a day and tries to limit her carbohydrate intake. What condition will Leah's doctor recommend that they test for?
Select one:
A.
Anemia
B.
Hypoglycemia
C.
Hypothyroidism
D.
Hyperglycemia
The correct answer is B.
While each of these conditions are common blood tests, Leah's symptoms are consistent with hypoglycemia, which is lower-than-normal blood sugar level. Fatigue is also a symptom of anemia (answer A); however, Leah's additional symptoms of shakiness and anxiety are more consistent with hypoglycemia. Symptoms of hypothyroidism (answer C) include hair loss, dry skin, fatigue, and joint and muscle pain. Hyperglycemia (answer D) is high blood sugar and includes symptoms such as hunger, thirst, and frequent urination. Given Leah's level of physical activity and her limited intake of sugar-rich foods, it is likely that she is not ingesting enough sugars to maintain a healthy blood sugar level.
242
Hypoglycemia may be linked with genetic metabolic conditions and overproduction of insulin by which organ in the body?
Select one:
A.
Liver
B.
Pituitary gland
C.
Thyroid
D.
Pancreas
The correct answer is D.
The overproduction of insulin in the pancreas may be responsible for hypoglycemia.
243
The limbic system is also referred to as the paleomammalian brain because:
Select one:
A.
Structures similar to those found in the limbic system of humans are found in the limbic systems of all mammals.
B.
The limbic system is involved in basic mammalian functions, including heart rate and breathing.
C.
In the developing embryo, structures in the limbic system develop before those found in the reptilian brain.
D.
The limbic system is the oldest brain region found in mammals.
The correct answer is A.
The brains of all mammals contain structures similar to those found in the human limbic system. These structures function in the same way in all mammals to promote survival through instincts, motivations, and drives. Structures found in the brainstem are primarily responsible for more basic functions such as heart rate and breathing (answer B).
244
MacLean proposed that the part of the brain responsible for instincts related to self-preservation and survival is:
Select one:
A.
The orbitofrontal cortex.
B.
The mammillary bodies.
C.
The anterior commissure.
D.
The limbic system.
The correct answer is D.
Paul MacLean coined the term "limbic system" and proposed that it was related to self preservation because the structures in the limbic system served to promote pleasure-seeking and pain avoidance. For example, the hypothalamus, a structure included in the limbic system, is responsible for regulation of hunger and body temperature. Responding to these needs by feeding and regulating body temperature serves to promote self-preservation and survival.
245
The limbic system contains which of the following structures?
Select one:
A.
Hippocampus
B.
Substantia nigra
C.
Pons
D.
Medulla oblongata
The correct answer is A.
The hippocampus is one of the structures involved in the limbic system. The substantia nigra (answer B) is located in the midbrain. Both the pons (answer C) and medulla oblongata (answer D) are located in the brainstem, with the medulla oblongata situated below the pons.
246
Which of the following behaviors is NOT associated with the cerebellum?
Select one:
A.
Coordinated motor movement
B.
Declarative memory
C.
Balance
D.
Eye movement
The correct answer is B.
Declarative memory refers to memories that can be verbalized consciously. Declarative memory primarily involves functioning of the hippocampus. In addition to being associated with coordinated movement (answer A), balance (answer C), and eye movement (answer D), including the saccades of the eye and eye-hand coordination, the cerebellum is also related to procedural memory, which is the memory used in repeated motor movements.
247
Mr. Weiss, a 42-year-old construction worker, suffered a traumatic brain injury while working at a construction site. Following the injury, he had difficulty learning new information but was able to learn to play a new instrument. This profile is consistent with someone who has damage to the __________ but intact functioning in the __________.
Select one:
A.
hippocampus; cerebellum
B.
hypothalamus; cerebellum
C.
cerebellum; frontal cortex
D.
cerebellum; amygdala
The correct answer is A.
Long-term memory can be divided into declarative memory (memory that is consciously available and reportable) and procedural memory (memory for the use of objects or body movements). The hippocampus is primarily involved in the formation of declarative memory, while the cerebellum is involved in procedural memory.
248
Which behaviors are characteristic of a person who has a lesion of the cerebellum?
Select one:
A.
Nystagmus, poor motor coordination, and staggering gait
B.
Fluent speech with lack of content, flat affect, and confusion
C.
Difficulty swallowing, tremors, and postural rigidity
D.
Motor restlessness, disinhibition, and stereotyped speech
The correct answer is A.
The cerebellum is associated with coordination of motor movements, posture and balance, and coordinated eye movements; therefore, lesions of the cerebellum cause jerky eye movements (nystagmus), poor motor coordination, and difficulty walking smoothly.
249
A throbbing headache that intensifies when one is outside or the television is blaring is most likely:
Select one:
A.
A cluster headache.
B.
A tension headache.
C.
A migraine headache.
D.
A cluster-tension combination headache.
The correct answer is C.
Migraines may get worse when the TV is blaring but are not simply characterized as throbbing headaches that worsen due to noise. It is a much more complex type of headache.
250
Migraine headaches can be classified into two types, based on whether or not the individual experiences:
Select one:
A.
Photophobia.
B.
Auras.
C.
Prodromes.
D.
Migraine resolution.
The correct answer is B.
Migraines are classified into those associated with an aura and those that are not. Migraine auras are neurological disturbances that occur immediately prior to the onset of the migraine and usually warn the patient that the headache is about to occur. When experiencing an aura, individuals may experience flashing lights, blind spots in their vision, ringing in the ears, or numbness. Answer A is incorrect, as sensitivity to light may be experienced across the different types of migraine; therefore, it is not a classifying factor. Answers C and D are also incorrect. Migraines occur in four distinct phases: The prodrome (answer C), the aura, the headache, and the resolution (answer D). The prodomal phase consists of neurological and physical symptoms, including unusual euphoria, irritability, food cravings, diarrhea, and thirst.
251
Some individuals who suffer from migraines experience a strange cluster of neurological signs prior to an attack, including blind spots, irritability, and tinnitus. Together, these symptoms are called:
Select one:
A.
Perimigraine symptomatology.
B.
An aura.
C.
Pre-emptive migraine signs.
D.
A prodrome.
The correct answer is B.
Auras may include flashing lights, blind spots, ringing in the ears, or numbness.
252
Dysfunctional mirror neurons may play a role in:
Select one:
A.
Vision.
B.
Anxiety.
C.
Autism.
D.
Tourette's disorder.
The correct answer is C.
Autism is a developmental disability that is associated with impaired imitation, in addition to core deficits in socialization, communication, and restricted and repetitive behaviors. Given the relationship between mirror neurons, imitation, and social cognition, it has been hypothesized that mirror neurons play a role in autism. While mirror neurons are associated with vision (answer A), due to their activity in response to observing the actions of others, they are considered visuomotor neurons because they respond to both observation and production of motor activity. Mirror neurons have not been implicated in anxiety (answer B) or Tourette's disorder (answer D).
253
Mirror neurons may play a role in:
Select one:
A.
Learning through observation.
B.
Practicing movements.
C.
Coordinated motor movements.
D.
Balance and posture.
The correct answer is A.
Because mirror neurons are activated by both observation and performance of an action, they are thought to play a role in learning to perform motor actions. Mirror neurons have been found in Broca's area and the rostral posterior parietal cortex. Refining and practicing motor movements (answer B), coordinated motor movements (answer C), balance, and posture (answer D) are associated with activity of neurons in the cerebellum.
254
Neurons that are activated when a subject is watching another subject performing a task are called:
Select one:
A.
Observational neurons.
B.
Learning neurons.
C.
Simulation neurons.
D.
Mirror neurons.
The correct answer is D.
Mirror neurons, which were originally discovered in a study of single cell recordings in monkeys, are activated by both the observation of another's behavior and the production of one's own behavior. Studies using fMRI and EEG have found that these neurons are also present in humans.
255
```
Multiple sclerosis (MS) is characterized by:
Select one:
```
A.
Loss of muscular control, ataxia, and sensory impairment.
B.
Muscular rigidity and an inability to initiate movement.
C.
Forgetfulness, confusion, and poor concentration.
D.
Irregular, uncoordinated movements and slurred speech.
The correct answer is A.
Loss of muscular control, ataxia, and sensory impairment are the hallmark symptoms of MS. Answer B is incorrect, as these symptoms are related to Parkinson's disease. Answer C is also incorrect, as these symptoms are not characteristics of MS. Answer D is incorrect, as these are symptoms of Huntington's chorea.
256
In multiple sclerosis (MS), CNS lesions are thought to occur due to:
Select one:
A.
Axonal overgrowth.
B.
Reduced immunity.
C.
Traumatic injury.
D.
Myelin depletion.
The correct answer is D.
CNS lesions are thought to occur due to demyelization.
257
Treatment for multiple sclerosis (MS) might include:
Select one:
A.
Light box therapy.
B.
Thalamic stimulation.
C.
Comprehensive rehabilitation.
D.
Massage therapy.
The correct answer is C.
A comprehensive multidisciplinary setting that provides physical therapy, speech therapy, occupational therapy, rehabilitation psychology, and vocational rehabilitation minimizes the functional impact of MS.
258
Opiates are thought to work by suppressing the activity of:
Select one:
A.
Pain receptors.
B.
Endorphins.
C.
Substance P.
D.
The substantia nigra.
The correct answer is C.
Substance P is a neuropeptide that is found in the brain and spinal cord. It functions as a neurotransmitter to transmit pain information from the periphery to the central nervous system. Opiates block substance P, thereby diminishing the pain signal that is sent to the brain.
259
Opiates can be used in the treatment of all of the following EXCEPT:
Select one:
A.
Coughing.
B.
Physical pain.
C.
Diarrhea.
D.
Hyperactivity.
The correct answer is D.
Opiates are not used to treat hyperactivity, which is more commonly targeted with stimulants such as amphetamines. Answer B is incorrect, as it is true; the direct action of opiates is analgesic, decreasing physical pain. Other effects of opiates include constipation and respiratory depression, which is why they may be used to treat severe diarrhea (answer C) and coughing (answer A); thus, these answers are incorrect, as they are true.
260
Morphine exerts its effects on the body by binding to __________ receptors.
Select one:
A.
NMDA
B.
GABA
C.
opioid
D.
ovoid
The correct answer is C.
Morphine is an opiate that is used to treat moderate to severe pain. Morphine acts on the opioid receptors in the brain, dulls pain perception, and can lead to a mild euphoric sensation. The effects of morphine block the release of GABA, which serves to increase the dopamine levels. Increased levels of dopamine have been associated with pleasurable sensations and euphoria. Like other opiates, as well as other drugs that increase the availability of dopamine (e.g., cocaine), morphine is highly addictive.
261
Presbyopia changes a person's near point of vision from approximately __________ in children to __________ in persons 60 years and older.
Select one:
A.
3 inches; 50 centimeters
B.
9 inches; 1 meter
C.
3 inches; 26 inches
D.
7 centimeters; 39 inches
The correct answer is D.
The near point is the closest point at which the eyes can focus on an object. As a person gets older, the near point gets farther away, which is a condition known as presbyopia. In children it is about 3 inches (7 cm) at age 10; in adults it is 6 inches (16 cm) at age 40 and 39 inches (1 m) at age 60. Note that the EPPP may incorporate English standard and/or metric measurements. Be familiar with both.
262
Jack, a 49-year-old architect, goes to his doctor complaining of headache, eyestrain, and difficulty focusing on nearby objects. Jack reports that he first noticed these symptoms about a year ago but that he believes that they are getting worse. What is his doctor most likely going to do?
Select one:
A.
Prescribe blood pressure medication for Jack
B.
Recommend that Jack take some time off work
C.
Refer Jack for an MRI to rule out a brain tumor
D.
Recommend an optometrist to evaluate for presbyopia
The correct answer is D.
Jack's symptoms are consistent with presbyopia, a condition that occurs as a natural part of the aging process. Jack's age of 49 is around the age that individuals begin noticing difficulty focusing on objects closer to them.
263
Presbyopia and hyperopia are similar in which of the following ways?
Select one:
A.
Both are degenerative diseases
B.
Both can be treated with laser eye surgery
C.
Both cause difficulties in seeing nearby objects
D.
Surgery is unable to help either of these conditions
The correct answer is C.
Presbyopia and hyperopia both involve difficulty focusing on objects that are close. They differ, however, in the cause of the problem. Presbyopia is due to reduced elasticity in the eye lens, whereas hyperopia is due to the shape of the eyeball. Answer A is incorrect as a degenerative disease is a disease in which the function or structure of the affected tissues or organs will progressively deteriorate, for a variety of reasons, and only presbyopia fits this description. Answers B and D are also incorrect; laser surgery can help with hyperopia but not with presbyopia.
264
The main difference between pseudodementia and dementia is:
Select one:
A.
A patient with pseudodementia has less severe symptoms than a patient with dementia.
B.
The average age of patients with pseudodementia is significantly lower than patients with dementia.
C.
Pseudodementia is a somatoform disorder, while dementia occurs as a result of organic brain damage.
D.
Pseudodementia can be treated, while dementia cannot.
The correct answer is D.
The symptoms of pseudodementia are typically difficult to differentiate from the symptoms of dementia associated with organic brain damage. However, it is important that a clinician examine the temporal onset of the cognitive symptoms; symptoms of pseudodementia generally have a more sudden onset than dementia and may occur around the time of onset of depressive symptoms. Verification of pseudodementia, however, may not be possible until the symptoms are found to improve with resolution of the associated depression.
265
Pseudodementia may occur as a symptom of:
Select one:
A.
Alzheimer's disease.
B.
Adjustment disorder.
C.
Depression.
D.
Traumatic brain injury.
The correct answer is C.
Pseudodementia, which includes symptoms that are similar to the memory changes associated with dementia, is considered to be associated with depression. Answer A is incorrect, as pseudodementia may resemble Alzheimer's or other dementias initially; however, often pseudodementia has an abrupt onset, while dementia is more insidious in its sequela. In addition, pseudodementia differs from true dementia when memory is tested, as attention and concentration may be intact; on the other hand, people with dementia have limited attention and concentration, besides appearing indifferent or unconcerned. Also, brain imaging shows a reduced blood flow in certain brain areas for people diagnosed with Alzheimer's dementia, while showing more normal blood activity in people with pseudodementia. Answer B is incorrect; adjustment disorder is indeed diagnosed often, especially when older people are moved into nursing homes. However, depression, which of course may be present in the AD diagnosis, is more important and primary to consider when exploring a differential diagnosis for pseudodementia. Answer D is incorrect, as this is not a correct statement, although some TBI symptoms may initially share some similarities with pseudodementia.
266
Mr. Romero is talking with his mother's physician about her recent decline in cognitive functioning. Although he is concerned about his mother's sudden memory impairments, he feels that her decline is due to the fact that she is 85 years old and therefore he does not understand why his mother was prescribed antidepressant medication. Which of the following information should the physician give to Mr. Romero?
Select one:
A.
More than 50% of elderly women have depression; therefore, Mr. Romero's mother should be treated for depression.
B.
Her symptoms may suggest the possibility of the onset of dementia, and antidepressants can be effective in slowing the progression of the disease.
C.
Mr. Romero's mother may be faking her symptoms, and it is possible that she will stop if told that she has been prescribed psychotropic medication.
D.
Sudden memory impairments in the elderly may be due to a major depressive episode; therefore, a trial of antidepressants may improve her memory.
The correct answer is D.
Pseudodementia is associated with major depression, often in the elderly. Treatment of the depression, such as with antidepressants, can therefore lead to improvement in the pseudodementia. Answer A is incorrect and illustrates faulty reasoning; she should not be treated for a condition until it has been clarified that she (at least probably) has the condition. Answer B is incorrect, according to the same logic of answer A. Answer C is incorrect, as it is an unlikely and unprofessional statement coming from a treating physician.
267
Slight, incomplete paralysis marked by weakness in the limbs is referred to as:
Select one:
A.
Paraplegia.
B.
Hemiparesis.
C.
Paresis.
D.
Paresthesia.
The correct answer is C.
Paraplegia (answer A) occurs when the spinal column is severed below the first thoracic spinal nerve through the lumbar area. The person retains upper body movement and sensation (including the hands and arms) but loses all control or feeling in areas as high as the nipple line down to the legs. Hemiparesis (answer B), like hemiplegia, describes a situation where one half of the body is weakened. Paresthesia (answer D) is the symptom associated with a limb or body part "falling asleep"; it is associated with no long-term effect and is temporarily experienced as a tingling feeling.
268
SCI above the first thoracic vertebra is more likely to cause __________ than __________.
Select one:
A.
hemiplegia; paraplegia
B.
paraplegia; paresis
C.
quadriplegia; paraplegia
D.
paraplegia; quadriplegia
The correct answer is C.
Injury above the first thoracic vertebra will most likely cause quadriplegia (movement and sensation below the neck is lost) rather than paraplegia (upper body movement and sensation is retained).
269
Which statement about SCI is false?
Select one:
A.
The occurrence of SCI places some individuals at a higher risk for future traumatic brain injury.
B.
Personality factors may, in part, place some individuals at an increased risk of SCI.
C.
SCI prevalence is higher in young adult males than young adult females.
D.
SCI may occur due to cutting, crushing, squeezing, bruising, swelling, or increased blood supply.
The correct answer is D.
Remember, this question is asking for a false statement. The occurrence of an SCI places some individuals at a higher risk for TBI; therefore, answer A is true. It is also true that premorbid personality factors may partially place some individuals at a higher risk to receive SCI (answer B). Most SCIs in the United States occur to young adults, a higher percentage of which are male (answer C). Answer D is the only false statement. Though SCI may result from cutting, crushing, squeezing, bruising, and swelling, it is not a result of increased blood supply, but rather decreased blood supply.
270
Joe presents to the emergency room with paralysis on the right side of his body, aphasia, and confusion. He is most likely suffering from:
Select one:
A.
Middle cerebral artery stroke involving the left hemisphere.
B.
Posterior artery stroke involving the occipital lobe.
C.
Ischemic stroke involving the brain stem.
D.
Hemorrhagic stroke involving the right temporal lobe.
The correct answer is A.
Obstruction of the middle cerebral artery to the left hemisphere is likely to result in paralysis of the right side of the body and aphasia (due to the localization of language in the left hemisphere for 95 percent of the population), and can also be associated with confusion, although confusion is a non-specific symptom that can be associated with a variety of types of strokes.
271
Jonathan, a 21-year-old college student, was taken to the hospital after he complained of a headache, right hemiparesis, and then loss of consciousness. Which type of stroke did Jonathan likely have?
Select one:
A.
Ischemic stroke
B.
Posterior cerebral artery stroke
C.
Anterior cerebral artery stroke
D.
Hemorrhagic stroke
The correct answer is D.
Hemorrhagic strokes are the most common type of stroke among people ages 18-45, although they account for only 10-15% of all strokes. Headache and loss of consciousness may be a symptom of hemorrhagic stroke due to increased pressure in the brain as a result of bleeding in the brain.
272
Jack had a stroke in the postcentral gyrus of his dominant hemisphere. Which of these symptoms is likely to occur?
Select one:
A.
Unilateral neglect
B.
Deficits in touch perception
C.
Balint's syndrome
D.
Wernicke's aphasia
The correct answer is B.
The postcentral gyrus is considered to be the primary somatosensory area of the brain and processes information related to touch perception.
273
Damage to the temporal lobe causes which of the following?
Select one:
A.
Loss of sensation in the left leg
B.
Long-term memory deficits
C.
Short-term memory deficits
D.
Visual-spatial deficits
The correct answer is B.
Damage to the temporal lobe that affects the hippocampus can lead to deficits with recalling and storing long-term memories. Answer A is incorrect because loss of sensation in specific regions of the body may occur when the somatosensory cortex of the parietal lobe is damaged. Answer C is incorrect because short-term memory deficits are typically caused by frontal lobe damage. Answer D is incorrect because visual-spatial deficits are usually associated with parietal lobe damage.
274
Following a stroke, Jean had difficulty regulating the tone, inflection, and melody of her speech. She most likely suffered a stroke in the __________ lobe.
Select one:
A.
right temporal
B.
left temporal
C.
right parietal
D.
left parietal
The correct answer is A.
Damage to the right temporal lobe can cause problems with the ability to regulate the pitch, rhythm, and emotional tone of speech. Answers B, C, and D are incorrect because they are not typically involved with speech prosody.
275
Following a serious motor vehicle accident, a police officer loses sensation in the fingers of her left hand. She most likely suffered damage to:
Select one:
A.
The frontal lobe.
B.
The temporal lobe.
C.
The parietal lobe.
D.
The occipital lobe.
The correct answer is C.
The parietal lobe typically contains the somatosensory cortex, which is responsible for sensation in specific areas of the body.
276
Which cognitive appraisal involves the analysis of an individual's ability to handle a distressing event?
Select one:
A.
Secondary appraisal
B.
Primary appraisal
C.
Positive-benign appraisal
D.
Re-appraisal
The correct answer is A.
Lazarus's theory of emotion suggests that people who make the same cognitive appraisal will experience the same emotion, regardless of whether their environmental experience was the same. Secondary appraisals (answer A) involve the evaluation of the person's ability to cope with the situation. Other forms of appraisals include primary appraisals (answer B), which involve the evaluation of an event's personal salience/importance and re-appraisals (answer D), which occur when individuals monitor a situation and adjust their primary and/or secondary appraisals. When evaluating the personal importance of an event, primary appraisals may be categorized as either positive-benign (answer C), irrelevant, or stressful.
277
The __________ theory directly argued against the theory that stated that the identification of an emotion follows a physiological event.
Select one:
A.
James-Lange
B.
Schachter-Singer
C.
Cannon-Bard
D.
Lazarus
The correct answer is C.
The Cannon-Bard theory was proposed in the 1920s and it stated that emotions are experienced first, and the physiological response simply follows the experience of an emotion. Answer A is incorrect because the James-Lange theory, proposed in the 1880s, stated that the identification of an emotion follows a physiological event. Answer B is incorrect because the Schachter-Singer theory did not originate until the 1960s, which was 80 years after the James-Lange theory was published. Answer D is incorrect because the Lazarus theory was developed after the Cannon-Bard theory and it emphasized the cognitive appraisal of the environment or a circumstance rather than the appraisal of a physiological response.
278
Whose theory of emotion proposed that people who make the same cognitive appraisal will experience the same emotion?
Select one:
A.
James-Lange
B.
Schachter-Singer
C.
Cannon-Bard
D.
Lazarus
The correct answer is D.
Lazarus proposed that the cognitive assessment of one's circumstance precedes the physiological response and the emotion. His 1991 theory suggested that people who make the same cognitive appraisal will experience the same emotion, regardless of whether their environmental circumstances are the same. Answer A is incorrect because the James-Lange theory did not involve a cognitive interpretation of an event; rather, it stated that the emotional response simply follows the physiological response. Answer B is incorrect because although the Schachter-Singer theory involves a cognitive interpretation, they did not propose the above statement. Answer C is incorrect because the Cannon-Bard theory did not involve the cognitive interpretation of an event; rather, it stated that the physiological response simply follows the experience of an emotion.
279
DNA is comprised of which four nucleic acids?
Select one:
A.
Adenosine, guanine, thymine, and cytosine
B.
Adenine, guanine, thymine, and cytosine
C.
Adenosine, guanosine, cytosine, and uracil
D.
Adenine, guanine, uracil, and cytosine
The correct answer is B.
The two strands of DNA that are wrapped together in a double helix are made up of four nucleotides: Adenine, guanine, thymine, and cytosine. These nucleic acids are complementary, meaning that adenine on one strand binds to guanine on another strand, while thymine on one strand binds to cytosine on another strand. The specific sequence of these nucleic acid chains make up genes and code for specific proteins.
280
Meiosis refers to:
Select one:
A.
The process by which DNA is converted to RNA.
B.
The division of a cell into two identical cells.
C.
The production of a gamete with 23 chromosomes.
D.
Programmed cell death that occurs in multicellular organisms.
The correct answer is C.
Meiosis is the process by which a cell with the full number of chromosomes (46) divides and produces a cell with half that number of chromosomes. This cell is called a gamete and refers to the sperm and the ovum (egg). During the process of meiosis, genetic recombination occurs; before the chromosomes split, they cross over, meaning that they swap genetic material. This results in genetic diversity. The process by which DNA is converted to RNA (answer A) is called transcription. The division of a cell into two identical cells (answer B) is called mitosis. Programmed cell death (answer D) is called apoptosis.
281
Klinefelter syndrome and Down syndrome are __________ abnormalities, while cystic fibrosis and sickle cell anemia are __________ disorders.
Select one:
A.
genetic; chromosomal
B.
chromosomal; genetic
C.
aneuploidic; deficient
D.
bigenetic; single-genetic
The correct answer is B.
Klinefelter syndrome and Down syndrome are due to abnormal numbers of chromosomes. In Klinefelter syndrome an individual has three sex chromosomes, while in Down syndrome the individual has an extra copy of chromosome 21. Chromosomal abnormalities are the result of disruptions in meiosis, whereby the parent cell divides in half to produce a gamete, typically resulting in 23 chromosomes. Cystic fibrosis and sickle cell anemia are genetic disorders associated with disruptions in genes and problems with protein synthesis. Sickle cell anemia is associated with a mutated gene on chromosome 11, which contributes to the production of red blood cells. Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive disorder that is related to mutation of a gene that produces sweat, digestive fluids, and mucus.
282
Following a car accident where she struck her head against the windshield, Pat, your client, reports symptoms of memory and concentration deficits, insomnia, anxiety, apathy, irritability, and vertigo. She is most likely suffering from:
Select one:
A.
Acute stress disorder.
B.
Anterograde amnesia.
C.
Post-concussion syndrome.
D.
Traumatic brain injury.
The correct answer is C.
Post-concussion syndrome may include cognitive problems, insomnia, anxiety, apathy, irritability, and vertigo. Answer A is incorrect, as given the nature of the trauma and the presence of neurological symptoms, post-concussion syndrome is the best diagnosis; acute stress disorder would be incomplete as a diagnosis and would have to include further criteria, including numbing, dissociation, or re-experiencing the trauma through memories and/or dreams. Answer B is incorrect, as this answer is too limited. Answer D is incorrect; concussion is considered a transient state, from which the person will fully recover, and in a relatively short time. On the other hand, TBI, as mild as it can be, is viewed as a permanent condition. Hence, an initial diagnosis of PCS seems more accurate in this situation.
283
After TBI, maximum recovery is achieved approximately:
Select one:
A.
Six to nine months after the injury.
B.
12 to 18 months after the injury.
C.
Two to three years after the injury.
D.
Full recovery is not expected to occur.
The correct answer is C.
For adults, maximum recovery from TBI is expected to occur approximately two to three years after the injury; hence, answers A and B are incorrect. Answer D is true but not the correct answer choice here. TBI is viewed as a permanent alteration of brain functioning, so it is true that full recovery may not be likely, but a lot of progress can be made in regaining damaged brain functioning. For this question, answer C is a more accurate answer, as it is more precise. The question asks for "maximum recovery," not full recovery, so answer C is the appropriate answer.
284
(A) Frequently used measure(s) to estimate the severity of a traumatic head injury include:
Select one:
A.
Anterograde amnesia.
B.
Retrograde amnesia.
C.
Posttraumatic amnesia.
D.
Loss of consciousness and posttraumatic amnesia.
The correct answer is D.
Posttraumatic amnesia (PTA) and loss of consciousness (LOC) are frequently used to estimate the severity of a TBI.
285
Communication between two neurons involves the process of:
Select one:
A.
Axoplasmic transport.
B.
Synaptic transmission.
C.
Depolarization.
D.
Reuptake inhibition.
The correct answer is B.
Synaptic transmission refers to the process that is involved during neuronal communication.
286
Neural communication relies on:
Select one:
A.
Chemical processes alone.
B.
Electrical processes alone.
C.
Both chemical and electrical processes.
D.
Neither chemical nor electrical processes.
The correct answer is C.
Neural communication involves both chemical and electrical processes.
287
Relative to the outside of the cell, the inside of a cell at its resting potential is:
Select one:
A.
Positively charged.
B.
Negatively charged.
C.
At electrical equilibrium.
D.
In constant flux.
The correct answer is B.
During the rest state, a neuron is negatively charged (-70 mV) with respect to the extracellular fluid. Voltage is always measured as the difference between two charges.
288
According to the Weber-Fechner law, if you were holding a heavy stack of books and a feather fell on top of the stack, the increase in the amount of weight would be:
Select one:
A.
Above the minimum threshold for perception.
B.
Below the minimum threshold for perception.
C.
At the minimum threshold for perception.
D.
At the maximum threshold for perception.
The correct answer is B.
According to the Weber-Fechner law, the minimum amount of actual change necessary to result in perceived change (JND) varies depending on the initial intensity of the stimulus. Less change is necessary for stimuli originally lower in intensity, whereas more change is necessary for stimuli initially greater in intensity. For example, suppose that adding one pound is noticeable when carrying a 10-pound box. When carrying a 100-pound box, it would take the addition of 10 pounds to notice a difference in weight. Therefore, if one is carrying a heavy stack of books, the addition of a feather to the stack of books is likely to be below the minimum threshold for perception.
289
Researchers have proposed that individuals with autism spectrum disorder may display disinterest in social interactions due to:
Select one:
A.
Abnormal activity in the fusiform gyrus.
B.
Frequent comorbidity with social phobia.
C.
Early immunizations.
D.
Stereotypic behaviors.
The correct answer is A.
Recent research has shown that abnormal activity in the fusiform gyrus has been associated with impaired social interactions. Impaired social behavior has not been directly associated with stereotyped behaviors (answer D) or social phobia (answer B). Early immunizations have not been definitively linked to autism or to the specific symptom of impaired social interactions, making answer C incorrect.
290
Which statement is true about autism spectrum disorder?
Select one:
A.
Autism spectrum disorder is associated with impaired social interactions, poor coordination, and delay in language.
B.
Autism is associated with developmental language delays, repetitive social interactions, and poor coordination.
C.
Autism spectrum disorder is associated with impaired social interaction, repetitive behaviors, and an extreme interest in particular topics.
D.
Autism spectrum disorder is associated with impaired social interaction, decelerated growth, and poor coordination.
The correct answer is C.
The combination of characteristics mentioned in answers A and D are found in Rett syndrome, which makes answers A and D incorrect. The qualities that are found in answer B are found in expressive language disorder, not autism spectrum disorder, which makes answer B incorrect.
291
Ashley, a girl who is six years old and diagnosed with autism spectrum disorder, continually repeats some of her words when speaking. Based upon her behavior, it is likely that Ashley has:
Select one:
A.
Echolalia.
B.
Speech sound disorder.
C.
Rett syndrome.
D.
Palilalia.
The correct answer is D.
Palilalia is the repetition of one's own words. Echolalia is when an individual with autism echoes what is said to them, which makes answer A incorrect. Speech sound disorder (answer B) involves persistent difficulty with speech sound production that interferes with verbal communication. Individuals with Rett syndrome demonstrate impaired social interactions, but these impairments are only transient. Rett syndrome is also associated with head growth deceleration and poor coordination, making answer C incorrect.
292
Cataplexy is:
Select one:
A.
A sudden sleep attack, where an awake individual suddenly falls asleep.
B.
Akin to sleep paralysis during REM sleep, but occurring to an awake person.
C.
A natural sleep stage phenomenon required neurochemically for stage transitions.
D.
A statistical deviation caused by the presence of outliers in data.
The correct answer is B.
Cataplexy is a symptom of narcolepsy that occurs when a fully conscious person experiences temporary paralysis that is similar to the muscle paralysis that occurs during REM sleep.
293
REM sleep behavior disorder may be characterized as:
Select one:
A.
A persistent interruption in the ability of the sleeper to dream.
B.
A disorder in which daytime behaviors interfere with depth of sleep (e.g., caffeine use late in the day).
C.
A disorder in which a sudden onset of REM sleep occurs with little warning, thus forcing an awake individual to be cast into a dream state.
D.
A disorder in which sleep paralysis does not take effect during dreams, often resulting in individuals acting out their dreams in potentially dangerous ways (e.g., jumping from the bed).
The correct answer is D.
The hallmark of REM sleep behavior disorder is incomplete muscle paralysis during REM sleep. As a result of incomplete paralysis, individuals may move about freely while still in a sleep state.
294
The difference between cataplexy and sleep paralysis is:
Select one:
A.
Sleep paralysis can be frightening and even give rise to panic, while cataplexy normally does not cause distress.
B.
While sleep paralysis is natural and protective, cataplexy is distressing and a sign of a sleep disorder.
C.
Cataplexy occurs during sleep, while sleep paralysis is a distressing conscious event that mimics sleep.
D.
Sleep paralysis is a temporary loss of feeling and mobility in the limbs, while cataplexy involves the total body.
The correct answer is B.
Although in some ways it is similar to sleep paralysis, cataplexy is a symptom that occurs involuntarily during non-sleeping hours, and it disrupts everyday function. Answer A is incorrect; while the first part of the sentence is accurate, the second is not, as cataplexy does cause distress and disrupts everyday functioning. Answer C is incorrect; it is true that sleep paralysis occurs when the person is conscious, either when falling asleep or awakening (hence the possible experienced fright). During sleep paralysis, the individual feels unable to move, due to muscle atonia. However, cataplexy does not occur during sleep, but when one is awake. It may be brought on by strong emotional reactions, such as a burst of anger or a peal of laughter. Answer D is incorrect, as sleep paralysis also involves the whole body.
295
Drugs like nicotine, cocaine, and heroin promote the production and release of dopamine in the brain. These drugs primarily affect the neurons in which brain structure?
Select one:
A.
Substantia nigra
B.
Cerebellum
C.
Hippocampus
D.
Ventral tegmental area
The correct answer is D.
The ventral tegmental area (VTA) is often considered the pleasure center of the brain, due to its involvement in the brain's reward circuitry. The VTA is high in dopamine-producing neurons. Increased release of dopamine has a pleasurable effect. Repeated drug use causes a change in the VTA's natural ability to produce and release dopamine in the absence of the drugs, which contributes to addiction. Although the substantia nigra (answer A) also contains dopamine-producing neurons, it is primarily involved in voluntary movement and motor planning. The cerebellum (answer B) is involved in coordinated motor movement, and the hippocampus (answer C) is involved in the encoding and forming of long-term memories.
296
The superior and inferior colliculus receive sensory information from the __________ and __________, respectively.
Select one:
A.
nose; mouth
B.
ear; eye
C.
eye; ear
D.
The superior and inferior colliculi do not receive sensory information.
The correct answer is C.
The superior and inferior colliculus are structures that process sensory information. Both of these structures sit below the thalamus and are located in the tectal region of the midbrain. The superior colliculus processes sensory information from the eyes and the inferior colliculus processes auditory information.
297
The substantia nigra plays an important role in the symptoms seen in __________, due to a loss of __________.
Select one:
A.
Parkinson's disease; dopaminergic neurons
B.
Klüver-Bucy syndrome; serotonergic neurons
C.
Korsakoff's syndrome; glial cells
D.
multiple sclerosis; myelin
The correct answer is A.
Typically, the substantia nigra contains a large density of dopamine-producing neurons which project to the caudate and putamen. Degeneration of these dopaminergic neurons results in the motor deficits seen in Parkinson's disease. Klüver-Bucy syndrome (answer B) results from lesions in the amygdala, while Korsakoff's syndrome (answer C) involves a proliferation of glial cells in the brain, rather than a loss of them. Multiple sclerosis (answer D) is due to demyelination of the axons in the central nervous system; however, the substantia nigra is not particularly affected in this syndrome.
298
Damage to the prefrontal cortex is associated with:
Select one:
A.
Visual/perceptual deficits.
B.
Executive function impairments.
C.
Wernicke's aphasia.
D.
Long-term memory impairments.
The correct answer is B.
Executive function impairments are often associated with damage to the prefrontal cortex.
299
Damage to the __________ lobe may cause a loss of interest and motivation, apathy, and reduced movement and speech.
Select one:
A.
frontal
B.
temporal
C.
parietal
D.
occipital
The correct answer is A.
Extensive frontal lobe damage can cause the impairments listed above.
300
Damage to the orbital prefrontal cortex may be associated with which of the following deficits?
Select one:
A.
Loss of voluntary muscle control, weakness in hands and limbs
B.
Short-term memory loss, loss of interest in sex, and loss of executive planning abilities
C.
Disinhibition, poor self-regulation, poor facial recognition, poor judgment, and altered emotional behavior
D.
Personality changes, aggression, and visual agnosia
The correct answer is C.
These symptoms are typically associated with these deficits.
301
The field of pharmacokinetics (PK) is concerned with:
Select one:
A.
What a drug does to the body.
B.
How the body absorbs, distributes, breaks down, and reuptakes drugs.
C.
What the body does to the drug and how to quantify the changes.
D.
How the body assimilates, distributes, metabolizes, and excretes drugs.
The correct answer is D.
PK is what the body does to the drug. Answer A is incorrect because it is the definition of pharmacodynamics. Answer B is incorrect, as it is spoiled by "reuptakes," which is not part of the definition of PK. Answer C is incorrect, as although PK does study what the body does to a drug, the second part of the answer pertains more to pharmacometrics.
302
Pharmacokinetics (PK) and associated disciplines may be relevant for clinical psychologists because:
Select one:
A.
They provide the initial, basic information about the action and effects of drugs, as well as their therapeutic uses.
B.
PK, which uses scientific, evidence-based principles, is not directly relevant to clinical psychology, which is based on humanistic principles.
C.
PK, PD, and PM provide the initial basic data set upon which all other clinical trials will be based.
D.
They play a less than fundamental role in understanding the effects and uses of psychotropic drugs.
The correct answer is C.
PK, PD, and PM provide the basic data for a more extensive therapeutic evaluation of drug effects on people. Hence, answer A is incorrect, as at this stage there is really not much information about therapeutic uses, an area which is more pertinent to pharmacotherapeutics. Answer B is incorrect; it is true that these two disciplines differ in their scopes, and that psychology as a field evolved from humanism, but this answer is too extreme, as psychiatric drugs hold an important place in many psychotherapeutic treatments, and the development of these drugs greatly depends on PK, PD, and PM. Hence, to say that these two fields are not directly relevant to one another is inaccurate. Answer D is also incorrect. This is an example of the need to really read the question attentively, something critical when taking the EPPP. "Less than" before "fundamental" invalidates the answer, as these fields of study do play a fundamental role in the development of drugs.
303
What do the fields of pharmacokinetics (PK), pharmacodynamics (PD), and pharmacometrics (PM) have in common?
Select one:
A.
They are all branches of pharmacology and hold some importance in drug development
B.
They share a common focus, which is the study of the therapeutic uses of drugs
C.
They are critical for the development of drugs and also provide information about their general clinical and therapeutic use
D.
They are all branches of pharmacology and play a critical role in drug development
The correct answer is D.
These are the two main things PK, PD, and PM have in common. Answer A is incorrect; while they are all branches of pharmacology, they hold considerably more than "some importance" in drug development. Answer B is incorrect, as this is the definition of pharmacotherapeutics (the general study of the therapeutic uses of drugs). Pharmacotherapeutics clearly has a relation to PK, PD, and PM, but this is not what the question is asking. Answer C is also incorrect, as it is not in their immediate scope to provide information about a drug's general clinical and therapeutic use.
304
The drug classification system "by clinical effect" groups the drugs under the effects they appear to exert on the symptoms of certain disorders; as helpful as it is, why should a psychologist exercise judgment when using it?
Select one:
```
A.
Medications belonging to the same class may target more categories of disorders
```
B.
Certain disorders are clearly treated by certain drugs, and the issue is to be careful to understand which drug does what
C.
Certain chemical effects may cause extremely adverse side effects
D.
Chemical effects of a drug hugely differ across people
The correct answer is A.
For example, the class of antidepressants is widely used in the treatment of several conditions, including depression, anxiety, eating disorders, and OCD. Answer B is incorrect. Although it may at times be the case in general medicine, there is no such certainty in psychopharmacological treatments. Answer C is a distractor. Answer D is incorrect, as it is too radical a statement; there may be differences among people but the word "hugely" is too extreme here.
305
The classes of psychotropic drugs listed in the noted system are:
Select one:
A.
Anti-obsessional, psychostimulants, anti-anxiety, antipsychotics, over-the-counter and herbals, hypnotics, antidepressants, mood stabilizers, and anti-convulsants.
B.
Antidepressants, anti-obsessional, mood stabilizers and anti-convulsants, psychostimulants, antipsychotics, sedatives, anti-anxiety, hypnotics, and over-the-counter and herbals.
C.
Central nervous system depressants, mood stabilizers and anti-convulsants, psychostimulants, antipsychotics, sedatives, anti-anxiety, hypnotics, over-the-counter and herbals, and antidepressants.
D.
Antidepressants, anti-obsessional, mood stabilizers, psychostimulants, antipsychotics, sedatives, anti-anxiety, hypnotics, and over-the-counter and herbals.
The correct answer is A.
Answers B, C, and D all contain a "spoiler."
306
```
The class of antidepressants includes SSRIs, SNRIs, TCAs, and MAOIs, each subgroup targeting different neurochemicals. In regard to this definition, we would then say that these antidepressant subgroups have:
Select one:
```
A.
Different chemical structures.
B.
Different pharmacological action.
C.
Different clinical effects.
D.
Different clinical uses.
The correct answer is B.
These drugs target different neurotransmitter productions in the brain. For example, SSRIs target mainly serotonin, while SNRIs target both serotonin and norepinephrine. TCAs are thought to exert a general inhibitory effect on the reuptake of norepinephrine, dopamine, and serotonin. MAOIs inhibit the activity of monoamine oxidase, which breaks down monoamines and thereby increases serotonin, dopamine, and norepinephrine levels in the brain. Hence, MAOIs obtain a similar clinical effect to that of TCAs but through a different pharmacological mechanism. Answers A, C, and D, although generally true, are incorrect here.
307
Symptoms related to Alzheimer's disease can be reduced via treatment with agonists to which following neurotransmitters?
Select one:
A.
Serotonin
B.
DA
C.
ACh
D.
Glutamate
The correct answer is C.
ACh agonists may facilitate increased memory, attention, and concentration by promoting the release of ACh.
308
Anticholinergic effects include:
Select one:
A.
Sluggishness, constipation, and reduced concentration.
B.
Low blood pressure, increased digestion, and increased concentration.
C.
High blood pressure, increased heart rate, and sweating.
D.
Increased sleep, depression, and increased eating.
The correct answer is A.
These are effects of anticholinergic drugs.
309
Nicotine helps improve sluggishness, reduce constipation, and increase attention because it mimics the effects of:
Select one:
A.
DA.
B.
Serotonin.
C.
Glycine.
D.
ACh.
The correct answer is D.
Nicotinic receptors are one type of ACh receptors, and when nicotine binds to nicotinic receptors, it mimics ACh.
310
Cortisol is produced by:
Select one:
A.
The anterior pituitary.
B.
The posterior pituitary.
C.
The adrenal cortex.
D.
The adrenal medulla.
The correct answer is C.
The adrenal cortex produces cortisol. The adrenal medulla (answer D) produces adrenaline and noradrenaline. The anterior (answer A) and posterior (answer B) pituitary glands produce a variety of hormones.
311
The specific gland sub-region that is involved with the "fight or flight" response is:
Select one:
A.
The adrenal medulla.
B.
The anterior pituitary.
C.
The adrenal cortex.
D.
The posterior pituitary.
The correct answer is A.
The adrenal medulla produces adrenaline and noradrenaline for the "fight or flight" response. The adrenal cortex (answer C) produces cortisol, and the anterior (answer B) and posterior (answer D) pituitary glands produce a variety of hormones.
312
While catecholamines such as epinephrine and norepinephrine are produced in the __________, corticosteroids such as aldosterone and cortisol are produced in the __________.
Select one:
A.
brain; adrenal glands
B.
ovaries/testes; adrenal glands
C.
adrenal medulla; adrenal cortex
D.
adrenal cortex; adrenal medulla
The correct answer is C.
Catecholamines are produced in the adrenal medulla and corticosteroids are produced in the adrenal cortex.
313
The association cortex is located in the __________ lobe, and damage to this region causes __________.
Select one:
A.
right parietal; tactile agnosia
B.
left parietal; autotopagnosia
C.
right occipital; prosopagnosia
D.
left occipital: auditory agnosia
The correct answer is B.
Damage to the left parietal brain region can result in autotopagnosia.
314
Associative agnosias may result from:
Select one:
A.
Damage to the cerebral cortex.
B.
Damage to the cingulate gyrus.
C.
Damage to the connections between the sensory association areas and the parts of the brain that are responsible for verbalizing thoughts.
D.
Damage to brain areas associated with perception.
The correct answer is C.
Damage to these neural connections may result in associative agnosia.
315
Autotopagnosia refers to the inability to:
Select one:
A.
Name body parts.
B.
Perceive human movement.
C.
Recognize non-speech sounds.
D.
Recognize faces.
The correct answer is A.
Autotopagnosia refers to the inability to name body parts. The inability to perceive motion (answer B) is an extremely rare neuropsychological disorder known as akinetopsia. The inability to recognize non-speech sounds is known as auditory agnosia (answer C). Difficulty recognizing faces (answer D) is known as prosopagnosia.
316
A drug that enhances the effects of a neurotransmitter by mimicking the neurotransmitter is called a(n):
Select one:
A.
Direct antagonist.
B.
Direct agonist.
C.
Indirect antagonist.
D.
Indirect agonist.
The correct answer is B.
A direct agonist enhances the effects of a neurotransmitter by mimicking the neurotransmitter. Answer A is incorrect, as a direct antagonist will decrease the effects of a neurotransmitter by mimicking the neurotransmitter. Answer C is incorrect, as an indirect antagonist will decrease the effects of a neurotransmitter by indirectly altering the neurotransmitter. Answer D is incorrect, as an indirect agonist will increase the effects of a neurotransmitter by indirectly altering the neurotransmitter.
317
A drug that binds to the receptor of an inhibitory neurotransmitter and increases the receptor's affinity for its neurotransmitter is a:
Select one:
A.
Competitive agonist.
B.
Competitive antagonist.
C.
Noncompetitive antagonist.
D.
Noncompetitive agonist.
The correct answer is D.
A noncompetitive agonist works to increase the receptor's affinity for the neurotransmitter, resulting in increased binding and greater post-synaptic effects. Answer A is incorrect, as a competitive agonist increases post-synaptic effects by mimicking the neurotransmitter's effects. Answer B is incorrect, as a competitive antagonist occupies the binding site and prevents the neurotransmitter from binding, which results in reduced activity. Answer C is incorrect, as a noncompetitive antagonist decreases the receptor's affinity for the neurotransmitter, causing decreased binding and post-synaptic effects.
318
Agonists and antagonists that achieve their effects by sharing similar structural similarities with a particular neurotransmitter are called:
Select one:
A.
Direct.
B.
Indirect.
C.
Competitive.
D.
Noncompetitive.
The correct answer is C.
Competitive agonists and antagonists are molecules that share structural similarities with a particular neurotransmitter. Answer A is incorrect, as direct agonists and antagonists mimic the neurotransmitter. Answer B is incorrect, as indirect agonists and antagonists indirectly alter neurotransmitter functions. Answer D is incorrect, as noncompetitive agonists and antagonists typically do not share structural similarities with a particular neurotransmitter.
319
Which of the following is often used to prevent the spread of acute leukemia to the brain?
Select one:
A.
Splenectomy
B.
Spinal leukapheresis
C.
Cranial irradiation
D.
Chemotherapy
The correct answer is C.
The removal of the spleen (i.e., splenectomy) is a procedure that is found in patients with chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL), not acute leukemia, which makes answer A incorrect. Spinal leukapheresis (answer B) is used to treat patients with CLL and it filters out white blood cells to thin the blood. Its primary goal is not to prevent the spread of acute leukemia. Although chemotherapy (answer D) may prevent the spread of leukemia to the brain, that is an iatrogenic effect and not the target of the therapy.
320
The first course of treatment for CML is:
Select one:
A.
Induction therapy.
B.
Aggressive radiation therapy.
C.
Bone marrow transplant.
D.
Gleevac.
The correct answer is D.
Medicines such as Gleevec do not kill the cancer but instead keep it under control (remission). Answer A is incorrect, as this is a first treatment for acute leukemia, not chronic leukemia. Answer B is incorrect, as radiation therapy can have detrimental side effects and it is almost never the first line of treatment. Answer C is incorrect, as bone marrow transplant is almost never the first line of treatment for leukemia.
321
Acute and chronic leukemia differ in which of the following ways?
Select one:
A.
Acute leukemia is aggressive but only short-lived; chronic leukemia may be aggressive or passive but is long-lasting.
B.
Acute leukemia is aggressive and fast-growing; chronic leukemia is slow-growing.
C.
Because acute leukemia is short-lived, the chances of surviving it are greater than with chronic leukemia.
D.
Acute leukemia requires acute treatment; chronic leukemia requires chronic treatment.
The correct answer is B.
Acute leukemia is aggressive and fast-growing, whereas chronic leukemia is slow-growing and less aggressive. "Acute" and "chronic" do not necessarily refer precisely to the length of time that the leukemia "lives" for, but rather how long it takes to grow (answer A). Both forms of leukemia are usually treatable if caught at a sufficiently early stage (answer C). These different kinds of leukemia require different types of treatment, but "chronic" and "acute" do not adequately characterize the different types of treatment (answer D).
322
Following a stroke, an 80-year-old patient experiences anterograde amnesia. What is this patient likely to have difficulty doing?
Select one:
A.
Telling a story about his high school graduation
B.
Watching and enjoying a TV show
C.
Remembering a conversation with a friend after the stroke
D.
Riding a bicycle
The correct answer is C.
Anterograde amnesia refers to the inability to form new long-term memories. It can occur following an event such as a traumatic brain injury, stroke, brain surgery, or disease. Anterograde amnesia does not affect the ability to recall memories for events that occurred prior to the brain damage, and thus, answer A is incorrect. Answer B is incorrect, as short-term memory, which is necessary to follow a conversation or follow the plot of a TV show, also remains intact in anterograde amnesia. Answer D is also incorrect, as anterograde amnesia affects declarative memories (memories for events), not implicit (i.e., procedural) memories such as riding a bike.
323
Korsakoff's syndrome results in what type of brain damage?
Select one:
A.
Severe anterograde and some retrograde amnesia
B.
Severe retrograde and some anterograde amnesia
C.
Equally severe anterograde and retrograde amnesia
D.
Severe anterograde amnesia and no retrograde amnesia
The correct answer is A.
The two types of memory impairment associated with Korsakoff's syndrome are severe anterograde and some retrograde amnesia. Anterograde amnesia refers to difficulty forming new memories or learning new information. Retrograde amnesia refers to difficulty recalling memories for past events. Retrograde amnesia can affect the ability to remember relatively recent past events and events that occurred prior to the onset of the syndrome. Korsakoff's syndrome is also associated with confabulation, which is a process in which people with Korsakoff's syndrome fill in memory gaps with plausible stories that are untrue. Answer B is incorrect, as it is the opposite of what is true. Answers C and D are are not symptoms of Korsakoff's syndrome, making these answers false.
324
Fluoxetine is primarily used in the treatment of:
Select one:
A.
Depression.
B.
Bipolar disorder.
C.
Anxiety disorders.
D.
Histrionic personality disorder.
The correct answer is A.
Serotonin is one of the neurotransmitters involved in depression. SSRIs such as Prozac (fluoxetine) function as the name suggests; they inhibit the reuptake of serotonin in the synapse. This functions to increase the amount of serotonin available in the synapse, which in turn affects mood. SSRIs are considered selective because they specifically affect the levels of serotonin, as opposed to other antidepressants, such as MAOIs and TCAs, which affect levels of serotonin, dopamine, and norepinephrine. They are widely prescribed for depression but also for other conditions, including OCD, eating disorders, and chronic pain. Answer B is incorrect, as antidepressants may trigger manic episodes, and are thus not prescribed for bipolar disorder. Answer C is incorrect; although fluoxetine may be employed in the treatment of comorbid anxiety, its primary use is for depression. Answer D is a distractor, as personality disorders are not treated pharmacologically.
