TEST MODE - Test 4 Flashcards
Cross-validation is associated with which of the following phenomena?
Select one:
A.
utility analysis
B.
relevance
C.
criterion contamination
D.
shrinkage
Cross-validation refers to re-assessing a test’s criterion-related validity with a new sample to determine the generalizability of the original validity coefficient.
a. Incorrect In the context of employee selection, utility analysis is conducted to evaluate the costs and benefits of a selection procedure.
b. Incorrect In test construction, relevance refers to the extent to which test items contribute to achieving the stated goals of testing.
c. Incorrect Criterion contamination refers to the bias introduced into a person’s criterion score as a result of the scorer’s knowledge of the person’s performance on the predictor. Criterion contamination tends to artificially inflate the size of the criterion-related validity coefficient.
d. CORRECT The validity coefficient ordinarily “shrinks” (becomes smaller) on cross-validation because the chance factors operating in the original sample are not present in the cross-validation sample.
The correct answer is: shrinkage
Recent research indicates that people with Parkinson’s disease have lost at least 80% of __________-producing cells in the substantia nigra.
Select one:
A.
norepinephrine
B.
dopamine
C.
serotonin
D.
substance P
Knowing that dopamine is involved in the control of voluntary motor movements would have helped you select the correct response to this question.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Degeneration of neurons that secrete dopamine contributes to movement disorders such as Parkinson’s disease and Huntington’s chorea.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: dopamine
During the course of data analysis, a researcher more often double-checks results that seem to conflict with her hypothesis than results that confirm it. This is an example of:
Select one:
A.
the experimenter expectancy effect.
B.
demand characteristics.
C.
the Pygmalion effect.
D.
the correspondence bias.
In this situation, the experimenter’s behavior might have a biasing effect on the study’s results in the direction of her research hypothesis.
a. CORRECT Experimenter expectancy (bias) occurs when the experimenter’s behavior biases the research results in some (usually unconscious) way so that the results are consistent with the research hypothesis.
b. Incorrect Demand characteristics are cues in the research situation that communicate to subjects what behaviors are expected of them. Experimenter expectancies can act as a source of demand characteristics (although that wouldn’t be the case in this situation).
c. Incorrect The Pygmalion effect (aka the self-fulfilling or Rosenthal effect) occurs when a person’s expectations about another individual actually produce subtle changes in the individual’s behavior so that the behavior conforms to the person’s expectations.
d. Incorrect Correspondence bias is another name for the fundamental attribution bias, which is the tendency for observers to attribute another person’s behavior to dispositional (rather than situational) factors.
The correct answer is: the experimenter expectancy effect.
Due to recent changes in technology, a company vice president realizes that many employees will need to be retrained. The first step in identifying training needs will most likely be:
Select one:
A.
performing a job evaluation.
B.
conducting a needs assessment.
C.
identifying training objectives.
D.
performing a personnel audit.
This question is pretty straightforward. It simply requires you to be familiar with the terms used in organizational psychology to describe the procedures involved in developing training programs.
a. Incorrect Job evaluations are used to set wages and salaries.
b. CORRECT Needs analysis (assessment) is done to determine training needs. It encompasses several other analyses such as task (job) analysis and person analysis.
c. Incorrect This is an outcome of a needs analysis.
d. Incorrect A personnel audit is part of an organizational assessment which, in turn, is part of a needs assessment.
The correct answer is: conducting a needs assessment.
Of the cases processed by the APA’s Ethics Committee as the result of revocation of a psychologist’s license by a state licensing board, the most common complaint processed by the committee is which of the following?
Select one:
A.
loss of licensure in another jurisdiction
B.
sexual misconduct
C.
breach of confidentiality
D.
issues related to competence
The correct answer is: B. A review of the reports of the APA’s Ethics Committee published in the American Psychologist from 2000 through 2008 reveals that sexual misconduct with an adult is the most frequent reason for the complaints processed by the Ethics Committee; followed by, in order, inappropriate practice involving child custody, nonsexual dual relationship, and inappropriate practice involving insurance or fees.
The correct answer is: sexual misconduct
A friend asks you how you liked the concert you went to last Saturday night. As you try to recall the concert, you realize that your memory is being affected by other concerts you have attended in the past. In other words, your memory of last Saturday’s concert is being affected by:
Select one:
A.
your implicit memory of concerts.
B.
a lack of encoding specificity.
C.
positive memory transfer.
D.
your schema for concerts.
In this situation, your memory of a particular concert is affected by your previous experiences with concerts.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT A schema is a group or cluster of knowledge about an object or event. Your recollection of last Saturday’s concert is being affected by your “cluster of knowledge” regarding concerts.
The correct answer is: your schema for concerts.
Sexual activity among older adults is most related to:
Select one:
A.
sexual activity earlier in life.
B.
attitudes toward sex and sexuality.
C.
interest in sex.
D.
overall life satisfaction.
The research has found that several factors are determinants of sexual activity in old age. These factors include physical health, the availability of a partner, and past sexual activity.
a. CORRECT Once again, past behavior is a good predictor of future behavior: The research indicates that sexual activity in mid-life and earlier is a good predictor of activity in old age, especially for males.
b. Incorrect This is not as good a predictor as past activity, especially for males.
c. Incorrect Interest often exceeds activity.
d. Incorrect This is not as good a predictor as past activity.
The correct answer is: sexual activity earlier in life.
To hire only the most qualified job applicants, a personnel director raises the cutoff score on the selection test. Which of the following accurately describes a consequence of changing the cutoff score in this way?
Select one:
A.
The number of true positives is reduced.
B.
The number of false negatives is reduced.
C.
The number of true negatives is reduced.
D.
The number of false positives is increased.
Drawing a scatterplot like the one in the Test Construction chapter of the written study materials would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
a. CORRECT Moving the predictor cutoff score to the right in the scatterplot (i.e., raising the predictor cutoff) will decrease the number of true and false positives and increase the number of true and false negatives.
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: The number of true positives is reduced.
Which of the following is LEAST characteristic of infants who were exposed to cocaine in utero?
Select one:
A.
They are abnormally insensitive to tactile, visual, and auditory stimulation.
B.
They are excessively irritable and unresponsive to attempts to comfort.
C.
They often have increased motor tone.
D.
They often have a low birthweight and small head circumference.
Prenatal cocaine exposure is associated with both physical and behavioral problems in childhood.
a. CORRECT This is the opposite of what is true. Early exposure to cocaine is associated with oversensitivity to environmental stimuli, even stimuli of low intensity.
b. Incorrect This is one of the reasons why these children often exhibit disturbances in attachment.
c. Incorrect Cocaine-exposed children often have an unusual pattern of motor development as the result of excessive muscle tone.
d. Incorrect This is true about these children.
The correct answer is: They are abnormally insensitive to tactile, visual, and auditory stimulation.
A client says, “I don’t know where they come from, but these thoughts about swearing and cursing just keep coming back. I just can’t seem to get them out of my mind. All I can think about is cursing and swearing.” Which of the following techniques would be most useful for alleviating this client’s problem?
Select one:
A.
thought stopping
B.
biofeedback
C.
behavioral rehearsal
D.
overcorrection
This client is exhibiting obsessions.
a. CORRECT Although thought stopping is often used to treat obsessions and compulsions, there is some evidence that it is most effective for obsessions, while flooding and other exposure techniques are better for eliminating compulsions. However, of the responses given, this is the best answer.
b. Incorrect Biofeedback is ordinarily used to control involuntary bodily functions and activities such as blood pressure, muscle tension, and body temperature.
c. Incorrect The technique of behavioral rehearsal is not associated with Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder.
d. Incorrect Overcorrection is used to reduce undesirable overt behaviors.
The correct answer is: thought stopping
Which of the following is most true about Conduct Disorder?
Select one:
A.
Individuals with childhood-onset type are more likely than those with adolescent-onset type to develop adult Antisocial Personality Disorder.
B.
Individuals with adolescent-onset type are more likely than those with childhood-onset type to develop adult Antisocial Personality Disorder.
C.
The majority of individuals with Conduct Disorder receive a diagnosis of Antisocial Personality Disorder in adulthood, regardless of age of onset.
D.
Conduct Disorder is normally associated with Antisocial Personality Disorder only when there is a family history of antisocial behavior.
According to the DSM, the long-term outcomes for Conduct Disorder vary but, for the majority of individuals, it remits by adulthood.
a. CORRECT This is the best answer since there is evidence that an early onset of symptoms places the child at greatest risk for Antisocial Personality Disorder in adulthood.
b. Incorrect Adolescent onset is less associated with antisocial behavior in adulthood.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: Individuals with childhood-onset type are more likely than those with adolescent-onset type to develop adult Antisocial Personality Disorder.
Elaine considers her friend, Tom, to be quiet and reserved. She says that when she is alone with Tom or when they are in a small group, Tom listens more than he talks and is never one to “make a scene.” One day, however, Elaine observes Tom in a large crowd that is waiting for the arrival of a “special celebrity guest” at the opening of a new shopping mall. The guest is nearly 30 minutes late, and the crowd is beginning to show signs of impatience. Elaine is surprised when she sees Tom initiate loud “booing” and other derogatory comments while waving his clenched fist in the air in anger. Which of the following best explains Tom’s unusual behavior?
Select one:
A.
deindividuation
B.
social facilitation
C.
catharsis
D.
paradoxical intention
A number of studies have shown that anonymity increases the likelihood that an individual will engage in antisocial or other uncharacteristic behaviors.
a. CORRECT The increased tendency to act in uncharacteristic ways when anonymity is likely is referred to as “deindividuation” (Zimbardo, 1970). Deindividuation is believed to be the result of a decreased sense of responsibility, reduced self-consciousness, a lowered fear of evaluation, and/or a loss of other inhibitory mechanisms.
b. Incorrect Social facilitation refers to the tendency toward improved task performance in the presence of others.
c. Incorrect Catharsis is the therapeutic release of tension, anxiety, etc.
d. Incorrect Paradoxical intention is a behavioral technique and is not related to this situation.
The correct answer is: deindividuation
As a result of brain injury, Thom Tenacity often has difficulty stopping a behavior once he starts it. For example, when Thom goes to the drawer to get a fork before dinner, he often ends up taking out all of the silverware; and when he intends to take only one jacket out of his closet, he ends up removing all of his jackets. Most likely, Thom’s problem is due to damage to which of the following areas of the brain?
Select one:
A.
frontal lobe
B.
parietal lobe
C.
temporal lobe
D.
occipital lobe
Thom’s behavior is referred to as perseveration.
a. CORRECT Perseveration (the inability to stop a behavior once it begins) has been linked to lesions in the dorsolateral area of the frontal lobes.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: frontal lobe
A client with Borderline Personality Disorder is most likely to respond to her therapist in which of the following ways?
Select one:
A.
with hostility and suspiciousness about the therapist’s intentions
B.
in an inappropriately sexually provocative manner
C.
in a manner that fluctuates between argumentativeness/hostility and excessive admiration
D.
in a consistently demanding manner and with hypersensitivity to criticism
A key distinguishing characteristic of the various Personality Disorders is the nature of the individual’s interpersonal relationships.
a. Incorrect This sounds more like Paranoid Personality Disorder.
b. Incorrect This is characteristic of Histrionic Personality Disorder.
c. CORRECT Instability in relationships is a primary feature of Borderline Personality Disorder. People with this disorder may be overly complimentary and flattering toward a person one day and extremely hostile and critical the next.
d. Incorrect This sounds more likely Narcissistic Personality Disorder.
The correct answer is: in a manner that fluctuates between argumentativeness/hostility and excessive admiration
Fluoxetine and other SSRIs act by:
Select one:
A.
increasing the release of serotonin at synapses.
B.
increasing the manufacture of serotonin by nerve cells.
C.
increasing the sensitivity of nerve cells to serotonin.
D.
increasing the availability of serotonin at synapses.
As long as you know what “SSRI” stands for, you should have been able to identify the right answer to this question.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT SSRI stands for selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitor, which means that the SSRIs exert their effects by reducing the uptake of serotonin at nerve synapses, thereby increasing their availability.
The correct answer is: increasing the availability of serotonin at synapses.
A physician is most likely to prescribe which of the following for a 36-year old man who has just received a diagnosis of Premature Ejaculation?
Select one:
A.
a drug that stimulates dopamine receptors
B.
a drug that inhibits GABA receptors
C.
a drug that inhibits the reuptake of serotonin
D.
a drug that stimulates the reuptake of endorphins
Premature ejaculation has been linked to low serotonin levels.
a. Incorrect Increased dopamine activity can cause or exacerbate premature ejaculation.
b. Incorrect GABA helps reduce anxiety. Therefore, it would likely be more effective to stimulate (rather than inhibit) GABA receptors.
c. CORRECT SSRIs (e.g., dapoxetine) are currently used to treat premature ejaculation.
d. Incorrect Endorphins have not been linked to premature ejaculation.
The correct answer is: a drug that inhibits the reuptake of serotonin
An assumption underlying the notion of “groupthink” is that:
Select one:
A.
pressures toward uniformity limit task effectiveness.
B.
increasing cohesiveness results in more extreme decisions.
C.
excessive pressures toward conformity produce reactance.
D.
lack of familiarity with task demands leads to maintenance of the status quo.
Groupthink is characterized by a decrease in willingness to consider divergent points of view, resulting in inappropriate decisions and actions (although not necessarily more extreme ones).
The correct answer is A.
According to Janis (1972, 1982), groupthink results when groups become excessively cohesive. For information on other conditions that contribute to groupthink, see the Industrial-Organizational chapter of the written study materials.
The correct answer is: pressures toward uniformity limit task effectiveness.
The most important contributor to a predictor’s incremental validity is its criterion-related validity coefficient: The higher the coefficient, the greater the validity. However, incremental validity is also affected by other factors. Specifically, a predictor will have the greatest incremental validity when:
Select one:
A.
the selection ratio is moderate and the base rate is high.
B.
the selection ratio is low and the base rate is moderate.
C.
the selection ratio is high and the base rate is moderate.
D.
the selection ratio is moderate and the base rate is low.
The incremental validity of a predictor is determined by several factors including the validity coefficient, the selection ratio, and the base rate.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT A predictor will have the greatest incremental validity when the selection ratio is low (there are lots of applicants for the job) and when the base rate is moderate (the current selection technique is moderately accurate).
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: the selection ratio is low and the base rate is moderate.
Because research has found low to moderate inter-rater reliability for the diagnosis of __________, there is some controversy among experts regarding its validity.
Select one:
A.
Specific Phobia
B.
Generalized Anxiety Disorder
C.
Panic Disorder
D.
Obsessive Compulsive Disorder
Inter-rater reliability has been found to be a problem for a number of diagnoses, including some of the Anxiety Disorders.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Reported inter-rater reliability coefficients for Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) vary, but tend to be lower than those reported for other Anxiety Disorders. The primary reasons for the low inter-rater reliability for GAD are disagreements regarding the severity of symptoms (i.e., what constitutes “excessive anxiety and worry”) and whether it should be the primary or secondary diagnosis. See, e.g., L. A. Papp and M. S. Kleber, Phenomenology of Generalized Anxiety Disorder, in D. J. Stein and E. Hollander (Eds.), Textbook of anxiety disorders (pp. 109-118), Washington, D.C., American Psychiatric Press, 2002. Note that low inter-rater reliability has also been reported for PTSD.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: Generalized Anxiety Disorder
The effectiveness of clomipramine in alleviating symptoms of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder and trichotillomania suggests that these disorders are due to:
Select one:
A.
oversensitivity to GABA.
B.
an imbalance between acetylcholine and dopamine.
C.
oversensitivity to serotonin or dopamine.
D.
a lower-than-normal level of serotonin.
Clomipramine is a tricyclic antidepressant that has been found to be an effective treatment for OCD.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Clomipramine is believed to exert its effects by blocking the reuptake of serotonin from synaptic clefts.
The correct answer is: a lower-than-normal level of serotonin.
From the Freudian perspective, interpretation:
Select one:
A.
is appropriate only during the final “working through” phase of therapy.
B.
is most useful when it evokes material at the deepest level of the unconscious.
C.
helps the client uncover and gain insight into unconscious material.
D.
involves restating and clarifying the client’s statements in clearer terms.
Interpretation is a key process in Freudian psychoanalysis and is applied to free associations, dreams, resistances, etc.
a. Incorrect Interpretations are made throughout therapy.
b. Incorrect The opposite is true. Interpretation is most successful when it addresses unconscious material that is just below the surface.
c. CORRECT This is the most accurate description of interpretation.
d. Incorrect This is a better description of clarification than intepretation.
The correct answer is: helps the client uncover and gain insight into unconscious material.
During an initial session with a client, the client tells Dr. Paphian that he and his wife have not been getting along well lately, and he thinks they may need couples counseling. As the client describes his wife, Dr. Paphian realizes that he had a brief affair with her ten years ago (prior to her marriage). Dr. Paphian should:
Select one:
A.
make an appointment with the wife and discuss the matter with her before agreeing to see the couple together in therapy.
B.
see the husband in individual therapy only and refer them to another therapist for couples therapy.
C.
see the couple in therapy but not bring up the issue of his previous relationship unless the wife does.
D.
not see the husband or the couple in therapy but, instead, make a referral to another therapist.
This situation is covered by the Ethic Code Standard 10.07, which prohibits psychologists from providing therapy to former sexual partners.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Seeing the couple in therapy would clearly violate the requirements of Ethical 10.07. Seeing the husband only is not as directly addressed by the Code, but certainly would represent a situation that might impair your objectivity or otherwise interfere with effectively performing your functions as a psychologist (Ethical Standard 3.05). It would also not be consistent with the requirement that psychologists avoid and minimize harm to clients (Ethical Standard 3.04).
The correct answer is: not see the husband or the couple in therapy but, instead, make a referral to another therapist.
The National Institute of Mental Health Multimodal Treatment Study of ADHD (MTA) compared the effectiveness of four treatments - medication management alone, behavioral treatment alone, combined medication and behavioral treatment, and routine community care. The results of the initial study indicated that:
Select one:
A.
behavioral treatment alone is as effective as medication alone.
B.
medication alone or behavioral treatment alone is as effective as the combined treatment.
C.
medication alone or the combined treatment is more effective than behavioral treatment alone or routine community care.
D.
behavioral treatment alone or the combined treatment is more effective than medication alone or routine community care.
Overall, the initial MTA results indicated that the combination treatment or medication management alone were significantly more effective than intensive behavioral treatment alone or routine community care.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Of the answers given, this is the best one. The initial results (which is what this question is asking about) found that medication management alone and the combined treatment had similar effects (and better effects than behavioral treatment alone or routine community care) for alleviating the core symptoms of ADHD. However, follow-up studies found that the superiority of medication alone and the combined treatment was true for short-term effects but not long-term effects. See, e.g., P. S. Jensen et al., Findings from the NIMH Multimodal Treatment Study of ADHD (MTA): Implications and applications for primary care providers, Journal of Developmental & Behavioral Pediatrics, 2001, 22(1), 60-73.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: medication alone or the combined treatment is more effective than behavioral treatment alone or routine community care.
The extrapyramidal motor symptoms associated with Parkinson’s disease are caused primarily by an imbalance between which of the following neurotransmitters?
Select one:
A.
dopamine and acetylcholine
B.
epinephrine and norepinephrine
C.
dopamine and serotonin
D.
norepinephrine and acetylcholine
Knowing that Parkinson’s disease has been linked to a deficiency of dopamine and that acetylcholine is involved in the control of voluntary movements would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
a. CORRECT Dopamine is an inhibitory neurotransmitter in the extrapyramidal motor system, while acetylcholine is an excitatory neurotransmitter. Parkinson’s disease is caused by degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra (which is part of the extrapyramidal motor system) which disrupts the balance between dopamine and acetylcholine and produces the tremors, rigidity, bradykinesia, and postural changes associated with this disorder.
b. Incorrect See explanation for answer a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for answer a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for answer a.
The correct answer is: dopamine and acetylcholine
Dr. Dilemma is contacted by an insurance company, which wants information about a previous client of hers. The client’s fee was paid by the insurance company when he was seeing her, and the insurance company now wants information for part of its regular peer review process. Dr. Dilemma’s best course of action would be to:
Select one:
A.
provide the insurance company with the information it requests.
B.
provide the insurance company with the information it requests only after ensuring that the company will take steps to protect the client’s confidentiality.
C.
provide the insurance company with the information it requests in a way that allows the client’s identity to be concealed.
D.
refuse to release any information to the company unless she feels it is in the client’s best interests.
Problems related to confidentiality constituted one of the original objections to the peer review process. Insurance companies and other third-party payers have, however, been fairly responsible in finding ways to maintain the confidentiality of clients.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Normal confidentiality requirements are relaxed in cases of peer review because of the necessity to provide review committees with information about clients. However, confidentiality is always an issue when releasing information about a client and, consequently, this would be the best course of action.
c. Incorrect Given the nature of the situation, this would not be possible. Even if it were, it would probably not be acceptable to the insurance company. In cases of peer review, the practice is for the insurance company to safeguard the client’s confidentiality (e.g., by removing the client’s name from the clinical information before passing it on to the committee).
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. (In this situation, as in others involving the release of information, you would want to release only information you deem to be relevant.)
The correct answer is: provide the insurance company with the information it requests only after ensuring that the company will take steps to protect the client’s confidentiality.
When working in military settings, a clinical psychologist should keep in mind that:
Select one:
A.
clients should be informed of potential limits to confidentiality prior to the delivery of services.
B.
confidential client information should not be revealed to military personnel without a client’s consent except when the client is a danger to self or others.
C.
client confidentiality is treated in the same way that it is treated in other settings only when the client is self-referred.
D.
legal and ethical requirements related to confidentiality are suspended as required by military rules and policies.
Department of Defense rules and policies may require breaches of confidentiality that would, in other situations, be unethical and illegal.
a. CORRECT Normally, client confidentiality should not be breached even in military settings. However, under certain circumstances (defined by the Department of Defense), military personnel may have access to confidential client information. APA has determined that breaches of confidentiality are acceptable in this situation when two conditions have been met: (1) a previous process has already addressed any options that would uphold the psychologist’s ethical responsibilities (i.e., whenever the ethical issue in question has been addressed previously), and (2) the conditions of the Department of Defense’s regulations have clearly been met (in most circumstances, a breach is required only when there is a demonstrable “need to know”). For a brief discussion of this issue, see the American Psychologist, 49(7), p. 665, 1994.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: clients should be informed of potential limits to confidentiality prior to the delivery of services.
You receive a subpoena duces tecum requiring you to testify about a current client at a trial and to bring specific documents from the client’s file. You contact the client who states that he does not want you to testify or release his records. You should:
Select one:
A.
notify the court that you will not be appearing at the trial because the client has not given you permission to do so.
B.
contact the attorney who issued the subpoena to request that you be released from it.
C.
advise the attorney who issued the subpoena that you will not be appearing at the trial because the client has not given permission for you to release confidential information.
D.
do nothing further until you receive an order from the court.
A subpoena legally requires a psychologist to appear at a designated time at a deposition or trial. When the client invokes the privilege, the subpoena is still valid and the psychologist must appear unless he/she has been released from it.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT This issue is addressed by S. H. Behnke and J. T. Hilliard (The essentials of Massachusetts mental health law, W. W. Norton, New York, 1998). They note that, when the client invokes the privilege, the psychologist should contact the client’s attorney or his/her own attorney to discuss the matter. In addition, the psychologist can contact the attorney who issued the subpoena to request to be released from it. Unless the psychologist receives a written release, he/she must appear as requested (but, of course, will not reveal confidential information without the client’s consent). Additional information about responding to a subpoena is provided in the Ethics and Professional Issues chapter of the written study materials.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: contact the attorney who issued the subpoena to request that you be released from it.
Several subcortical structures are involved in the mediation of emotion. Studies of decorticate animals, for instance, suggest that the __________ is responsible for a violent rage response to even trivial stimuli.
Select one:
A.
hypothalamus
B.
medulla
C.
hippocampus
D.
RAS
The limbic system (especially the amygdala) is most associated with emotion, but other structures of the brain also play a role.
a. CORRECT The hypothalamus is always a good guess since it’s involved in so many different functions. The studies have shown that decorticate animals tend to respond to even minor stimuli with extreme rage as long as the hypothalamus is left intact.
b. Incorrect The medulla is involved in many of the body’s vital functions including breathing and heart rate.
c. Incorrect The hippocampus is part of the limbic system, but it’s involved more with memory than emotion.
d. Incorrect The reticular activating system mediates attention, arousal, and the sleep-wake cycle.
The correct answer is: hypothalamus
According to ______________, a person’s career concept can be described as linear, expert, spiral, or transitory.
Select one:
A.
Super
B.
Holland
C.
Brousseau and Driver
D.
Tiedeman and O’Hara
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the theories of all of the individuals listed in the answers to this question. These are described in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Brousseau and Driver distinguish between the four career concepts listed in the question and describes them in terms of three dimensions: frequency of job change, direction of change, and type of change in job content.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: Brousseau and Driver
Stead et al.’s (2012) review of the literature found that ________ is the most effective form of nicotine replacement therapy for treating cigarette smoking.
Select one:
A.
nicotine gum
B.
nicotine nasal spray
C.
nicotine tablet/lozenge
D.
nicotine patch
L. F. Stead et al. evaluated the effectiveness nicotine gum, the nicotine patch, nicotine tablets/lozenges, nicotine inhaler, and nicotine nasal spray and found that all forms of nicotine replacement therapy were more effective than a placebo for reducing cigarette smoking
a. Incorrect See explanation for answer b.
b. CORRECT These investigators found that, of the nicotine replacement therapies, nicotine nasal spray was most effective and nicotine gum was least effective (Nicotine replacement therapy for smoking cessation, Cochrane Database Systematic Reviews, CD000146, 2012).
c. Incorrect See explanation for answer b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for answer b.
The correct answer is: nicotine nasal spray
Research on the “synchrony effect” has established a relationship between circadian arousal, cognitive functioning, and age. These studies have found, for example, that the performance of older adults on cognitive tasks that require the ability to focus on goal-relevant information only and to inhibit prepotent responses is best in the:
Select one:
A.
morning.
B.
early afternoon.
C.
early evening.
D.
late evening.
Studies have found that the optimal time for the successful completion of certain types of cognitive tasks is related to circadian arousal, which varies with age: Older adults show peak arousal and task performance levels in the morning, while young adults show higher levels of both in the evening.
a. CORRECT Older adults do better on certain cognitive tasks (especially those that depend on inhibitory attentional processes) in the morning than during any other time of the day.
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: morning.
Offspring of parents who are both heterozygous for the phenylketonuria (PKU) gene have a ___% of having this disorder.
Select one:
A.
10
B.
25
C.
50
D.
75
PKU is an autosomal recessive disorder, which means that a person with the disorder has inherited one recessive allele (p) from each parent. A person is homozygous with regard to a PKU when he/she has two recessive alleles for that condition (pp), while a person is heterozygous with regard to PKU when he/she has two different alleles (Pp). (“P” refers to a normal allele and “p” refers to the recessive allele for PKU.)
a. Incorrect See explanation for answer b.
b. CORRECT When both parents are heterozygous for PKU (Pp), 25% of their offspring will not have the disorder and will not be carriers of the disorder (PP); 50% will be carriers of the disorder (Pp); and 25% will have the disorder (pp).
c. Incorrect When one parent is heterozygous for PKU (Pp) and the other is homozygous (pp), 50% of their offspring will be carriers of the disorder (Pp) and 50% will have the disorder (pp).
d. Incorrect See explanation for answer b.
The correct answer is: 25
A task-oriented leader is most effective when the work situation is characterized either by good leader-member relations, a structured task, and strong leader power or by moderately poor leader-member relations, an unstructured task, and weak leader power. This is predicted by which of the following?
Select one:
A.
Fiedler’s contingency theory
B.
Hersey and Blanchard’s situational leadership model
C.
House’s path-goal theory
D.
Vroom, Yetton, and Jago’s normative model
Of the theories listed, only one predicts that a task-oriented leader is most effective in extreme (highly favorable and highly unfavorable) conditions.
a. CORRECT Fielder proposed that low-LPC (task-oriented) leaders are most effective when the situation is either very favorable or very unfavorable in terms of the leader’s ability to lead.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: Fiedler’s contingency theory
Which of the following questions best addresses the issue of interactional justice in an organization?
Select one:
A.
Did the employees consider the outcomes of an organizational decision reasonable and just?
B.
Was the organizational procedure used to make the decision fair?
C.
Did the employees feel they were treated fairly when informed about the decision?
D.
Were the employer’s reasons for making the decision reasonable and valid?
Researchers interested in the impact of employee perceptions related to justice in the workplace distinguish between three types of justice - procedural, interactional, and distributive.
a. Incorrect The reasonableness or fairness of the outcomes of a decision contribute to perceptions of distributive justice.
b. Incorrect The process used to make a decision contributes to perceptions of procedural justice.
c. CORRECT The ways in which an employee is treated (e.g., how a supervisor treats a supervisee) contribute to his/her perceptions of interactional justice.
d. Incorrect The reasons that contributed to decision-making are not directly related to perceptions of distributive, procedural, or interactional justice.
The correct answer is: Did the employees feel they were treated fairly when informed about the decision?
Following a review of the case, an HMO decides to deny further payment for sessions for a current client of yours. You believe that the client would benefit from additional therapy. You should:
Select one:
A.
comply with the HMO’s request as long as the limits of treatment were discussed with the client at the onset of therapy.
B.
continue to provide therapy to the client without compensation if necessary until other arrangements can be made.
C.
consult with the client about her options in this situation.
D.
file a complaint against the HMO.
An issue frequently addressed in the literature on managed care is the problem created when the managed care entity decides to discontinue coverage.
a. Incorrect It would be inappropriate both legally and ethically for a psychologist to cooperate immediately with an HMO’s decision if he/she believes that additional care is needed.
b. Incorrect This may not be necessary in this situation and may not even be required in other situations, especially when there are other options.
c. CORRECT Of the responses given, this is the best one. The psychologist should discuss the client’s options with him/her (one of which might be to file an appeal).
d. Incorrect If the psychologist believed that termination of services is contraindicated, he/she could file an appeal with the HMO (not a complaint).
The correct answer is: consult with the client about her options in this situation.
Which of the following measures of “effect size” (the magnitude of a treatment effect) indicates the amount of variability in an outcome measure accounted for by the effects of the treatment?
Select one:
A.
eta squared
B.
Cohen’s d
C.
alpha
D.
F-ratio
Even if you are unfamiliar with the various methods used to measure effect size, you may have been able to identify the correct answer to this question as long as you know that “amount of variability accounted for” is assessed by a squared correlation coefficient. a. CORRECT Eta squared is the square of the correlation coefficient (i.e., the correlation between the treatment and the outcome) and is used as an index of effect size. b. Incorrect Cohen’s d is also used as an index of effect size, but it is a measure of the mean difference between two groups; not a measure of “amount of variability accounted for.” Additional information about eta squared and Cohen’s d is provided in the Statistics and Research Design chapter of the written study materials. c. Incorrect Alpha is the level of significance set by a researcher prior to analyzing his/her data. d. Incorrect The F-ratio is the statistic calculated when using the analysis of variance.
The correct answer is: eta squared
The ability to carry on a conversation with a friend at a party where there is loud music and a great deal of background noise is attributable to:
Select one:
A.
sustained attention.
B.
divided attention.
C.
sequential attention.
D.
selective attention.
You could probably figure this one out even if you’re not familiar with the research since the terms given in the answers “sound like” what they are.
a. Incorrect Sustained attention refers to the ability to maintain attention to a particular stimulus over an extended period.
b. Incorrect Divided attention refers to the ability to focus attention on more than one event simultaneously.
c. Incorrect Sequential attention is a “made up” term.
d. CORRECT Selective (focused) attention enables a person to focus on one event while filtering out or ignoring irrelevant events.
The correct answer is: selective attention.
A dance teacher notices that one of her students performs better when his classmates are present than when he practices alone. This is an example of:
Select one:
A.
participant modeling.
B.
social facilitation.
C.
deindividuation.
D.
social comparison.
This question suggests that the student does better in the presence of other students.
a. Incorrect The question does not say that the student is actually learning by observing the behavior of other students.
b. CORRECT Social facilitation occurs when the presence of others enhances performance.
c. Incorrect Deindividuation refers to increased willingness to engage in antisocial behaviors when one’s anonymity is maintained.
d. Incorrect Social comparison theory predicts that we judge our behavior by comparing it to that of comparable others.
The correct answer is: social facilitation.
Carl Jung identified which of the following as the source of psychic energy?
Select one:
A.
libido
B.
archetypes
C.
persona
D.
personal unconscious
Jung believed that all psychic phenomena are manifestations of energy.
a. CORRECT In contrast to Freud, Jung described libido as the source of all psychic energy (rather than as the source of sexual energy only).
b. Incorrect Archetypes are inherited images, ideas, and emotions that reside in the collective unconscious and predispose us to view the world in certain ways.
c. Incorrect As defined by Jung, the persona refers to the aspects of oneself (usually the ideal aspects of oneself) that are presented to others.
d. Incorrect Jung distinguished between the collective and the personal unconscious and defined the latter as the aspect of the unconscious that contains lost or repressed perceptions of personally experienced events.
The correct answer is: libido
For a person with Social Anxiety Disorder, panic attacks are:
Select one:
A.
the result of interoceptive conditioning.
B.
cued by specific social situations.
C.
infrequent and nearly always unexpected.
D.
indicative of a co-diagnosis of Panic Disorder.
Social Anxiety Disorder is also known as Social Phobia and is characterized by anxiety associated with one or more specific social situations.
a. Incorrect Interoceptive conditioning refers to classical conditioning that involves internal cues and is not a distinguishing characteristic of the panic attacks associated with Social Anxiety Disorder.
b. CORRECT A person with Social Anxiety Disorder may experience panic attacks but these attacks are related to known feared situations and are expected rather than unexpected. When the individual experiences recurrent unexpected panic attacks, the appropriate diagnosis is likely to be Panic Disorder or co-morbid Panic Disorder and Social Anxiety Disorder.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: cued by specific social situations.
Children with Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder would be expected to obtain the lowest score on which of the following WISC-V indexes?
Select one:
A.
Verbal Comprehension
B.
Processing Speed
C.
Working Memory
D.
Visual Spatial
This is a difficult question, but knowing that individuals with ADHD tend to obtain low scores on tests involving processing speed would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Children with ADHD in the standardization sample for the WISC-V obtained the highest mean score on the Verbal Comprehension Index followed by, in order, the Visual Spatial, Fluid Reasoning, Working Memory, and Processing Speed Indexes (D. Wechsler, WISC-V: Technical and interpretive manual supplement, Bloomington, MN, PsychCorp, 2014).
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: Processing Speed
A school psychologist is trying to determine why a fourth grade student with an above-average IQ is doing poorly in school. He talks to the student’s parents and teacher separately and then meets with them jointly to discuss similarities and differences in the boy’s behaviors at home and school. From the perspective of Bronfenbrenner’s bioecological model, the psychologist is investigating which of the following?
Select one:
A.
microsystem and mesosystem
B.
microsystem and exosystem
C.
macrosystem and mesosystem
D.
macrosystem and exosystem
Bronfenbrenner’s model distinguishes between five interlocking contextual systems that impact a child’s development.
a. CORRECT The microsystem includes aspects of the child’s environment that affect him/her directly (e.g., school and home). The mesosystem refers to the interactions between elements of the microsystem (e.g., the interaction between home and school).
b. Incorrect The exosystem includes factors that indirectly affect the child (e.g., the parents’ workplaces and social networks).
c. Incorrect The macrosystem includes cultural values and customs, the economic system, etc.
d. Incorrect See explanations above.
The correct answer is: microsystem and mesosystem
The onset of stranger anxiety varies somewhat from child to child but, for most children, begins when the child is between ___________ months of age.
Select one:
A.
2 to 4
B.
5 to 7
C.
8 to 10
D.
11 to 13
Stranger anxiety is a normal developmental phenomenon and refers to the anxiety reaction exhibited by young children in the presence of an unfamiliar person.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Although some children experience stranger anxiety when they are as young as six or seven months of age, most children do not do so until eight to ten months of age. Therefore, of the age ranges listed, this is the best one.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: 8 to 10
In the context of incremental validity, the positive hit rate is calculated by:
Select one:
A.
dividing the true positives by the false positives.
B.
dividing the true positives by the total positives.
C.
dividing the total positives by the true positives.
D.
dividing the total positives by the false positives.
The positive hit rate is the proportion of people who would have been selected on the basis of their predictor scores and were also successful on the criterion.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT The positive hit rate is calculated by dividing the number of true positives by the total number of positives.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: dividing the true positives by the total positives.
“Criterion contamination” is most likely to be a problem when the measure of job performance:
Select one:
a.
is subjectively scored.
b.
is objectively scored.
c.
has limited “floor” or “ceiling.”
d.
is susceptible to “practice effects.”
Criterion contamination occurs when a rater’s knowledge of a ratee’s performance on the predictor biases how the rater scores the ratee on the criterion.
a. CORRECT - A subjectively scored measure of job performance (criterion measure) is susceptible to a variety of rater biases, including the bias that produces criterion contamination.
b. Incorrect - See explanation above.
c. Incorrect - See explanation above.
d. Incorrect - See explanation above.
The correct answer is: is subjectively scored.
From the perspective of structural family therapy, a therapist’s failure to __________ is likely to produce resistance among family members.
Select one:
A.
form a therapeutic triangle
B.
join the family
C.
act as a “blank screen”
D.
remain disengaged from the family’s emotional system
Familiarity with Minuchin’s terminology would have helped you choose the correct answer to this question.
a. Incorrect Bowen (not Minuchin) forms a therapeutic triangle with two family members in therapy.
b. CORRECT Minuchin considers joining to be a prerequisite for restructuring the family.
c. Incorrect Minuchin does not view the therapist’s role to be that of a “blank screen.”
d. Incorrect The “family emotional system” is a term most associated with Bowen.
The correct answer is: join the family
The DSM-5 requires that which of the following be ruled out as the cause of an individual’s symptoms before assigning a diagnosis of a sexual dysfunction?
Select one:
A.
other mental disorders, physiological/medical factors, and partner factors
B.
a nonsexual mental disorder, severe relationship distress, and the effects of a substance, medication, or other medical condition
C.
a nonsexual mental disorder, the effects of a substance/medication, and a lack of information about sexuality
D.
other mental disorder/condition, the effects of a substance/medication, and psychosocial factors
Answer B is correct: The following is included as a diagnostic criterion for a DSM-5 diagnosis of Erectile Disorder, Premature Ejaculation, and other sexual dysfunctions: “The sexual dysfunction is not better explained by a nonsexual mental disorder or as a consequence of severe relationship distress or other significant stressors and is not attributable to the effects of a substance/medication or another medical condition.”
Answers A, C, and D: See explanation above.
The correct answer is: a nonsexual mental disorder, severe relationship distress, and the effects of a substance, medication, or other medical condition
To establish a behavior that an individual does not naturally emit, you would use which of the following?
Select one:
A.
intermittent reinforcement
B.
shaping
C.
response generalization
D.
priming
One of the difficulties with operant conditioning is that it is necessary to wait until the organism emits a response so that the consequence of the response (reinforcement or punishment) can be manipulated. To overcome this problem, the desired behavior can be “shaped”.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Shaping involves reinforcing successive approximations to the desired behavior. When using shaping, it isn’t necessary to wait for the behavior to be emitted. Instead, the behavior is gradually developed or formed by reinforcing responses that come closer and closer to it.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: shaping
Which of the following theories would predict that job enrichment would have a detrimental effect on job performance?
Select one:
A.
two-factor
B.
activation
C.
equity
D.
scientific management
Job enrichment involves altering the nature of a job in order to improve worker motivation and satisfaction.
a. Incorrect Job enrichment was originally developed from two-factor theory, which proposes that job motivation and satisfaction are related to the availability of motivator factors (e.g., responsibility, recognition, independence).
b. Incorrect Activation theory proposes that energy expenditure and performance are positively related to stimulus variability. Enriched jobs provide stimulus variability and therefore should increase activation (motivation) level and performance.
c. Incorrect Equity theory would also view job enrichment as positive since it would increase the outcome portion of the input-outcome ratio and thereby make inequities less likely.
d. CORRECT According to scientific management theory, workers are motivated only by external rewards (especially pay), not the intrinsic factors that are provided by job enrichment.
The correct answer is: scientific management
In her discussion of African American middle-class families, Boyd-Franklin (1989) notes that, in terms of family roles, these families tend to be: Select one:
A.
patriarchal.
B.
matriarchal.
C.
egalitarian.
D.
linear.
Nancy Boyd-Franklin discusses this issue in her book Black Families in Therapy: A Multisystems Approach, New York, Guilford Press, 1989.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT The structure of the African American middle-class family often reflects equal sharing of power by the spouses as well as more permeable boundaries in general. For example, these families are open to influences from the extended family and the African American community.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: egalitarian.
When aversive counterconditioning is being used to eliminate a fetish, the fetish object is the:
Select one:
A.
unconditioned stimulus.
B.
unconditioned response.
C.
conditioned stimulus.
D.
conditioned response.
Aversive conditioning is a form of counterconditioning which involves pairing a stimulus associated with the target behavior with a stimulus that naturally evokes an unpleasant response in order to eliminate the target behavior. A fetish is a nonsexual object (e.g., a shoe or glove) that evokes a sexual response.
a. Incorrect In the terms of classical conditioning, the unconditioned stimulus is a stimulus that elicits the desired response before conditioning, or training, occurs. In aversive conditioning, the stimulus that naturally evokes the aversive response serves as the unconditioned stimulus. In the aversive conditioning of a fetish, the unconditioned stimulus is often electric shock.
b. Incorrect The unconditioned response is the response that is naturally elicited by the unconditioned stimulus.
c. CORRECT The conditioned stimulus is one which is paired with the unconditioned stimulus until the former elicits the same response as the latter. In the aversive conditioning of a fetish, the fetish is paired with an unconditioned stimulus until the fetish elicits the same response (e.g., aversion) as the unconditioned stimulus.
d. Incorrect The response that occurs as a result of conditioning is the conditioned response. The newly-acquired aversion to the fetish would represent the conditioned response.
The correct answer is: conditioned stimulus.
Which of the following provides reinforcement on a variable ratio schedule of reinforcement?
Select one:
A.
surprise quizzes
B.
piecework
C.
bi-weekly paychecks
D.
slot machines
When a variable ratio reinforcement schedule is being used, reinforcement is delivered after a variable number of responses.
a. Incorrect “Surprise” quizzes provide opportunities for reinforcement on a variable interval schedule.
b. Incorrect Piecework represents a fixed ratio schedule of reinforcement since workers are paid after completing a specified number of “pieces.”
c. Incorrect A bi-weekly pay schedule represents a fixed interval schedule of reinforcement.
d. CORRECT Slot machines reinforce players after a variable number of responses.
The correct answer is: slot machines
Which of the following lists the correct order of the stages of grief as described by Elizabeth Kubler-Ross (1969)?
Select one:
A.
anger, depression, denial, bargaining, acceptance
B.
denial, anger, depression, bargaining, acceptance
C.
bargaining, denial, depression, anger, acceptance
D.
denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance
Based on her research with terminally ill patients, Kubler-Ross (1969) identified five stages in coming to terms with one’s own death.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT This answer accurately lists the order of Kubler-Ross’s stages of grief. Note, however, that subsequent research has found that the stages do not necessarily occur in the order identified by Kubler-Ross and that stages may be repeated.
The correct answer is: denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance
Neurons in the ____________ respond to the taste, smell, and sight of food.
Select one:
A.
hippocampus
B.
reticular activating system
C.
suprachiasmatic nucleus
D.
orbitofrontal cortex
This is a difficult question, but knowing that the orbitofrontal cortex is involved in the conscious perception of odors (as noted in the Physiological Psychology chapter of the study materials) would have helped you identify the correct answer
a. Incorrect The hippocampus is involved in the consolidation of long-term declarative memories.
b. Incorrect The reticular activating system is a network of nerve fibers that runs from the brain stem to the thalamus and is involved in wakefulness, arousal, and consciousness.
c. Incorrect The suprachiasmatic nucleus controls the body’s circadian rhythms.
d. CORRECT The orbitofrontal cortex is involved in several functions including evaluating the pleasurableness (reward value) of food in terms of its sensory features - i.e., its taste, smell, and sight.
The correct answer is: orbitofrontal cortex
According to Piaget, which of the following is a necessary prerequisite for the development of reversibility?
Select one:
A.
self-awareness
B.
meta-cognition
C.
symbolism
D.
hypothetico-deductive reasoning
Piaget argued that symbolism - and in particular language - is critical for reversibility and conservation.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT In Logical Operations and Social Life, Piaget states “complete reversibility presupposes symbolism” [cited in L. Smith (ed.), Sociological studies, London, Routledge, 1995].
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: symbolism
Subjects in a research study are asked to read the following list of words: pin, sewing, thread, sharp, haystack, injection, point, pain. They are then asked to recall as many words from the list as possible, and many subjects recall the word “needle” even though it is not one of the words in the list. This illustrates which of the following?
Select one:
A.
false memory induction
B.
imagination inflation
C.
Deese-Roediger-McDermott paradigm
D.
Loftus misinformation effect
The four phenomena listed in the answers to this question have been used to study or explain false memories.
a. Incorrect The false memory induction procedure creates false memories by repeatedly asking subjects about events they never experienced.
b. Incorrect Imagination inflation involves creating false memories of an event by asking subjects to imagine the event before asking them to recall if it happened to them.
c. CORRECT The Deese-Roediger-McDermott (DRM) effect refers to the tendency to erroneously recall a word from a word list that contains semantically related words. It has been used to study false memory and identify people who are prone to creating false memories.
d. Incorrect The Loftus misinformation effect occurs when the original memory of an event is altered by subsequent exposure to misleading information about that event.
The correct answer is: Deese-Roediger-McDermott paradigm
Score transformations that alter the rank order and relative size of the distance between scores are referred to as _________ transformations.
Select one:
A.
linear
B.
nonlinear
C.
leptokurtic
D.
platykurtic
Raw scores are often transformed in order to simplify their interpretation, and these transformations can be either linear or nonlinear.
a. Incorrect Linear transformations preserve the rank order and relative size of the distance between scores.
b. CORRECT Nonlinear transformations alter the rank order and relative size of the distance between scores. Percentile ranks (which always have a flat distribution regardless of the distribution of the raw scores) are an example of a nonlinear transformation. Logarithms and square roots are other types of nonlinear transformations.
c. Incorrect A leptokurtic distribution is more “peaked” than a normal distribution.
d. Incorrect A platykurtic distribution is flatter than a normal distribution. While the distribution of some transformed scores (e.g., percentile ranks) are flatter than the distribution of raw scores, not all nonlinear transformations produce a platykurtic distribution.
The correct answer is: nonlinear
LISREL is used to analyze:
Select one:
A.
unidirectional and bidirectional causal relationships between measured and latent variables.
B.
unidirectional causal relationships between observed variables only.
C.
orthogonal and oblique relationships between two or more variables or sets of variables.
D.
orthogonal relationships between two or more variables or sets of variables only.
LISREL, or linear structural relations analysis, is a complex multivariate technique used to test the veracity of hypotheses about the causal relationships among a set of variables that are believed to measure or reflect latent traits.
a. CORRECT The LISREL model assumes (1) that there are both unidirectional and bidirectional relationships between latent traits and (2) that measured variables reflect both latent traits and the effects of measurement error.
b. Incorrect This better describes path analysis, which is another type of structural analysis that is used to test causal hypotheses. Additional information about LISREL and path analysis is provided in the Statistics and Research Design chapter of the written study materials.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: unidirectional and bidirectional causal relationships between measured and latent variables.
Savin-Williams and Diamond (2000) investigated the sexual identity trajectories among sexual-minority youth and found that:
Select one:
A.
adolescent females had an earlier onset of all milestones.
B.
adolescent males had an earlier onset of all milestones.
C.
adolescent females had an earlier onset of all milestones except first same-sex attraction.
D.
adolescent males had an earlier onset of all milestone except first disclosure of sexual orientation to another person.
R. C. Savin-Williams and L. M. Diamond compared the sexual identity trajectories of male and female sexual-minority youth in terms of four milestones - first same-sex attraction, self-labeling, first same-sex sexual contact, and first disclosure [Sexual identity trajectories among sexual-minority youths: Gender comparisons, Archives of Sexual Behavior, 29(6), 607-627, 2000].
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Males had an earlier onset than females for all milestones except first disclosure of sexual orientation to another person (age at first disclosure was not significantly different for males and females).
The correct answer is: adolescent males had an earlier onset of all milestone except first disclosure of sexual orientation to another person.
According to Sue and Zane (1987), in terms of ensuring good treatment outcomes, the most important factor in culturally sensitive therapy is:
Select one:
A.
demonstrating cultural knowledge.
B.
using culture-specific techniques.
C.
using techniques that establish credibility.
D.
being authentic and empathic.
Sue and Zane note that, when discussing cross-cultural counseling, most authors focus on cultural knowledge and the use of culture-specific techniques. These investigators argue, however, that these factors are only the means to an end, which is establishing credibility [S. Sue and N. Zane, The role of culture and cultural techniques in psychotherapy: A critique and reformulation, American Psychologist, 42(1), 37-45, 1987].
a. Incorrect Sue and Zane recognize the importance of cultural knowledge but argue that it is not sufficient to ensure positive outcomes in cross-cultural counseling.
b. Incorrect These authors also recognize the usefulness of culture-specific techniques but, again, view them as insufficient by themselves.
c. CORRECT According to Sue and Zane, the therapist’s credibility is a key determinant of therapy outcome. Cultural knowledge and the use of culture-specific techniques are beneficial only to the extent that they contribute to the therapist’s credibility.
d. Incorrect Sue and Zane don’t address the issues of authenticity and empathy.
The correct answer is: using techniques that establish credibility.
Tom J. was involved in a car accident in which he received extensive head trauma. Since the accident, Tom’s movements are jerky and uncoordinated, and he is unable to walk across the room unaided. Tom most likely suffered damage to the:
Select one:
A.
medulla.
B.
cerebellum.
C.
cingulate cortex.
D.
somatosensory cortex.
To answer this question, you need to know which of the brain areas listed is involved in the control of motor movement and balance. Information about these areas is provided in the Physiological Psychology and Psychopharmacology chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT The cerebellum is located at the rear of the brain stem and is involved in the coordination of voluntary movements of the skeletal muscles and the regulation of balance.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: cerebellum.
Antisocial behavior and later delinquency have been associated with:
Select one:
A.
an authoritarian parenting style and consistent physical discipline.
B.
an authoritarian parenting style and inconsistent, excessive discipline.
C.
a laissez-faire parenting style and inconsistent warmth and concern.
D.
a laissez-faire parenting style and harsh, inconsistent discipline.
A permissive, uninvolved parenting style has been associated with greater aggressiveness in children.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Harsh inconsistent discipline, lack of positive parenting, and poor supervision have been linked with aggression and other antisocial behaviors.
The correct answer is: a laissez-faire parenting style and harsh, inconsistent discipline.
A person with Dissociative Amnesia is unable to recall anything that happened to her during the first few hours after she was physically assaulted. As defined in the DSM, this is referred to as:
Select one:
A.
localized amnesia.
B.
selective amnesia.
C.
anterograde amnesia.
D.
retrograde amnesia.
Dissociative Amnesia can take one of several form - e.g., localized, selective, and generalized.
a. CORRECT The loss of memory for personal information limited to a circumscribed period of time is referred to as localized amnesia.
b. Incorrect Selective amnesia refers to a loss of memory for some, but not all, events during a circumscribed period.
c. Incorrect Anterograde amnesia is a general term that refers to the inability to form new memories and does describe the woman’s loss of memory. However, because it does not refer specifically to memory loss associated with Dissociative Amnesia, it is not the best answer to this question.
d. Incorrect Retrograde amnesia refers to a loss of memory for information already stored in long-term memory.
The correct answer is: localized amnesia.
The duty to warn/protect established by the Tarasoff decision applies to:
Select one:
A.
clients who are a danger to themselves.
B.
clients who have committed a past crime against a person or property.
C.
clients who are a danger to an identifiable person or, in some jurisdictions, an identifiable class (group) of persons.
D.
clients who may pose a danger to others because of past violent behavior or their current mental state.
The application of the Tarasoff decision remains controversial and continues to be modified by case law.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT This response best describes the current status of Tarasoff. Most jurisdictions that have adopted this ruling require psychologists to warn/protect an identifiable potential victim of a client; and, in some jurisdictions, this has been extended to an identifiable class of victims. Additional information about the Tarasoff decision is provided in the chapter on ethics and professional issues in the written study materials.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: clients who are a danger to an identifiable person or, in some jurisdictions, an identifiable class (group) of persons.
Piaget’s concrete operational stage of development is characteristic of children ages:
Select one:
A.
2 to 7 years.
B.
5 to 8 years.
C.
7 to 11 years.
D.
10 to 15 years.
Piaget distinguishes between four stages of cognitive development–sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, and formal operations.Additional information about these stages is provided in the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect Children ages 2 to 7 are in the preoperational stage.
b. Incorrect This is not the age range for the concrete operational stage.
c. CORRECT This is the age range for the concrete operational stage.
d. Incorrect The formal operational stage usually begins in adolescence.
The correct answer is: 7 to 11 years.
According to Carol Gilligan, adolescent girls need experiences that help them:
Select one:
A.
plan for their future in the adult world.
B.
separate successfully from their families.
C.
stay connected to themselves and others.
D.
explore alternative identities.
Gilligan considers adolescence to be a critical period for females.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT A number of experts have noted that girls are especially vulnerable during adolescence. Gilligan argues that this is because they are experiencing a “relational crisis” that involves psychological separation from themselves, others, and the world as a result of external pressures to fit cultural stereotypes. Consequently, during adolescence, girls need to be provided with experiences that help them “resist disconnection.” See C. Gilligan, Women’s psychological development: Implications for psychotherapy, in C. Gilligan et al. (Eds.), Women, Girls, and psychotherapy: Reframing resistance, New York, Haworth Press, 1991.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: stay connected to themselves and others.
In Alzheimer’s disease, neuron loss occurs throughout the brain. However, the greatest loss is in which of the following areas?
Select one:
A.
medial temporal lobe
B.
anterior parietal lobe
C.
medial occipital lobe
D.
posterior frontal lobe
The distinctive characteristics of Alzheimer’s disease are neuron loss, neurofibrillary tangles (tangles of protein), and amyloid plaques (clumps of scar tissue).
a. CORRECT The medial temporal lobe includes the entorhinal cortex, amygdala, and hippocampus, which are involved in memory and are most affected by Alzheimer’s disease.
b. Incorrect It is the posterior (not anterior) parietal lobe that is affected by Alzheimer’s.
c. Incorrect The occipital lobe is not one of the brain areas substantially affected by this disorder.
d. Incorrect The prefrontal area of the frontal cortex is affected more than the posterior area.
The correct answer is: medial temporal lobe
Dr. Baron’s husband owns an advertising agency that caters to small businesses. One of Dr. Baron’s clients has just started a new business and tells Dr. Baron that he’s in need of someone to handle his advertising. If Dr. Baron recommends her husband, this is:
Select one:
A.
acceptable since her husband’s business is unrelated to her work as a therapist.
B.
acceptable as long as Dr. Baron never discusses the client with her husband.
C.
acceptable as long as Dr. Baron discusses the possible consequences of the situation with the client.
D.
unacceptable because of Dr. Baron’s therapeutic relationship with the client.
This issue is not addressed directly by the Ethics Code. However, the general “spirit” of the Code is not to become involved with a therapy client in any way that is outside the scope of the therapeutic relationship.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT R. Woody addresses this issue in Legally safe mental health practice: Psycholegal questions and answers (Madison, CT, Psychosocial Press, 1997). He argues that any recommendations to a client should be limited to issues that are within the “perimeter of treatment” and that do not benefit the therapist beyond his/her customary fee.
The correct answer is: unacceptable because of Dr. Baron’s therapeutic relationship with the client.
Which of the following is a correct use of HIV- or AIDS-related language?
Select one:
A.
AIDS virus
B.
AIDS-infected person
C.
HIV virus
D.
person with HIV
Several organizations have published guidelines for referring to HIV and AIDS. The following information is from the Style Sheet for HIV published by the Joint United Nations Programme on HIV/AIDS.
a. Incorrect There is no “AIDS virus.” People with AIDS are infected with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).
b. Incorrect People are infected with HIV, not AIDS.
c. Incorrect HIV includes the word “virus,” so HIV virus is redundant.
d. CORRECT This phrase is consistent with the Joint United Nation’s Style Sheet as well as with the APA’s Publication Manual guidelines for the use of nonbiased language.
The correct answer is: person with HIV
During your first session with a client, she reveals that she’s been seeing another therapist for the past four months. The woman seems unsure about why she has come to see you. Your best course of action would be to:
Select one:
A.
continue seeing the client and help her clarify her motives and goals for coming to see you.
B.
explain to the client that it would be unethical to see her while she is receiving similar services from another therapist and discontinue seeing her.
C.
contact the other therapist to see if your services are redundant and, if they are, tell the client you cannot continue seeing her while she is seeing the other therapist.
D.
help the client clarify her reasons for seeing both you and the other therapist and then evaluate whether it is appropriate for her to continue seeing both of you.
This is a fairly easy question. You’d want to make sure that you’ve read all of the responses before answering, however, since response a is not entirely incorrect but response d is better.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Although psychologists are not prohibited from seeing clients who are receiving services from another mental health professional, a psychologist would not want to duplicate the services of another professional for an extended period of time. From both a clinical and ethical perspective, the best course of action would be to help the woman clarify her goals and needs with regard to the services provided by you and the other therapist and then determine the best course of action.
The correct answer is: help the client clarify her reasons for seeing both you and the other therapist and then evaluate whether it is appropriate for her to continue seeing both of you.
When shown the word “hot” a patient says “cold” and when shown the word “rock” the patient says “stone.” These errors are most suggestive of:
Select one:
A.
surface dyslexia.
B.
deep dyslexia.
C.
pure alexia.
D.
literal alexia.
Alexia and dyslexia are terms used to describe reading disorders.
a. Incorrect Surface dyslexia is characterized by reading without comprehension due to an inability to read words that are irregularly spelled (e.g., light, sword).
b. CORRECT Deep dyslexia involves several reading errors including semantic paralexia, which is characterized by the substitution of words with similar meanings (e.g., cold for hot).
c. Incorrect Pure alexia is also known as “word blindness” and refers to an inability to read words, even when they have been written by the person him/herself.
d. Incorrect People with literal alexia can read whole words but not individual letters.
The correct answer is: deep dyslexia.
An advantage of structural magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) over computed tomography (CT) is that the former:
Select one:
A.
provides clearer images.
B.
is less likely to require sedation of the patient.
C.
provides information on functional brain activity.
D.
can detect electrical abnormalities.
Neuroimaging techniques are divided into two types - structural and functional. CT and MRI are both structural techniques.
a. CORRECT MRI uses magnetic fields to produce detailed cross-sectional images of the brain. An important advantage of MRI over a CT scan is that MRI has better resolution.
b. Incorrect Because MRI requires the patient to be completely still for a prolonged period of time, the patient may need to be sedated. A CT scan requires less time and, therefore, is less likely to require sedation.
c. Incorrect Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) provides information on the functional activities of the brain, but MRI is a structural technique that provides information on the structure of the brain only.
d. Incorrect This is an advantage of EEG (electroencephalography), which is why it is used in the assessment of epilepsy.
The correct answer is: provides clearer images.
In a research study investigating the possible genetic transmission of ADHD, the “proband” is:
Select one:
A.
the individual who has received a diagnosis of ADHD.
B.
a biological parent of the individual who has received a diagnosis of ADHD.
C.
a non-affected biological sibling of the individual who has received a diagnosis of ADHD.
D.
a member of the control group who has been matched to the individual who has received a diagnosis of ADHD.
The proband in research study is also known as the index case.
a. CORRECT The affected individual who is of immediate concern or who was initially identified because of his/her disorder is referred to as the proband.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: the individual who has received a diagnosis of ADHD.
During the first therapy session with a new client, you realize that he is the father of a young woman you have been seeing in therapy for three months. The daughter is 22 years old and no longer lives with her parents. The most relevant ethical issue in this situation is:
Select one:
A.
confidentiality.
B.
multiple relationship.
C.
nonmaleficience.
D.
informed consent.
This is a straightforward question that may have seemed “too obvious.” When taking the exam, be sure not to sabotage your ability to choose the correct response to an easy item by assuming that it is a “trick question.”
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Multiple relationships occur when a psychologist is involved in more than one role with a person (and at least one role is a professional relationship) or has a professional relationship with one person and becomes involved in a relationship with another individual who is related to that person. In most situations, multiple relationships should be avoided.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: multiple relationship.
Research investigating the effectiveness of neurofeedback as a treatment for ADHD has generally found which of the following?
Select one:
A.
It is not an effective approach for most individuals with this disorder.
B.
It is an effective approach and exerts its strongest impact on symptoms of inattention and impulsivity.
C.
It is an effective approach and exerts its strongest impact on symptoms of hyperactivity.
D.
It is an effective approach only when used in conjunction with a central nervous system stimulant.
The results of recent research on the effects of neurofeedback (EEG biofeedback) as a nonpharmacological treatment for ADHD are summarized in a meta-analysis conducted by M. Arns, S. de Ridder, U. Strehl, M. Breteler, and A. Coenen [Efficacy of neurofeedback treatment in ADHD: The effects on inattention, impulsivity and hyperactivity: A meta-analysis, Clinical EEG and Neuroscience, 49(3), 180-189, 2009].
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Arns et al.’s meta-analysis produced a large effect size for inattention and impulsivity and a medium effect size for hyperactivity. Their results also indicated that the positive effects of neurofeedback remained stable or improved over a two-year period.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect The studies suggest that neurofeedback has benefits for about 70 to 80% of individuals with ADHD and that its effects are similar to those for stimulant medication. In other words, neurofeedback does not have to be combined with a stimulant drug but is effective when used alone.
The correct answer is: It is an effective approach and exerts its strongest impact on symptoms of inattention and impulsivity.
A psychologist is working in the employee assistance program (EAP) of a large corporation. She is approached by a supervisor who referred an employee to the EAP several weeks ago when the employee was having problems at home that began interfering with her job performance. The employer now wants to know if the employee has been receiving counseling from the psychologist and, if so, how the sessions are going. In fact, the employee has seen the psychologist four times and has another session scheduled for the next week. The psychologist should:
Select one:
A.
inform the supervisor that she has seen the employee but provide no information about the employee’s treatment.
B.
inform the supervisor that she has seen the employee and provide a summary of the employees progress with regard to the reason for the referral.
C.
remind the supervisor of the need to maintain confidentiality and provide him with no information about the employee.
D.
tell the supervisor that she will have to get permission from the employee before providing the supervisor with any information about the employees progress.
Overall, confidentiality in an EAP is dealt with in the same way it is handled elsewhere.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT The confidentiality of clients of EAPs may be breached only in legally defined situations - e.g., when the client signs a release or is believed to be a danger to him/herself or others. Therefore, the psychologist would not even want to say anything that indicates whether or not she is seeing the employee (answer d).
The literature has changed a bit regarding this issue. The Ethics and Professional Issues chapter provides this discussion about the issue:
Employee assistance programs (EAPs): Confidentiality may be breached in the context of an EAP in the same situations that it can be breached in other contexts - that is, when the client signs an authorization for release of confidential information and in situations when disclosing confidential information without an authorization is permitted or required by law (e.g., when the client is believed to be a danger to him/herself or others).
The correct answer to this question is most consistent with this excerpt.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: remind the supervisor of the need to maintain confidentiality and provide him with no information about the employee.
During a court-ordered evaluation of a defendant to determine his competence to stand trial, the defendant reveals information that confirms his guilt. The psychologist conducting the evaluation should:
Select one:
A.
include this information in his evaluation report since the evaluation was court-ordered.
B.
include the information in his evaluation report because privilege is waived whenever a defendant’s mental status is part of the defense.
C.
include only information relevant to the defendant’s competence in the evaluation report.
D.
not provide any information to the court without a waiver of confidentiality from the defendant or his attorney.
A competence to stand trial hearing is conducted to determine a defendant’s current mental status. Although defendants cannot ordinarily be forced to provide incriminating evidence against themselves (as provided by the Fifth Amendment), most jurisdictions do compel defendants to undergo a competence evaluation if the court determines it is appropriate.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT The defendant is protected in this situation by laws that prohibit the use of evaluation data to determine the defendant’s guilt without his/her consent. In discussing this issue, G. B. Melton et al. conclude that the therapist’s best course of action is not to include any possibly incriminating evidence in the competency report but, instead, to include only information relevant to determining the defendant’s competence to stand trial (Psychological evaluations for the court, New York, Guilford, 1987).
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: include only information relevant to the defendant’s competence in the evaluation report.
Which of the following minimizes deviation and thereby helps a family (or other system) maintain the status quo?
Select one:
A.
negative feedback
B.
positive feedback
C.
joining
D.
paradox
From a family systems perspective, feedback refers to the return or provision of information to the system about the consequences of an event or action.
a. CORRECT Negative feedback acts to maintain a system’s current level of functioning or homeostasis.
b. Incorrect Positive feedback produces a change in the system.
c. Incorrect Joining is a technique used by structural family therapists and involves blending with the family by, for example, adopting its communication and affective style.
d. Incorrect The question does not describe paradox.
The correct answer is: negative feedback
The MMSE (Mini Mental State Exam) is most often administered to: Select one:
A.
children as a measure of intelligence.
B.
adolescents and adults as a measure of brain dysfunction.
C.
older adults as a measure of cognitive functioning.
D.
older adults as a measure of quality of life.
The MMSE was originally developed by Folstein in 1975 as a “practical method for grading the cognitive state.”
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT The MMSE measures several aspects of cognitive functioning. The score is derived by considering both age and level of education, with a score of 24 or less (out of 30) suggesting cognitive impairment.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: older adults as a measure of cognitive functioning.
For Minuchin, scapegoating and overprotection of a child by the child’s mother and father are both forms of:
Select one:
A.
triangulation.
B.
detouring.
C.
a stable coalition.
D.
marital skew.
Minuchin describes three types of “rigid triangles” that all involve boundary disturbances.
a. Incorrect Minuchin uses the term triangulation to refer to the situation in which the child’s loyalty to one parent means rejection of the other parent.
b. CORRECT As defined by Minuchin, detouring occurs when the tension between husband and wife is reduced through the attention they pay to the child. This attention can involve either blaming the child for the family’s problems (scapegoating) or overprotection of the child who is identified by them as ill or weak.
c. Incorrect A stable coalition occurs when the child and a parent consistently “gang up” against the other parent.
d. Incorrect Marital skew is a term used by Lidz to describe situations in which a dominant partner has serious pathology, while the other partner is dependent and provides support.
The correct answer is: detouring.
To identify “critical incidents,” you would most likely:
Select one:
A.
review job descriptions.
B.
ask employees what they typically do on-the-job.
C.
ask supervisors to identify employee behaviors that are associated with outstanding and inferior performance.
D.
ask supervisors to identify specific supervisor behaviors that are associated with outstanding employee performance.
The critical incident technique was developed by Flanagan in the 1950s as a performance appraisal technique.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT As described by Flanagan, the critical incident technique begins by asking supervisors to observe employees and identify specific behaviors associated with particularly effective and ineffective job performance.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: ask supervisors to identify employee behaviors that are associated with outstanding and inferior performance.
Use of the technique known as meta-analysis entails calculating an “effect size,” which can be best defined as:
Select one:
A.
a statistically significant difference between experimental and control groups.
B.
a standardized mean difference between experimental and control groups.
C.
a zero-order correlation.
D.
a partial regression coefficient.
The term meta-analysis is used to describe a quantitative integration of research studies involving the calculation and aggregation of “effect size” estimates.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT There are several ways to calculate an effect size, but a commonly used method involves subtracting the control group mean from the experimental group mean and dividing the result by either the control group standard deviation or the pooled within-group standard deviation. The result is a standard score that indicates the difference between the experimental and control groups in terms of standard deviation units.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: a standardized mean difference between experimental and control groups.
Wernicke’s encephalopathy is due to:
Select one:
A.
a thiamine deficiency.
B.
a deficiency of Vitamin C.
C.
acute head trauma.
D.
anoxia.
The primary symptoms of Wernicke’s encephalopathy are acute mental confusion, ataxia, and opthalmoplegia (abnormal eye movements).
a. CORRECT Wernicke’s encephalopathy is caused by a deficiency of thiamine, often as the result of chronic alcoholism. Additional information about this disorder is provided in the Physiological Psychology and Psychopharmacology chapter of the written study materials.
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: a thiamine deficiency.
A person-centered (Rogerian) therapist would most likely respond to a client’s transference by:
Select one:
A.
interpreting it.
B.
challenging it.
C.
disregarding it.
D.
reflecting it.
Transference is not expected to develop in person-centered therapy, at least not at the intense level that it does in psychodynamic therapy.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Transference in person-centered therapy is essentially accepted and disregarded rather than interpreted as it is in many other forms of therapy. This is consistent with the here-and-now approach of person-centered therapy.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: disregarding it.
Feelings of emotional exhaustion, depersonalization, and low personal accomplishment are symptomatic of:
Select one:
A.
chronic boredom.
B.
low morale.
C.
repeated role conflicts.
D.
job burnout.
The three symptoms listed have been identified as the core features of job burnout.
a. Incorrect Chronic boredom (“underload”) might induce symptoms similar to these, but this triad of symptoms has been specifically linked to burnout.
b. Incorrect The research has not linked these symptoms to low morale, which may or may not be associated with burnout.
c. Incorrect Role conflicts are a source of stress and are likely to produce unpleasant symptoms but these three have not been linked to role conflicts.
d. CORRECT These are the three components of job burnout identified by S. E. Jackson, R. L. Schwab, and R. S. Schuler (Toward an understanding of the burnout phenomenon, Journal of Applied Psychology, 71, 630-540, 1986).
The correct answer is: job burnout.
A company decides to change the way it pays its sales force by moving away from uncertain commissions to a more predictable salary. According to Maslow’s need hierarchy theory, this change will have the greatest impact on employees whose most prepotent need is which of the following?
Select one:
A.
growth
B.
esteem
C.
safety
D.
existence
Maslow distinguished between five basic needs: physiological, safety, social, esteem, and self-actualization.
a. Incorrect Growth is not one of Maslow’s needs.
b. Incorrect Esteem needs are satisfied by providing employees with opportunities that maximize self-respect and the approval and recognition of others.
c. CORRECT Safety needs are satisfied by providing employees with a secure environment. In the situation described in this question, the comany is reducing uncertainty by providing a salary and, thereby, improving employees’ sense of security.
d. Incorrect Existence is not one of Maslow’s needs.
The correct answer is: safety
In the case of Brown v. Board of Education of Topeka (1954), research by Kenneth and Mamie Clark was used to support the argument that:
Select one:
A.
school segregation contributes to a negative self-image among African American children.
B.
school segregation contributes to low school achievement among African American children.
C.
academic underachievement of African American children is related to parental and cultural expectations.
D.
academic underachievement of African American children is related to low teacher expectations.
Kenneth and Mamie Clark are best known for their work on ethnic/racial identity in young children.
a. CORRECT These investigators found that young African-American children usually exhibited a preference for a White (vs. African-American) doll, and concluded that this was indicative of a poor self-image. Their findings were used by the plaintiffs in the Brown case as evidence of the negative effects of segregation on the self-image of African-American children.
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: school segregation contributes to a negative self-image among African American children.
A client describes a recurring dream of his to his therapist in which the client’s parents are standing on top of a stairway and refuse to let him climb up to the bedroom. If the therapist is a practitioner of Gestalt Therapy, she will probably:
Select one:
A.
analyze the content of the dream.
B.
ask the client to discuss his relationship with his parents.
C.
see the dream as indicative of the client’s current progress in therapy.
D.
see the dream as representing parts of the client’s personality that need to be integrated.
The major goals of Gestalt Therapy are to help a client achieve self-responsibility and function as a systematic whole. Dream work is one of the many techniques Gestaltians use.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT A goal of Gestalt Therapy is to integrate the separate, fragmented parts of a client’s personality into a unified whole. In line with this goal, Gestaltians see elements of recurring dreams as representations of parts of the self that have not been fully accepted and integrated.
The correct answer is: see the dream as representing parts of the client’s personality that need to be integrated.
As defined by Aaron Beck, __________ involves drawing a specific conclusion about an experience in the absence of supporting evidence for that conclusion.
Select one:
A.
selective abstraction
B.
emotional reasoning
C.
personalization
D.
arbitrary inference
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the cognitive distortions listed in the answers so that you can identify the correct response to questions like this one. Information on these distortions is provided in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Arbitrary inference occurs when a person draws a conclusion about an event or experience without there being corroborating evidence and/or when there is contradictory evidence.
The correct answer is: arbitrary inference
Piaget attributed the animistic thinking characteristic of children in the preoperational stage to:
Select one:
A.
decentration.
B.
lack of object permanence.
C.
relativistic thinking.
D.
egocentrism.
Familiarity with the characteristics of Piaget’s preoperational stage would have helped you choose the correct answer to this question.
a. Incorrect Decentration is an accomplishment of the concrete operational stage and contributes to the ability to conserve.
b. Incorrect Object permanence is an accomplishment of the sensorimotor stage, which precedes the preoperational stage.
c. Incorrect Relativistic thinking is not addressed in Piaget’s theory.
d. CORRECT According to Piaget, animism and magical thinking are attributable to precausal reasoning that, in turn, is due to egocentrism which underlies many of the limitations of the preoperational stage.
The correct answer is: egocentrism.
