Exam Simulation (Accommodations): Test 1 Flashcards
One problem with a decentralized communication network is that:
Select one:
A.
it is associated with low levels of employee morale.
B.
it can lead to the development of autocratic leadership.
C.
it can confuse the situation when the task is simple.
D.
it is effective only when the company’s organizational structure is also decentralized.
In a decentralized communication network, all people in the system can communicate freely with each other.
a. Incorrect This is more likely to occur with a centralized communication network.
b. Incorrect This is also more characteristic of a centralized communication network.
c. CORRECT For simple tasks (e.g., an automated production line), centralized communication networks tend to be more effective.
d. Incorrect This is not necessarily true. The most effective communication network may not necessarily be the one that matches the organizational structure.
The correct answer is: it can confuse the situation when the task is simple.
Studies examining the therapist preferences of individuals belonging to culturally diverse groups indicates that they typically:
Select one:
A.
rank race/ethnic similarity as more important than attitude or worldview similarity.
B.
rank attitude and worldview similarity as more important than race/ethnic similarity.
C.
rank personality similarity as more important than either race/ethnic similarity or attitude similarity.
D.
rank age and gender similarity as more important than either race-ethic similarity or attitude similarity.
Although members of culturally diverse groups express a stronger preference for therapists who are similar in terms of race or ethnicity, race and ethnicity are not always their first consideration.
a. Incorrect This is the opposite of what some research has found.
b. CORRECT This was the finding of several studies which found that, when members of culturally diverse groups were given a choice between race/ethnic similarity and attitude similarity, most ranked attitude similarity as more important. See, e.g., D. R. Atkinson and C. E. Thompson, Racial, ethnic, and cultural variables in counseling, in S. D. Brown and R. W. Lent (Eds.), Handbook of counseling psychology, New York, John Wiley & Sons, 1992).
c. Incorrect Personality is ranked as less important than attitude or race/ethnicity.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: rank attitude and worldview similarity as more important than race/ethnic similarity.
According to Fiedler’s contingency theory of leadership, a task-motivated (“low LPC”) leader is most effective when his or her relations with subordinates are:
Select one:
A.
very good.
B.
very poor.
C.
very good or very poor.
D.
moderate.
Fiedler’s theory predicts that task-motivated (low LPC) leaders and relationship-motivated (high LPC) leaders are most effective in different circumstances. One circumstance that determines the best leadership style is the nature of leader-member relations.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Task-motivated leaders are most effective in extreme situations - that is, when leader-member relations are either very good or very poor.
d. Incorrect Relationship-motivated leaders are most effective in less extreme situations - e.g., when leader-member relations are moderate (between good and poor).
The correct answer is: very good or very poor.
In a scatterplot, the regression lines for a test for two different groups of examinees differ substantially in terms of slope. This suggests that the test has:
Select one:
A.
a lack of factorial validity.
B.
a lack of convergent validity..
C.
divergent validity
D.
differential validity.
The slope of a regression line for a test is directly related to the test’s criterion-related validity: The steeper the slope, the greater the validity.
a. Incorrect Factorial validity refers to the degree to which a test or test item correlates with factors that it would be expected to correlate with in a factor analysis.
b. Incorrect Convergent validity refers to the degree to which a test correlates with measures of the same or a similar construct.
c. Incorrect Divergent validity refers to the degree to which a test does not correlate with measures of an unrelated construct.
d. CORRECT A test has differential validity when it has different validity coefficients for different groups, which is what is suggested by different regression line slopes in a scatterplot.
The correct answer is: differential validity.
Which of the following is an example of anterograde amnesia?
Select one:
A.
As the result of a head injury he received in a car accident, a man cannot remember where he was going before the accident occurred.
B.
A woman cannot remember how she got to the hospital or other events that occurred during the 24 hours after she was sexually assaulted.
C.
A high school junior who learned Spanish her freshman year is having trouble learning French because she keeps substituting Spanish words for French ones.
D.
A college student can remember information related to an important event but cannot remember how he acquired that information.
Anterograde amnesia involves a loss of memory for events that occur after the event that caused the memory loss.
a. Incorrect A loss of memory for events that occurred prior to the trauma that caused the memory impairment is referred to as retrograde amnesia.
b. CORRECT This answer provides an example of anterograde amnesia - i.e., the woman has no memory for events that occurred after the assault.
c. Incorrect This is an example of proactive interference.
d. Incorrect This is an example of source amnesia.
The correct answer is: A woman cannot remember how she got to the hospital or other events that occurred during the 24 hours after she was sexually assaulted.
According to Selye (1956), during the ______ stage of the general adaptation syndrome, the hypothalamus signals the pituitary gland to release adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), which causes the adrenal cortex to release cortisol.
Select one:
A.
alarm
B.
resistance
C.
preparation
D.
exhaustion
Selye’s general adaptation sydrome consists of three stages – alarm, resistance, and exhaustion. Additional information about these stages is provided in the Physiological Psychology and Psychopharmacology chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT The resistance stage occurs when stress persists and, as a result, the hypothalamus signals the pituitary gland to release ACTH which then activates the adrenal cortex to release the stress hormone cortisol.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: resistance
In the context of the serial position effect, the “primacy effect”:
Select one:
A.
is due to transfer of information from short- to long-term memory.
B.
is due to interference that prohibits transfer from short- to long-term memory.
C.
is due to the repetition of information so that it is maintained in short-term memory.
D.
is due to distractions that make it difficult to retrieve information from long-term memory.
The serial position effect refers to the tendency to recall items in the beginning and end of a word list better than the items in the middle of the list.
a. CORRECT The ability to recall items in the beginning of the list (primacy effect) is believed to be due to the fact that these items have been transferred from short- to long-term memory, while the ability to recall items in the end of the list (recency effect) is due to the fact that they are still present in short-term memory.
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: is due to transfer of information from short- to long-term memory.
Joining and accommodating are the initial steps in __________ family therapy.
Select one:
A.
object relations
B.
strategic
C.
Milan systemic
D.
structural
For the exam, you want to have joining and accommodating associated with Minuchin’s structural family therapy.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Minuchin viewed joining and accommodating as necessary initial processes that reduce family members’ resistance to change.
The correct answer is: structural
Five participants in a research study work individually at computer terminals to generate solutions to novel problems. Each participant in the study simultaneously reviews the suggested solutions of other participants while entering his or her own solutions. The purpose of this study is to assess the effects of technology on:
Select one:
A.
social inhibition.
B.
groupthink.
C.
quality circles.
D.
brainstorming.
The phrase “generate solutions to novel problems” may have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
a. Incorrect Social inhibition occurs when an individual’s performance on a task is negatively affected by the mere presence of other individuals.
b. Incorrect Groupthink is a suspension of critical thinking that may occur in highly cohesive groups.
c. Incorrect Quality circles are small voluntary groups of employees who work together and meet regularly to discuss and resolve work-related problems.
d. CORRECT Brainstorming was originally developed as a way to improve group performance on difficult or novel tasks. Although the research on brainstorming has generally found that people come up with more and better solutions when working alone than when working as a group, there is some evidence that brainstorming by computer improves its outcomes.
The correct answer is: brainstorming.
Frame-of-reference (FOR) training is used to:
Select one:
A.
improve the accuracy of job descriptions.
B.
maximize transfer of training.
C.
reduce rater idiosyncrasies.
D.
improve the face validity of criterion measures.
An effective way to improve rater accuracy is to provide raters with adequate training.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Frame-of-reference training improves rater accuracy by providing raters with a common frame-of-reference for evaluating job performance.
d. Incorrect See explanation for resonse c.
The correct answer is: reduce rater idiosyncrasies.
In Ainsworth’s Strange Situation, children classified as __________may or may not cry when their mother leaves, ignore her when she returns, and, if they do become distressed, are just as likely to be comforted by a stranger as by their own mother.
Select one:
A.
secure
B.
insecure/avoidant
C.
insecure/resistant
D.
disorganized/disoriented
Ainsworth originally identified three attachment patterns –secure, insecure/avoidant, and insecure/resistant. Main subsequently added the disorganized/disoriented pattern.
a. Incorrect Secure infants often exhibit some distress when mom leaves and are unlikely to be comforted by a stranger.
b. CORRECT Insecure/avoidant infants ordinarily show little distress in response to mom’s departure, ignore her when she returns, and are often more friendly to a stranger than to mom.
c. Incorrect Insecure/resistant infants become very upset when mom leaves and are not comforted by her return.
d. Incorrect Disorganized/disoriented infants exhibit contradictory, disoriented behavior during the events of the Strange Situation.
The correct answer is: insecure/avoidant
Research investigating the relationship between interest test scores and future occupational choice suggests that these tests have the highest predictive validity for:
Select one:
A. lower-class people.
B. middle-class people.
C. upper-class people.
D. lower-and upper-class people.
Socioeconomic status is one factor that has been found to affect the predictive validity of interest inventories.
a. Incorrect Lower-class people do not always have the opportunity to pursue occupations that coincide with their interests and frequently choose jobs that provide the greatest pay and security.
b. CORRECT Members of the middle-class usually have the greatest latitude when it comes to choosing an occupation and, therefore, are most likely to choose jobs that coincide with their interests.
c. Incorrect Upper-class individuals often choose occupations on the basis of family tradition or societal expectations rather than interests.
d. Incorrect See explanations above.
The correct answer is: middle-class people.
According to Sternberg (1999), traditional intelligence tests focus primarily on __________, which is one of the three abilities identified in his triarchic theory of intelligence.
Select one:
A.
analytical ability
B.
logical-mathematical ability
C.
verbal memory
D.
processing speed
Being familiar with the three intellectual abilities identified by Sternberg would have allowed you to identify the correct answer to this question.
a. CORRECT Sternberg’s three abilities are analytical, creative, and practical.
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: analytical ability
Eighteen-month old Tylee has learned the word “cup” and applies it to other similar objects such as bowls, glasses, and bottles. This is referred to as:
Select one:
A.
underextension.
B.
overextension.
C.
overregularization.
D.
expansion.
Children exhibit a number of predictable errors when learning to speak.
a. Incorrect Underextension involves applying a term too narrowly (e.g., using “dog” to refer only to the family dog).
b. CORRECT As its name implies, overextension involves applying a word to a wider collection of objects or events than is appropriate.
c. Incorrect Overregularization is an overextension of grammatical rules to words that are exceptions (e.g., adding “s” to “feet”).
d. Incorrect Expansion refers to the feedback that adults seem to naturally give young children, which provides children with information on appropriate language use.
The correct answer is: overextension.
In organizations, the level of affective commitment is likely to be LEAST predictive of which of the following?
Select one:
A.
job satisfaction
B.
productivity
C.
job motivation
D.
turnover
As noted in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials, two types of organizational commitment are distinguished - continuance commitment and affective commitment. Of these, affective commitment is most predictive of work-related outcomes.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Of the outcomes listed in the answers, affective commitment is least predictive of productivity.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: productivity
In the context of exposure to the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), the term “seroconversion” refers to:
Select one:
A.
the point in time at which transmission of the virus occurred.
B.
the process of converting from antibody negative to antibody positive.
C.
the period during which the infected individual is asymptomatic.
D.
the bodys reaction to an anti-retroviral drug.
As a general term, seroconversion refers to the development of antibodies to a particular antigen (e.g., HIV).
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT In the context of HIV, seroconversion refers to the conversion from HIV negative (seronegative) to HIV positive (seropositive) as the result of the presence of antibodies. Note that, because seroconversion often does not occur until several weeks after infection, an infected individual may develop symptoms of acute HIV infection while still having a negative HIV antibody test.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: the process of converting from antibody negative to antibody positive.
The goodness-of-fit model proposed by Thomas and Chess (1977) is supported by which of the following research findings?
Select one:
A.
Modeling and imitation are primary contributors to the development of a gender role identity.
B.
Providing a child with experiences that are slightly beyond his/her abilities maximizes opportunities for social and cognitive development.
C.
Parents who adopt an authoritative style are likely to have children who obtain high scores on measures of self-esteem, peer popularity, and scholastic achievement.
D.
Irritable temperament in children is predictive of insecure attachment only when mothers are not socially supportive.
Thomas and Chess proposed that childhood pathology is related to a lack of fit between the child’s basic temperament and the parents’ behaviors toward the child.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT This finding is consistent with the prediction made by Thomas and Chess - i.e., it is the combination of the child’s temperament and the parents’ parenting style that determines the child’s developmental outcomes.
The correct answer is: Irritable temperament in children is predictive of insecure attachment only when mothers are not socially supportive.
Herzberg’s two-factor theory predicts that, if a worker’s job is redesigned so that she has less autonomy and responsibility but is also given a raise in salary, the worker will be:
Select one:
A.
dissatisfied.
B.
neither satisfied nor dissatisfied.
C.
satisfied.
D.
both satisfied and dissatisfied.
Herzberg’s two-factor theory distinguishes between hygiene and motivator factors.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Herzberg’s theory predicts that motivator factors produce satisfaction when they are present but have no effect on satisfaction if they are not present. In contrast, hygiene factors produce dissatisfaction when they are not adequate but have no effect on satisfaction when they’re adequate. Consequently, if the worker’s job is redesigned so that it produces few motivator factors (e.g., less autonomy and responsibility) and more adequate hygiene factors (pay), the worker will be neither satisfied nor dissatisfied.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: neither satisfied nor dissatisfied.
Which of the following is a cause of conductive deafness?
Select one:
A.
infection of the middle ear
B.
damage to the hair cells
C.
cochlear damage
D.
lesions in the auditory cortex
There are three types of deafness: conductive, sensorineural, and central.
a. CORRECT Conductive deafness results from failure of mechanical stimulation to reach the cochlea and can be caused by an infection or obstruction in the outer or middle ear.
b. Incorrect This refers to sensorineural deafness.
c. Incorrect Damage to the cochlea results in sensorineural deafness.
d. Incorrect This is a cause of central deafness.
The correct answer is: infection of the middle ear
The vasovagel response associated with Specific Phobia, blood-injection-injury type is characterized by:
Select one:
A.
a drop in heart rate and blood pressure with xerosis and ruddiness.
B.
a sustained increase in heart rate and blood pressure with hypervigilence and xerosis.
C.
a sustained increase in heart rate and blood pressure with ruddiness and tinnitus.
D.
a drop in heart rate and blood pressure with sweating, pallor, and fainting.
Answer D is correct: The blood-injection-injury type of Specific Phobia produces a response to feared stimuli that differs from the response associated with other types of this disorder. The vasovagel response associated with this type involves a brief initial increase in heart rate and blood pressure followed by a decrease in heart rate and blood pressure that may lead to fainting. Other characteristic symptoms include sweating, pallor, nausea, and tinnitus.
Answer A: Although the vasovagal response does involve a drop in heart rate and blood pressure, it is not characterized by xerosis (dry skin) or ruddiness (blushing or redness of the skin).
Answer B: The increase in heart rate and blood pressure associated with this type of Specific Phobia is temporary and brief, not sustained.
Answer C: See explanation for answer D.
The correct answer is: a drop in heart rate and blood pressure with sweating, pallor, and fainting.
A factor analysis indicates that Test A has a factor loading of .80 for Factor 1 and a factor loading of .10 for Factor 2. Assuming an orthogonal rotation, the communality for Test A is:
Select one:
A.
1.0.
B.
.90.
C.
.70.
D.
.65.
When factors are orthogonal (uncorrelated), the factor loadings can be squared and summed to calculate the communality.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT .80 squared plus .10 squared equals .64 plus .01, or .65. The communality for Test A is .65, which means that 65% of variability in Test A scores is explained by Factors 1 and 2.
The correct answer is: .65.
According to ____________, symbolic play offers young children opportunities to engage in activities that are developmentally more advanced than they could successfully perform in reality on their own.
Select one:
A.
J. H. Flavell
B.
E. Gibson
C.
L. Vygotsky
D.
J. Piaget
Symbolic (make-believe) play refers to play in which one object represents another (e.g., a doll represents a baby).
a. Incorrect Flavell is probably best known for his research on children’s ability to distinguish between appearance and reality.
b. Incorrect Eleanor and James Gibson are best known for their research on perceptual development in infants.
c. CORRECT For Vygotsky, symbolic play provides a “zone of proximal development” that enables a child to practice behaviors in a situation that requires less precision and accuracy than would be required in reality.
d. Incorrect Piaget viewed symbolic play as an opportunity to practice representational schemes.
The correct answer is: L. Vygotsky
A psychologist wants to know if a husband’s participation in housework is related to the wife’s occupational status and the couple’s socioeconomic status. He obtains a sample of married men and determines the current occupational status of each man’s wife (working full-time outside the home, working part-time outside the home, working full- or part-time in the home, or not working) and their SES (upper, middle, or lower) and asks each man to estimate the average number of hours he spends doing housework each week. The appropriate test for analyzing the data the researcher collects in study is the:
Select one:
A.
one-way ANOVA.
B.
two-way ANOVA.
C.
MANOVA.
D.
multiple-sample chi-square.
The first step in determining the correct answer to this question is to identify the study’s independent and dependent variables by translating the information provided into the following question: What are the effects of a wife’s occupational status and the couple’s socioeconomic status on the number of hours the husband spends doing housework? This question indicates that the study has two independent variables (occupational status and socioeconomic status) and one dependent variable (hours doing housework) and that the dependent variable is measured on a ratio scale.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT The two-way ANOVA is the appropriate statistical test for a study that has two independent variables and one dependent variable that is measured on a ratio scale.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: two-way ANOVA.
According to __________, an employee’s motivation is a function of the degree to which the employee perceives that his/her job inputs and outcomes are comparable to the inputs and outcomes of others performing similar jobs.
Select one:
A.
equity theory
B.
social-cognitive theory
C.
expectancy theory
D.
two-factor theory
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the four theories of motivation listed in the answers to this question. These are described in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
a. CORRECT Equity theory emphasizes the impact of social comparison on motivation and focuses on an employee’s comparison of his/her input/outcome ratio to the input/outcome ratios of others doing the same or similar work.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: equity theory
A response that was acquired through avoidance learning (conditioning) is unlikely to be extinguished because the avoidance response is:
Select one:
A.
negatively reinforced.
B.
positively reinforced.
C.
negatively punished.
D.
positively punished.
In avoidance conditioning, a neutral stimulus (CS) has been paired with a fear-arousing stimulus (US) so that the CS produces a fear response (CR); and, eventually, the individual learns that he/she can avoid fear by avoiding the CS. In this situation, the avoidance response is being negatively reinforced – avoiding the CS is reinforced because the avoidance behavior eliminates the fear response. As an example, assume that you live in San Francisco and developed a fear of the Golden Gate Bridge because there was an earthquake the last time you drove on it. Consequently, you no longer drive on the Golden Gate Bridge because avoiding the bridge allows you to avoid experiencing fear. In other words, your avoidance of the bridge is being negatively reinforced. (In this situation, the Golden Gate Bridge is the CS, and the earthquake is the US.)
a. CORRECT Because the individual avoids the CS, extinction trials do not occur. In other words, the individual never has an opportunity to experience presentation of the CS without the US, which means that the CR will not be extinguished. In the example, your conditioned fear of the Golden Gate Bridge will never be extinguished because you never drive on the bridge and, therefore, never experience being on the bridge without an earthquake.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: negatively reinforced.
As a diathesis-stress model, Beck’s cognitive theory predicts that which of the following serves as the diathesis in the development of depressive symptomology?
Select one:
A.
dysfunctional schemas
B.
a genetic predisposition
C.
exposure to a negative event
D.
faulty attributions
Diathesis-stress models describe illness as the result of a combination of vulnerability (diathesis) and stress, with the nature of the vulnerability depending on the type of theory. Not surprisingly, Beck’s cognitive theory of depression identifies cognitive factors as the source of vulnerability.
a. CORRECT Beck’s cognitive diathesis-stress model of depression proposes that certain people have depressogenic schemas that make them vulnerable to experiencing depression when exposed to a negative life event.
b. Incorrect Beck’s cognitive theory focuses on cognitive, not biological, factors.
c. Incorrect Exposure to a negative event is the “stress” in Beck’s cognitive diathesis-stress model.
d. Incorrect Certain types of attributions - i.e., internal, stable, and global attributions - for negative outcomes are identified as the diathesis in Abramson, Metalsky, and Alloy’s (1989) hopelessness model of depression. Although their theory is a cognitive theory, this question is asking about Beck’s cognitive theory, so answer a is the best answer to this question.
The correct answer is: dysfunctional schemas
Research by Patterson and his colleagues (1992) at the Oregon Social Learning Center has linked high levels of aggression in children to which of the following?
Select one:
A.
lack of empathy
B.
sociocultural norms related to aggression
C.
coercive family interactions
D.
emotional over-reactivity
Patterson and colleagues (1992) focus on family contributions to aggression.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT These investigators have concluded that families of highly aggressive children are characterized by a high degree of coercive family interactions and poor parental monitoring of children’s activities.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: coercive family interactions
According to Patterson and his colleagues, aggression in children is linked to the use of coercive discipline by their parents. In turn, the parents’ use of coercive discipline is directly related to:
Select one:
A.
the parents’ misinterpretations of the child’s intentions when he or she misbehaves.
B.
the parents’ personality characteristics and the child’s temperament.
C.
the nature of the attachment between the child and the parent.
D.
the effectiveness of the discipline in stopping the child’s misbehavior.
Patterson’s theory regarding coercive family interactions takes into account the reciprocal influences of the parent and child.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Patterson (1992) views coercive discipline as being more likely in the presence of stressful life events, certain personality characteristics in the parents, and a temperamentally difficult child.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: the parents’ personality characteristics and the child’s temperament.
According to Hersey and Blanchard’s situational leadership model, a manager will be most effective with an employee who is low in both ability and motivation when the manager:
Select one:
A.
provides specific instructions and closely supervises the employee’s work.
B.
encourages the employee to take responsibility for decision-making.
C.
shares ideas with the employee and supports the employee’s participation in decision-making.
D.
acts as a supportive coach.
Situational leadership theory proposes that, to be effective, managers must adopt a leadership style that matches the employee’s maturity, which is determined by a combination of the employee’s ability and motivation.
a. CORRECT This describes a “telling” style, which, according to Hersey and Blanchard, is appropriate for employees who are low in both ability and motivation.
b. Incorrect This describes a “delegating” style, which is best for employees who are high in both ability and motivation.
c. Incorrect This is characteristic of the “participating” style, which is best for employees who are high in ability but low in motivation.
d. Incorrect This is the “selling” style, which works best for employees who are low in ability but high in motivation.
The correct answer is: provides specific instructions and closely supervises the employee’s work.
On the MMPI-2, higher-than-normal L and K scale scores with a lower-than-normal F scale score has been linked to which of the following?
Select one:
A.
Malingering
B.
Schizophrenia
C.
somatization of psychological problems
D.
parental alientation syndrome
Knowing that the L, K, and F scales are validity scales may have helped you eliminate answers b and c.
a. Incorrect Malingering has been linked to several score patterns, including L and K scale scores around 50 with a slightly elevated F scale and a “saw-toothed” pattern on the clinical scales.
b. Incorrect Schizophrenia has been linked to the “psychotic valley” (scores on scales 6 and 8 substantially higher than the score on scale 7).
c. Incorrect Somatizationi of psychological problems has been linked to the “neurotic triad” (scores on scales 1 and 3 substantially higher than the score on scale 2).
d. CORRECT Siegel and Langsford (1998) compared the MMPI-2 profiles of mothers undergoing a custody evaluation as part of a divorce proceeding and found that both had a defensve pattern on the L, K, and F scales but that those mothers who also exhibited behaviors associated with parental alientation syndrome had even more extrems scores on these scales, with L and K being higher-than-normal and F being lower-than-normal.
The correct answer is: parental alientation syndrome
A meta-analysis of the research by Baltes and his colleagues (1999) found that instituting flextime in an organization is likely to have the LEAST beneficial effects on which of the following?
Select one:
A.
absenteeism
B.
self-rated performance
C.
satisfaction with work schedule
D.
overall job satisfaction
Unfortunately, the research on the effects of flextime and other alternative work schedules has produced inconsistent results. However, this question is asking about the results of a specific meta-analysis of the research.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Baltes et al. found that flextime had a substantial positive effects on absenteeism, satisfaction with the work schedule, and overall job satsifaction but had little effect on self-rated performance. For additional information on the Baltes et al. meta-analysis, see the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: self-rated performance
There is evidence that stimulus exposure and antidepressants that increase serotonin levels both alleviate the symptoms of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder by reducing activity in the:
Select one:
A.
locus coeruleus.
B.
caudate nucleus.
C.
reticular activating system.
D.
inferior colliculus.
Answer B is correct: L. R. Baxter and associates found evidence that behavioral and drug treatments for OCD both reduce activity in the caudate nucleus, which is involved in converting sensory input into cognition and action and is over-active in people with OCD (Caudate glucose metabolic rate changes with both drug and behavior therapy for obsessive-compulsive disorder, Archives of General Psychiatry, 49, 681-689, 1992).
Answers A, C, and D: See explanation for answer B.
The correct answer is: caudate nucleus.
Erikson identified identity formation as the key issue during adolescence. At around age 18 or 19, this issue begins to be replaced by which of the following?
Select one:
A.
the need to “repudiate one’s choices.”
B.
the need to develop interpersonal closeness and solidarity.
C.
the need to achieve a higher degree of individuation.
D.
the need to be productive and creative.
Erikson’s stage of identity vs. role confusion is followed by intimacy vs. isolation. See the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials for additional information on Erikson’s stages of psychosocial development.
a. Incorrect Repudiation is part of identity formation.
b. CORRECT The psychosocial issues of early adulthood center on intimacy and solidarity versus isolation.
c. Incorrect Individuation is a concept associated with Levinson, not Erikson.
d. Incorrect The stage of generativity vs. stagnation is characteristic of middle adulthood.
The correct answer is: the need to develop interpersonal closeness and solidarity.
Korsakoff syndrome is caused by:
Select one:
A.
a lack of blood flow to the brain.
B.
inadequate intake or absorption of thiamine.
C.
damage to the somatosensory cortex.
D.
a build-up of cerebrospinal fluid in the ventricles.
Korsakoff syndrome is characterized by severe anterograde amnesia, retrograde amnesia, and confabulation.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Korsakoff syndrome is caused by a thiamine deficiency, often as the result of chronic alcoholism, and involves atrophy of neurons in certain areas of the thalamus and mammillary bodies.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: inadequate intake or absorption of thiamine.
An assumption underlying Marlatt and Gordon’s (1985) relapse prevention (RP) model is that:
Select one:
A.
abstinence is the only goal since any drug use will trigger the “latent disease.”
B.
addictive behaviors are acquired through classical conditioning and, therefore, must be eliminated through the use of aversive conditioning and other classical conditioning techniques.
C.
addictive habit patterns can be changed through the application of self-management and self-control procedures.
D.
relapse is a result of a “treatment failure” rather than an “individual failure.”
Answer C is correct: Marlatt and Gordon’s relapse prevention model is based on social learning theory and views addictive behaviors as acquired (overlearned) habit patterns. The focus of their approach to relapse prevention is on acquiring the skills needed to reduce the risk for relapse.
Answer A: This is more consistent with the disease model of addiction.
Answer B: Although Marlatt and Gordon’s model recognizes the role of classical conditioning in the acquisition and maintenance of addictive behaviors, aversive conditioning is not a key relapse prevention technique.
Answer D: Relapse is not considered either a treatment or an individual failure but as a “transitional process” that may or may not be followed by a return to baseline levels of the target behavior.
The correct answer is: addictive habit patterns can be changed through the application of self-management and self-control procedures.
A personnel director decides to raise a selection test’s cutoff score when using the test to assist in hiring decisions. Most likely the personnel director has made this decision in order to:
Select one:
A.
increase the number of true positives.
B.
decrease the number of false positives.
C.
increase the number of false negatives.
D.
decrease the number of true negatives.
Raising the predictor cutoff score decreases the number of true and false positives and increases the number of true and false negatives.
a. Incorrect Raising the predictor cutoff score would decrease the number of true positives.
b. CORRECT Most likely, a personnel director would raise the predictor cutoff to decrease the number of false positives since these individuals “cost the company money” (i.e., they would be hired on the basis of their test scores but would be unsuccessful on the job).
c. Incorrect Although raising the predictor cutoff score increases the number of false negatives, this would not be considered desirable in most situations - i.e., a personnel director would not want to increase the number of people who are rejected (not hired) on the basis of their selection test scores but would have been successful on the job if they had been hired.
d. Incorrect Raising the predictor cutoff increases the number of true negatives.
The correct answer is: decrease the number of false positives.
Moffitt (1993) attributes the life-course-persistent type of antisocial behavior to which of the following?
Select one:
A.
a maturity gap
B.
behavioral disinhibition
C.
neurological vulnerability
D.
a personality disorder
Answer C is correct: Moffitt (1993) distinguishes between two types of antisocial behavior that differ in terms of onset, symptom severity, and etiology. She attributes the adolescence-limited type to a maturity gap, and the life-course persistent type to a combination of neurological vulnerability, a difficult temperament, and a criminogenic environment (e.g., parental criminality, inept parenting).
Answers A, B, and D: See explanation for answer C.
The correct answer is: neurological vulnerability
As predicted by the Taylor-Russell tables, the incremental validity of a selection test that has a validity coefficient of .50 will be the greatest when:
Select one:
A.
the selection ratio is .05 and the base rate is .20.
B.
the selection ratio is .05 and the base rate is .50.
C.
the selection ratio is .95 and the base rate is .20.
D.
the selection ratio is .95 and the base rate is .50.
The Taylor-Russell Tables provide information on a test’s incremental validity for various combinations of base rates, selection ratios, and validity coefficients.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT A test with even a low or moderate validity coefficient can improve decision-making accuracy when the selection ratio is low (e.g., .05) and the base rate is moderate (near .50). Fir additional information on this topic, see the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: the selection ratio is .05 and the base rate is .50.
In an experiment, a tone is presented to a dog just before meat powder is presented numerous times so that, eventually, the dog salivates when the tone is presented alone. Then a light and the tone are simultaneously presented just before the meat powder numerous times. Based on your knowledge of “blocking,” you predict that the dog will subsequently:
Select one:
A.
salivate in response to the light when it is presented alone and continue to salivate in response to the tone when it is presented alone.
B.
salivate in response to the light when it is presented alone but salivate in response to the tone only when it is presented with the light.
C.
continue to salivate in response to the tone but not salivate in response to the light.
D.
not salivate in response to either the tone or the light.
Blocking occurs when one stimulus blocks the other from becoming a conditioned stimulus.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT In this situation, the tone will block the light from becoming a CS since the tone was the first stimulus to be paired with the meat powder. Apparently, blocking occurs because the second stimulus (the light in this case) provides redundant information and does not become linked to the unconditioned stimulus (meat powder).
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: continue to salivate in response to the tone but not salivate in response to the light.
Due to improved treatments for acute lymphacytic leukemia, at least 50% of children with this condition now have a normal life expectancy. Research investigating the cognitive impact of treatments for this disorder - that is, CNS chemotherapy and irradiation - has found that:
Select one:
A.
CNS chemotherapy and irradiation are both associated with neurocognitive deficits.
B.
CNS chemotherapy is associated with neurocognitive deficits but irradiation is not.
C.
CNS irradiation is associated with neurocognitive deficits but chemotherapy is not.
D.
any apparent negative impact of either treatment on neurocognitive functioning is actually due to the disease.
Answer A is correct: The research in this area is not entirely consistent, but it does appear that CNS chemotherapy and irradiation treatments for children with cancer do have some negative effects on their cognitive functioning, especially in terms of academic performance. [See, e.g., R. T. Brown and A. Madan-Sevain, Cognitive, neuropsychological, and academic sequelae in children with leukemia, Journal of Learning Disabilities, 26(2), 74-90, 1993.]
Answers B, C, and D: See explanation for answer A.
The correct answer is: CNS chemotherapy and irradiation are both associated with neurocognitive deficits.
In their often-cited study of community mental health services and ethnicity, Sue and his colleagues (1991) found that, with regard to treatment outcomes:
Select one:
A.
Hispanic and African American clients showed substantially less improvement than Anglo and Asian American clients.
B.
Hispanic American clients showed somewhat less improvement than African, Anglo, and Asian American clients.
C.
African American clients showed somewhat less improvement than Hispanic, Anglo, and Asian American clients.
D.
Hispanic, African, and Asian American clients showed less improvement than Anglo American clients.
Sue et al. (1991) compared the outcomes of therapy for African, Hispanic, Asian, and Anglo American individuals receiving outpatient mental health services in Los Angeles county.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Sue and his colleagues found that Hispanic American clients had the best outcomes followed by Anglo, Asian, and, lastly, African Americans clients.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: African American clients showed somewhat less improvement than Hispanic, Anglo, and Asian American clients.
Cross-cultural research has identified several universal emotions that are associated with similar facial expressions by individuals from diverse cultures. Which of the following is NOT one of these?
Select one:
A.
fear
B.
anger
C.
disgust
D.
shame
The universal emotions identified by Ekman (1993) and Izard (1971) are: happiness, sadness, fear, anger, disgust, surprise, and contempt. People from diverse cultural backgrounds use very similar facial expressions to express these emotions.
a. Incorrect See list above.
b. Incorrect See list above.
c. Incorrect See list above.
d. CORRECT Shame is not one of the universal emotions identified by the researchers.
The correct answer is: shame
According to __________, the innate drive to develop attachment to one’s caregivers developed as a survival mechanism during the course of human evolution.
Select one:
A.
existential theory
B.
object relations theory
C.
Jung
D.
Adler
Early relationships between an infant and his/her caregivers are considered critical in many theories of personality development, but only one of the approaches listed explicitly describes attachment as an evolutionary phenomenon that developed as a survival mechanism.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT According to object relations theory, the tendency toward attachment is an innate capacity that developed through evolution as a survival mechanism; and problems related to attachment in infancy have negative consequences for adult personality.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: object relations theory
Sweating, speeded up mental processes, inability to sleep or relax, trembling, nervousness, palpitations, and loss of weight despite increased food intake are characteristic of which of the following endocrine disorders?
Select one:
A.
hyperglycemia
B.
hyperthyroidism
C.
adrenal insufficiency
D.
hypoparathyroidism
For the licensing exam, you want to be familiar with the symptoms of the endocrine disorders listed in the answers to this question.
a. Incorrect Hyperglycemia is due to excessive glucose in the blood. Its symptoms include fatigue, polydipsia, polyuria, polyphagia, weight loss, poor wound healing, and recurrent infections.
b. CORRECT The symptoms listed in this question are characteristic of hyperthyroidism, which is caused by excessive secretion of thyroxin by the thyroid gland.
c. Incorrect Adrenal insufficiency (also known as Addison’s disease) is due to a lower-than-normal production of cortisol by the adrenal glands and is characterized by weight loss, orthostatic hypotension, weakness, fatigue, and hyperpigmentation.
d. Incorrect Hypoparathyroidism is caused by lower-than-normal levels of parathyroid hormone. Its symptoms include muscle cramping and twitching, tingling in the lips and fingers, hair loss, and dry skin.
The correct answer is: hyperthyroidism
For Miller and Dollard (1941), the approach-approach conflict:
Select one:
A.
is a dilemma because as soon as the individual approaches one positive goal, the pull of the other positive goal increases in strength.
B.
is a dilemma that is often resolved by “leaving the field” and choosing a third goal.
C.
is not really a dilemma since, once the individual begins to approach one positive goal, the strength of the pull of the other positive goal decreases.
D.
is an unpredictable dilemma because it is impossible to ever know if the appropriate goal has been selected.
Miller and Dollard distinguish between three conflicts: approach-avoidance, avoidance-avoidance, and approach-approach.
a. Incorrect This is not a prediction made by Miller and Dollard but does sound somewhat like what Lewin concluded about this type of dilemma.
b. Incorrect This sounds more like what Lewin concluded about avoidance-avoidance conflicts.
c. CORRECT According to Miller and Dollard, the approach-approach conflict is not really a dilemma. When it does arouse conflict, it is because there are hidden or latent avoidance conditions operating.
d. Incorrect See explanations above.
The correct answer is: is not really a dilemma since, once the individual begins to approach one positive goal, the strength of the pull of the other positive goal decreases.
Which of the following occupational themes is most dissimilar to Holland’s social theme?
Select one:
A.
enterprising
B.
realistic
C.
conventional
D.
investigative
Knowing that the occupational themes are listed in order of similarity in Holland’s hexagon and that the order is represented by the acronym “RIASEC” would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT The social theme is directly opposite the realistic theme in Holland’s hexagon, which indicates that the realistic theme is most unlike the social theme.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: realistic
Squaring the multiple correlation coefficient (R) provides a measure of:
Select one:
A.
shared variability.
B.
true score variability.
C.
average variability.
D.
extraneous variability.
The multiple correlation coefficient, like a bivariate correlation coefficient, can be squared to obtain a coefficient of determination.
a. CORRECT The squared multiple correlation coefficient indicates the amount of variability in the criterion that is shared with the weighted combination of the predictors.
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: shared variability.
When using the __________ to assess level of consciousness, the patient’s score can range from 3 to 15 with scores of 3 to 8 indicating an unconscious state.
Select one:
A.
Glasgow Coma Scale
B.
Mini Mental State Exam
C.
Beery-Buktenica Test
D.
Rancho Scale
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the purposes of each of the tests listed in the answers to this question. This information is provided in the Psychological Assessment chapter of the written study materials.
a. CORRECT This answer accurately describes the possible range of scores on the Glasgow scale.
b. Incorrect Scores on the MMSE range from 0 to 30.
c. Incorrect The Beery-Buktenica is a measure of visual-motor integration.
d. Incorrect The Rancho Scale is used to evaluate recovery following traumatic brain injury and involves rating the individual in terms of 10 levels of functioning.
The correct answer is: Glasgow Coma Scale
Dr. Jones, a licensed clinical psychologist, hires a psychology graduate student to administer the MMPI-2 to some of his clients. This is:
Select one:
A.
unethical since psychological tests should be administered only by licensed professionals.
B.
ethical as long as Dr. Jones accepts full responsibility for the consequences of testing.
C.
ethical only if the student has completed at least one graduate-level course in psychological testing.
D.
ethical only if Dr. Jones provides the student with appropriate training and supervision.
The minimum competence requirements for the administration of psychological tests are not well-defined in the Ethics Code or Standards for Educational and Psychological Testing. However, Standard 2.05 states that “Psychologists who delegate work to employees, supervisees, or research or teaching assistants or who use the services of others, such as interpreters, take reasonable steps to (1) avoid delegating such work to persons who have a multiple relationship with those being served that would likely lead to exploitation or loss of objectivity; (2) authorize only those responsibilities that such persons can be expected to perform competently on the basis of their education, training, or experience, either independently or with the level of supervision being provided; and (3) see that such persons perform these services competently.”
a. Incorrect APA’s ethical guidelines do not require that psychological tests be administered by licensed professionals only.
b. Incorrect Dr. Jones should, of course, be responsible for the activities of his assistant. However, this is not sufficient.
c. Incorrect The completion of a single course in psychological testing would probably be insufficient training for the administration of psychological tests.
d. CORRECT Of the alternatives given, this response is most consistent with the requirements of the Standard 2.05 of the Ethics Code and Principle II.7 of the Canadian Code of Ethics for Psychologists.
The correct answer is: ethical only if Dr. Jones provides the student with appropriate training and supervision.
The Health Belief Model predicts that, to modify an individual’s health-related behaviors, an intervention should focus on:
Select one:
A.
the external rewards associated with being healthy.
B.
the severity, duration, and stage of the individual’s illness.
C.
the individuals locus of control.
D.
the individuals knowledge, motivation to act, and self-efficacy beliefs.
As its name implies, the Health Belief Model focuses on the impact of an individual’s beliefs on his/her health-related behaviors.
a. Incorrect The Health Belief Model emphasizes the individual’s perceptions and beliefs rather than external conditions (e.g., rewards and punishments) that influence health-related behaviors.
b. Incorrect This is not a focus of interventions based on the Health Belief Model, which usually emphasize prevention of a disorder rather than the treatment of an existing disorder.
c. Incorrect The Health Locus of Control Model emphasizes the role of locus of control beliefs.
d. CORRECT According to the Health Belief Model, a person’s willingness to take appropriate health-related actions is related to the person’s beliefs about (1) his/her susceptibility to the illness; (2) the consequences of the illness; and (3) the benefits of and barriers to taking appropriate action. Interventions based on the Health Belief Model focus on the individual’s knowledge about the illness and methods for avoiding it; motivation to take action; and self-efficacy beliefs.
The correct answer is: the individuals knowledge, motivation to act, and self-efficacy beliefs.
Children ordinarily first show signs that they have lost their ability to distinguish between speech sounds that are not common in their native language by _________ months of age.
Select one:
A.
1 to 2
B.
5 to 6
C.
9 to 11
D.
14 to 16
The research has found that infants distinguish between speech sounds at a very early age, including sounds that are not part of their native language.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Babies can initially distinguish between speech sounds that are and are not part of their own language. This ability is subsequently lost, however, around the same time they begin to understand meaningful speech - i.e., at about 9 to 11 months of age. See, e.g., D. E. Papalia and S. W. Olds, Human development, New York: McGraw-Hill, 1995.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: 9 to 11
A psychotherapist who has adopted an emic perspective believes that:
Select one:
A.
a particular mental disorder is manifested in similar ways in all cultures.
B.
the manifestation of a particular mental disorder is impacted by cultural values, norms, and attitudes.
C.
the primary goal of therapy should be altering the client’s internal state.
D.
the primary goal of therapy should be altering the client’s environment.
For the exam, you want to be familiar with all of the terms described in the answers to this question.
a. Incorrect Viewing a mental disorder as being manifested similarly in all cultures reflects an etic perspective.
b. CORRECT Viewing a mental disorder as being affected by cultural values, norms, and attitudes reflects an emic perspective.
c. Incorrect The goal of an autoplastic intervention is to change the individual so that he/she is better able to function effectively in his/her environment.
d. Incorrect The goal of an alloplastic interventin is to change the environment so that it better accommodates the individual.
The correct answer is: the manifestation of a particular mental disorder is impacted by cultural values, norms, and attitudes.
A number of neuropsychologists interested in constructive memory have attempted to identify the areas of the brain that are involved in false recollections. Their research has most consistently linked false recollection to lesions in the:
Select one:
A.
frontal lobe.
B.
temporal lobe.
C.
occipital lobe.
D.
parietal lobe.
The current view of memory is that it does not involve a literal recollection of past events but instead a constructive process that is susceptible to errors, distortions, and other factors that limit the accuracy of memories.
a. CORRECT The research has most consistently linked false recollections to lesions in the frontal lobes, especially the prefrontal cortex. See, e.g., D. L. Schacter and S. D. Slotnick, The cognitive neuroscience of memory distortion, Neuron, 44, 149-160, 2004.
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: frontal lobe.
To maximize the cueing function of feedback regarding goal achievement:
Select one:
A.
internal and external rewards must be available when goals are achieved.
B.
the feedback must be specific (rather than global) in nature.
C.
the feedback should be outcome (versus process) oriented.
D.
the level of behavior required to achieve the goal must be attainable.
This is an example of the “distant galaxy” questions that occasionally appear on the licensing exam. Note that the best strategy for these questions is to use what you know and to avoid being enticed by responses that “sound impressive.”
a. Incorrect Rewards are important in goal achievement but are associated more with the motivating function of feedback than its cueing function.
b. CORRECT Common sense probably suggests that this is the correct answer and, in fact, it is. Feedback is more effective when it is specific than when it is global or general.
c. Incorrect To maximize its effectiveness, feedback should provide information about both outcome and process.
d. Incorrect This is also important but, again, is more relevant to the motivating function of feedback. (See, e.g., D. A. Nadler, Feedback and organizational development: Using data-based methods, Reading, MA: Addison-Wesley, 1977.)
The correct answer is: the feedback must be specific (rather than global) in nature.
Your colleague plans to use the “dismantling strategy” to identify the components of systematic desensitization that contribute most to its effectiveness. Being familiar with previous research using this strategy, you predict that she will find which of the following to be the critical component?
Select one:
A.
reciprocal inhibition
B.
negative reinforcement
C.
classical extinction
D.
escape conditioning
Although Wolpe originally developed systematic desensitization as an application of reciprocal inhibition, research using the dismantling strategy has found that reciprocal inhibition is not the critical component.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT The dismantling strategy involves comparing the effects of the various components of an intervention by administering different components to different participants. The use of this strategy to identify the effective components of systematic desensitization has found that the critical component is extinction of the anxiety response through repeated exposure to the CS without the US.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: classical extinction
For a test with a mean of 100 and standard deviation of 15, the upper and lower limits of the standard error of measurement are:
Select one:
A.
0 to +1.0.
B.
-1.0 to +1.0.
C.
0 to 100.
D.
0 to 15.
Knowing the formula for the standard error of measurement would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question: The standard error of measurement equals the standard deviation times the square root of one minus the reliability coefficient.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT When a test’s reliability coefficient is equal to +1.0 (the highest reliability coefficient possible), there is no error in measurement; and the standard error of measurement equals zero. At the other extreme, when the test’s reliability coefficient is equal to 0, the standard error of measurement equals the standard deviation of the test scores.
The correct answer is: 0 to 15.
__________ is a neuroleptic-induced movement disorder that is characterized by a subjective feeling of restlessness accompanied by stereotypical motor movements such as fidgeting, pacing, or foot tapping.
Select one:
A.
Dystonia
B.
Akathisia
C.
Akinesia
D.
Parkinsonism
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the characteristics of the four conditions listed in the answers to this question.
a. Incorrect Dystonia is characterized by “abnormal and prolonged contraction of the muscles of the eyes …, head, neck …, limbs, or truck” (DSM-5, p. 711).
b. CORRECT The symptoms described in this question are characteristic of akathisia, which usually develops within a few weeks after starting or increasing the dose of a neuroleptic drug.
c. Incorrect Akinesia is one of the symptoms of neuroleptic-induced parkinsonism and involves a slowing or lack of normal motor function
d. Incorrect Parkinsonism involves tremor, muscle rigidity, and akinesia.
The correct answer is: Akathisia
A brief period of electrical stimulation of the hippocampus enhances nerve cell electrical activity in that area of the brain for minutes to hours. This is referred to as:
Select one:
A.
graded potentiation.
B.
hyperpolarization.
C.
absolute refractory period.
D.
long-term potentiation.
Interestingly, the phenomenon described in this question not only occurs in the living brain but can also be induced in cells that have been removed from the brain.
a. Incorrect Graded potentiation is a made-up term.
b. Incorrect Hyperpolarization refers to a state of inhibition.
c. Incorrect During the absolute refractory period, a cell cannot “fire” regardless of the amount of stimulation.
d. CORRECT This is the name given to the phenomenon described in this question. Long-term potentiation (LTP) is believed to underlie certain types of learning and memory.
The correct answer is: long-term potentiation.
A patient whose corpus callosum has been severed as a treatment for severe epilepsy will be able to do which of the following?
Select one:
A.
verbally identify an odor that has been presented only to her right nostril
B.
identify a pen with her left hand after an image of a pen has been projected to her left visual field
C.
say the word “pen” after an image of a pen has been projected to her left visual field
D.
repeat four words that have been whispered into her left ear
If you encounter a question like this one on the exam, keep in mind that (1) language is controlled by the left hemisphere in most people and (2) most functions are controlled contralaterally but that olfaction is an exception to this general rule.
a. Incorrect As noted above, olfactory signals do not cross to the other side of the brain. Consequently, an odor entering the right nostril only will be sent to the right hemisphere.
b. CORRECT An image presented to the left visual field will be processed by the right hemisphere which controls the left hand. Therefore, the patient will be able to perform this task.
c. Incorrect Because information projected to the left visual field will be sent to the right hemisphere, the patient will not be able to say what she has seen.
d. Incorrect Information entering the left ear is sent to the right hemisphere. Consequently, the patient will not be able to repeat that information.
The correct answer is: identify a pen with her left hand after an image of a pen has been projected to her left visual field
Damage to the right hippocampus is most likely to cause:
Select one:
A.
psychic blindness.
B.
interruption of the normal sleep-wake cycle.
C.
deficits in spatial memory.
D.
deficits in procedural memory.
The hippocampus is vital to learning and memory.
a. Incorrect Psychic blindness is a symptom of Kluver-Bucy syndrome which is caused by damage to the amygdala and temporal lobes.
b. Incorrect The research has not linked the hippocampus to the sleep-wake cycle.
c. CORRECT The right hippocampus is involved in memory for nonverbal information, including spatial and temporal memory. For example, in a study of cabdrivers, PET scans revealed that the right hippocampus was responsible for the drivers’ ability to form and recall complex routes.
d. Incorrect The hippocampus plays a role in declarative memory but does not appear to be responsible for the formation of procedural memories.
The correct answer is: deficits in spatial memory.
An African American client in the dissonance stage of Atkinson, Morten, and Sue’s Racial/Cultural Identity Development Model will exhibit which of the following?
Select one:
A.
self-deprecating and same-group deprecating attitudes
B.
self-appreciating but dominant-group deprecating attitudes
C.
a conflict between self-appreciating and self-deprecating attitudes and between same-group appreciating and same-group deprecating attitudes
D.
concern over the basis of his/her self-appreciating and unequivocal same-group appreciating attitudes
The stages of the Atkinson, Morten, and Sue model are each characterized by different attitudes toward oneself, one’s own (same) minority group, other minority groups, and the majority (mainstream) group.
a. Incorrect This is characteristic of the conformity stage (stage 1).
b. Incorrect This is characteristic of the resistance and immersion stage (stage 3).
c. CORRECT Not surprisingly, a person in the dissonance stage (stage 2) will be conflicted about his/her attitudes.
d. Incorrect This is characteristic of the introspection stage (stage 4).
The correct answer is: a conflict between self-appreciating and self-deprecating attitudes and between same-group appreciating and same-group deprecating attitudes
When the item discrimination index (D) equals _____, this means that all of the examinees in the upper-scoring group and none of the examinees in the lower-scoring group answered the item correctly.
Select one:
A.
50
B.
1
C.
-1
D.
0
Answer B is correct. The item discrimination index ranges in value from -1.0 to +1.0. An item discrimination index of +1.0 indicates maximum discrimination between high- and low-scoring groups, with all examinees in the upper group answering the item correctly and none of the examinees in the lower group answering the item correctly.
The correct answer is: 1
Although most health care workers recognize the importance of hand washing for reducing hospital-based infection, frequency of hand washing by hospital personnel is low. Studies evaluating the effectiveness of various strategies for increasing hand washing by health care workers suggest that the most effective approach combines:
Select one:
A.
rewards, sanctions, and provision of moisturized soaps.
B.
automated sinks and provision of moisturized soaps.
C.
continuous performance feedback with appropriate rewards and sanctions.
D.
education, reminders, and continuous performance feedback.
This is a difficult question since the research on methods for improving hand hygiene (hand washing) among health care workers has not produced entirely consistent results.
a. Incorrect Rewards and punishments have not been found to be particularly effective. In one study, 79% of the health care workers surveyed reported that rewards and punishments would not improve hand washing [A. D. Harris et al., A survey on handwashing practices and opinions of healthcare workers, Journal of Hospital Infections, 45(4), 318-321, 2000].
b. Incorrect The research suggests that, while automated sinks may improve the quality of hand washing, they actually reduce the frequency of hand washing. There is also evidence that providing moisturized soap has little or no effect on hand-washing frequency.
c. Incorrect See explanation for responses a and d.
d. CORRECT Although the research on this issue has not provided consistent results, overall, it has shown that a multi-component approach that incorporates education is most effective. For example, based on their critical review of the literature, S. Naikoba and A. Hayward conclude that “multifaceted approaches which combine education with written materials, reminders, and continued feedback of performance can have an important effect on handwashing compliance and rates of hospital-acquired infection” (The effectiveness of interventions aimed at increasing handwashing in healthcare workers - a systematic review, Journal of Hospital Infection, 47, 173-180, 2001).
The correct answer is: education, reminders, and continuous performance feedback.
In his study on the effects of therapy fees on satisfaction with therapy, a social psychologist finds that clients who have to work overtime or get a second job to pay for therapy generally express greater satisfaction than wealthy clients, clients whose insurance covers most of their fee, or clients who are receiving therapy for free or at low cost. This finding provides support for which of the following?
Select one:
A.
the overjustification hypothesis
B.
cognitive dissonance theory
C.
the approach-avoidance conflict
D.
equity theory
The results of the study indicate that people who “struggle” for therapy say it gives them greater satisfaction.
a. Incorrect The overjustification hypothesis is used to explain why intrinsic motivation decreases after external rewards have been applied.
b. CORRECT This finding is consistent with other research on cognitive dissonance, including studies showing that students say they like a dull club more when they have experienced a difficult initiation.
c. Incorrect The approach-avoidance conflict doesn’t really fit the situation described in this question.
d. Incorrect Equity theory makes predictions about how people perform in situations they perceive to be either equitable or inequitable.
The correct answer is: cognitive dissonance theory
The basic assumptions and procedures of motivational interviewing (Miller & Rollnick, 1991) were derived from:
Select one:
A.
Sullivan’s interpersonal therapy and Bandura’s notion of self-efficacy.
B.
Sullivan’s interpersonal therapy and Meyer’s psychobiological approach.
C.
Rogers’ person-centered therapy and Maslow’s need hierarchy.
D.
Rogers’ person-centered therapy and Bandura’s notion of self-efficacy.
As its name implies, motivational interviewing was developed for clients who are ambivalent about changing their behavior.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for resposne d.
d. CORRECT As noted in the Clinical Psychology chapter of the written study materials, motivational interviewing stresses therapist empathy, reflective listening, and responding to a client’s resistance in a nonconfrontational way and addresses the client’s beliefs about his/her ability to change.
The correct answer is: Rogers’ person-centered therapy and Bandura’s notion of self-efficacy.
Dr. Bekke, a cognitive-behavioral therapist, is most likely to rely on which of the following when working with a client exhibiting symptoms of PTSD after exposure to a life-threatening traumatic event?
Select one:
A.
exposure and cognitive restructuring
B.
applied relaxation and overcorrection
C.
self-monitoring and self-control desensitization
D.
covert sensitization and stress inoculation
Answer A is correct: The treatment-of-choice for PTSD is a comprehensive cognitive-behavioral intervention that incorporates exposure, cognitive restructuring, and anxiety management or similar techniques.
Answers B, C, and D: See explanation for answer A.
The correct answer is: exposure and cognitive restructuring
A college freshman is being pressured by his parents to make a career choice and choose a college major. The young man is leaning toward a career in agriculture, but both of his parents are accountants and they want him to choose accounting so that he can eventually take over the family business. In terms of Marcia’s “identity statuses,” if the young man acquiesces to his parents’ wishes, this will represent:
Select one:
A.
moratorium.
B.
diffusion.
C.
foreclosure.
D.
pseudo-achievement.
Marcia (1980) distinguished between four identity statuses: diffusion, foreclosure, moratorium, and achievement. Information about these statuses is provided in the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Identity-foreclosed individuals have made a commitment to an identity that has been imposed by parents or other authority figures.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: foreclosure.
The final group product is most affected by the performance of the member who makes the smallest contribution on which type of task?
Select one:
A.
compensatory
B.
disjunctive
C.
conjunctive
D.
additive
As noted in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials, group tasks can be describd as compensatory, disjunctive, conjunctive, or additive.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT On a conjunctive task, the group product is limited by the contribution of the worst-performing member.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: conjunctive
When excellent performance on one measure can offset poor performance on another measure, which of the following techniques would be most useful for combining test scores?
Select one:
A.
multiple regression
B.
multiple cutoff
C.
multiple hurdle
D.
multiple baseline
This question describes a situation in which a compensatory technique would be the preferred technique for combining test scores.
a. CORRECT Multiple regression is a compensatory technique for combining test scores since a low score on one test can be offset (compensated for) by high scores on other tests.
b. Incorrect Multiple cutoff is a noncompensatory technique.
c. Incorrect Multiple hurdle is also a noncompensatory technique.
d. Incorrect “Multiple baseline” refers to a research design, not a method for combining test scores.
The correct answer is: multiple regression
Which of the following is an example of cultural encapsulation?
Select one:
A.
A client belonging to a minority group cannot separate problems due to individual factors from those related to oppression.
B.
A White male therapist doesn’t recognize that he interprets clients’ problems from his own cultural worldview.
C.
A young woman’s conflict is related to her inability to separate from the values, attitudes, and expectations of her immigrant parents.
D.
A therapist tends to view all problems of minority clients as due to factors inherent to the client’s cultural background.
The term cultural encapsulation was used by Wrenn (1985) to describe the characteristics of a therapist who is “encapsulated” within his/her dominant culture.
a. Incorrect See explanation to response b.
b. CORRECT Culturally encapsulated therapists not only view clients’ problems through the filter of their own culture but are also unaware of doing so.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: A White male therapist doesn’t recognize that he interprets clients’ problems from his own cultural worldview.
The results of the Stroop Color-Word Association Test provide information on the examinee’s:
Select one:
A.
visual-motor integration.
B.
working memory.
C.
field dependence/independence.
D.
response inhibition.
The Stroop Color-Word Association Test was developed as a measure of response inhibition.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT When administering the Stroop Test, the examinee is presented with a list of color names that are printed in different colors (e.g., the word “red” might be printed in blue ink), and the examinee must say the color of the ink (“blue”). Because the printed name is the prepotent response, this test provides information on response inhibition.
The correct answer is: response inhibition.
An 11-year-old loves playing the piano and does so for at least one hour a day. His parents have begun to reward him for doing so by giving him a dollar for each 30 minutes that he practices and find that this increases the amount of time he spends playing the piano each day. Subsequently, the child’s parents decide to discontinue the reward. Research by Lepper, Greene, and Nisbett (1973) suggests that, once the parents discontinue the reward, which of the following will occur:
Select one:
A.
the child will continue playing the piano at the increased rate.
B.
the child will go back to playing the piano at the pre-reward rate.
C.
the child will play the piano at a rate less than the pre-reward rate.
D.
the child will initially play the piano at a reduced rate but will eventually go back to the pre-reward rate.
Research by M. R. Lepper, D. Greene, and R. E. Nisbett (1973) provided support for the overjustification hypothesis.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT The overjustification hypothesis predicts that providing an extrinsic reward for an activity that is intrinsically motivating will reduce intrinsic motivation. Consequently, when the extrinsic reward is discontinued, interest (and participation) in the activity will decline to a level below the pre-extrinsic reward level.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: the child will play the piano at a rate less than the pre-reward rate.
__________ is the most frequent cause of the ethical complaints brought against psychotherapy supervisors.
Select one:
A.
Sexual harassment
B.
Breach of confidentiality
C.
Lack of timely feedback
D.
Incompetence
There is very little empirical research on supervision, and many of the conclusions drawn in the literature seem to be based on anecdotal evidence.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Since the primary purpose of supervision is to provide supervisees with feedback about their performance, it makes sense that this would be the most frequently cited problem. See, e.g., N. Ladany, D. Lehrman-Waterman, M. Molinaro, & B. Wolgast, Psychotherapy supervisor ethical practices: Adherence to guidelines, the supervisory working alliance, and supervisee satisfaction, The Counseling Psychologist, 27(3), 443-475, 1999.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: Lack of timely feedback
Richard Stuart’s operant interpersonal therapy combines the principles of operant conditioning with:
Select one:
A.
social role theory.
B.
social constructionism.
C.
object relations theory.
D.
social exchange theory.
Stuart describes successful marriages as involving a high degree of reciprocal positive behavioral exchanges.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT A primary influence on Stuart’s approach to behavioral marital therapy was social exchange theory, which conceptualizes satisfaction in relationships in terms of cost-reward ratios.
The correct answer is: social exchange theory.
For a DSM-5 diagnosis of Schizophrenia or Schizophreniform Disorder, an individual must exhibit at least two characteristic symptoms during a one-month period, one of which must be:
Select one:
A.
derealization or depersonalization.
B.
disorganized speech or disorganized behavior.
C.
delusions, hallucinations, or a negative symptom.
D.
delusions, hallucinations, or disorganized speech.
Answer D is correct: A diagnosis of Schizophrenia requires the presence of at least two characteristic symptoms during a one-month period with at least one symptom being delusions, hallucinations, or disorganized speech plus continuous signs of the disturbance for at least six months. A diagnosis of Schizophreniform Disorder has the same requirements except that the duration of the disturbance must be for at least one month but less than six months.
Answers A, B, and C: See explanation for answer D.
The correct answer is: delusions, hallucinations, or disorganized speech.
In a research study, an investigator interested in the genetic contributors to suicide compares certain demographic, behavioral, and genetic characteristics of a sample of psychiatric patients who attempted suicide in the past month with the characteristics of the first degree and second degree biological relatives of the psychiatric patients and with “healthy controls” (non-patients). The probands in this study are the:
Select one:
A.
psychiatric patients.
B.
third-degree relatives.
C.
first-degree relatives.
D.
first- and second-degree relatives.
Answer A is correct: In research, probands (also known as index cases) are the first individuals who are brought to the attention of the investigator - i.e., the people who are manifesting the disease or other characteristics of interest. The psychiatric patients who attempted suicide in the past month are the probands in this study.
The correct answer is: psychiatric patients.
A solution-focused therapist is working with a husband and wife whose conversations frequently escalate to bitter fights. The therapist will most likely:
Select one:
A.
reduce tension during therapy sessions by having the husband and wife talk directly to her rather than to each other.
B.
instruct the couple to take a ten-minute “time-out” whenever they begin to argue at home.
C.
ask the couple if they can remember a time when they were able to talk for an extended period without arguing.
D.
ask the couple what rewards they derive from arguing.
As its name implies, solution-focused therapy focuses on solutions rather than problems.
a. Incorrect This sounds more like the approach a Bowenian family therapist would adopt.
b. Incorrect This isn’t characteristic of the solution-focused approach.
c. CORRECT Solution-focused therapists use “exceptions” to help identify solutions to a client’s problems. An exception is a time when the problem did not exist or existed in a less intense form.
d. Incorrect This is not characteristic of this approach.
The correct answer is: ask the couple if they can remember a time when they were able to talk for an extended period without arguing.
Dr. Ralph R. is presenting a workshop on reducing anxiety and tells the editor of a community newsletter that she can participate for free if she puts an article about the workshop in the newsletter. From an ethical perspective, this arrangement is:
Select one:
A.
acceptable as long as the arrangement doesn’t adversely affect the editor’s ability to benefit from the workshop.
B.
acceptable as long as the article provides accurate information about the workshop.
C.
unacceptable because it constitutes bartering of services, which are prohibited by ethical guidelines.
D.
unacceptable because psychologists are prohibited by ethical guidelines from compensating employees of any communication media for publicity in a news item.
This issue is explicitly addressed in Standard 5.02(b) of the APA’s Ethics Code and indirectly addressed in Principle III.31 of the Canadian Code of Ethics.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
c. Incorrect Bartering of services is not necessarily prohibited by the Ethics Code but the specific type of exchange described in this question is prohibited, which is why answer d is the best response.
d. CORRECT Standard 5.02(b) prohibits psychologists from compensating employees of the press, radio, or other commmunication media for providing publicity in a news items about the psychologist or his/her work.
The correct answer is: unacceptable because psychologists are prohibited by ethical guidelines from compensating employees of any communication media for publicity in a news item.
You saw a family in therapy for several months but they terminated when the husband and wife decided to get a divorce. Now, two months later, you are being asked to conduct an evaluation of the husband for a custody hearing. Your best course of action is to:
Select one:
A.
do so but avoid making a recommendation without evaluating all members of the family.
B.
do so only with the consent of both parents.
C.
do so only if you believe you can remain unbiased.
D.
not conduct the evaluation.
This issue is addressed by ethical guidelines that require psychologists to avoid multiple relationships.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT This issue is addressed, for example, in Guideline 7 of the Guidelines for Child Custody Evaluations in Family Law Proceedings, which states that “psychologists strive to avoid conflicts of interest and multiple relationships in conducting evaluations.”
The correct answer is: not conduct the evaluation.
A primary distinction between Freud and those psychologists who are collectively identified as “neo-Freudians” (e.g., Fromm, Horney, and Sullivan) is that the latter:
Select one:
A.
emphasized the “innate wisdom” of the individual.
B.
placed greater emphasis on the ego functions and the impact of social influences.
C.
extended the number of and placed greater emphasis on instinctual (unconscious) forces.
D.
adopted a teleological approach that viewed behavior as being “pulled” rather than “pushed.”
The neo-Freudians adopted many of Freud’s basic assumptions about personality development but placed less emphasis on id functions and greater emphasis on the functions of the ego.
a. Incorrect This best describes Carl Rogers’ view of personality.
b. CORRECT Fromm, for example, viewed the individual as the product of social forces, and Sullivan emphasized the interpersonal aspects of behavior.
c. Incorrect The “instinctual forces” are governed by the id. As noted above, the neo-Freudians placed greater emphasis on the ego functions.
d. Incorrect This describes Alfred Adler’s personality theory. Although Adler is sometimes categorized as a neo-Freudian, his approach differs substantially from that of other neo-Freudians and, therefore, this is not the best answer.
The correct answer is: placed greater emphasis on the ego functions and the impact of social influences.
Bill B., a 26-year old small business owner, has trouble completing tasks at home and work, frequently “blows his fuse” at family members and employees, and has his wife do all the paperwork at the office because he doesn’t have the patience for it. His wife says Bill never listens to her and often does things without thinking about the consequences. When asked about his past, Bill says that he often got in trouble while he was in school. He frequently got into fights and, in high school, was arrested several times for drugs and drunk driving. All through school, his teachers said he wasn’t living up to his potential. Although Bill no longer uses illegal drugs, he often drinks heavily on weekends. Based on these symptoms, the most likely diagnosis for Bill is:
Select one:
A.
Antisocial Personality Disorder.
B.
Adult Antisocial Behavior.
C.
ADHD.
D.
Bipolar I Disorder.
Answer C is correct: Bill’s childhood history of problem behaviors and his current attention difficulties and impulsivity are most suggestive of ADHD.
Answer A: For a diagnosis of Antisocial Personality Disorder, there should be a current pattern of antisocial behavior.
Answer B: Adult Antisocial Behavior is included in the DSM with Other Conditions That May Be a Focus of Clinical Attention and applies when the individual exhibits antisocial behavior that is not meet the diagnostic criteria for Antisocial Personality Disorder or other mental disorder.
Answer D: The continuous and long-term nature of Bill’s symptoms are more suggestive of ADHD than Bipolar I Disorder.
The correct answer is: ADHD.
As used by Lorenz (1965), the term “critical period” refers to:
Select one:
A.
the period from ages three to six months during which the basic structure of the personality is formed.
B.
periods when the infant shows predictable “growth spurts.”
C.
the third trimester when the brain is at greatest vulnerability to structural damage.
D.
a period shortly after birth during which an infant ordinarily bonds with its mother.
The term “critical period” refers to a period when a specific experience will have its greatest impact on development. Lorenz applied the term to the period during which geese bond with (imprint on) their mothers.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
d. CORRECT Lorenz found that the “critical period” for imprinting in geese is 2-3 days after birth. In other words, geese will stay close (attach) to stimuli that they are exposed to two to three days after birth. Research investigating the existence of a similar critical period in humans has been inconclusive.
The correct answer is: a period shortly after birth during which an infant ordinarily bonds with its mother.
Constructional apraxia is caused by damage to the:
Select one:
A.
corpus callosum.
B.
parietal lobe.
C.
basal ganglia.
D.
temporal lobe.
Constructional apraxia is characterized by an inability to copy or draw figures or to arrange blocks in a pattern.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Apraxia involves an inability to perform skilled movements that are not due to muscle weakness, sensory loss, general intellectual deterioration, or lack of cooperation. Most forms of apraxia (including constructional apraxia) are caused by damage to the parietal lobe.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: parietal lobe.
A meta-analysis of the research conducted by Roberts, Walton, and Viechtbauer (2006) found that scores on which of the following personality traits continue to increase into later adulthood?
Select one:
A.
agreeableness and conscientiousness
B.
neuroticism and social vitality
C.
social vitality and agreeableness
D.
openness to experience and conscientiousness
The results of Roberts, Walton, and Viechtbauer’s (2006) meta-analysis is summarized in the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials.
a. CORRECT These investigators found that agreeableness, conscientiousness, social dominance, and emotional stability continue to increase over the lifespan.
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: agreeableness and conscientiousness
In a research study, each participant was given a vague description of themselves that was supposedly based on an analysis of his/her handwriting. In fact, all participants received the same randomly derived description. When asked about the accuracy of the description, the majority of participants agreed that it was “highly accurate.” These results support the predictions of which of the following?
Select one:
A.
self-serving bias
B.
looking-glass self
C.
Barnum effect
D.
Zeigarnik effect
A study similar to the one described in this question was conducted by Dickson and Kelly (1985).
a. Incorrect The self-serving bias is the tendency to take credit for our successes but blame external events for our failures.
b. Incorrect The looking-glass self predicts that people learn about themselves by imagining how others perceive them.
c. CORRECT The Barnum effect predicts that people tend to accept vague or general descriptions of themselves as accurate descriptions. It has been used to explain why people believe that astrological predictions or descriptions are perceived as accurate by many people.
d. Incorrect The Zeigarnik effect refers to the tendency to recall goals or tasks that have not been completed more readily (often automatically and in an intrusive way) than those that have been completed.
The correct answer is: Barnum effect
The __________ is best described as the “gateway to memory” because of its involvement in the storage of new information.
Select one:
A.
hippocampus
B.
hypothalamus
C.
thalamus
D.
R.A.S.
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the major functions of the brain structures listed in the answers to this question.
a. CORRECT Damage to the hippocampus is associated with memory impairments, especially impairments in retaining recently acquired information.
b. Incorrect The hypothalamus is involved in a number of important functions including the maintenance of the body’s internal balance (homeostasis).
c. Incorrect The thalamus relays sensory messages to the cortex.
d. Incorrect The reticular activating system (RAS) is involved in arousing the cortex and screening incoming information.
The correct answer is: hippocampus
Renee R., age 16, is brought to therapy by her mother who says the girl has recently become “another person.” She says her daughter used to be easy-going and was well-liked at school by her peers and teachers. However, for about the last three weeks, Renee has been constantly irritable and “on the go,” has been smoking and drinking, and has started having trouble at school. When the therapist interviews Renee, he learns that she is engaging in high-risk sexual behavior but feels that nothing bad can happen to her. Based on these symptoms, the most likely diagnosis is:
Select one:
A.
ADHD.
B.
Cyclothymic Disorder.
C.
Bipolar I Disorder.
D.
Bipolar II Disorder.
Answer C is correct: The sudden change in Renee’s behavior and the nature and duration of her symptoms are most suggestive of a manic episode. Bipolar I Disorder requires the presence of one or more manic episodes.
Answer A: Although some of the girl’s symptoms are consistent with ADHD in adolescence, a diagnosis of this disorder requires an onset of symptoms prior to age 12.
Answer B: Cyclothymic Disorder requires fluctuating hypomanic and depressive symptoms for at least one year in children and adolescents.
Answer D: Bipolar II disorder is characterized by a combination of major depressive and hypomanic episodes.
The correct answer is: Bipolar I Disorder.
In therapy, an object relations family therapist would be most interested in which of the following?
Select one:
A.
distinguishing between positive and negative connotations
B.
integrating attitudes, feelings, and behaviors
C.
interpreting focused and contextual transferences
D.
expanding awareness and self-responsibility
Object relations family therapy is a psychodynamic approach and relies on many of the techniques associated with psychodynamic psychotherapy
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT D. E. Scharff and J. S. Scharff note that addressing transferences and countertransferences is a primary focus of object relations family therapy (Object relations family therapy, Northvale, NJ, Jason Aronson, 1991). These authors also distinguish between two types of transference - focused and contextual - and state that the latter is particularly important in family therapy.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: interpreting focused and contextual transferences
In group therapy, members establish a “taking turns” pattern in which each group session is devoted, sequentially, to each group member. In response to this situation, Yalom (1985) recommends:
Select one:
A.
mass group interpretation.
B.
here-and-now activation.
C.
paradoxical prescription.
D.
reframing.
In his book, The Theory and Practice of Group Psychotherapy, Yalom refers to the situation described in this question as an example of antitherapeutic group norms.
a. CORRECT Yalom considers such turn-taking as an obstacle to group therapy (e.g., because it may force some members to self-disclose prematurely) and recommends that it be dealt with through the use of mass group interpretation. This involves discussing the problem and its potential for negative effects on group members and the group process.
b. Incorrect Here-and-now activation is a technique advocated by Yalom, but it is not relevant to the situation described in the question. (Here-and-now activation is useful when a group member is focusing on past events in his/her life.)
c. Incorrect The use of paradoxical prescription is not something that is advocated by Yalom for this type of situation.
d. Incorrect Reframing is not a technique advocated by Yalom for this type of situation.
The correct answer is: mass group interpretation.
Because of its potentially damaging effects on therapy outcome, an important issue in therapy is premature termination. Studies examining client and therapist factors related to therapy dropout have indicated all of the following EXCEPT:
Select one:
A.
a client’s socioeconomic status is correlated with length of stay in treatment.
B.
the greater the therapist’s experience, the lower the premature dropout rate.
C.
there is no relationship between a client’s gender and the probability of premature termination.
D.
a client with high initial anxiety is more likely to drop out of therapy prematurely.
Although most research on therapy outcome has yielded inconclusive results, a few factors have been consistently linked to premature termination. Note that this question is asking about the factor that has NOT been linked with premature dropout from therapy.
a. Incorrect This is true. A number of studies have found premature termination rates to be higher among members of the lower socioeconomic classes.
b. Incorrect This is also true.
c. Incorrect This is true.
d. CORRECT This is the opposite of what is true: Clients with high levels of initial anxiety are most likely to stay in therapy.
The correct answer is: a client with high initial anxiety is more likely to drop out of therapy prematurely.
