Physiological Psychology/Psychopharmacology - Domain Quiz Flashcards
Hydrocephalus involves which of the following structures?
Select one:
a. cerebellum
b. brain stem
c. substantia nigra
d. cerebral ventricles
Hydrocephalus is one of several disorders that have been linked to ventricular abnormalities.
Answer D is correct: Hydrocephalus (“water head”) is caused by a build-up of cerebrospinal fluid in the cerebral ventricles.
The correct answer is: cerebral ventricles
Memory loss associated with Alzheimer’s dementia has been most consistently linked to abnormal levels of which of the following neurotransmitters?
Select one:
a. epinephrine
b. norepinephrine
c. serotonin
d. acetylcholine
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the major functions and disorders associated with the neurotransmitters listed in the answers to this questions. This information is provided in the Physiological Psychology and Psychopharmacology chapter of the written study materials.
Answer D is correct: Acetylcholine (ACh) has been implicated in memory loss associated with Alzheimer’s dementia. More specifically, degeneration of cholinergic (ACh) cells in the entorhinal cortex and other areas that communicate directly with the hippocampus has been linked to this disorder.
The correct answer is: acetylcholine
Regional cerebral blood flow (rCBF) serves as an index of neural activity when using which of the following techniques?
Select one:
a. EEG
b. PET
c. CT
d. MRI
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the techniques listed in the answers to this question.
Answer B is correct: Positron-emission tomography (PET) is a functional brain imaging technique that provides information on the functional activities of the brain (e.g., regional cerebral blood flow). CT and MRI are both structural techniques that provide information on the physical structure (rather than activity) of the brain. Additional information on these techniques is provided in the Physiological Psychology and Psychopharmacology chapter of the written study materials.
Answer A is incorrect: An electroencephalographic (EEG) provides information about electrical activity in the brain.
The correct answer is: PET
Spinal cord injury at the sacral level will cause:
Select one:
a. loss of control of the fingers and hands.
b. loss of functioning in the arms and legs.
c. loss of functioning in the hips and legs.
d. poor trunk control.
The 31 pairs of spinal nerves are divided into five groups or regions. These are, from top to bottom:
CERVICAL (arms/legs - quad) (fingers/hands) THORACIC (or fingers/hands) (trunk) LUMBAR SACRAL (hips/legs) COCCYGEAL (trunk)
Answer C is correct: Damage at the sacral level causes a loss of functioning in the hips and legs. Knowing that the sacral nerves are near the bottom of the spinal cord would have helped you recognize this as the correct response.
Answer A is incorrect: Loss of control of the fingers and hands is caused by damage to a lower cervical nerve (C6 to C8) or to a combination of damage to a lower cervical nerve and T1 (the first thoracic nerve).
Answer B is incorrect: Quadriplegia (loss of functioning in the arms and legs) results from damage at the cervical level.
Answer D is incorrect: Loss of control of the trunk area is caused by damage at the thoracic level (especially T1 through T8).
The correct answer is: loss of functioning in the hips and legs.
The all-or-none principle applies to which of the following?
Select one:
a. neurotransmitter re-uptake
b. action potential
c. neurogenesis
d. synaptogenesis
The neuron’s action potential operates on the all-or-none principle.
Answer B is correct: The all-or-none principle states that the magnitude of an action potential is independent of the intensity of the stimulation that produced it.
Answer A is incorrect: The all-or-none principle is not relevant to the re-uptake of neurotransmitters.
Answer C is incorrect: Neurogenesis refers to the creation of new neurons.
Answer D is incorrect: Synaptogenesis is the formation of synapses.
The correct answer is: action potential
Which of the following is most likely to be useful for treating Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder?
Select one:
a. a drug that blocks the reuptake of serotonin
b. a drug that increases cholinergic activity
c. a drug that blocks the release of GABA
d. a drug that increases the availability of cortisol
Knowing that the SSRIs have been found effective for treating OCD would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
Answer A is correct: The SSRIs block the reuptake of serotonin at nerve synapses and have been found to be effective for treating a number of disorders including OCD.
The correct answer is: a drug that blocks the reuptake of serotonin
All sensory systems except __________ have connections through the thalamus.
Select one:
a. touch
b. vision
c. audition
d. olfaction
The thalamus acts as a “relay station” for all of the senses except one.
Answer D is correct: Of the senses, only olfaction is not part of the thalamic relay system.
The correct answer is: olfaction
A middle-aged man exhibits slurred speech, a lack of coordination, and tremors. If his symptoms are due to brain damage, the most likely location of the damage is the:
Select one:
a. hippocampus.
b. cerebellum.
c. parietal lobe.
d. medulla.
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the functions of all of the structures listed in the answers to this question. Additional information about these structures is provided in the Physiological Psychology and Psychopharmacology chapter of the written study materials.
Answer B is correct: The cerebellum is important for coordination, posture, and balance, and damage can result in ataxia which involves the symptoms listed in this question.
Answer A is incorrect: The hippocampus is involved in learning and memory.
Answer C is incorrect: The parietal lobe contains the somatosensory cortex and is involved in pressure, temperature, pain, proprioception, and gustation.
Answer D is incorrect: The medulla is a hindbrain structure that influences the flow of information between the spinal cord and the brain.
The correct answer is: cerebellum.
An adult with damage to his hippocampus can be expected to:
Select one:
a. experience episodes of unprovoked aggressiveness and rage.
b. forget events that occur after the accident that caused the damage.
c. have trouble falling asleep at night.
d. exhibit “pseudodepression.”
Knowing that the hippocampus is involved in learning and memory would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
Answer B is correct: The hippocampus is responsible for memory consolidation, and damage produces impairments in the ability to transfer information from short- to long-term memory.
The correct answer is: forget events that occur after the accident that caused the damage.
A split-brain patient is staring straight ahead when the word “headband” is flashed directly in front of her. The woman will most likely report seeing which of the following?
Select one:
a. headband
b. head
c. band
d. bandhead
Split-brain patients are individuals whose corpus callosums have been severed as a treatment for epilepsy.
Answer C is correct: Because her corpus callosum has been severed, the woman will only be able to verbally state what was directly perceived by her left hemisphere, which is what was in the right visual field of both eyes – i.e., the word “band.” (Since most people are left-hemisphere dominant for language, you can assume that this would be the most likely outcome.)
The correct answer is: band
Damage to the prefrontal cortex is most likely to produce deficits in:
Select one:
a. visual processing.
b. executive cognitive functions.
c. the ability to comprehend speech.
d. fine motor coordination.
The prefrontal cortex is located in the frontal lobe and is involved in a variety of complex behaviors.
Answer B is correct: In addition to mediating higher-order (executive) cognitive functions, the prefrontal cortex is involved in emotion, memory, attention, and self-awareness.
The correct answer is: executive cognitive functions.
Damage to which of the following would most likely result in impairments in the organization and coordination of voluntary motor responses?
Select one:
a. mammillary bodies
b. suprachiasmatic nucleus
c. cingulate gyrus
d. basal ganglia
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the functions associated with each of the structures listed in the answers to this question.
Answer D is correct: The basal ganglia include the caudate nucleus, putamen, globus pallidus, and substantia nigra. These structures play an important role in planning, organizing, and coordinating voluntary movement.
Answer A is incorrect: The mammillary bodies are part of the hypothalamus and are involved in learning and memory. Damage can result in anterograde amnesia.
Answer B is incorrect: The suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) is also part of the hypothalamus and mediates the sleep-wake cycle and other circadian rhythms.
Answer C is incorrect: The cingulate gyrus is part of the limbic system and is involved in the regulation of aggressive behavior and the coordination of sensory input with emotions, including emotional responses to pain.
The correct answer is: basal ganglia
Following a head injury, a women exhibits dressing apraxia and tactile agnosia and doesn’t comb the hair on the left side of her head. Which area of her brain has most likely been damaged?
Select one:
a. frontal lobe
b. parietal lobe
c. temporal lobe
d. occipital lobe
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the consequences of damage to the four lobes of the cerebral cortex that are described in the Physiological Psychology and Psychopharmacology chapter of the written study materials.
Answer B is correct: Tactile agnosia, contralateral neglect, and some types of apraxia are caused by damage to certain areas of the parietal lobe.
The correct answer is: parietal lobe
Following a stroke, a woman is unable to recognize the faces of her relatives and her two pet dogs as well as her own face in the mirror. This condition is referred to as:
Select one:
a. apraxia.
b. psychic blindness.
c. prosopagnosia.
d. anosognosia.
The symptoms described in this question are caused by damage at the junction of the occipital, temporal, and parietal lobes.
Answer C is correct: Prosopagnosia is the inability to recognize familiar faces.
Answer A is incorrect: Apraxia is the inability to perform skilled motor movements in the absence of impaired motor functioning.
Answer B is incorrect: Psychic blindness is an inability to recognize the meaning or significance of objects or events.
Answer D is incorrect: Anosognosia is the inability to recognize one’s own neurological symptoms.
The correct answer is: prosopagnosia.
Research conducted in the 1930s found that ablation of the anterior temporal lobes in male rhesus monkeys produced a variety of symptoms including hypersexuality, placidity, oral tendencies, and psychic blindness. This condition is known as __________ syndrome.
Select one:
a. Kluver-Bucy
b. Gerstmann’s
c. Grave’s
d. Wernicke-Korsakoff
For the exam, you want to be familar with the causes and symptoms of the four disorders listed in the answers to this question. Additional information about them is provided in the Physiological Psychology and Psychopharmacology chapter of the written study materials.
Answer A is correct: The symptoms described in this question are characteristic of Kluver-Bucy syndrome.
Answer B is incorrect: Gerstmann’s syndrome is due to damage to the left parietal lobe.
Answer C is incorrect: Grave’s disease is another name for hyperthyroidism.
Answer D is incorrect: Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome is due to atrophy of neurons in certain areas of the thalamus and is believed to be due to a thiamine deficiency.
The correct answer is: Kluver-Bucy
The body’s circadian rhythms are controlled by the:
Select one:
a. suprachiasmatic nucleus.
b. caudate nucleus.
c. basal ganglia.
d. hippocampus.
Circadian rhythms are bodily functions that fluctuate in a predictable way about every 24 hours.
Answer A is correct: The suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) is part of the hypothalamus and acts as the body’s “biological clock” and is responsible for many of the body’s circadian rhythms.
The correct answer is: suprachiasmatic nucleus.
The corpus callosum is:
Select one:
a. a highly convoluted structure located in the hindbrain.
b. a midbrain structure that mediates vision.
c. a bundle of fibers that connects Wernicke’s and Broca’s areas.
d. a bundle of fibers that connects the right and left hemispheres.
The right and left hemispheres of the brain are connected by several bundles of fibers.
Answer D is correct: The corpus callosum is the largest bundle of fibers that connects the two hemispheres and allows information sent directly to one hemisphere to be shared with the other hemisphere.
The correct answer is: a bundle of fibers that connects the right and left hemispheres.
Which of the following structures is part of the hindbrain?
Select one:
a. reticular formation
b. hypothalamus
c. medulla oblongata
d. cingulate cortex
The hindbrain is located behind the midbrain.
Answer C is correct: The hindbrain consists of the medulla (which is also known as the medulla oblongata), the pons, and the cerebellum.
Answer A is incorrect: The reticular formation is one of the midbrain structures.
Answer B is incorrect: The hypothalamus is a forebrain structure.
Answer D is incorrect: The cingulate cortex is part of the limbic system, which is located in the forebrain.
The correct answer is: medulla oblongata
According to __________, sensation is an exponential function of stimulus intensity.
Select one:
a. Steven’s Power Law
b. Weber’s Law
c. Fechner’s Law
d. Thorndike’s Law of Effect
Steven’s Power Law, Weber’s Law, and Fechner’s Law are three psychophysical laws that you want to be familiar with for the licensing exam.
Answer A is correct: Stevens’s investigations into sensation and perception led to his description of sensation as an EXPONENTIAL FUNCTION of stimulus intensity.
Answer B is incorrect: Weber’s Law states that, the MORE INTENSE THE STIMULUS, the GEATER THE INCREASE IN STIMULUS INTENSITY NEEDED for the increase to produce a just noticeable difference in stimulus intensity.
Answer C is incorrect: Fechner’s Law states that physical stimulus changes are LOGARITHMICALLY RELATED to their psychological sensations.
Answer D is incorrect: Thorndike’s Law of Effect is not a psychophysical law.
The correct answer is: Steven’s Power Law
A man is exhibiting synesthesia when he says that he:
Select one:
a. cannot perceive pain.
b. cannot identify people by their physical appearance.
c. experiences different musical notes as different colors.
d. experiences blackouts whenever he hears certain words.
In the situation described in this question, the stimulation of one sensory modality triggers a sensation in another sensory modality. This is referred to as synesthesia.
Answer C is correct: Experiencing sounds as colors is one type of synesthesia.
The correct answer is: experiences different musical notes as different colors.
Gate control theory is useful for:
Select one:
a. identifying methods for controlling pain.
b. explaining color vision.
c. understanding why it is difficult to acquire a second language.
d. understanding the mechanisms underlying depth perception.
As long as you have gate control theory associated with pain, it would have been easy to identify the correct answer to this question.
Answer A is correct: According to gate control theory, stimulation of certain nerves in the skin or brain can inhibit the transmission of pain messages in other nerves.
The correct answer is: identifying methods for controlling pain.
Negative afterimages provide support for which of the following?
Select one:
a. trichromatic theory
b. opponent-process theory
c. gate control theory
d. place theory
A negative afterimage involves seeing an image of an object in its complementary (opponent) color after staring at the object for a period of time and then looking at a neutral background.
Answer B is correct: Opponent-process theory distinguishes between three types of bipolar receptors – red-green, yellow-blue, and white-black. The presence of afterimages supports this theory.
Answer A is incorrect: Trichromatic theory distinguishes between three types of color receptors – red, blue, and green.
Answer C is incorrect: Gate control theory is a theory of pain perception.
Answer D is incorrect: Place theory is a theory of pitch perception.
The correct answer is: opponent-process theory
Retinal disparity helps explain:
Select one:
a. depth perception for objects that are far away.
b. depth perception for objects that are close.
c. the ability to see objects in the periphery of our vision.
d. the ability to see objects directly in front of us.
Depth perception depends on a combination of binocular and monocular cues.
Answer B is correct: Binocular cues are responsible for depth perception for OBJECTS AT CLOSE DISTANCES and include convergence and retinal disparity. Additional information on depth perception is provided in the Physiological Psychology and Psychopharmacology chapter of the written study materials.
Answer A is incorrect: Monocular cues contribute to depth perception for OBJECTS AT A DISTANCE and include the relative size of objects, the overlap of objects, and linear and atmospheric perspective.
Answer C is incorrect: See explanation for Answer B.
Answer D is incorrect: See explanation for Answer B.
The correct answer is: depth perception for objects that are close.
A researcher investigating the chemical correlates of memory would be most likely to find that administration of which of the following would improve memory consolidation in older adults?
Select one:
a. LGN
b. THC
c. RNA
d. GABA
Older adults with severe memory impairments have been found to exhibit a significant improvement in memory consolidation following administration of yeast RNA (Cameron, 1958). Although this research result has not always been replicated in humans, it has been consistently found in animals.
Answer C is correct: As noted above, there is evidence that RNA is associated with memory consolidation.
Answer A is incorrect: This is the abbreviation for the lateral geniculate nucleus in the brain.
Answer B is incorrect: THC, the active ingredient in marijuana, has not been found to improve memory.
Answer D is incorrect: GABA, an inhibitory neurotransmitter found in the central nervous system, has not been linked with improved memory.
The correct answer is: RNA
Difficulty repeating words, phrases, or sentences uttered by another person is characteristic of all of the following types of aphasia except:
Select one:
a. Broca’s aphasia.
b. Wernicke’s aphasia.
c. transcortical aphasia.
d. conduction aphasia.
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the similarities and differences of the types of aphasia listed in the answers to this question.
Answer C is correct: Transcortical aphasia is distinguished from the other types of aphasia by an unimpaired ability to repeat words, phrases, or sentences spoken by another person. Information about the major types of aphasia is provided in the Physiological Psychology and Psychopharmacology chapter of the written study materials.
The correct answer is: transcortical aphasia.
H.M. underwent a bilateral medial temporal lobectomy as treatment for severe epilepsy. Following the surgery, H.M. exhibited which of the following?
Select one:
a. expressive aphasia
b. receptive aphasia
c. impairments in recent long-term memory
d. impairments in remote long-term memory
Following surgery, H.M. exhibited a number of memory impairments.
Answer C is correct: Although H.M.’s short-term and remote long-term memory were intact, he was unable to form new long-term memories and had trouble remembering events that occurred a few years prior to the surgery.
The correct answer is: impairments in recent long-term memory.
Long-term potentiation (LTP) is believed to underlie:
Select one:
a. the sleep or wake cycle.
b. the experience of emotion.
c. motor coordination.
d. learning and memory.
Long-term potentiation refers to the greater responsivity of a postsynaptic neuron to low-intensity stimulation by a presynaptic neuron for a period of time after it has been barraged by high-frequency stimulation.
Answer D is correct: Long-term potentiation has been observed in the hippocampus, which is involved in memory consolidation.
The correct answer is: learning and memory.
Wernicke’s aphasia involves:
Select one:
a. fluent output, impaired repetition, intact comprehension.
b. nonfluent output, disturbed repetition, abnormal comprehension.
c. nonfluent output, poor repetition, intact comprehension.
d. fluent output, impaired repetition, poor comprehension
The term “aphasia” refers to a loss of language functioning as the result of brain impairment.
Answer D is correct: Fluent speech that is devoid of content, impaired repetition, and poor comprehension of written and spoken language are symptoms of Wernicke’s aphasia. Additional information about the types of aphasia is provided in the Physiological Psychology and Psychopharmacology chapter of the written study materials.
Answer A is incorrect: This describes conduction aphasia. [FLUENT OUTPUT, IMPAIRED REPETITION, INTACT COMPREHENSION]
Answer B is incorrect: This describes global aphasia. [NONFLUENT OUTPUT, DISTURBED REPETITION, ABNORMAL COMPREHENSION]
Answer C is incorrect These symptoms are characteristic of Broca’s aphasia. [NONFLUENT OUTPUT, POOR REPETITION, INTACT COMPREHENSION]
The correct answer is: fluent output, impaired repetition, poor comprehension
A change in facial expression can actually produce a change in affect. This is predicted by which of the following theories?
Select one:
a. Cannon-Bard
b. James-Lange
c. Schachter-Singer
d. Seinfeld-Kramer
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the major assumptions of the three theories of emotion listed in Answers A, B, and C. Information about these theories is provided in the Physiological Psychology and Psychopharmacology chapter of the written study materials.
Answer B is correct: The James-Lange theory is a peripheralist theory that predicts that emotions represent perceptions of bodily reactions to sensory stimuli – in other words, “I’m happy because I’m smiling.”
The correct answer is: James-Lange
Lazarus’s (1991) cognitive appraisal theory describes ____________ as involving an evaluation of a situation as irrelevant, positive-benign, or stressful.
Select one:
a. primary appraisal
b. secondary appraisal
c. tertiary appraisal
d. re-appraisal
Lazarus’s theory distinguishes between three types of appraisal – primary appraisal, secondary appraisal, and re-appraisal.
Answer A is correct: PRIMARY APPRAISAL is the individual’s initial appraisal of an event as irrelevant, positive-benign, or stressful with regard to his or her own well-being.
Answer B is incorrect: SECONDARY APPRAISAL is the person’s evaluation of the resources he or she has to cope with the event.
Answer C is incorrect: Tertiary appraisal is not included in Lazarus’s theory.
Answer D is incorrect: RE-APPRAISAL occurs when the person monitors the situation and, as necessary, alters his or her previous appraisals.
The correct answer is: primary appraisal
Lesions to the right (non-dominant) hemisphere would most likely produce:
Select one:
a. ataxia.
b. coma.
c. catastrophic reactions.
d. indifference or euphoria.
The two hemispheres play somewhat different roles in the regulation of emotion.
Answer D is correct: Areas in the right hemisphere mediate negative emotions, and damage to these areas can produce indifference, apathy, or undue cheerfulness.
Answer A is incorrect: See explanation for Answer D.
Answer B is incorrect: See explanation for Answer D.
Answer C is incorrect: Areas in the left hemisphere govern happiness and other positive emotions, and damage to these areas can produce severe depression, anxiety, or other catastrophic reactions.
The correct answer is: indifference or euphoria
Selye’s “general adaptation syndrome” (GAS) involves which of the following phases?
Select one:
a. alarm, resistance, exhaustion
b. denial, alarm, resolution
c. alarm, resistance, resolution
d. dissociation, realization, acceptance
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the stages of the GAS and the characteristics of each stage. This information is provided in the Physiological Psychology and Psychopharmacology chapter of the written study materials.
Answer A is correct: According to Selye, the response to stress is basically the same regardless of the nature of the stress and involves three stages – alarm, resistance, and exhaustion.
A
R
E
The correct answer is: alarm, resistance, exhaustion
The ________ plays a key role in the attachment of emotions to memory.
Select one:
a. substantia nigra
b. thalamus
c. medulla oblongata
d. amygdala
Knowing that the structures of the limbic system are involved in the mediation of emotion would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
Answer D is correct: The amygdala is part of the limbic system. It integrates, coordinates, and directs emotional activities, attaches emotions to memories, and is involved in the recall of emotionally charged experiences.
The correct answer is: amygdala
Alpha waves are replaced by theta waves during ________ sleep.
Select one:
a. stage 1
b. stage 2
c. stage 3
d. stage 4
Sleep is divided into five stages on the basis of the EEG pattern: Stages 1 through 4 and REM.
Answer A is correct: Immediately before falling asleep a person is in a state of drowsiness that is characterized by alpha waves. Then, during stage 1 sleep, alpha waves are replaced by theta waves. Information on the EEG patterns and other characteristics associated with the five stages of sleep is provided in the Physiological Psychology and Psychopharmacology chapter of the written study materials.
The correct answer is: stage 1
As a treatment for the unpleasant symptoms associated with menopause, hormone replacement therapy (HRT) ordinarily targets which of the following?
Select one:
a. estrogen only or estrogen plus progesterone
b. estrogen only or estrogen plus testosterone
c. estrogen plus androstenedione
d. progesterone plus androstenedione
Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is prescribed as a treatment for hot flashes, night sweats, vaginal dryness, and other undesirable symptoms associated with menopause.
Answer A is correct: There are two major types of HRT – estrogen only or estrogen plus progesterone. (Although testosterone is sometimes included, this is relatively rare and done only when estrogen and progesterone have not adequately alleviated symptoms.)
The correct answer is: estrogen only or estrogen plus progesterone
In comparison to young children, older adults:
Select one:
a. are more likely to begin the sleep period with REM sleep.
b. spend a greater proportion of the sleep period in Stage 4 sleep.
c. spend a smaller proportion of the sleep period in REM sleep.
d. all of the above.
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the major differences in sleep patterns over the lifespan.
Answer C is correct: During the first two to three months of life, infants begin a sleep period with REM sleep, which then gradually changes to NREM sleep. This sequence subsequently reverses. In addition, total sleep time, stage 4 sleep, and REM sleep all decrease from childhood to adulthood.
The correct answer is: spend a smaller proportion of the sleep period in REM sleep.
Sexual dimorphism refers to:
Select one:
a. differences in sexual orientation.
b. differences in the sexual response cycle.
c. sex-related differences in physical appearance.
d. sex-related differences in sex hormones.
The term “sexually dimorphic” was originally used by Darwin to describe species in which males and females look different and is now more generally used to refer to sex-related differences in physical appearance.
Answer C is correct: Human males and females differ in terms of physical appearance in a number of ways, and recent studies have confirmed that differences are also apparent in certain structures of the brain including the corpus callosum, hippocampus, and SCN.
The correct answer is: sex-related differences in physical appearance.
The development of the secondary sex characteristics occurs when the __________ secretes chemicals that stimulate the pituitary gland which, in turn, releases the gonadotropic hormones.
Select one:
a. hypothalamus
b. thalamus
c. putamen
d. substantia nigra
The hypothalamus is part of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis.
Answer A is correct: At puberty, an increase in gonadal hormones influences the emergence of the secondary sex characteristics, and this is mediated by activity in the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis.
The correct answer is: hypothalamus
A(n) ________ seizure affects movement and sensation on one side of the body without a loss of consciousness.
Select one:
a. absence
b. clonic
c. complex partial
d. simple partial
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the types of seizures listed in the answers to this question. These are described in the Physiological Psychology and Psychopharmacology chapter of the written study materials.
Answer D is correct: Simple partial seizures affect one side of the body (at least initially) and do not involve a loss of consciousness.
The correct answer is: simple partial
As the result of a closed-head injury caused by a skateboard accident, a 19-year-old loses her ability to recall events that occurred during the two years prior to the injury. When her memories begin to return, she is most likely to recall which of the following first?
Select one:
a. the events that caused the accident
b. the events that occurred several hours before the accident
c. the fight she had with her boyfriend one month before the accident
d. the trip she took with her family 18 months before the accident
The pattern of memory recovery following a traumatic brain injury is referred to as “shrinking retrograde amnesia.”
Answer D is correct: For TBI patients with retrograde amnesia, the most remote memories are the first to return.
The correct answer is: the trip she took with her family 18 months before the accident
A stroke involving the middle cerebral artery and affecting the dominant (left) hemisphere is most likely to cause which of the following?
Select one:
a. contralateral visual field loss and visual agnosia
b. contralateral hemianesthesia and aphasia
c. contralateral hemiplegia and impaired judgment and insight
d. contralateral visual field loss and memory impairment
The symptoms of stroke depend on the artery and hemisphere of the brain affected and are summarized in the section on neurological, psychophysiological, and endocrine disorders in the Physiological Psychology and Psychopharmacology chapter of the written study materials.
Answer B is correct: A stroke involving the middle cerebral artery may produce contralateral hemiplegia and hemianesthesia, contralateral visual field loss, and, when the dominant hemisphere is affected, aphasia.
The correct answer is: contralateral hemianesthesia and aphasia
A young woman says that she always feels cold, is frequently depressed and has trouble concentrating, is lethargic and has lost interest in sex, and has gained weight even though she doesn’t eat much. These symptoms are most suggestive of which of the following endocrine disorders?
Select one:
a. diabetes insipidus
b. hypothyroidism
c. hypoglycemia
d. Grave’s disease
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the symptoms of the endocrine disorders listed in the answers to this question.
Answer B is correct: Hypothyroidism is caused by hyposecretion of thyroxine and is associated with the symptoms listed in this question.
Answer A is incorrect: Diabetes insipidus is caused by hyposecretion of antidiuretic hormone and produces excessive urination.
Answer C is incorrect: Hypoglycemia is caused by excessive insulin which produces low blood glucose and produces hunger, dizziness, blurred vision, anxiety, and depression.
Answer D is incorrect: Grave’s disease is another name for hyperthyroidism, which is caused by hypersecretion of thyroxin and is associated with an elevated body temperature, increased appetite with weight loss, emotional lability, and reduced attention span.
The correct answer is: hypothyroidism
For many patients with mild traumatic brain injury, the greatest amount of recovery occurs during the first ________ following the injury.
Select one:
a. 3 weeks
b. 3 months
c. 6 months
d. 9 months
Recovery from a mild traumatic brain injury (TBI) depends on several factors and, therefore, varies from person to person. However, some generalizations can be made.
Answer B is correct: For the majority of individuals with mild TBI, the greatest amount of recovery occurs during the first three months following the injury.
The correct answer is: 3 months
Quantitative genetic methods are used to determine the ________ of genetic and environmental dynamics, while molecular genetic methods are used to classify ________ responsible for genetic influence.
Select one:
a. net effect; certain genes
b. difference; methods
c. animal models; complex traits
d. research; mutations
Answer A is correct: Quantitative genetic methods are used when the goal is to determine the net effect of genetic and environmental dynamics on differences in intricate traits. Molecular genetic methods identify which specific genes are responsible for genetic influence.
The correct answer is: net effect; certain genes
Research on symptoms associated with Parkinson’s disease suggests that depression:
Select one:
a. is a very rare symptom that occurs in less than 10% of patients.
b. is part of a patient’s reaction to the disease and most often develops shortly after the diagnosis is confirmed.
c. may be endogeneous to the disease rather than just a reaction to it.
d. is a late-occuring symptom that signals the onset of dementia.
In about 20% of individuals with Parkinson’s disease, depression precedes motor symptoms; and up to 50% experience prominent depressive symptoms at some time during their illness.
Answer C is correct: The fact that some patients with this disorder experience depression as an initial symptoms suggests that it may be endogenous to the disorder (i.e, is part of the pathology of the disease and not just a reaction to it.)
Answer A is incorrect: Depression is not a “very rare” symptom for patients with Parkinson’s disease.
Answer B is incorrect: See explanations for Answer C.
Answer B is incorrect: See explanations for Answer C.
The correct answer is: may be endogeneous to the disease rather than just a reaction to it.
A 72-year-old man is prescribed lithium for Bipolar Disorder. In terms of side effects, the man can most likely expect which of the following?
Select one:
a. shuffling gait
b. visual disturbances
c. shortness of breath
d. fine hand tremor
Common side effects of lithium include gastrointestinal symptoms, fine hand tremor and shakiness, fatigue, restlessness, polyuria, and polydipsia.
Answer D is correct: Fine hand tremor is a common side effect of lithium, especially for older adults.
The correct answer is: fine hand tremor
A(n) __________ does not produce a response on its own but interferes with or prevents the action of a neurotransmitter.
Select one:
a. agonist
b. inverse agonist
c. partial agonist
d. antagonist
The terms agonist and antagonist are used to describe the effects of psychoactive drugs.
Answer D is correct: An antagonist produces no activity in a nerve cell on its own but, instead, reduces or blocks the effects of a neurotransmitter or agonist.
Answer A is incorrect: An agonist produces effects similar to those produced by a neurotransmitter.
Answer B is incorrect: An inverse agonist produces an effect opposite to the effect produced by a neurotransmitter or an agonist.
Answer C is incorrect: A partial agonist produces an effect that is similar (but not identical) to the effect produced by a neurotransmitter or agonist.
The correct answer is: antagonist
Drugs that block the activity of __________ produce dry mouth, blurred vision, postural hypotension, urinary retention, and tachycardia.
Select one:
a. 5-HT
b. glycine
c. ACh
d. glutamate
Dry mouth, blurred vision, postural hypotension, urinary retention, and tachycardia are anticholinergic effects.
Answer C is correct: ACh (acetylcholine) is one of the neurotransmitters classified as “cholinergic.” Drugs that block ACh activity produce anticholinergic effects.
The correct answer is: ACh
In comparison to the tricyclics, fluoxetine and other SSRIs:
Select one:
a. are more likely to cause cognitive impairment.
b. are less cardiotoxic.
c. have a slower onset of therapeutic effects.
d. all of the above.
Overall, the SSRIs are associated with fewer side effects than the tricyclics.
Answer B is correct: An important advantage of the SSRIs is that they are less cardiotoxic than the tricyclics.
Answer A is incorrect: The SSRIS are LESS likely to cause cognitive impairment.
Answer C is incorrect: The SSRIs have a SLIGHTLY MORE RAPID ONSET of therapeutic effects, although both can produce an improvement in symptoms within two to four weeks.
Answer D is incorrect: Only Answer B is true.
The correct answer is: are less cardiotoxic.
The atypical neuroleptic clozapine (Clozaril):
Select one:
a. has a slower (longer) onset of therapeutic effects than the traditional neuroleptics do.
b. is less effective than the traditional neuroleptics for negative symptoms.
c. is more likely than the traditional neuroleptics to produce tardive dyskinesia.
d. does not produce anticholinergic side effects.
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the differences between the traditional and atypical neuroleptic (antipsychotic) drugs. These are described in the Physiological Psychology and Psychopharmacology chapter of the written study materials.
Answer A is correct: A disadvantage of Clozapine and other atypical neuroleptics is that they have a slower onset of therapeutic effects than the traditional neuroleptics.
Answer B is incorrect: An advantage of the atypical drugs is that they alleviate both the positive and negative symptoms of Schizophrenia.
Answer C is incorrect: The atypical drugs are less likely to produce tardive dyskinesia.
Answer D is incorrect: Anticholinergic side effects are common for the atypical neuroleptics.
The correct answer is: has a slower (longer) onset of therapeutic effects than the traditional neuroleptics do.
Therapeutic drug monitoring relies on measuring specific drugs to maintain a concentration in the patient’s bloodstream for what purpose?
Select one:
a. Prevent individuals with substance use disorders from overdosing on illicit substances
b. Optimize dosage regimens
c. Reduce undesired side-effects of medications
d. Identify chromosomal abnormalities that may be affected by specific drugs
Answer B is correct: Therapeutic drug monitoring (TDM) operates on the assumption that there is a connection between the concentration of a drug in a patient’s bloodstream and the therapeutic effects that patient experiences. Answers A and C may occur as a result of TDM, but it is not the main goal. Identifying chromosomal abnormalities (Answer D) would occur through genetic testing, not TDM.
The correct answer is: Optimize dosage regimens
Unilateral damage to the left (dominant) hemisphere is least likely to result in an inability to:
Select one:
A. memorize vocabulary words.
B. construct a daily schedule.
C. read a map.
D. use the process of elimination to answer multiple-choice questions.
Although the two hemispheres of the cerebral cortex play a role in most behaviors, each hemisphere specializes with regard to certain functions. For most people language, math, and analytical thinking are left hemisphere functions, while the understanding of spatial relations, creativity, intuitive thinking, and the ability to recognize faces are right hemisphere functions.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Of the activities listed in the answers, the ability to read a map would most likely be impaired by damage to the right hemisphere. In contrast, damage to the left hemisphere would have the effects listed in answers a, b, and d.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: read a map.
Soon after starting to take an antidepressant, a young woman develops several undesirable side effects including dry mouth, urinary retention, constipation, and blurred vision. Which of the following would be most useful for alleviating these symptoms?
Select one:
A. caffeine
B. antihistamine
C. dopamine agonist
D. cholinergic agonist
The woman’s symptoms are anticholinergic side effects that are caused by the antidepressant drug’s interference with acetylcholine activity.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Cholinergic agonists (e.g., bethanechol) increase acetylcholine activity by enhancing the activity of endogenous acetylcholine or by binding to and activating acetylcholine receptors. A cholinergic agonist would help alleviate the woman’s anticholinergic side effects.
The correct answer is: cholinergic agonist
The neurotransmitter acetylcholine:
Select one:
A. is involved in voluntary movements.
B. decreases alertness and increases the duration of sleep.
C. is implicated in the development of the psychotic disorders.
D. is involved in the control of pain.
Acetylcholine (ACh) has been linked to several functions including control of skeletal and smooth muscles, learning and memory, and the activities of the parasympathetic nervous system.
a. CORRECT The skeletal muscles, which are involved in voluntary movement, are activated by the release of ACh by motor neurons.
b. Incorrect Alterness and the duration of sleep are affected by serotonin levels.
c. Incorrect Dopamine plays a role in the development of psychotic disorders.
d. Incorrect The endorphins are involved in the control of pain.
The correct answer is: is involved in voluntary movements.
When taken by an older adult as a treatment for Bipolar Disorder, lithium is most likely to produce which of the following side effects?
Select one:
A. fine hand tremor, polyuria, and confusion
B. elevated blood pressure and tachycardia
C. nausea, appetite loss, and headache
D. confusion, memory loss, and ataxia
As a general rule, older adults are more susceptible than younger adults to the therapeutic and side effects of many drugs.
a. CORRECT Relatively low doses of lithium can produce these side effects in older adults.
b. Incorrect Stimulant drugs are associated with the side effects listed in this answer.
c. Incorrect These are side effects of the SSRIs.
d. Incorrect These are common side effects of the benzodiazepines.
The correct answer is: fine hand tremor, polyuria, and confusion
In terms of total sleep time, the proportion of Stage 4 sleep in adulthood:
Select one:
A. increases from early to late adulthood.
B. decreases until middle age (about age 45) and thereafter stabilizes.
C. remains stable until late adulthood (age 70) and thereafter increases.
D. decreases from early to late adulthood.
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the predictable age-related changes in sleep patterns that are described in the Physiological Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Stages 3 and 4 (especially Stage 4) sleep show a gradual decline over the lifespan, with older adults spending most of their sleep time in Stages 1 and 2 sleep.
The correct answer is: decreases from early to late adulthood.
Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
Select one:
A. migraine headache: unilateral throbbing pain, nausea, irritability, and pain that worsens with routine physical activity
B. cluster headache: dull throbbing pain that begins with an aura and is exacerbated by bright light
C. tension headache: bilateral steady dull pain and a feeling of tightness in the head that may be accompanied by sleep disturbances and impaired concentration
D. sinus headache: throbbing pain that is localized around the eyes and is made worse by bending over
The various types of headache listed in the answers involve different symptoms. Note that this question is asking which type of headache is described incorrectly.
a. Incorrect This accurately describes a migraine headache.
b. CORRECT A cluster headache is characterized by sharp, penetrating, or burning pain behind the eye or in the temple, a stuffy or runny nose, and a red, flushed face.
c. Incorrect This accurately describes a tension headache.
d. Incorrect This accurately describes a sinus headache.
The correct answer is: cluster headache: dull throbbing pain that begins with an aura and is exacerbated by bright light
The benzodiazepines exert their therapeutic effects by:
Select one:
A. decreasing GABA levels.
B. increasing GABA activity.
C. decreasing ACh levels.
D. increasing ACh activity
Knowing that GABA is an inhibitory neurotransmitter and that the benzodiazepines are anti-anxiety drugs would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT The benzodiazepines enhance the efficiency of GABA activity at receptor sites and thereby decrease anxiety and enhance sleep.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: increasing GABA activity.
Nausea, stomach cramps, excessive thirstiness, increased frequency of urination, muscle weakness, impaired memory, fine hand tremor, and weight gain are side effects most associated with which of the following?
Select one:
A. lithium
B. carbamazepine
C. methylphenidate
D. fluoxetine
Unfortunately, some of the symptoms included in the question are side effects of more than one of the drugs listed in the answers, which makes this a difficult question.
a. CORRECT The symptoms given in the question are potential side effects of lithium, which is used to treat Bipolar Disorder.
b. Incorrect Carbamazepine (Tegretol), an anticonvulsant, is also used to treat Bipolar Disorder. However, its common side effects include dizziness, drowsiness, nausea and vomiting, headache, and ataxia.
c. Incorrect Methylphenidate, a CNS stimulant, is associated with insomnia, reduced appetite, nervousness, tremor, and cardiac arrhythmias.
d. Incorrect Nausea, appetite loss, anxiety, tremor, dry mouth, sweating, tiredness or weakness, and disturbances in sexuality are common side effects of fluoxetine and other SSRIs.
The correct answer is: lithium
Papez’s circuit is a network of nerves that mediates:
Select one:
A. the expression of emotion.
B. the immune system’s reaction to stress.
C. the emergence of secondary sex characteristics during puberty.
D. the attachment of emotion to memories.
Papez (1937) was among the first researchers to identify the neural structures that control emotional expression.
a. CORRECT Included in Papez’s circuit are the hippocampus, mammillary bodies, thalamus, amygdala, and cingulate gyrus.
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: the expression of emotion.
As the result of a head injury sustained in a car accident, a young woman exhibits retrograde amnesia. Once her memories begin to return, which of the following is likely to be recovered first?
Select one:
A. memory for events that occurred several weeks before the accident
B. memory for events that occurred during the hour before the accident
C. memory for events related to the accident
D. memory for events that occurred after the accident
The pattern of memory impairment and recovery following head injury was originally described by Ribot in 1882.
a. CORRECT Recent memories (including memory for the traumatic event) are most susceptible to disruption as the result of trauma. Remote memories are less affected and, when they are lost, are ordinarily the first to be recovered.
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: memory for events that occurred several weeks before the accident
The _____________ predicts that the size of an action potential is independent of the intensity of the stimulus that initiated it.
Select one:
A. all-or-none principle
B. rate law
C. principle of equipotentiality
D. doctrine of specific nerve energies
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the basic properties of the neuron, which are described in the Physiological Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
a. CORRECT According to the all-or-none principle, as long as a nerve cell receives the minimal degree of stimulation required to trigger an action potential, the action potential is the same size regardless of the amount of stimulation.
b. Incorrect The rate law predicts that variations in the intensity of a stimulus are coded by the frequency of the axon’s firing - i.e., the more intense the stimulus, the greater the rate of responding.
c. Incorrect The principle (law) of equipotentiality proposes that, when an area of the cortex is damaged, other intact areas of the cortex can take over the functions of the damaged area.
d. Incorrect The doctrine of specific nerve energies predicts that each sensory neuron is sensitive to all forms of energy but always evokes the same sensation.
The correct answer is: all-or-none principle
An agonist drug exerts its effects by:
Select one:
A. blocking an endogenous neurotransmitters access to a receptor site.
B. exerting the opposite effect of an endogenous neurotransmitter.
C. facilitating the reuptake of an endogenous neurotransmitter.
D. mimicking the effect of an endogenous neurotransmitter at a receptor site.
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the actions of agonists, inverse agonists, partial agonists, and antagonists, which are described in the Physiological Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect This is one of the ways that an antagonist drug exerts its effects.
b. Incorrect This answer describes the action of an inverse agonist.
c. Incorrect This does not describe the action of an agonist drug.
d. CORRECT Agonists exert their effects by mimicking a neurotransmitter and thereby activating or stimulating receptor cells or by facilitating the action of a neurotransmitter at receptor sites.
The correct answer is: mimicking the effect of an endogenous neurotransmitter at a receptor site.
Prospective memory is the ability to remember to execute an intended act in the future and is believed to be supported by activity in which of the following areas of the brain?
Select one:
A. basal ganglia
B. corpus callosum
C. prefrontal cortex
D. reticular formation
A number of brain regions and structures are involved in learning and memory including the hippocampus, amygdala, thalamus, basal ganglia, and prefrontal cortex. Information on the specific roles of these structures is provided in the Physiological Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect The basal ganglia play a role in procedural and implicit memory.
b. Incorrect The corpus callosum has not been identified as a mediator of prospective memory.
c. CORRECT Areas in the prefrontal cortex play an important role in several aspects of memory including prospective, episodic, and working memory.
d. Incorrect The reticular formation is involved in several functions including respiration, posture, locomotion, and REM sleep, but it has not been linked to memory functions.
The correct answer is: prefrontal cortex
Results of Schachter and Singer’s (1962) “epinephrine study” led them to conclude that a person’s subjective emotional response to an event:
Select one:
A. is determined entirely by environmental cues.
B. is determined entirely by the persons physiological reaction to the event.
C. depends primarily on the simultaneous activation of certain peripheral and brain mechanisms.
D. depends on a combination of the persons physical reaction to and cognitive interpretation of the event.
Theories of emotion differ with regard to the degree to which they emphasize the role of peripheral and central factors.
a. Incorrect Schachter and Singer’s theory recognizes the role of environmental factors in the experience of emotion but does not attribute emotion entirely to environmental cues.
b. Incorrect This sounds like the James-Lange theory of emotion which stresses the importance of peripheral factors.
c. Incorrect This sounds like the Cannon-Bard theory of emotions.
d. CORRECT According to Schachter and Singer’s (1962) two-factor theory, subjective emotional experience is the consequence of a combination of physical arousal and cognitive interpretation of that arousal and the context in which it occurs.
The correct answer is: depends on a combination of the persons physical reaction to and cognitive interpretation of the event.
Damage to the temporal lobe is most likely to result in:
Select one:
A. contralateral neglect.
B. apraxia.
C. memory loss.
D. homonymous hemianopsia.
The temporal lobe plays an important role in several important functions including auditory sensation and perception, language comprehension, and long-term memory.
a. Incorrect Contralateral neglect is a possible consequence of parietal lobe damage.
b. Incorrect Apraxia is caused by damage to the parietal or frontal lobe.
c. CORRECT Damage to the dominant temporal lobe may cause verbal memory loss, while damage to the nondominant temporal lobe may produce nonverbal memory loss.
d. Incorrect This refers to loss of one-half of the visual field in each eye and is due to damage to the occipital lobe.
The correct answer is: memory loss.
Many psychoactive drugs produce __________ side effects such as dry mouth, blurred vision, urinary retention, constipation, decreased perspiration, and tachycardia.
Select one:
A. serotoninergic
B. cholinergic
C. anticholinergic
D. dopaminergic
Antipsychotics, antidepressants, and a number of other drugs produce the side effects listed in this question.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Anticholinergic side effects result when the amount of acetylcholine (ACh) in the central and peripheral nervous systems is reduced.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: anticholinergic
Long-term potentiation is believed to play a critical role in which of the following?
Select one:
A. emotional experience and expression
B. the production of language
C. sexual behavior
D. learning and memory
Long-term potentiation (LTP) is a physiological process that involves physical modification of nerve synapses, especially at glutamate receptors in the hippocampus.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT LTP is believed to play an important role in the synaptic changes that underlie learning and memory.
The correct answer is: learning and memory
During the night, the mother of an 8-month old baby sleeps soundly. Although street noise and the barking of the neighbor’s dog do not awaken her, she immediately awakens to the sound of her baby’s cries. The brain structure most responsible for this phenomenon is the:
Select one:
A. frontal lobe.
B. ARAS.
C. hippocampus.
D. substantia nigra.
Knowing that ARAS stands for “ascending reticular activating system” may have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
a. Incorrect Areas of the frontal lobe are involved in emotion, language, memory, and higher-order cognitive abilities.
b. CORRECT The ARAS acts as a “sensory screening system” that arouses the brain whenever important information must be processed.
c. Incorrect The hippocampus plays an important role in memory consolidation.
d. Incorrect The substantia nigra is part of the basal ganglia and is involved in movement and certain types of learning. Abnormalities in the substantia nigra have been linked to Parkinson’s disease, Schizophrenia, and epilepsy.
The correct answer is: ARAS.
Damage to the reticular activating system is most likely to cause which of the following?
Select one:
A. deficits in explicit memory
B. disruptions in the sleep-wake cycle
C. impaired balance and coordination
D. Kluver-Bucy syndrome
The reticular activating system (RAS) is a complex, net-like system of nuclei and fibers that extends from the spinal cord into the brain.
a. Incorrect Damage to the hippocampus is associated with deficits in explicit memory.
b. CORRECT Damage to the RAS disrupts the sleep-wake cycle and can produce a permanent, coma-like state.
c. Incorrect Damage to the cerebellum would cause impaired balance and coordination.
d. Incorrect Kluver-Bucy syndrome is characterized by reduced fear, increased docility, compulsive oral behaviors, altered dietary habits, an inability to recognize visual stimuli, and hypersexuality. It is caused by lesions in amygdala, hippocampus, and certain areas of the temporal lobe.
The correct answer is: disruptions in the sleep-wake cycle
When used as a treatment for ADHD, the most common initial side effects of methylphenidate (Ritalin) are:
Select one:
A. skin rash and itching.
B. paresthesias.
C. joint pain and muscle cramps.
D. insomnia and reduced appetite.
Knowing that methylphenidate is a central nervous system stimulant would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
a. Incorrect Skin rash and itching may occur but are less common that insomnia and appetite loss.
b. Incorrect Paresthesias are not a side effect associated with methylphenidate.
c. Incorrect Joint pain and muscle cramps may occur, but they are much less common than insomnia and appetite loss.
d. CORRECT For most individuals taking methylphenidate as a treatment for ADHD, the drug’s initial side effect is difficulty sleeping. Other common side effects include decreased appetite, nervousness, irritability, and nausea and abdominal pain.
The correct answer is: insomnia and reduced appetite.
If you’re in an accident that causes damage to your cerebellum, you’re most likely to:
Select one:
A. have trouble playing tennis.
B. forget what occurred just prior to the accident.
C. have trouble identifying the source of familiar odors.
D. find it difficult to do simple arithmetic calculations.
The cerebellum is involved in the regulation of balance and coordination.
a. CORRECT Of the activities listed in the answers, playing tennis is most likely to be adversely affected by damage to the cerebellum.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: have trouble playing tennis.
During the initial ___________ stage of the development of the central nervous system, new cells are produced inside the neural tube.
Select one:
A. differentiation
B. proliferation
C. synaptogenesis
D. apoptosis
The development of the central nervous system involves five stages: proliferation, migration, differentiation, myelination, and synaptogenesis.
a. Incorrect Differentiation is the third stage in brain development and occurs when neurons of different types develop their own unique features.
b. CORRECT This question accurately describes the first stage of brain development - i.e., the generation of new cells is referred to as proliferation.
c. Incorrect Synaptogenesis is the formation of synapses and is the last of the five stages.
d. Incorrect Apoptosis refers to cell death. During the development of the CNS, too many cells are produced, and apoptosis is a normal process.
The correct answer is: proliferation
The _____________ mediates the body’s physical homeostasis.
Select one:
A. cingulate gyrus
B. hypothalamus
C. cerebellum
D. adrenal medulla
Homeostasis refers to maintaining functions within a fixed or optimal range.
a. Incorrect The cingulate gyrus is part of the limbic system and is believed to be responsible for focusing attention on emotionally significant events, linking sensory input to emotions, mediating emotional reactions to pain, and regulating aggressive behavior.
b. CORRECT A primary function of the hypothalamus is to maintain the body’s homeostasis with regard to temperature, blood pressure, fluid and electrolyte balance, and other bodily states.
c. Incorrect The cerebellum is important for balance and posture and is vital to the performance of coordinated and refined motor movements.
d. Incorrect The adrenal medulla is the core of the adrenal gland and is involved in several functions that are similar to those of the sympathetic nervous system. It plays an important role in the body’s reaction to stress.
The correct answer is: hypothalamus
___________ is caused by an excessive accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid in the ventricles.
Select one:
A. Spina bifida
B. Meningitis
C. Hydrocephalus
D. Encephalitis
Knowing that hydrocephalus means “water head” would have helped you identify it as the correct answer to this question.
a. Incorrect Spinal bifida is a neural tube defect caused by a failure of the fetus’s spine to close appropriately during early development.
b. Incorrect Meningitis is inflammation of the membranes of the brain and spinal cord and is a possible cause of acquired hydrocephalus.
c. CORRECT The accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid in the ventricles (usually as the result of an obstruction) causes hydrocephalus which results in increased intracranial pressure and can lead to brain damage.
d. Incorrect Encephalitis is an inflammation of the brain that is usually caused by a virus.
The correct answer is: Hydrocephalus
Bob B. always perceives the sound of a piano as blue, the sound of a violin as green, and the sound of a trumpet as purple. This condition is referred to as:
Select one:
A. achromatopsia.
B. paresthesia.
C. synesthesia.
D. simultagnosia.
Bob B. is perceiving sounds as colors.
a. Incorrect Achromatopsia is a congenital deficit in the perception of color.
b. Incorrect Paresthesias are abnormal neurological sensations - e.g., numbness, tingling, burning.
c. CORRECT Synesthesia refers to a sensation that occurs in one sense modality when another modality has been stimulated - e.g., perceiving auditory stimuli as color.
d. Incorrect Simultagnosia is an inability to recognize multiple elements in a visual object or scene.
The correct answer is: synesthesia.
Sleep patterns vary somewhat with age. For example, during the first few months of life, infants begin a sleep period with:
Select one:
A. REM sleep.
B. Stage 2 sleep.
C. Stage 3 sleep.
D. Stage 4 sleep.
The sleep pattern of newborns is quite different from that of older children and adults.
a. CORRECT The four stages of non-REM sleep are relatively indistinguishable during the first few months of life. Also, in contrast to older children, adolescents, and adults, newborns begin a sleep period with REM sleep.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: REM sleep.
Drowsiness (sedation) is most likely to be an initial side effect of which of the following antidepressants?
Select one:
A. fluoxetine (Prozac)
B. paroxetine (Paxil)
C. sertraline (Zoloft)
D. doxepin (Sinequan)
The tricyclic antidepressants are, in general, more sedating than the SSRIs.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Doxepin is a tricyclic antidepressant, and drowsiness is one of the most common side effects of this drug (although it tends to decrease over time). In contrast, the drugs listed in answers a, b, and c are SSRIs and are less likely than doxepin to produce sedation.
The correct answer is: doxepin (Sinequan)
The sleep-wake cycle and other circadian rhythms are controlled by which of the following structures of the brain?
Select one:
A. extrapyramidal system
B. reticular activating system
C. lateral geniculate nucleus
D. suprachiasmatic nucleus
The suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) is located in the hypothalamus just above the optic chiasm.
a. Incorrect The extrapyramidal system is a network of neurons that is involved in movement.
b. Incorrect The reticular activating system is a network of neurons that extends from the spinal cord into the brain and is involved in motivation and arousal.
c. Incorrect The lateral geniculate nucleus is part of the thalamus and is involved in the processing of information related to vision.
d. CORRECT The SCN is the “primary circadian pacemaker” in mammals and is responsible for circadian rhythms related to sleep, temperature, blood pressure, the production of hormones, and other functions.
The correct answer is: suprachiasmatic nucleus
Carbamazepine and several other anticonvulsant drugs were originally used to treat seizure disorders but are now also used to treat:
Select one:
A. Paraphilias.
B. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder.
C. Bipolar Disorder.
D. Autistic Disorder.
Carbamazepine and other anticonvulsants (e.g., valproic acid and clonazepam) have been identified as effective treatments for only one of the disorders listed in the answers to this question.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Carbamazepine and other anticonvulsant drugs are often useful for treating bipolar disorder for individuals who have not responded to lithium, and there is some evidence that they are particularly effective as mood stabilizers for “rapid cyclers” (individuals who experience frequent mood swings).
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: Bipolar Disorder.
Two types of quasi-experimental methods are used to identify the influence of different genes on complex traits. The _________ uses identical or fraternal twins as participants, while the _________ uses children raised by non-biological parents to classify differences in genetic versus environmental influences.
Select one:
A. Molecular genetic method; quantitative genetic method
B. Quantitative genetic method; molecular genetic method
C. Twin method; adoption method
D. Adoption method; twin method
The correct answer is C. Molecular and quantitative genetic methods are typically carried out in research laboratories. Because genes and environments cannot be manipulated for experimental purposes, the twin method and the adoption method provide quasi-experimental methods of teasing apart the influences of genetics versus the environment.
The correct answer is: Twin method; adoption method
Research on the role of hormones on sexual arousal suggest that androgen:
Select one:
A. is responsible for arousal in females but not in males.
B. is responsible for arousal in males but not in females.
C. is responsible for arousal in males and females.
D. does not impact arousal in either females or males.
The effects of androgen on sexual arousal vary from individual to individual, but it does appear to have a positive impact for both men and women.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT For men, androgen affects sexual interest and arousal, at least up to a point. Beyond that point, the relationship tends to level off. For women, androgen is more effective than estrogen for restoring sexual arousal following menopause or removal of the sex organs.
d. Incorrect See explanation for resonse c.
The correct answer is: is responsible for arousal in males and females.
L-dopa is used to alleviate the symptoms of:
Select one:
A. tardive dyskinesia.
B. Parkinson’s disease.
C. Schizophrenia.
D. Tourettes Disorder.
L-dopa (levodopa) is a precursor to dopamine.
a. Incorrect In some patients with tardive dyskinesia, L-dopa exacerbates symptoms, apparently because the long-term use of an antipsychotic drug has increased their sensitivity to dopamine.
b. CORRECT Parkinson’s disease is due to deficiencies of dopamine in certain areas of the brain; and administering L-dopa increases dopamine levels and alleviates the symptoms of the disorder, especially in its initial stages.
c. Incorrect Schizophrenia is due to oversensitivity to dopamine, and L-dopa would exacerbate its symptoms.
d. Incorrect L-dopa may actually induce the symptoms of Tourette’s Disorder.
The correct answer is: Parkinson’s disease.
The thalamus acts as a “relay station” for incoming signals from all of the senses except:
Select one:
A. olfaction.
B. gustation.
C. vision.
D. audition.
The thalamus receives afferent impulses from all of the senses except olfaction and transmits this information to appropriate areas in the cerebral cortex.
a. CORRECT As noted above, incoming signals related to smell (olfaction) are not relayed to higher areas of the brain through the thalamus. Instead, olfactory signals are sent to the olfactory bulb which then forwards the signals to other areas of the brain.
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: olfaction.
When an individual’s alcohol consumption affects the normal functioning of his or her cerebellum, the individual may exhibit which of the following?
Select one:
A. ataxia
B. aphagia
C. akathisia
D. apraxia
Knowing that the cerebellum is involved in balance and posture would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
a. CORRECT Ataxia involves the loss of ability to coordinate voluntary movements and can be caused by a variety of factors including damage to the cerebellum, the ingestion of certain drugs, and diseases that affect muscle coordination (e.g., cerebral palsy).
b. Incorrect Aphagia (also known as dysphagia) refers to difficulty in swallowing or eating.
c. Incorrect Akathisia is characterized by motor restlessness, especially in the arms and legs. It is one of the side effects of the neuroleptic drugs.
d. Incorrect Apraxia involves an inability to perform skilled movements that is not due to muscle weakness, a loss of motor coordination, sensory loss, or a lack of comprehension or cooperation.
The correct answer is: ataxia
Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
Select one:
A. alpha waves: relaxed alertness
B. beta waves: waking consciousness
C. delta waves: deep sleep
D. theta waves: sudden arousal from sleep
Each of the brain waves listed in the answers is associated with a different physiological state. Note that this question is asking which response represents an incorrect match.
a. Incorrect Alpha waves predominate during states of relaxed wakefulness.
b. Incorrect Beta waves predominate during states of alert wakefulness.
c. Incorrect Delta waves occur during periods of deep sleep.
d. CORRECT Theta waves occur when a person is in a deeply relaxed, drowsy state. Theta waves predominate during Stage 2 sleep.
The correct answer is: theta waves: sudden arousal from sleep
Endocrine disorders often mimic psychiatric disorders. For example, hypothyroidism often includes symptoms suggestive of:
Select one:
A. a phobic disorder, delirium, or mania.
B. mania, anorexia, or OCD.
C. OCD, depression, or a phobic disorder.
D. depression, psychosis, or dementia.
Hypothyroidism and other endocrine disorders may produce symptoms that are characteristic of certain psychiatric disorders. The symptoms of the endocrine disorders you’re most likely to encounter on the exam are described in the Physiological Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT The symptoms of hypothyroidism (e.g., impaired memory and concentration, depression, apathy, confusion, thought disorders, hallucinations) overlap with those associated with depression, psychosis, and dementia.
The correct answer is: depression, psychosis, or dementia.
Selye (1956) proposed that which of the following endocrine glands mediate the general adaptation syndrome?
Select one:
A. thyroid and thymus
B. adrenal and pituitary
C. thyroid and parathyroid
D. pancreas and pineal
According to Selye (1956), the general adaptation syndrome consists of three stages: alarm, resistance, and exhaustion.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Selye proposed that the general adaptation syndrome is mediated primarily by the adrenal and pituitary glands. For example, during the initial alarm stage, the hypothalamus activates the adrenal medulla which increases the production of epinephrine. Additional information about the general adaptation syndrome is provided in the Physiological Psychology chapter.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: adrenal and pituitary
The primary symptoms of Korsakoff’s syndrome are:
Select one:
A. amnesia and confabulation.
B. visual and auditory hallucinations.
C. irritability and aggression.
D. aphasia and disorientation.
Korsakoff’s syndrome is caused by a thiamine deficiency that is often related to chronic alcoholism and causes degeneration of cells in certain areas of the thalamus.
a. CORRECT The primary symptoms of Korsakoff’s syndrome are anterograde and retrograde amnesia and confabulation (inventing events to fill in memory gaps).
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: amnesia and confabulation.
Propranolol and other beta-adrenergic blocking drugs:
Select one:
A. are most effective for reducing palpitations, tachycardia, tremor, and other somatic manifestations of anxiety.
B. are most effective for reducing worry, apprehension, and other psychic (subjective) manifestations of anxiety.
C. are equally effective for reducing the somatic and the psychic manifestations of anxiety.
D. are equally ineffective for reducing the somatic and the psychic manifestations of anxiety.
Beta-adrenergic blocking drugs (beta-blockers) are used to treat a number of disorders including anxiety.
a. CORRECT The beta-blockers reduce the somatic (peripheral) symptoms of anxiety but do not directly affect its subjective manifestations.
b. Incorrect Through their effects on the somatic symptoms of anxiety, these drugs may indirectly affect (reduce) the subjective experience of anxiety. However, their direct effects are on the somatic symptoms of anxiety.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: are most effective for reducing palpitations, tachycardia, tremor, and other somatic manifestations of anxiety.
Which of the following would be most useful for alleviating an attack of hyperventilation?
Select one:
A. an ice pack
B. an antacid
C. a glass of water
D. a paper bag
Hyperventilation is a rapid deep-breathing attack that involves a drop in carbon dioxide, leading to respiratory alkalosis and cerebral hypoxia. Symptoms include chest pain, shortness of breath, tingling and numbness in the hands and feet, dizziness, and impaired concentration and memory.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Breathing into a paper bag alleviates hyperventilation by increasing the level of carbon dioxide in the bloodstream.
The correct answer is: a paper bag
Tourette’s Disorder has been most consistently linked to abnormalities in which of the following structures of the brain?
Select one:
A. dentate gyrus
B. pons
C. basal ganglia
D. mammillary bodies
Tourette’s Disorder is a tic disorder that involves a combination of motor and vocal tics.
a. Incorrect The dentate gyrus is part of the hippocampus and is believed to be involved in memory consolidation.
b. Incorrect The pons is a hindbrain structure that relays sensory information between the cerebellum and cortex, mediates reflexes related to breathing, and may play a role in sleep and dreaming.
c. CORRECT The basal ganglia are involved in the control of movement and include the corpus striatum, caudate nucleus, putamen, and globus pallidus. Basal ganglia dysfunction has been implicated in a number of disorders including Tourette’s Disorder, ADHD, OCD, and Schizophrenia.
d. Incorrect The mammillary bodies are connected to the hypothalamus, are involved in memory, and may play a role in the anterograde amnesia associated with Korsakoff’s syndrome.
The correct answer is: basal ganglia
According to Weber’s law, the more intense a stimulus, the greater the increase in stimulus intensity required for the increase to be perceived. In other words, Weber’s law deals with:
Select one:
A. just noticeable differences.
B. absolute thresholds.
C. stimulus intensities.
D. absolute limens.
There are several psychophysical laws that you should be familiar with for the licensing exam, and these are described in the Physiological Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
a. CORRECT A just noticeable difference is the minimum difference in stimulus intensity required for an individual to notice a difference from the previous intensity. For instance, if you are in a room lit by a 120 watt light bulb, and you don”t notice a difference in brightness until the wattage is increased to 130, the just noticeable difference is 10 watts. Weber’s law states that the more intense a stimulus, the greater the increase in stimulus intensity must be for the increase to be noticed.
b. Incorrect An absolute threshold is the minimum stimulus intensity required to produce a specific sensation. For example, if you don’t notice any light in a room unless the wattage of a light bulb is two or more, then two watts is the absolute threshold.
c. Incorrect Stimulus intensities are measured in terms such as watts, decibels, and Hz. While Weber’s law is concerned with stimulus intensities, it more specifically deals with just noticeable differences.
d. Incorrect Absolute limen is another term for absolute threshold.
The correct answer is: just noticeable differences.
A lesion in the right (nondominant) parietal lobe is most likely to cause which of the following?
Select one:
A. contralateral neglect.
B. apperceptive agnosia
C. receptive aphasia
D. pseudodepression or pseudopsychopathy
Knowing that the parietal lobe controls the somatosensory functions of the body may have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
a. CORRECT Contralateral neglect involves a lack of attention to or interest in one side of the body. It is usually results from damage to the right parietal lobe and involves the left side of the body.
b. Incorrect Apperceptive agnosia (an inability to recognize the basic shape of objects) is caused by lesions in certain areas of the occipital lobe.
c. Incorrect Receptive (Wernicke’s) aphasia is caused by damage to Wernicke’s area, which is in the temporal lobe.
d. Incorrect Pseudodepression and pseudopsychopathy are caused by damage to certain areas of the frontal lobe.
The correct answer is: contralateral neglect.
The hypothalamus is believed to be involved in all of the following functions EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. hunger and thirst.
B. sexual arousal.
C. sleep-wake cycle.
D. vision and audition.
The hypothalamus, although small in size, is one of the most important areas of the brain.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT The hypothalamus mediates a wide range of autonomic, endocrine, and behavioral functions including emotional states, the sleep-wake cycle, hunger and thirst, sexual behavior and reproduction, and temperature. However, it is not involved in vision or audition.
The correct answer is: vision and audition.
The initial therapeutic effect of a conventional (traditional) antipsychotic drug will most likely be:
Select one:
A. an increase in goal-directed behaviors.
B. an improvement in dysphoria.
C. a reduction in memory deficits.
D. a reduction in hallucinations and delusions.
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the primary differences between the conventional and atypical antipsychotics, which are summarized in the Physiological Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Knowing that the conventional antipsychotics are most effective for reducing the positive symptoms of Schizophrenia would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. (The positive symptoms of Schizophrenia represent an excess or distortion of normal functions and include hallucinations and delusions, while the negative symptoms represent a reduction or absence of normal functions and include avolition, anhedonia, and alogia.)
The correct answer is: a reduction in hallucinations and delusions.
A stroke involving the left middle cerebral artery is most likely to cause which of the following?
Select one:
A. right-sided hemiplegia or hemiparesis, nystagmus, and vertigo
B. left-sided hemiplegia or hemiparesis, double vision, and facial paralysis
C. right-sided hemiplegia or hemiparesis, right-sided hyposthesia, and aphasia
D. left-sided hemiplegia or hemiparesis, left-sided hyposthesia, and prosopagnosia
Knowing that the left hemisphere controls functions on the right side of the body, while the right hemisphere controls functions on the left side of the body would have helped you eliminate answers b and d.
a. Incorrect Nystagmus and vertigo are signs of a stroke involving the vertebral artery.
b. Incorrect Double vision and facial paralysis are signs of a stroke involving the basilar artery.
c. CORRECT The middle cerebral artery provides blood to many regions of the brain, and the most common symptoms of stroke involving this artery include contralateral hemiplegia or hemiparesis and hyposthesia (lack of sensation). In addition, when the stroke involves the left cerebral artery, aphasia and apraxia may also occur.
d. Incorrect These symptoms would be caused by a stroke involving the right middle cerebral artery.
The correct answer is: right-sided hemiplegia or hemiparesis, right-sided hyposthesia, and aphasia
Retinal disparity refers to:
Select one:
A. the use of both eyes to perceive depth or distance.
B. the use of one eye to distinguish an object from its background.
C. the difference between the right and left visual fields.
D. the difference between near and far vision.
Retinal disparity is also known as binocular disparity and refers to the fact that our two eyes see the world from two different positions
a. CORRECT Retinal disparity contributes to depth perception for objects at relatively close distance (within about 18 to 20 feet), while other cues such as shadows and the relative motion of objects contribute to depth perception at larger distances.
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: the use of both eyes to perceive depth or distance.
A person with prosopagnosia:
Select one:
A. cannot draw a picture of a face when asked to do so.
B. does not recognize a picture of a face as a face.
C. cannot distinguish one face from another.
D. forgets to wash one side of his/her face.
Prosopagnosia is the inability to recognize or identify individual faces.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT A person with prosopagnosia is unable to recognize familiar faces including, in some cases, his/her own face in a mirror or picture.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: cannot distinguish one face from another.
The research has confirmed that the _________ is responsible for our ability to recall emotionally charged events better than neutral events.
Select one:
A. amygdala
B. medulla oblongata
C. substantia nigra
D. putamen
Knowing that only one of the brain structures listed in the answers is associated with emotion would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
a. CORRECT The amygdala is believed to be responsible for emotional memory, which refers to memory for events that evoke strong emotions.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: amygdala
According to ________________, physical stimulus changes are logarithmically related to their psychological sensations.
Select one:
A. Webers law
B. Fechners law
C. Lashleys law of equipotentiality
D. Thorndikes law of effect
This question is asking about one of the psychophysical laws that attempt to explain the relationship between sensation and perception. Information about these laws is provided in the Physiological Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect According to Weber’s law, the MORE INTENSE STIMULUS, the GREATER INCREASE IN STIMULUS INTENSITY REQUIRED for the increase to be perceived.
b. CORRECT Fechner’s law proposes that sensation is a LOGARITHMIC function of stimulus intensity - i.e., that a person’s experience of stimulus intensity increases arithmetically as the stimulus intensity increases geometrically.
c. Incorrect Lashley’s law of equipotentiality is not a psychophysical law but proposes that, when an area of the cortex is damaged, other areas can take over the functions of the damaged area.
d. Incorrect Thorndike’s law of effect is not a psychophysical law but, instead, a precursor to Skinner’s operant conditioning. It predicts that behaviors that are followed by “satisfying consequences” are likely to occur again.
The correct answer is: Fechners law
Which of the following psychiatric symptoms are most associated with Huntington’s disease?
Select one:
A. depression and irritability
B. hallucinations and delusions
C. anorexia and anxiety
D. sleep and sexual disturbances
Mood symptoms, especially dysthymia and depression, are early symptoms in about 40% of cases of Huntington”s disease.
a. CORRECT Early reports linked Huntington’s disease to psychotic symptoms, but more recent, better-controlled studies have found that affective symptoms are more common and are often the first signs of the disorder.
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: depression and irritability
Studies using the seaslug Aplysia as the research subject have provided information on which of the following?
Select one:
A. pain sensitivity
B. stimulus and response generalization
C. habituation and sensitization
D. synaptogenesis
Because of its simple nervous system and the relatively large size of its neurons, the seaslug Aplysia has been a popular subject for researchers interested in the physiology of learning.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Researchers using Aplysia as their research subject have investigated the neural changes associated with habitation, sensitization, and classical conditioning.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: habituation and sensitization
A person with Wernicke’s aphasia will:
Select one:
A. have trouble understanding language without substantial deficits in producing language.
B. have trouble producing language without substantial deficits in understanding language.
C. have trouble understanding language and will speak slowly and with great difficulty.
D. have trouble understanding language and will have speech that is fluent but is largely devoid of meaning.
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the major types of aphasia that are described in the Physiological Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect This describes Broca’s aphasia.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Wernicke’s aphasia is also known as receptive aphasia and involves deficits in both production and comprehension of language. In terms of production, people with Wernicke’s aphasia exhibit speech that is rapid and fluent but is largely devoid of meaning.
The correct answer is: have trouble understanding language and will have speech that is fluent but is largely devoid of meaning.
Following abrupt cessation of a sedative after long-term use, REM sleep would be expected to:
Select one:
A. increase to above normal levels.
B. increase to normal levels.
C. decrease to below normal levels.
D. decrease to normal levels.
Although sedative drugs increase the total sleep time, they decrease the amount or proportion of REM sleep.
a. CORRECT Abrupt cessation of a sedative following long-term use typically results in a “REM rebound,” which is characterized by an above-normal amount or proportion of REM sleep.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: increase to above normal levels.
Parkinson’s disease is caused by a progressive degeneration of dopamine-producing cells in the:
Select one:
A. suprachiasmatic nucleus.
B. insular cortex.
C. substantia nigra.
D. entorhinal cortex.
Parkinson’s disease has been linked to a degeneration of nerves cells in specific regions of the brain.
a. Incorrect The suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) is located in the hypothalamus and is involved the regulation of the body’s circadian rhythms.
b. Incorrect The insular cortex is involved in speech and in the processing of autonomic and sensory information.
c. CORRECT Knowing that the substantia nigra is involved in the control of movement would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. The degeneration of dopamine-producing cells in the substantia nigra results in the motor symptoms associated with this disorder.
d. Incorrect The entorhinal cortex plays a role (in conjunction with the hippocampus) in memory consolidation and is one of the first areas of the brain to be affected by Alzheimer’s disease.
The correct answer is: substantia nigra.
Which type of research provides more accurate data about genetic testing?
Select one:
A. Research involving animal models
B. Research involving human models
C. Neither A or B
D. Both A and B are equally accurate
The correct answer is A. Due to the nature of genetic testing, some level of manipulation of genes and environment is required to identify which genes are responsible for various traits. This level of manipulation is achievable when using animal models in a laboratory, but is not as feasible with human models.
The correct answer is: Research involving animal models
The neurotransmitter GABA is a(n):
Select one:
A. amino acid that plays an inhibitory role regardless of its location in the brain.
B. amino acid that plays an excitatory role regardless of its location in the brain.
C. amino acid that plays an inhibitory or excitatory role, depending on its location in the brain.
D. neuropeptide that plays an inhibitory or excitatory role, depending on its location in the brain.
The neurotransmitters can be classified in terms of their chemical make-up and their effects on post-synaptic neurons.
a. CORRECT Many neurotransmitters serve both excitatory and inhibitory functions. GABA, an amino acid, is one of the neurotransmitters that serves only one of these functions - i.e., it is an inhibitory neurotransmitter.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect GABA is an amino acid, not a neuropeptide. (The neuropeptide neurotransmitters include substance P and the endorphins.)
The correct answer is: amino acid that plays an inhibitory role regardless of its location in the brain.
There are two major types of color-blindness: Monochromats are totally color-blind, while dichromats are insensitive to one of two color pairs (red/green or blue/yellow). The existence of dichromats supports which of the following theories of color vision?
Select one:
A. trichromatic theory
B. opponent-process theory
C. place theory
D. dual-process theory
Answer B is correct. There are two major theories of color vision: trichromatic and opponent-process. According to opponent-process theory, there are three sets of cones: one that is sensitive to white and black, another to red and green, and a third to yellow and blue. Color-blindness results from the absence of one or more of these sets of cones and, therefore, explains why dichromats cannot distinguish between either red and green or blue and yellow.
a. Incorrect- Trichromatic theory postulates that the human eye has three types of color receptors (red, green, and blue) and that the perception of different colors is due to a combination of the responses of these three receptors.
c. Incorrect-Place theory is a theory of audition, not vision.
d. Incorrect-According to dual-process theory, a response made by an individual to a stimulus involves two stages - a decision as to whether or not to respond and a decision as to which alternative response to make. It is not a theory of color vision.
The correct answer is: opponent-process theory
___________ is a communication disorder that is characterized by difficulties in regulating the rate, rhythm, pitch, and loudness of speech.
Select one:
A. Dysarthria
B. Paraphasia
C. Dysprosody
D. Anomia
The pattern of stress and intonation in speech is referred to as prosody.
a. Incorrect Dysarthria is a motor speech disorder that produces problems related to articulation.
b. Incorrect Paraphasia is a type of aphasia that involves the use of unintended syllables, words, or phrases (e.g., unintentionally substituting one word for another).
c. CORRECT Dysprosody is a disruption in speech melody and rhythm and is characteristic of Broca’s aphasia and other nonfluent aphasias. Although dysprosody has traditionally been linked to right hemisphere damage, its presence in Broca’s aphasia suggests that prosody is also governed, to some degree, by the left hemisphere.
d. Incorrect Anomia is a type of aphasia involving an inability to recall the names of familiar objects.
The correct answer is: Dysprosody
Which of the following neuroimaging techniques would NOT be useful for studying the functional activity of the brain (e.g., blood flow, glucose metabolism, or oxygen consumption)?
Select one:
A. CT
B. SPECT
C. fMRI
D. PET
The various neuroimaging techniques can be categorized as either structural or functional techniques.
a. CORRECT CT (computed tomography) is a structural technique and provides information on brain structure. In contrast, the techniques listed in answers b, c, and d are functional techniques and provide information on the functional activities of the brain.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: CT
Spinal cord injury at the ________ level is most likely to result in quadriplegia.
Select one:
A. lumbar
B. sacral
C. cervical
D. thoracic
The 31 pairs of spinal nerves are divided into five groups or regions. These are, from the top to the bottom of the spinal cord, cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal.
a. Incorrect Damage at the lumbar level is likely to cause some loss of functioning in the HIPS AND LEGS.
b. Incorrect Damage at the sacral level also causes loss of functioning in the HIPS AND LEGS.
c. CORRECT Quadriplegia (the loss of sensory and motor functioning in the arms and legs) results from damage at the cervical level.
d. Incorrect Paraplegia (loss of functioning in the LEGS) is caused by damage at the thoracic level.
The correct answer is: cervical
As the result of a brain injury, Walter W. cannot recognize familiar objects by touch. Most likely, Walter has damage to his _______ lobes.
Select one:
A. parietal
B. occipital
C. temporal
D. frontal
Walter is exhibiting somatosensory (tactile) agnosia.
a. CORRECT The parietal lobes contain the somatosensory cortex, which processes information from the skin senses (touch, temperature, pressure, etc.). Damage to the parietal lobes may produce somatosensory agnosia which is characterized by a lack of awareness of one side of the body and/or an inability to recognize familiar objects by touch.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: parietal
Lesions in the right (nondominant) hemisphere of the cerebral cortex are most likely to have which of the following effects?
Select one:
A. increase catastrophic reactions to benign events
B. produce indifference or excessive cheerfulness
C. produce excessive fear and anger
D. decrease talkativeness
Although the studies suggest that simple left-right distinctions about the brain are not entirely accurate, some generalizations can be made. With regard to emotions, the left hemisphere mediates positive emotions, while the right hemisphere mediates negative emotions.
a. Incorrect This is associated with damage to the left hemisphere.
b. CORRECT The right hemisphere governs negative emotions, and lesions to this side of the brain produce an opposite effect - i.e., indifference, emotional lability, and atypical humor (e.g., either not responding to jokes or cartoons or laughing even when they are not understood).
c. Incorrect This is the opposite of what is true.
d. Incorrect This is also the opposite of what is true. Lesions in the right hemisphere often increase talkativeness.
The correct answer is: produce indifference or excessive cheerfulness
Damage to Broca’s area produces _______________, while damage to Wernicke’s area results in ______________.
Select one:
A. expressive aphasia; conduction aphasia
B. conduction aphasia; transcortical aphasia
C. expressive aphasia; receptive aphasia
D. receptive aphasia; expressive aphasia
Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas are the two primary language areas of the brain. Information on the types of aphasia produced by damage to these areas and other types of aphasia is provided in the Physiological Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect Damage to Broca’s area does cause expressive aphasia, but damage to Wernicke’s area does not produce conduction aphasia. Conduction (associative) aphasia is is caused by damage to the arcuate fasciculus, which connects Wernicke’s and Broca’s areas.
b. Incorrect Damage to Broca’s area does not cause conduction aphasia, and damage to Wernicke’s area does not cause transcortical aphasia, which results when lesions outside Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas isolate these areas from other regions of the brain.
c. CORRECT Damage to Broca’s area causes an inability to produce language (expressive aphasia), while damage to Wernicke’s area is associated with an inability to understand written or spoken language with fluent but unintelligible speech (receptive aphasia).
d. Incorrect This is the opposite of what is true.
The correct answer is: expressive aphasia; receptive aphasia
_________ waves are characteristic of an awake but rested and relaxed state.
Select one:
A. Beta
B. Delta
C. Theta
D. Alpha
Different states of wakefulness and sleep are associated with different brain wave patterns.
a. Incorrect Beta waves occur during awake, alert states.
b. Incorrect Delta waves are characteristic of Stage 3 and Stage 4 (deep) sleep.
c. Incorrect Theta waves are associated with deep relaxation and drowsiness and predominate during Stage 2 sleep.
d. CORRECT Alpha waves are regular high-amplitude, low frequency waves that are recorded during states of restfulness and relaxation.
The correct answer is: Alpha
Lazarus’s (1982, 1991), cognitive appraisal theory proposes that cognitive appraisal of a situation precedes the emotional reaction to that situation and distinguishes between three types of appraisal. These are:
Select one:
A. unconscious, preconscious, and conscious appraisal.
B. primary appraisal, secondary appraisal, and re-appraisal.
C. structural, phonemic, and semantic appraisal.
D. peripheral appraisal, central appraisal, and re-appraisal.
Lazarus proposed that cognitive appraisal (evaluation) of a situation is an important determinant of our emotional reaction to the situation.
a. Incorrect These are not the three types of appraisal identified by Lazarus.
b. CORRECT Lazarus divided cognitive appraisal into three types: Primary appraisal refers to our evaluation of the situation as positive, stressful, or irrelevant to our well-being. Secondary appraisal refers to our evaluation of the resources we have to cope with the situation. Finally, re-appraisal refers to monitoring of the situation and modifying our primary and secondary appraisals when necessary.
c. Incorrect Structural, phonemic, and semantic are the three levels of memory proposed by the levels of processing model.
d. Incorrect These are not the three types of appraisal identified by Lazarus.
The correct answer is: primary appraisal, secondary appraisal, and re-appraisal.
Complex partial seizures originating in the temporal lobe are most likely to cause which of the following symptoms?
Select one:
A. speech arrest or other disturbance in speech.
B. pain or tingling on one side of the body
C. a feeling of deja vu or jamais vu
D. visual hallucinations or vision loss
Complex partial seizures are due to abnormal electrical activity in one region of the brain.
a. Incorrect Speech arrest and other speech disturbances are symptoms of frontal lobe seizures.
b. Incorrect Pain, tingling, or other bodily sensations are caused by abnormal electrical activity in the parietal lobe.
c. CORRECT Typical symptoms of seizure activity in the temporal lobe are a change in perception, a sudden alteration in emotions, and/or a sense of deja vu or jamais vu (a sense of familiarity or unfamiliarity, respectively). Symptoms associated with seizures in the four lobes of the cerebral cortex are summarized in the Physiological Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
d. Incorrect Visual abnormalities (e.g., hallucinations, flashing lights, or vision loss) are symptoms of abnormal electrical activity in the occipital lobe.
The correct answer is: a feeling of deja vu or jamais vu
Sperry and Gazzaniga’s (1967) research on “split-brain” patients provided evidence for which of the following?
Select one:
A. brain lateralization
B. neural networks
C. pleasure centers in the brain
D. the fight-or-flight response
Sperry and Gazzaniga’s “split-brain” patients had their corpus callosums severed in order to control severe epilepsy. The consequences of this surgery are described in the Physiological Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
a. CORRECT Results of the studies on these patients confirmed that each hemisphere specializes with regard to certain functions - e.g., in most people, the left hemisphere is dominant for language and logical, analytical thinking, while the right hemisphere is primarily responsible for spatial perception, holistic thinking, and creativity.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: brain lateralization
____________, a late-appearing side effect of the conventional antipsychotic drugs, is characterized by repetitive, involuntary tic-like movements of the face, eyelids, mouth, tongue, extremities, and/or trunk.
Select one:
A. Acute dystonia
B. Parkinsonism
C. Tardive dyskinesia
D. Akathisia
Answer C is correct. For the exam, you’ll want to be familiar with the symptoms of all of the conditions listed in the answers to this question. Tardive dyskinesia is a serious and potentially irreversible side effect of antipsychotics (especially the conventional drugs), and the question describes its primary symptoms.
Answer A: Incorrect - Acute dystonia is an early-onset side effect of antipsychotics. Its primary symptoms are muscle spasms and slow abnormal movements, most often in the eyes, jaw, and tongue.
Answer B: Incorrect - Parkinsonism is an intermediate-onset side effect of antipsychotic drugs. Its symptoms include muscle rigidity, impaired balance, gait changes, tremors, changes in facial expressions and speech, and muscle cramps.
Answer D: Incorrect - Akathisia is another intermediate-onset side effect of antipsychotics. It involves an uncomfortable sense of restlessness that may be accompanied by foot-tapping, leg shaking, or pacing.
The correct answer is: Tardive dyskinesia
A primary concern about the long-term use of chlorpromazine is that it may result in the development of which of the following?
Select one:
A. acute hypertensive crisis
B. profound anterograde amnesia
C. tardive dyskinesia
D. renal toxicity
This question requires you to know that chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic drug and that antipsychotics are associated with a number of adverse side effects.
a. Incorrect An acute hypertensive crisis is a potential side effect of the MAOIs.
b. Incorrect Anterograde amnesia is a potential side effect of triazolam and other benzodiazepines.
c. CORRECT The long-term use of an antipsychotic drug - especially chlorpromazine or other conventional antipsychotic - can result in tardive dyskinesia, a neurological movement disorder involving involuntary movements of the lips, tongue, face, trunk, and extremities (e.g., facial grimacing, tongue protrusion, guitar and piano-playing movements).
d. Incorrect Renal toxicity is associated with the use of lithium.
The correct answer is: tardive dyskinesia
The onset of puberty in humans occurs when gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) is secreted by the:
Select one:
A. hippocampus.
B. hypothalamus.
C. adrenal glands.
D. thalamus.
At puberty, the gonads (testes and ovaries) produce hormones that, in turn, are responsible for physical sexual maturation.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Secretion of gonadotropin-releasing hormone by the hypothalamus stimulates production and release of the gonadotropic hormones by the pituitary gland. These hormones then stimulate the gonads to release the sex hormones which trigger sexual development.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: hypothalamus.
Which of the following describes the “rebound effect” that is associated with the use of a benzodiazepine as a treatment for anxiety?
Select one:
A. the persistence of symptoms when the drug is prescribed in high dose
B. the re-emergence of symptoms after long-term use of the drug
C. an initial paradoxical increase in symptoms when the drug is prescribed in a low dose
D. a temporary increase in the severity of symptoms when the drug is abruptly discontinued
Abrupt discontinuation of a benzodiazepine may result in “rebound hyperexcitability.”
Answer D is correct. A person taking a benzodiazepine for anxiety, for example, may experience rebound anxiety when he or she stops taking the drug, especially when cessation is abrupt rather than gradual. Rebound symptoms are often more severe than the original symptoms.
The correct answer is: a temporary increase in the severity of symptoms when the drug is abruptly discontinued
After the image of an object is projected exclusively to Olivia O.’s left visual field (right hemisphere), Olivia is unable to verbally name the object but can pick the object out of a group of objects hidden from view with her left hand. Damage to which of the following would explain this phenomenon?
Select one:
A. visual association cortex
B. prefrontal association cortex
C. arcuate fasciculus
D. corpus callosum
Olivia’s behavior is characteristic of individuals whose corpus callosum has been severed to control severe epilepsy (i.e., “split-brain patients”). Additional information on the effects of severing the corpus callosum is provided in the Physiological Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect Damage to the visual association cortex can result in visual agnosia (an inability to recognize a familiar object by sight). Olivia recognizes the object but cannot verbally name it.
b. Incorrect The prefrontal association cortex is involved in complex functions related to perception, emotion, memory, and thinking. Damage to this area may produce subtle personality and behavioral changes (e.g., apathy, impulsivity, inappropriate silliness).
c. Incorrect The arcuate fasciculus connects the brain”s receptive language center (Wernicke’s area) with its expressive language center (Broca’s area). Damage to the arcuate fasciculus causes conduction aphasia.
d. CORRECT The corpus callosum is the major bundle of fibers that connects the right and left hemispheres of the brain, and damage to this structure reduces interhemispheric communication and can produce the behavior described in this question.
The correct answer is: corpus callosum
Hans Selye’s (1956) general adaptation syndrome predicts that we respond to stress with a predictable pattern that involves which of the following three stages?
Select one:
A. disorganization, mobilization, and adaptation
B. exhaustion, accommodation, and recovery
C. preparation, survival, and rebuilding
D. alarm, resistance, and exhaustion
Selye’s general adaptation syndrome (GAS) is based on the assumption that people respond to all types of prolonged stress in the same manner.
a. Incorrect These have been identified as stages in reaction to a crisis.
b. Incorrect These are not the three stages identified by Selye.
c. Incorrect These have been identified as the three stages of responding to a disaster.
d. CORRECT Alarm, resistance, and exhaustion are the three stages identified by Selye. Each is defined by different physiological responses that are mediated primarily by the adrenal and pituitary glands. See the Physiological Psychology chapter for additional information on these stages.
The correct answer is: alarm, resistance, and exhaustion
Chronic stress due to depression or other factors may cause impairments in memory as a result of the effects of _______ and other stress hormones on the hippocampus.
Select one:
A. GABA
B. cortisol
C. somatotropin
D. melatonin
Knowing that cortisol is a stress hormone would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question even if you’re unfamiliar with its impact on memory.
a. Incorrect GABA is an inhibitory neurotransmitter that plays a role in seizure and anxiety disorders, motor control, and sleep.
b. CORRECT Secretion of cortisol, a stress hormone, by the adrenal gland is influenced by the activity of the hypothalamus and pituitary gland. It has been recently linked to memory impairments associated with stress.
c. Incorrect Somatotropin is also known as growth hormone and stimulates growth throughout the body.
d. Incorrect Abnormalities in melatonin have been linked to seasonal affective disorder.
The correct answer is: cortisol
The James-Lange theory of emotions emphasizes which of the following?
Select one:
A. cognitive appraisal of the situation.
B. perceptions of bodily reactions to stimuli.
C. social comparisons.
D. the activity of the endocrine system.
The James-Lange theory is a peripheralist theory of emotion that focuses on perceptions of bodily reactions to stimuli.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT According to James-Lange theory, our emotions are based on our perceptions or interpretations of bodily responses – e.g., “I must be afraid because my heart is racing and my knees are shaking.”
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: perceptions of bodily reactions to stimuli.
_____________ involves partial or complete colorblindness due either to a loss of functioning of the cone cells or damage to the occipitotemporal region of the brain.
Select one:
A. Anosognosia
B. Alexia
C. Achromatopsia
D. Agnosia
For the exam, you’ll want to be familiar with the characteristics of all of the conditions listed in the answers to this question.
a. Incorrect Anosognosia is the failure to recognize one’s own neurological symptoms.
b. Incorrect Alexia is an inability to read or understand written words.
c. CORRECT Even if you’re unfamiliar with achromatopsia, you would have been able to identify this as the correct answer if you know that “chroma” refers to color.
d. Incorrect Agnosia is the inability to recognize familiar objects or sounds.
The correct answer is: Achromatopsia
The effectiveness of clomipramine as the treatment for Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD) provides support for the hypothesis that this disorder is related to abnormalities in brain levels of:
Select one:
A. acetylcholine.
B. epinephrine.
C. dopamine.
D. serotonin.
Clomipramine and other antidepressants exert their effects by altering levels of norepinephrine, serotonin, and/or dopamine.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT A current theory about the cause of OCD is that it stems from low serotonin levels. This theory is supported by the fact that clomipramine (a tricyclic antidepressant that has anti-obsessional effects) blocks the reuptake of serotonin by presynaptic neurons.
The correct answer is: serotonin.
