Exam Simulation (Accommodations): Test 2 Flashcards
According to Erikson, ________ is the basic strength associated with the ego integrity vs. despair stage of psychosocial development.
Select one:
A.
courage
B.
fidelity
C.
wisdom
D.
care
Erikson distinguished between eight stages of psychosocial development and defined positive outcomes for each stage in terms of one or more basic strengths.
a. Incorrect Courage is a basic strength of the autonomy vs. shame stage.
b. Incorrect Fidelity is a basic strength of the identity vs. role confusion stage.
c. CORRECT Wisdom is the basic strength associated with the final ego integrity vs. despair stage of development.
d. Incorrec Care is a basic strength of the generativity vs. stagnation stage.
The correct answer is: wisdom
Which of the following is NOT a DSM-5 diagnostic criterion for Bulimia Nervosa?
Select one:
A.
Binges are accompanied by a sense of a lack of control over eating.
B.
Binges are accompanied by inappropriate compensatory behaviors to prevent weight gain.
C.
People with this disorder have an intense fear of gaining weight and becoming fat.
D.
The self-esteem of people with this disorder is unduly affected by their body shape and weight.
Answer C is correct: Intense fear of gaining weight and becoming fat is a diagnostic criterion for Anorexia Nervosa but not for Bulimia Nervosa.
Answers A, B, and D: See explanation for answer C.
The correct answer is: People with this disorder have an intense fear of gaining weight and becoming fat.
When taking a practice test in preparation for the licensing exam, your performance on the test is least likely to be adversely affected by:
Select one:
A.
a loudly ticking clock.
B.
the stereo that you’re too lazy to turn off.
C.
neighbors arguing in the apartment next door.
D.
a thunderstorm.
Responses to different kinds of noise vary from individual to individual, but the research has revealed some consistencies.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Noise that can be controlled (stopped) has less adverse effects on task performance even when it is not actually terminated. Apparently it is the sense of control over the noise that is the important factor. Intermittent noises and noises unrelated to the task are likely to have a negative effect.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: the stereo that you’re too lazy to turn off.
When treating a patient with Delirium, a priority is to identify and then treat or remove its cause. In addition, it is important to:
Select one:
A.
make sure that the patient is provided with adequate stimulation.
B.
keep the patient in a quiet room where he/she can be monitored by a family or staff member.
C.
administer a neuroleptic to reduce the patient’s disorientation and agitation.
D.
make sure family members and friends visit regularly.
Answer B is correct: Delirium is characterized by disorientation and confusion, so an important goal is provide an environment that decreases disorientation. For example, it is important to reduce distractions and to provide a quiet, well-lit room and constant monitoring.
Answer A: Although “adequate stimulation” could be taken to mean stimulation that is appropriate for a disoriented state, this response is too vague and not as good as answer B.
Answer C: Neuroleptics may or may not be appropriate, depending on the cause of the Delirium.
Answer D: With a delirious patient, you want to provide a consistent environment, so regular visits by different people would probably be contraindicated.
The correct answer is: keep the patient in a quiet room where he/she can be monitored by a family or staff member.
When a woman experiences chronic stress and anxiety during her pregnancy, there is a greater risk for all of the following except:
Select one:
A.
premature birth of the infant.
B.
a greater number of delivery complications.
C.
an infant with lower-than-normal levels of activity.
D.
an infant with more feeding and sleep problems than normal.
Maternal stress is one of a number of prenatal environmental factors that influences child development. Others include maternal health, diet, and drug use.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT High levels of maternal stress during pregnancy is associated with prematurity, abortion, delivery complications, infants who are hyperactive and irritable, and infants who have feeding and sleep problems.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: an infant with lower-than-normal levels of activity.
You are conducting a multiple regression analysis and find that one of your predictors has a negative regression coefficient. This means that:
Select one:
A.
you should eliminate that predictor from the regression equation.
B.
the predictor has an inverse relationship with the criterion.
C.
the predictor is uncorrelated with the other predictors included in the analysis.
D.
you have made a mistake in your data entry or calculations.
The size and sign of a predictor’s regression coefficient are related to the nature of the correlation between the predictor and criterion.
a. Incorrect A negative sign does not mean there is anything wrong with the predictor.
b. CORRECT A negative sign means that there is an inverse (negative) correlation between the predictor and the criterion.
c. Incorrect This is not implied by a negative regression coefficient.
d. Incorrect A negative regression coefficient is a possibility and, therefore, is not necessarily indicative of a data entry or calculation error.
The correct answer is: the predictor has an inverse relationship with the criterion.
A practitioner of Beck’s cognitive-behavioral therapy adopts the role of ___________ when working with therapy clients.
Select one:
A.
supervisor
B.
teacher
C.
collaborator
D.
consultant
A key characteristic of Beck’s CBT is its emphasis on the active participation of the client.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Beck refers to his therapeutic approach as “collaborative empiricism,” in part, because the client is encouraged to be actively engaged in the therapeutic process - i.e., to collaborate with the therapist in defining goals, evaluating the progress of therapy, and so on.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: collaborator
The primary purpose of “informed consent” is best defined as:
Select one:
A.
providing a client with the information needed to make a reasonable decision about the services offered.
B.
providing a client with information about the particular situations in which confidentiality may be breached.
C.
ensuring that a client is provided with appropriate and adequate services.
D.
protecting the practitioner from malpractice claims.
An informed consent should be obtained prior to providing psychological services to an individual and prior to a subject’s participation in research.
a. CORRECT This question is pretty straightforward. The goal of an informed consent is to protect the recipient of psychological services (or subjects in research studies) by providing them with the information they need to make an informed decision about whether or not to participate.
b. Incorrect Although this is one of the functions of an informed consent, this is not as good a description as response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: providing a client with the information needed to make a reasonable decision about the services offered.
Lithium is often the treatment-of-choice for mania, with the research indicating that 80% of patients have a favorable response to it. In recent years, however, there has been increasing interest in prescribing __________, which seem to be as effective as lithium for controlling acute manic states and stabilizing mood.
Select one:
A.
SSRIs
B.
antipsychotic drugs
C.
benzodiazepines
D.
anticonvulsant medications
Although lithium has been the standard treatment for Bipolar Disorder to reduce mania and mood fluctuations, alternative drugs have been found to be similarly effective.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Of the drugs listed, only anticonvulsant drugs (especially carbamazapine and valproate) have been found to be comparable to lithium in their beneficial effects.
The correct answer is: anticonvulsant medications
As defined by Piaget, egocentrism during the preoperational stage of cognitive development is a manifestation of:
Select one:
A.
primary circular reactions.
B.
transduction.
C.
horizontal decalage.
D.
centration.
Piaget distinguished between four stages of cognitive development. The preoperational stage extends from ages 3 to 6 years.
a. Incorrect Primary circular reactions are characteristic of babies between the ages of 1 and 4 months and involve the repetition of pleasurable actions.
b. Incorrect Transductive thinking is characteristic of the preoperational stage. However, as defined by Piaget, it refers to reasoning characterized by a tendency to move from one particular case to another particular case without taking the general into account (e.g., I had bad thoughts about my mom; she got sick; therefore, my thoughts made her sick).
c. Incorrect Horizontal decalage refers to the inability to transfer one type of conservation to another (e.g., the conservation of substance to weight or volume).
d. CORRECT Knowing that Piaget described centration as a primary limitation of the preoperational stage would have helped you identify this as the correct answer. Piaget believed that egocentrism is a form of centration - i.e., young children cannot take into account their own point of view and the point of view of another person at the same time.
The correct answer is: centration.
An assumption underlying item response theory is that the standard error of measurement:
Select one:
A.
is larger for shorter tests than for longer tests.
B.
is larger for examinees with average ability.
C.
is larger for examinees with very high or very low ability.
D.
is not affected by the test length or the ability level of the examinees.
Item response theory (IRT) differs from classical test theory in terms of several assumptions.
a. Incorrect One difference between IRT and classical test theory is that IRT assumes that, when certain conditions are met, shorter tests can be more reliable than longer tests.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Classical test theory is based on the assumption that the standard error of measurement is a constant that applies to all examinees, regardless of their level of ability. In contrast, IRT is based on the assumption that the standard error of measurement increases at the extremes of a distribution – i.e., is larger for individuals with very high or low ability than for those with average ability. See, e.g., R. J. Gregory, Psychological testing: History, principles, and applications, Boston, Pearson Education Group, 2004.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: is larger for examinees with very high or very low ability.
As part of a peer review, an insurance company requests that you provide it with information about a client whose fee is being paid in part by the insurance company. In this situation, you should:
Select one:
A.
release information to the company only after determining that company personnel are aware of the importance of maintaining the clients confidentiality.
B.
release information to the company only after obtaining a waiver from the client.
C.
release information to the company as requested since regulations regarding client confidentiality do not apply to this situation.
D.
refuse to release information to the company.
A psychologist is required to provide the requested information for peer reviews.
a. CORRECT Of the answers given, this is the best one. Although psychologists are required to provide an insurance company with the information it has requested for a peer review, the best course of action would be to remind the company of the need to maintain the information in a way that will minimize violations of the client’s confidentiality.
b. Incorrect In this situation, you do not need to obtain a release from the client.
c. Incorrect A psychologist’s legal and ethical obligations related to client confidentiality are not entirely waived for peer reviews.
d. Incorrect As noted above, psychologists are required to provide requested information for peer reviews.
The correct answer is: release information to the company only after determining that company personnel are aware of the importance of maintaining the clients confidentiality.
Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder and Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder share which of the following symptoms?
Select one:
A.
prominent obsessions
B.
repetitive rituals
C.
risk aversion
D.
emotional rigidity
Answer B is correct: Both disorders involve rituals, but the goal of rituals is different for OCD and OCPD. In OCD, rituals are performed to reduce anxiety; in OCPD, rituals are related to perfectionism.
Answer A: Prominent obsessions are characteristic of OCD but not OCPD.
Answer C: Risk aversion is not a characteristic shared by the two disorders.
Answer D: Emotional rigidity is not a characteristic shared by OCD and OCPD.
The correct answer is: repetitive rituals
Which of the following best describes research findings on the impact of serotonin levels on the eating behaviors of individuals with an Eating Disorder?
Select one:
A.
Low levels of serotonin are believed to precipitate binge eating in Bulimia and starvation in Anorexia.
B.
High levels of serotonin are believed to precipitate binge eating in Bulimia and starvation in Anorexia.
C.
High levels of serotonin are believed to precipitate starvation in Anorexia while low levels are believed to precipitate binge eating in Bulimia.
D.
Low levels of serotonin are believed to precipitate starvation in Anorexia while high levels are believed to precipitate binge eating in Bulimia.
Answer C is correct: High levels of serotonin have been linked to both appetite suppression and anxiety. Reduced caloric intake by those with Anorexia apparently fosters a sense of calm and personal control by lowering serotonin levels. Low levels of serotonin have been linked to depression and apparently contribute to binge eating in Bulimia - i.e., bingeing on sweets and carbohydrates increases serotonin levels and thereby elevates mood.
Answers A, B, and D: See explanation for answer C.
The correct answer is: High levels of serotonin are believed to precipitate starvation in Anorexia while low levels are believed to precipitate binge eating in Bulimia.
After a training program has been administered to employees, an organizational psychologist wants to determine if the instruction met its objectives in terms of the employees’ on-the-job performance. What type of evaluation will he conduct?
Select one:
A.
summative
B.
formative
C.
primary
D.
secondary
Program evaluations are usually conducted both while the program is being developed and after the program has been implemented.
a. CORRECT A summative evaluation is conducted after the administration of a program to determine if the program’s goals have been achieved.
b. Incorrect Formative evaluations are conducted during the development of a program to determine whether the program should be altered to improve its effectiveness.
c. Incorrect This is a distractor term.
d. Incorrect This is a distractor term.
The correct answer is: summative
Many antipsychotic drugs are believed to exert their therapeutic effects primarily by blocking dopamine receptors (especially D2 receptors) in the brain. An exception is:
Select one:
A.
haloperidol.
B.
fluphenazine.
C.
chlorpromazine.
D.
clozapine.
Of the antipsychotic drugs listed in the responses, only one is considered to be atypical because of its effects on the nervous system.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Clozapine seems to have limited effects on D2 receptors and, instead, affects D4 and other dopamine receptors as well as serotonin and glutamate receptors.
The correct answer is: clozapine.
You conduct a research study to assess the effects of T.V. violence on aggressive behavior. The study will take place over three consecutive weeks. During the first week, you will observe 20 children during recess for five consecutive days and calculate their average number of aggressive acts. During the second week, you will have all children observe aggressive T.V. programs for two hours on three separate days. Then, during the third week, you will again observe the children during recess for five days and calculate their average number of aggressive acts. The biggest threat to the internal validity of this study is:
Select one:
A.
carryover effects.
B.
statistical regression.
C.
selection.
D.
history.
Answer D is correct: In any single-group design involving a before and after comparison, change in status on the DV might be due to the intervention or to an external event that occurred at about the same time the intervention was applied. In other words, the study’s internal validity is threatened by history.
Answer A: Carryover effects are a problem when two or more levels of an IV are applied to the same participants.
Answer B: Statistical regression is a problem when the group or groups have been selected because of their extreme status on the DV or a related variable, which is not the case in this study.
Answer C: Selection is a problem in between-groups studies when participants cannot be randomly assigned to the different groups. This is a within-subjects study, so selection is not a threat.
The correct answer is: history.
A test developer would use Lord’s chi-square in order to:
Select one:
A.
compare the standard error of measurement for two different tests or test items.
B.
predict the number of people who are likely to answer a test item correctly.
C.
determine whether factors in a factor analysis are orthogonal or oblique.
D.
evaluate the differential item functioning of an item included in a test.
The chi-square test serves numerous functions.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT In the context of item response theory, differential item functioning (DIF) is another name for item bias and is occurring when one group responds differently to an item than another group even though both groups have similar levels of the latent trait (attribute) measured by the test. Several statistical techniques are used to evaluate DIF. Lord’s chi-square is one of these techniques.
The correct answer is: evaluate the differential item functioning of an item included in a test.
Leslie L., age 25, tells her therapist that she recently turned down a job promotion because it would require her to interact more with co-workers and she’s afraid of their criticism. She says she has one friend from high school that she spends some time with but hasn’t made any new friends because she’s always been shy and unpopular and people don’t seem to like her. Leslie says she spends a lot of time fantasizing about “Mr. Right.” Leslie’s symptoms are most suggestive of:
Select one:
A.
Schizoid Personality Disorder.
B.
Schizotypal Personality Disorder.
C.
Borderline Personality Disorder.
D.
Avoidant Personality Disorder.
Answer D is correct: Avoidant Personality Disorder is characterized by a pervasive pattern of social inhibition, feelings of inadequacy, and hypersensitivity to negative evaluation. People with this disorder avoid interpersonal contact because they fear criticism, but they desire intimacy and often fantasize about idealized relationships.
Answer A: People with Schizoid Personality Disorder are uninterested in interpersonal relationships and wouldn’t, for example, fantasize about “Mr. Right.”
Answer B: This woman is not exhibiting the kinds of oddities in behavior that are characteristic of Schizotypal Personality Disorder.
Answer C: A person with Borderline Personality Disorder exhibits instability in interpersonal relationships.
The correct answer is: Avoidant Personality Disorder.
In conflict resolution, the primary role of a mediator is to:
Select one:
A.
derive a workable solution to the problem that will be acceptable to all disputants.
B.
have disputants offer solutions and then choose the best one him/herself.
C.
help disputants consider alternative solutions to the problem.
D.
act as a “go-between” by working with each disputant individually.
Mediators facilitate the conflict resolution process. While they may offer suggestions, they do not determine the solution to a problem.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Disputants are often inflexible with regard to their own idea of the best solution to a problem, and an important task for a mediator is to increase disputants’ flexibility regarding alternatives. One way to achieve this goal is to suggest alternatives.
d. Incorrect A mediator may do this initially when conflict and hostility are high, but it’s only a temporary role and not a primary one.
The correct answer is: help disputants consider alternative solutions to the problem.
In infants, auditory localization is first apparent:
Select one:
A.
shortly after birth.
B.
between 3 and 4 months of age.
C.
between 6 and 7 months of age.
D.
between 8 and 9 months of age.
Auditory localization is the ability to orient toward the direction of a sound.
a. CORRECT Some auditory localization is evident soon after birth, but this ability seems to disappear between two and four months of age and then reappears and gradually improves during the first year of life.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: shortly after birth.
In terms of drug use, a person is exhibiting “habituation” when he/she:
Select one:
A.
has developed physical dependence on the drug.
B.
requires higher and higher doses of the drug to achieve the same effects.
C.
has a desire to continue using the drug with little or no desire to increase the amount of the drug.
D.
experiences reduced symptoms following cessation of the drug due to multiple withdrawal experiences.
Answer C is correct: The meaning of the term “habituation” depends on the context in which it is used. From the perspective of pharmacology, habituation occurs when repeated use of a drug results in a desire for continued use with little or no desire to increase the amount or dose of the drug and no physical dependence on the drug.
Answers A, B, and D: See explanation for answer C.
The correct answer is: has a desire to continue using the drug with little or no desire to increase the amount of the drug.
Test-score banding is used to:
Select one:
A.
alleviate criterion contamination.
B.
equate an examinees scores on different tests.
C.
facilitate criterion-referenced interpretation.
D.
reduce adverse impact.
Test-score banding is a method of score interpretation that involves considering people who obtain scores within a specific range (band) as having equivalent scores.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Banding has been identified as a method for reducing biases in testing that contribute to group differences in test scores. Its advocates argue that it is an effective way for reducing adverse impact.
The correct answer is: reduce adverse impact.
Parham and Helms (1990) developed an attitude measure of racial identity that assesses Cross’s four stages of African American identity development. Parham and Helms’ four stages are:
Select one:
A.
pre-encounter, encounter, resistance-immersion, and introspection.
B.
pre-encounter, encounter, immersion-emersion, and internalization.
C.
contact, disintegration, immersion-emersion, and autonomy.
D.
conformity, dissonance, resistance-immersion, introspection.
Answer B is correct. These are the four stages assessed by the Parham and Helms measure. For the exam, you want to be familiar with the four stages identified by Cross as well. These are described in the Clinical Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
The correct answer is: pre-encounter, encounter, immersion-emersion, and internalization.
A manager or consultant interested in maximizing her influence on employees should be aware that the productivity of employees is most likely to be positively affected if she relies on which bases of social power?
Select one:
A.
expert and informational
B.
informational and legitimate
C.
legitimate and referent
D.
expert and referent
French and Raven (1959) distinguished between six bases of social power: reward, coercive, legitimate, referent, informational, and expert.
a. Incorrect Expert power is important for a manager or consultant (see response d), but the problem with informational power is that, once the employee has the information, the manager or consultant would no longer have power.
b. Incorrect A person has legitimate power when he/she is accepted as the “boss” and informational power when he/she has needed information. Over the long-run, neither of these sources of power would be the most effective.
c. Incorrect Referent power is important (see response d), but legitimate power is not associated with increased productivity.
d. CORRECT Several authorities have suggested that incremental power (which is a combination of expert and referent power) is optimal for managers and consultants because it has the greatest positive effects on employee performance. A person has expert power when he/she has needed expertise and referent power when he/she is liked and respected.
The correct answer is: expert and referent
Outward signs of the self-conscious emotions of jealousy, empathy, and embarassment are first evident between ________ of age.
Select one:
A.
6 to 10 months
B.
10 to 18 months
C.
18 to 24 months
D.
24 to 30 months
It is not until the second year of life that children begin to exhibit outward signs of self-conscious emotions.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Jealousy, empathy, and embarassment are among the first self-conscious emotions exhibited by young children.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: 18 to 24 months
The correction for attenuation formula is useful for estimating the magnitude of a criterion measure’s validity coefficient if:
Select one:
A.
all sources of systematic error are controlled.
B.
criterion contamination is eliminated.
C.
measurement error is removed from the predictor and criterion.
D.
the range of criterion scores is unrestricted.
The correction for attenuation formula is used to estimate a test’s validity coefficient when the reliability coefficient for the predictor and/or criterion has been increased to 1.0.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Increasing the reliability coefficient to 1.0 means that measurement error has been entirely removed. The correction for attenuation formula, therefore, estimates the validity coefficient when measurement error in the predictor and/or the criterion has been eliminated.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: measurement error is removed from the predictor and criterion.
With regard to fees in forensic settings, the APA’s Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychology:
Select one:
A.
states that psychologists should avoid providing services to participants in a legal proceeding on the basis of “contingent fees.”
B.
states that psychologists should avoid providing services to participants in a legal proceeding on the basis of “contingent fees” except when those services are court-ordered.
C.
recommends that psychologists not provide services to participants involved in a legal proceeding on the basis of “contingent fees” except when such fees are compatible with current standards of practice.
D.
does not explicitly address the issue of providing services to participants in a legal proceeding on the basis of “contingent fees.”
Contingent fees are addressed in Paragraph 5.02 of Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychology (APA, 2012).
a. CORRECT Paragraph 5.02 states: “Because of the threat to impartiality presented by the acceptance of contingent fees and associated legal prohibitions, forensic practitioners strive to avoid providing professional services on the basis of contingent fees.”
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: states that psychologists should avoid providing services to participants in a legal proceeding on the basis of “contingent fees.”
Dr. Alicia Alvarez routinely administers the MMPI-2 as part of the initial evaluation of her adult therapy clients. She also uses the test data in her ongoing research study. This practice is:
Select one:
A.
unethical since this represents a conflict of interest.
B.
unethical unless she has obtained each client’s consent to participate in the research study.
C.
ethical as long as each client’s confidentiality is maintained.
D.
ethical as long as the study has been approved by the institutional review board.
The correct answer is B. This issue is addressed in Standard 9.03(a) of the APA’s Ethics Code. It would be necessary to obtain informed consent from the clients before conducting the assessment, and the consent must include “an explanation of the nature and purpose of the assessment.” In this situation, the clients apparently believe that they are being tested for diagnostic and treatment purposes and to use the test data for other reasons without their consent would be unethical.
The correct answer is: unethical unless she has obtained each client’s consent to participate in the research study.
With regard to terminating the life of an animal used in research, the ethics codes of the American and Canadian Psychological Associations:
Select one:
A.
prohibit this practice except in the “most unusual circumstances.”
B.
permit this practice only when the animal is experiencing pain as the result of the experimental procedures.
C.
permit this practice only with the approval of the institutional review board.
D.
permit this practice when it is done in a humane manner.
This issue is addressed by Standard 8.09(g) of the APA’s Ethics Code and Principle II.47 of the Canadian Code of Ethics.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Standard 8.09(g) of the APA’s Ethics Code states: “When it is appropriate that an animal’s life be terminated, psychologists proceed rapidly, with an effort to minimize pain and in accordance with accepted procedures.”
The correct answer is: permit this practice when it is done in a humane manner.
A psychologist is hired to develop a community program for seniors that will focus on maintaining social contacts and reducing the risk of social isolation. This program is an example of which of the following?
Select one:
A.
milestone prevention
B.
primary prevention
C.
secondary prevention
D.
tertiary prevention
In this situation, a program is being developed for a particular population rather than specific individuals from that population.
a. Incorrect Bloom (1968) distinguishes between community-wide, milestone, and high-risk preventions. Milestone programs are aimed at people experiencing a transition (e.g., retirement).
b. CORRECT Since this program is aimed at all seniors in the community, it is a primary prevention.
c. Incorrect A secondary prevention would be aimed at specific individuals who have been identified as being at high-risk. As originally defined, secondary prevention always involves some kind of screening process to identify individuals.
d. Incorrect A tertiary program is for people who have already suffered mental health problems. Its purpose is to reduce the risk for relapse or a continuation or worsening of the problem.
The correct answer is: primary prevention
When developing an achievement test, it is important to keep in mind that an average item difficulty index of _____ will help ensure that scores on the test are normally distributed and that discrimination between examinees with high and low ability will be maximized.
Select one:
A.
10
B.
1
C.
0.5
D.
0
The item difficulty index (p) ranges from 0 to 1.0, with 0 indicating a very easy item and 1.0 indicating a very difficult item.
c. CORRECT For most tests, an average item difficulty level of .50 (moderate difficulty) is preferred for several reasons including those listed in this question.
The correct answer is: 0.5
When an action potential occurs, a state of:
Select one:
A.
depolarization is created as positively charged ions enter the cell.
B.
depolarization is created as negatively charged ions enter the cell.
C.
polarization is created as positively charged ions enter the cell.
D.
polarization is created as negatively charged ions enter the cell.
An action potential is the electrical impulse that travels though a neuron.
a. CORRECT An action potential is generated by the movement of positively charged sodium ions into the cell, which creates a state of depolarization (i.e., the interior of the cell becomes less negative).
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: depolarization is created as positively charged ions enter the cell.
Bandura’s social learning theory implies that, in organizational settings, a training program will be most effective when:
Select one:
A.
it provides immediate rewards for achieving goals.
B.
trainees participate in defining the program’s goals.
C.
trainees possess prerequisite skills before training begins.
D.
models are clearly and consistently reinforced for successful performance.
Bandura has provided guidelines for applying social learning theory to the workplace. See, e.g., R. Wood and A. Bandura, Social cognitive theory of organizational management, Academy of Management Review, 13, 361-384, 1999).
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Bandura stresses the importance of (1) self-efficacy beliefs; (2) intrinsic motivation; (3) focusing on overt activities and behaviors; and (4) ensuring that people have prerequisite skills.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. (Note that Bandura’s research indicated that it is not always necessary for the model to be rewarded in order for an observer to imitate the model’s behavior.)
The correct answer is: trainees possess prerequisite skills before training begins.
Which of the following is not a rater bias?
Select one:
A.
strictness error
B.
central tendency bias
C.
floor effect
D.
halo effect
The accuracy of subjective rating scales is affected by the scale’s susceptibility to rater biases.
a. Incorrect Strictness error (bias) refers to the tendency to rate all ratees using the low end of the rating scale.
b. Incorrect A rater is exhibiting the central tendency bias when he/she rates all ratees using the middle of a rating scale.
c. CORRECT A floor effect is a characteristic of a measuring instrument (not a rater) and refers to the instrument’s inability to distinguish between people who have low levels of whatever is being measured by the instrument.
d. Incorrect A rater is exhibiting a halo effect when his/her evaluation of an employee on one dimension of performance affects the rater’s evaluation of that employee on other unrelated dimensions of performance.
The correct answer is: floor effect
Dr. Andy Amato works as a psychotherapist at a community mental health clinic and has just tested positive for the HIV virus. In terms of ethical requirements, Dr. Amato:
Select one:
A.
should inform his clients of his medical condition as soon as possible.
B.
should inform his clients and employer of his medical condition as soon as possible.
C.
should refrain from initiating any professional activities that might be adversely affected by his medical condition.
D.
is not obligated to take any particular action in this situation.
Standard 2.06 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Principle II.11 of the Canadian Code of Ethics for Psychologists apply to this situation.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT This answer is most consistent with ethical guidelines. For example, Standard 2.06 requires psychologists to “refrain from initiating an activity when they know or should know that there is a substantial likelihood that their personal problems will prevent them from performing their work-related activities in a competent manner.” Personal problems include health-related issues that might compromise a psychologist’s job performance.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: should refrain from initiating any professional activities that might be adversely affected by his medical condition.
In factor analysis, “rotating” the factors has which of the following effects?
Select one:
A.
It changes the factor loadings for the variables and the eigenvalue for each factor.
B.
It changes the factor loadings for the variables but does not change the eigenvalue for each factor.
C.
It changes the eigenvalue for each factor but does not change the factor loadings for the variables.
D.
It does not change the eigenvalue for each factor or the factor loadings for the variables.
The purpose of rotation in factor analysis is to facilitate interpretation of the factors.
a. CORRECT Rotation alters the factor loadings for each variable and the eigenvalue for each factor (although the total of the eigenvalues remains the same). Knowing that an eigenvalue indicates the amount of variability accounted for by each factor may have helped you identify the correct answer to this question – i.e., when the factor loadings change, the eigenvalues will also change.
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: It changes the factor loadings for the variables and the eigenvalue for each factor.
A diagnosis of Reactive Attachment Disorder cannot be assigned without the presence of which of the following?
Select one:
A.
evidence of extreme insufficient care
B.
developmentally inappropriate social relatedness that began prior to age 2
C.
a pattern of inappropriate social relatedness in at least two settings
D.
the presence of one or more developmental delays
Answer A is correct: Reactive Attachment Disorder is characterized by inappropriate social relatedness that is related to extreme insufficient (pathogenic) care.
Answer B: The diagnosis requires that symptoms begin prior to age 5 (not age 2).
Answer C: The diagnosis does not require signs of inappropriate social relatedness in at least two settings.
Answer D: Developmental delays are not required for the diagnosis.
The correct answer is: evidence of extreme insufficient care
Investigators have found that, after engaging in strenuous physical activity, research participants tend to get angrier when provoked by an insult and tend to be more romantically or sexually attracted when they meet a potential partner. These findings provide support for which of the following?
Select one:
A.
misattribution hypothesis
B.
confirmatory bias
C.
catharsis hypothesis
D.
psychological reactance
This question describes situations in which prior physiological arousal affects subsequent reactions. Of the theories listed, only one applies to this type of situation.
a. CORRECT You probably had trouble answering this question if you did not know that Schachter’s two-factor theory is also referred to as the misattribution hypothesis because it predicts that arousal produced by one source (e.g., strenuous physical activity) can be misattributed to another source (e.g., an insult or a potential romantic or sexual partner). In other words, the arousal gets “transferred” to another source. On the exam, you may encounter a few questions that use terms you are unfamiliar with; and, for those question, the process of elimination might help you identify the correct answer.
b. Incorrect The confirmatory bias (which is also known as the confirmation bias) predicts that people tend to seek or pay attention to information that confirms their current beliefs.
c. Incorrect The catharsis hypothesis predicts that an act of aggression reduces a person’s arousal level which, in turn, decreases the likelihood that he/she will act aggressively in the near future.
d. Incorrect Psychological reactance is the tendency of a person to resist being influenced by others (usually by doing the opposite of what is desired or expected) when the person believes that his/her personal freedom is being threatened.
The correct answer is: misattribution hypothesis
Following a stroke involving the middle cerebral artery in the right (non-dominant) hemisphere, a person is most likely to exhibit:
Select one:
A.
paralysis on the left side of his body and vision loss in his left visual field.
B.
paralysis on the left side of his body and global aphasia.
C.
paralysis on the right side of his body and visual agnosia.
D.
paralysis on the right side of his body and visual loss in his right visual field.
Knowing that the right hemisphere controls the left side of the body and the left visual field would have helped you choose the correct answer to this question.
a. CORRECT Damage to certain areas of the right hemisphere could cause paralysis on the left side of the body as well as vision loss involving the left visual field.
b. Incorrect In most people, language is mediated by the left hemisphere so that damage to the right hemisphere would not cause aphasia (language disturbances).
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: paralysis on the left side of his body and vision loss in his left visual field.
The diagnosis of Opioid Withdrawal requires the development of at least three characteristic symptoms following cessation or reduction of prolonged or heavy use of an opioid or administration of an opioid antagonist after a period of opioid use. Characteristic symptoms include all of the following except:
Select one:
A.
dysphoric mood.
B.
yawning.
C.
muscle aches.
D.
hallucinations or illusions.
Answer D is correct: Characteristic symptoms of Opioid Withdrawal include dysphoric mood, nausea or vomiting; muscle aches; lacrimation or rhinorrhea; pupillary dilation, piloerection, or sweating; diarrhea; yawning; fever; and insomnia. Hallucinations and illusions are not characteristic symptoms of this disorder.
Answers A, B, and C: See explanation for answer D.
The correct answer is: hallucinations or illusions.
The view that depression is the result of exposure to an aversive event coupled with the tendency to attribute negative events to personal, global, and stable factors is consistent with:
Select one:
A.
the reformulated learned helplessness model.
B.
the fundamental attribution bias.
C.
the original aversive events model.
D.
Rehm’s self-control model.
Answer A is correct: In the late 1970s, the learned helplessness model was expanded to include the role of attributions in the development of depression. (Note that, as described in the Abnormal Psychology chapter of the written study materials, the most recent version of the model places less emphasis on attributions and, instead, focuses on the role of hopelessness.)
Answer B: The fundamental attribution bias refers to the tendency to attribute the behavior of others to dispositional factors.
Answer C: This is a “made-up” term.
Answer D: Rehm’s self-control model views depression as being the result of problems related to self-monitoring, self-evaluation, and self-reinforcement.
The correct answer is: the reformulated learned helplessness model.
Which of the following memory techniques relies on the use of visual images?
Select one:
A.
acronym
B.
chunking
C.
acrostic
D.
keyword method
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the terms listed in the responses so that you can identify the correct answer to questions like this one.
a. Incorrect An acronym involves constructing a word from the first letter of the words to be memorized.
b. Incorrect Chunking involves grouping items that are to be recalled and is useful for increasing the amount of information that can be held in short-term memory.
c. Incorrect An acrostic is a phrase or rhyme that is composed of words that begin with the first letter of the words to be memorized.
d. CORRECT The keyword method is useful for paired associate tasks in which two words must be linked (e.g., foreign-language learning). It involves constructing a visual image that combines the two words.
The correct answer is: keyword method
Broadbent (1958) used the dichotic listening task to investigate the predictions of his filter theory of attention. This task involved having the listener hear different messages presented simultaneously to each ear and then verbally report what he/she had heard. For example, in a typical study, three digits (e.g., 5, 2, 7) were presented to one ear, while three other digits (e.g., 4, 9, 8) were simultaneously presented to the other ear. The results of these studies confirmed Broadbent’s theory because, in most cases, listeners reported that they had heard which of the following?
Select one:
A.
5-4-2-9-7-8
B.
5-2-7-4-9-8
C.
5-2-7 only OR 4-9-8 only
D.
7-8 only
Broadbent’s (1958) filter theory of attention was the first comprehensive theory of attention and the first of the “bottleneck” theories. It proposes that a filter (sensory buffer) selects which incoming message will be further processed or attended to on the basis of the physical properties of the message.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Most participants in Broadbent’s studies reported the information by ear rather than by the order in which they heard the digits, and he concluded that this proved that the physical properties of the message determined if it was attended to or ignored. In other words, in the dichotic listening task studies, the filter allowed the message from one ear to “pass through” before it allowed the message from the other ear to do so, which explained why participants would report the digits heard in one ear first, followed by the digits heard in the other ear.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: 5-2-7-4-9-8
Several days after losing an important customer, David D., a 41-year-old sales representative, develops feelings of sadness and hopelessness. He tells his therapist that he has trouble even thinking about going out and “drumming up more business” and is concerned that his attitude may be having a negative effect on his relationships with other customers. David’s symptoms have lasted for nearly three weeks, and he has no history of a previous mental disorder. The most likely diagnosis for David is:
Select one:
A.
Adjustment Disorder with depressed mood.
B.
Adjustment Disorder, unspecified.
C.
Major Depressive Disorder.
D.
Acute Stress Disorder.
Answer A is correct: The nature and duration of David’s symptoms and the fact that they are apparently related to the loss of an important customer are consistent with the diagnostic criteria for Adjustment Disorder. Because his symptoms are those associated with depression (sadness and hopelessness), the correct diagnosis is Adjustment Disorder with depressed mood.
Answers B and D: See explanation for answer A.
Answer C: From the information provided in the question, it appears that David does not meet the full diagnostic criteria for Major Depressive Disorder.
The correct answer is: Adjustment Disorder with depressed mood.
In vivo exposure with response prevention has been found to be an effective treatment for Agoraphobia, Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder, and several other anxiety disorders. Studies investigating the effects of this treatment for this suggest that:
Select one:
A.
frequent, brief exposures are more effective than less frequent, longer exposures to the feared stimuli.
B.
people with high arousability are more responsive to in vivo treatments than people with low arousability.
C.
high anxiety provocation is not the key factor in its effectiveness.
D.
counterconditioning is a necessary component of treatment.
The goal of in vivo exposure is to extinguish the classically conditioned response by repeatedly exposing the person to the CS without the US.
a. Incorrect This is the opposite of what has been found to be true.
b. Incorrect Arousability has been linked to the effects of systematic desensitization, not in vivo exposure. Systematic desensitization is usually more successful for individuals low in arousability than for those high in arousability.
c. CORRECT As noted in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials, there is evidence that high anxiety arousal is NOT necessary for successful treatment with in vivo exposure.
d. Incorrect Counterconditioning is not a component of in vivo exposure.
The correct answer is: high anxiety provocation is not the key factor in its effectiveness.
Following a severe closed head injury caused by a car accident, a 26-year-old male exhibits anterograde and retrograde amnesia. Most likely, which of the following memories will return first during his recovery?
Select one:
A.
memory for the events that occurred just after the accident
B.
memory for events immediately before the accident
C.
memory for his birthday dinner six months prior to the accident
D.
memory for his high school graduation
Following moderate to severe head injury, a person is likely to show some degree of both anterograde and retrograde amnesia. In this situation, recovery of long-term memories typically involves a predictable pattern.
a. Incorrect Anterograde amnesia is usually more severe than retrograde amnesia, and the individual usually never recalls the incident that caused the amnesia or the events occurring after it because those events were never stored in long-term memory.
b. Incorrect See explanation for responses a and d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for responses a and d.
d. CORRECT Memories of more remote events ordinarily return first.
The correct answer is: memory for his high school graduation
Most children do not understand that death is irreversible and universal until about _____ years of age.
Select one:
A.
four
B.
seven
C.
ten
D.
thirteen
Research has found that children typically progress through predictable stages in acquiring an understanding of death.
a. Incorrect See explanation for answer c
b. Incorrect See explanation for answer c.
c. CORRECT The age at which children understand that death is irreversible and universal varies, depending on certain factors. In general, however, most children achieve this understanding at about ten years of age.
d. Incorrect See explanation for answer c.
The correct answer is: ten
The failure of __________ to produce a conditioned response provides evidence that the effectiveness of classical conditioning is not due to temporal contiguity.
Select one:
A.
two-factor learning
B.
backward conditioning
C.
associative learning
D.
second-order conditioning
The effectiveness of classical conditioning depends on several factors including the temporal relationship between presentation of the CS and US.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Backward conditioning involves presenting the US prior to the CS and usually does not produce a conditioned response, and its ineffectiveness is used as evidence that contingency (rather than contiguity) underlies classical conditioning.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: backward conditioning
Which of the following techniques would be useful for predicting status on a single dichotomous criterion using two or more predictors when the assumptions for a discriminant analysis are not met?
Select one:
A.
canonical correlation
B.
path analysis
C.
logistic regression
D.
multiple regression
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the techniques listed in the answers to this questions. Information about these techniques is provided in the Statistics and Research Design chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Logistic regression is considered more flexible than discriminanant analysis since it can be used when the data violate some of the assumptions of discriminant analysis (e.g., the assumptions of linearity, normality, and/or homogeneity of variances).
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: logistic regression
Divergent thinking is associated with which of the following?
Select one:
A.
practical intelligence
B.
creativity
C.
neuroticism
D.
crystallized intelligence
Divergent thinking refers to the ability to think flexibly and consider a wide range of solutions.
a. Incorrect Sternberg distinguishes between three types of intelligence - analytic, creative, and practical. Divergent thinking is most associated with creative thinking.
b. CORRECT Creativity involves a number of attributes including divergent thinking, open-mindedness, unconventionality, and willingness to take risks.
c. Incorrect Neuroticism has not been associated with divergent thinking.
d. Incorrect Convergent (rather than divergent) thinking is associated with crystallized intelligence.
The correct answer is: creativity
A researcher uses the chi-square test to determine if the ethnic/racial make-up (i.e., White, African-American, Latino/Hispanic, Asian, Other) of a particular community on the West Coast differs significantly from a similar-sized community on the East Coast. Ten years later, she returns to the West Coast community and finds that it has not changed dramatically in size but has changed in terms of racial and ethnic group membership. The researcher now wants to determine if the West Coast community’s current ethnic/racial make-up differs significantly from the make-up she observed in that community ten years earlier and plans to compare the number of individuals in each ethnic/racial category for the two years (2000 and 2010). The researcher cannot use a chi-square test to analyze the data for her current study because:
Select one:
A.
the study now includes two independent variables.
B.
the data violate the assumption of independence.
C.
the data violate the assumption of random assignment.
D.
all of the above.
The use of any statistical test requires not only that the data are measured on a particular scale but also that certain assumptions be met.
a. Incorrect A multiple-sample chi-square test can be used when a study includes two or more independent variables.
b. CORRECT An assumption for the chi-square test is that observations are independent, which means that each individual can appear in only one category. In this study, people who lived in the community in both 2000 and 2010 would appear in two categories, which would violate this assumption.
c. Incorrect Random assignment is not an assumption for the chi-square test.
d. Incorrect Only response b is correct.
The correct answer is: the data violate the assumption of independence.
At a party, an acquaintance approaches you and asks if you’ve heard the rumor that a colleague of yours is involved in a sexual relationship with a current client of his. The acquaintance says that the rumor seems to be widely known and believed. You think that it’s possible that the rumor is true. What should you do?
Select one:
A.
nothing, since it is only a rumor
B.
suggest to the acquaintance that she discuss the rumor with the colleague
C.
send a letter to the Ethics Committee about the matter
D.
discuss the matter with the colleague yourself
As an ethical psychologist, you have a responsibility to follow through on possible ethical violations of colleagues.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT The best course of action would be to confront the colleague directly. (Even if the rumor isn’t true, the colleague should be made aware of it.)
The correct answer is: discuss the matter with the colleague yourself
Dr. Fanny Fleese, a licensed psychologist, regularly waives the co-payment for low-income clients who are covered by insurance. Waiving the co-payment is:
Select one:
A.
ethical only if the insurance company does not explicitly prohibit this policy.
B.
ethical only if the insurance company has approved of this arrangement.
C.
ethical only if Dr. Fleese doesn’t bill the insurance company at a higher rate so that she collects her full fee.
D.
ethical since Dr. Fleese’s policy is in the best interests of her clients.
This issue is addressed in Standard 6.06 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Principle III.5 of the Canadian Code of Ethics for Psychologists.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Most insurance companies agree to pay a specified percentage of a client’s fee and, when the co-payment is routinely waived, this means that the company is paying the entire fee. Consequently, waiving the co-payment without the permission of the insurance company represents insurance fraud and is both unethical and illegal.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: ethical only if the insurance company has approved of this arrangement.
Use of multicomponent behavior therapy in conjunction with nicotine replacement therapy as an intervention for cigarette smoking:
Select one:
A.
is no better than nicotine replacement therapy alone.
B.
is no better than behavior therapy alone.
C.
is better than nicotine replacement therapy alone only for individuals who have developed tolerance for nicotine.
D.
is better than nicotine replacement therapy alone, especially in terms of long-term effects.
Answer D is correct: There is some evidence that, in terms of short-term effects, a combined treatment does not have significant advantages over nicotine replacement therapy alone. However, in terms of long-term abstinence, the combined treatment is best. See R. C. Klesges, K. D. Ward, and M. DeBon, Smoking cessation: A successful behavioral/pharmacologic interface, Clinical Psychology Review, 16(6), 479-496, 1996.
Answers A, B, and C: See explanation for answer D.
The correct answer is: is better than nicotine replacement therapy alone, especially in terms of long-term effects.
When the target behavior occurs very infrequently or leaves a permanent record, the best observational technique is:
Select one:
A.
interval recording.
B.
time sampling.
C.
event recording.
D.
situational sampling.
The strategies listed in the answers are different types of behavioral observation techniques.
a. Incorrect Interval recording is useful for behaviors that have no clear beginning or end and involves dividing the time period into intervals and recording whether or not the behavior occurred during each interval.
b. Incorrect Time sampling involves checking to see if a behavior occurs during predetermined points in time and is useful for monitoring high-rate continuous behaviors.
c. CORRECT Event recording entails observing a behavior each time it occurs and is useful for infrequent behaviors and behaviors that leave a permanent record.
d. Incorrect Situational sampling involves observing a behavior in a number of different settings.
The correct answer is: event recording.
A veteran of the Iraq war complains about tremor in his right hand and weakness in his left arm. He has been examined by several doctors who have been unable to find a cause for his symptoms, and the last doctor he saw told him that his symptoms aren’t consistent with any known neurological disease. The man’s wife tells you that he accidentally shot and seriously wounded a fellow soldier while in Iraq but that he has no memory of doing so. The most likely diagnosis for this man is:
Select one:
A.
Factitious Disorder.
B.
PTSD.
C.
Malingering.
D.
Conversion Disorder.
Answer D is correct: Conversion Disorder involves a disturbance in voluntary motor or sensory functioning that suggests a serious neurological or other medical condition with evidence of an incompatibility between the symptom and recognized neurological and medical conditions.
Answer A: Factitious Disorder can be ruled out because there is no indication that the man is falsifying his symptoms or that his symptoms are associated with some type of deception.
Answer B: The man is not exhibiting any of the characteristic symptoms of PTSD.
Answer C: Malingering is characterized by the intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms for the purpose of obtaining an external reward.
The correct answer is: Conversion Disorder.
To calculate a predictor’s sensitivity, you would:
Select one:
A.
divide the number of true positives by the number of true and false positives.
B.
divide the number of true negatives by the number of true and false negatives.
C.
divide the number of true positives by the number of true positives plus false negatives.
D.
divide the number of true negatives by the number of true negatives plus false positives.
Sensitivity refers to the percent of cases in the validation sample that have the attribute being assessed and were accurately classified as having the attribute by the predictor.
a. Incorrect This is the formula for the positive predictive value.
b. Incorrect This is the formula for the negative predictive value.
c. CORRECT This is the formula for calculating sensitivity.
d. Incorrect This describes the formula for calculating specificity.
The correct answer is: divide the number of true positives by the number of true positives plus false negatives.
In most people, the left hemisphere is dominant for which of the following functions?
Select one:
A.
perceiving whole shapes from parts
B.
recognizing emotions in facial expressions
C.
perceiving direction and distance
D.
controlling complex and precise movements
Knowing that the right (nondominant) hemisphere is responsible for processing emotional and spatial information would have helped you eliminate responses a, b, and c as correct answers to this question.
a. Incorrect The right hemisphere is responsible for understanding part-whole relationships - for example, recognizing familiar objects from incomplete pictorial data and perceiving whole shapes from parts.
b. Incorrect The right hemisphere is also responsible for decoding emotion in facial expressions and language.
c. Incorrect The right hemisphere predominates in the perception of depth, distance, direction, and orientation.
d. CORRECT In the majority of people, the left hemisphere is dominant for fine motor functioning, which is evident in the fact that most people are right-handed.
The correct answer is: controlling complex and precise movements
A 6th grader goes through the motion of reading his history text without realizing that he has failed to understand the material he has just read. This:
Select one:
A.
is indicative of low intelligence.
B.
is indicative of a learning disability.
C.
illustrates a lack of tacit knowledge.
D.
illustrates poor metacognitive skills.
In this situation, the student is apparently unaware of his own cognitive processes.
a. Incorrect This is not necessarily a sign of low intelligence.
b. Incorrect This is not necessarily a sign of a learning disability.
c. Incorrect Tacit knowledge refers to strategies for success that aren’t usually formally taught.
d. CORRECT The inability to monitor one’s own cognitive processes suggests poor metacognitive (“knowing about knowing”) skills.
The correct answer is: illustrates poor metacognitive skills.
A researcher is studying the ability of college students to remember lists of related word pairs (e.g., dog-cat, chair-table). Prior to studying the to-be-remembered list of word pairs, the experimental group is presented with a list of opposite word pairs such as tall-short, while the control group completes multiplication problems. What results should the researcher expect when the two groups are subsequently asked to recall the word pairs?
Select one:
A.
Due to retroactive interference, the control group will recall more word pairs.
B.
Due to retroactive interference, the experimental group will recall more word pairs.
C.
Due to proactive interference, the experimental group will recall fewer word pairs.
D.
Due to proactive interference, the control group will recall fewer word pairs.
This question describes a standard proactive interference study. During the first phase, the experimental group is presented with a list of word pairs (e.g., tall-short) and the control group engages in an unrelated arithmetic task. During the second phase, the experimental and control groups both study the to-be-remembered word pairs (e.g., dog-cat). During the third phase, participants in both groups are asked to recall the word pairs.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT For the experimental group, the two tasks are similar, and the first list of word pairs interferes with the ability to learn or recall the second list. This is referred to as proactive interference. For the control group, the two tasks are dissimilar, and there is less interference. Consequently, the control group will remember more words than the experimental group.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: Due to proactive interference, the experimental group will recall fewer word pairs.
Dr. Greg Gallant meets 28-year-old Sally S. at a holiday party and is sexually attracted to her. The feelings seem mutual. However, during their conversation, he learns that Sally’s sister is one of his therapy clients. In this situation:
Select one:
A.
it would be acceptable for Dr. Gallant to date Sally.
B.
it would be acceptable for Dr. Gallant to date Sally only if her sister is a former therapy client.
C.
it would be acceptable for Dr. Gallant to date Sally only if he discusses the implications with the client before doing so.
D.
it would be acceptable for Dr. Gallant to date Sally only if he believes that doing so will not be harmful to his client.
This issue is addressed in Standard 10.06 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Principle III.31 of the Canadian Code of Ethics for Psychologists.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT The Ethics Code states that “psychologists do not engage in sexual intimacies with individuals they know to be close relatives, guardians, or significant others of current therapy clients/patients,” which implies that it may be acceptable to become involved with a relative of a former therapy client. The Canadian Code of Ethics does not explicitly distinguish between relatives of current versus former clients, but this is still the best answer of those given since the other answers state or imply that the sister is a current client.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: it would be acceptable for Dr. Gallant to date Sally only if her sister is a former therapy client.
At age 8, a girl receives a WISC FSIQ score of 144. When she is retested at age 12, she obtains a score of 138. Which of the following best accounts for this decline in her IQ score?
Select one:
A.
demand characteristics
B.
cohort effects
C.
normal aging effects
D.
statistical regression
Statistical regression refers to the tendency of extreme scores to regress toward the mean on retesting and may threaten a study’s internal validity whenever participants are chosen on the basis of their extreme scores on a pretest.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Although statistical regression is typically used in the context of scores obtained by a group of examinees (rather than an individual examinee), of the answers given, it is the best choice.
The correct answer is: statistical regression
Dr. Aimee A. is in private practice and, based on her experience and the experience of her colleagues, she has concluded that clients with signs of Malingering are at high risk for suing their therapists for malpractice. As a result, Dr. A. has decided to refer clients who exhibit signs of Malingering during the first therapy session to another therapist she knows is willing to work with them. Dr. A’s practice is:
Select one:
A.
unethical.
B.
ethical only if she makes her policy about decisions related to accepting clients clear at the outset of therapy.
C.
ethical only if she makes the referral before a therapeutic relationship has been established with the client.
D.
ethical.
Although this issue isn’t directly addressed by ethical guidelines, the guidelines permit (or recommend) termination of services under certain circumstances [see, e.g., Standard 10.10 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Principle I and II (Values) and Principles II.34 and II.37 of the Canadian Code of Ethics].
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Psychologists in private practice do not have an ethical or legal duty to provide professional services to individuals they do not want to serve. Therefore, it would be acceptable to make the decision to refer a client who is exhbiting signs of Malingering after an intial therapy session. (Ethical guidelines require psychologists not to discriminate on the basis of race, gender, or any other basis proscribed by law, but litigious clients do not fall into this category.)
The correct answer is: ethical.
Encoding strategies, strategy construction, generalization, and automatization are of most interest to:
Select one:
A.
Piagetian theorists.
B.
Vygotskian theorists.
C.
information processing theorists.
D.
neo-Piagetian theorists.
Recognition that the terms listed in the question are cognitive processes may have helped you choose the correct answer to this question even if you are not familiar with all of the theories listed.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Information-processing theorists focus on the processes of the mind including those listed in this question (which are categorized as information processing “change mechanisms”).
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: information processing theorists.
The Stone Center’s self-in-relation theory attributes a woman’s core sense of self to which of the following?
Select one:
A.
the development of a mutually empathic bond with her mother during early childhood
B.
her ability to resolve the conflicting demands of the id, ego, and superego during childhood
C.
her ability to separate “self” and “object” during the separation-individuation process
D.
the development of a unique “autonomous” self during adolescence
Self-in-relation theory was originally developed at the Stone Center at Wellesley College by several feminist psychologists and researchers.
a. CORRECT Self-in-relation theory proposes that a woman’s core self-structure is an interacting or relational self that emerges from the early mother-daughter relationship and the development of mutual empathy in that relationship.
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: the development of a mutually empathic bond with her mother during early childhood
Stepwise multiple regression would be most useful for:
Select one:
A.
identifying the smallest number of predictors needed to accurately predict scores on a criterion.
B.
comparing the strength of the relationship between pairs of predictors and a single criterion.
C.
determining which predictors have a causal effect on two or more criteria.
D.
determining the combination of criteria that are most accurately predicted by a set of predictors.
Multiple regression is used when the goal is to use several predictors to predict or estimate performance on a single criterion.
a. CORRECT When using stepwise multiple regression, predictors are added or deleted one at a time to determine the minimum number necessary to accurately predict or estimate performance on the criterion.
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: identifying the smallest number of predictors needed to accurately predict scores on a criterion.
When the Kaufman Assessment Battery for Children, Second Edition (KABC-II) is administered to a child with a language or hearing impairment, his/her scores are interpreted in terms of which model of intelligence?
Select one:
A.
Spearman’s
B.
Luria’s
C.
Gardner’s
D.
Sternberg’s
Scores on the KABC-II may be interpreted in terms of the Cattell-Horn-Carroll (CHC) model of cognitive abilities or Luria’s neuropsychological processing model.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Luria’s model is recommended for examinees whose performance on measures of crystallized intelligence is likely to be negatively affected by a language or hearing impairment.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: Luria’s
Which of the following is true about efficacy research?
Select one:
A.
It is most useful for comparing the relative costs and benefits of a treatment.
B.
It is most useful for conducting a summative (versus formative) evaluation of a treatment program.
C.
It is most useful for evaluating a treatment’s effectiveness under controlled conditions.
D.
It is most useful for determining the degree to which a treatment’s effects generalize to other situations and populations.
For the exam, you want to know the difference between efficacy and effectiveness research.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Efficacy research is conducted under controlled conditions and, consequently, has good internal validity but limited external validity – i.e., it is useful for establishing whether or not a treatment is effective under controlled conditions but not for evaluating its generalizability to other conditions.
d. Incorrect Effectiveness research uses a correlational or quasi-experimental research design and is useful for evaluating a treatment’s generalizability and cost-effectiveness.
The correct answer is: It is most useful for evaluating a treatment’s effectiveness under controlled conditions.
Research investigating the relationship between perceived exposure to discrimination and mental health has generally found:
Select one:
A.
perceived discrimination is related to depression, anxiety, and other mental disorders among African Americans but not among Whites.
B.
perceived discrimination is related to depression, anxiety, and other mental disorders among both African Americans and Whites.
C.
perceived discrimination is related to physical health among African Americans and Whites but not to mental health for members of either group.
D.
perceived discrimination is not related to either physical health or mental health among African Americans or Whites.
The research has found that exposure to discrimination - like exposure to many other stressors - is related to mental health outcomes.
a. Incorrect This issue was addressed by R. C. Kessler, K. D. Mickelson, and D. R. Williams who found that African Americans reported higher levels of perceived exposure to discrimination - e.g., 50% of African Americans and 31% of Whites reported exposure to “major discrimination.” However, the relationship between discrimination and mental health did not vary in a consistent or substantial way across different groups [The prevalence, distribution, and perceived discrimination in the United States, Journal of Health and Social Behavior, 40(3), 208-230, 1999].
b. CORRECT Kessler et al. found a relationship between perceived exposure to discrimination and a diagnosis of Major Depression or Generalized Anxiety Disorder in the previous year for both African Americans and Whites.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: perceived discrimination is related to depression, anxiety, and other mental disorders among both African Americans and Whites.
Research suggests that, with regard to metamemory, older adults are:
Select one:
A.
more likely than younger adults to underestimate their actual memory deficits.
B.
more likely than younger adults to overestimate their actual memory deficits.
C.
just as able as younger adults to accurately estimate their actual memory deficits.
D.
better than younger adults at estimating their actual memory deficits.
The research on this topic is limited, but it appears that while older adults do, in fact, experience memory problems, they may overestimate the extent of those problems.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Metamemory refers to the ability to monitor one”s own memory processes. There is evidence that, compared to younger adults, older adults tend to view their memory loss as worse than it actually is.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: more likely than younger adults to overestimate their actual memory deficits.
“Multicollinearity” could be expected to:
Select one:
A.
cause the values of the regression coefficients to vary substantially from sample to sample.
B.
cause the multiple correlation coefficient to vary substantially from sample to sample.
C.
increase as the number of dependent variables decreases.
D.
decrease as the correlation between independent variables increases.
Multicollinearity occurs when predictors in a multiple regression equation correlate highly with one another.
a. CORRECT When predictors are correlated and the predictors and criterion are administered to different samples and new regression coefficients (beta weights) are derived for each sample, there tends to be a great deal of fluctuation in the size of the weights. (It isn’t necessary for you to understand why this is so for the exam – just know that it is!)
b. Incorrect The actual relationship between the predictors and criterion shouldn’t change much from sample to sample as the result of multicollinearity, so the multiple correlation coefficient won’t change substantially.
c. Incorrect You may have been able to eliminate this response because it doesn’t really make any sense.
d. Incorrect By definition, multicollinearity INCREASES as the correlation between predictors increases.
The correct answer is: cause the values of the regression coefficients to vary substantially from sample to sample.
To calculate the F-ratio for a one-way ANOVA:
Select one:
A.
MSB is multiplied by MSW.
B.
MSB is divided by MSW.
C.
MSW is divided by MSB.
D.
MSW is subtracted from MSB.
As described in the Statistics and Research Design chapter of the written study materials, the F-ratio is calculated by dividing a measure of treatment plus error by a measure of error only in order to obtain an estimate of treatment effects.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT MSB (mean square between) is a measure of treatment plus error, while MSW (mean square within) is a measure of error only, and the F-ratio is calculated by dividing MSB by MSW.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: MSB is divided by MSW.
A waiter is waiting on a group of professors from the local university. Being familiar with social loafing theory and desiring the largest tip possible, the waiter hopes that:
Select one:
A.
each professor will leave his/her own tip.
B.
the professors will contribute anonymously to a group tip.
C.
the professors will discuss how much tip to leave.
D.
one of the professors will volunteer to leave the tip for all of the professors.
Social loafing occurs when a person contributes less as group member than he/she would have contributed if acting alone.
a. CORRECT The waiter will get the most money if each person leaves his/her own tip since this will discourage social loafing.
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: each professor will leave his/her own tip.
Based on their review of the research on eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR), Davidson and Parker (2001) concluded that eye movements:
Select one:
A.
are the most important contributor to the effectiveness of the treatment.
B.
are one of three essential contributors to the effectiveness of the treatment.
C.
are not an essential contributor to the effectiveness of the treatment.
D.
actually decrease the effectiveness of the treatment.
The research on EMDR has not produced entirely consistent results. However, Davidson and Parker’s (2001) meta-analysis found that eye movements do not contribute to its effectiveness and that its benefits are due, instead, to exposure to the feared stimulus.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT These investigators concluded that the treatment has similar effects with and without the inclusion of eye movements.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: are not an essential contributor to the effectiveness of the treatment.
Research on the “synchrony effect” has established a relationship between circadian arousal, cognitive functioning, and age. These studies have found, for example, that the performance of older adults on cognitive tasks that require the ability to focus on goal-relevant information only and to inhibit prepotent responses is best in the:
Select one:
A.
morning.
B.
early afternoon.
C.
early evening.
D.
late evening.
Studies have found that the optimal time for the successful completion of certain types of cognitive tasks is related to circadian arousal, which varies with age: Older adults show peak arousal and task performance levels in the morning, while young adults show higher levels of both in the evening.
a. CORRECT Older adults do better on certain cognitive tasks (especially those that depend on inhibitory attentional processes) in the morning than during any other time of the day.
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: morning.
Research on “gendered environments” suggests that, in the classroom:
Select one:
A.
boys have more interactions with teachers and tend to receive more feedback and praise.
B.
girls have more interactions with teachers and tend to receive more feedback and praise.
C.
boys get more praise from teachers, while girls receive more criticism.
D.
boys get more criticism from teachers, while girls receive more praise and assistance.
The research on teacher behaviors is inconsistent and difficult to summarize. However early studies as well as more recent ones do seem to suggest that teachers respond differently to male and female students.
a. CORRECT Of the responses given, this is the best summary of the research. Males receive more attention from teachers and that attention often fosters better academic achievement.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: boys have more interactions with teachers and tend to receive more feedback and praise.
From about ________ of age, children use telegraphic speech (two-word utterances) to communicate an entire sentence.
Select one:
A.
8 to 12 months
B.
12 to 18 months
C.
18 to 24 months
D.
24 to 30 months
Telegraphic speech consists of two words that convey the meaning of entire sentences.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Children exhibit a spurt in vocabulary growth between 18 and 24 months and combine two words to construct a short sentence.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: 18 to 24 months
As described by Piaget, which of the following is a primary concern for individuals in the autonomous stage of moral development?
Select one:
A.
abstract universal principles
B.
socially agreed-upon principles
C.
the need to maintain social rules and laws
D.
the positive and negative consequences of an act
Piaget described moral development in terms of two stages – heteronomous and autonomous.
a. Incorrect Universal moral principles are of concern for individuals in Stage 6 of Kohlberg’s stages of moral development.
b. CORRECT Children in Piaget’s autonomous stage view rules as being socially agreed-upon and alterable when people who are governed by them agree to the change.
c. Incorrect The need to maintain social rules and laws is characteristic of Kohlberg’s Stage 4.
d. Incorrect Children in Piaget’s heteronomous stage (and Kohlberg’s Stages 1 and 2) focus on the consequences of an act.
The correct answer is: socially agreed-upon principles
Research comparing the personality characteristics and psychiatric symptoms of women reporting repressed versus continuous memories of childhood sexual abuse has found that:
Select one:
A.
the two groups of women do not differ significantly in terms of personality characteristics or psychiatric symptoms.
B.
women reporting repressed memories differ from those with continuous memories in terms of dissociation but not with regard to other characteristics or symptoms.
C.
women reporting continuous memories exhibit more symptoms of PTSD than those reporting repressed memories but the two groups do not differ with regard to other characteristics or symptoms.
D.
the two groups of women show significant differences with regard to both personality characteristics and psychiatric symptoms.
This issue was addressed by R. J. McNally et al. [Personality profiles, dissociation, and absorption in women reporting repressed, recovered, or continuous memories of childhood sexual abuse, Journal of Consulting and Clinical Psychology, 68(6), 1033-1037, 2000]. Individuals in this study reporting repressed memories said they believed they had been sexually abused as children but had no autobiographical memories of the abuse.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT McNally et al. found that women with repressed memories scored higher on measures of absorption and dissociation and reported more symptoms of depression and PTSD than did women with continuous memories of childhood abuse. (Women with continuous memories did not differ significantly from nonabused women on these measures.)
The correct answer is: the two groups of women show significant differences with regard to both personality characteristics and psychiatric symptoms.
Bowlby (1980) proposed that a child’s early experiences lead to the development of _________, which then affects his or her future relationships.
Select one:
A.
object permanence
B.
gender identity
C.
an internal working model
D.
a transactional model
According to Bowlby, a child’s early experiences with primary caregivers leads to the development of an internal working model, which is a mental representation of oneself and others and relationships between oneself and others.
a. Incorrect See explanation for answer c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for answer c.
c. CORRECT A child’s internal working model influences his or her future relationships.
d. Incorrect See explanation for answer c.
The correct answer is: an internal working model
Research on theory of mind has found that it is not until about ______ years of age that children understand that another person’s actions depend on that person’s beliefs (which may be false) rather than on the reality of the situation.
Select one:
A.
two to three
B.
four to five
C.
six to seven
D.
eight to nine
The research has found that theory of mind develops gradually during childhood in predictable stages.
a. Incorrect See explanation for answer b.
b. CORRECT By four to five years of age, children understand that a person’s beliefs about a situation may be false and that the person will act upon the false belief rather than the reality of the situation.
c. Incorrect See explanation for answer b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for answer b.
The correct answer is: four to five
With regard to ethical guidelines, a sexual relationship between a psychologist and an adult student:
Select one:
A.
is prohibited under any conditions.
B.
is prohibited only when the relationship is likely to impair the psychologist’s effectiveness as an instructor.
C.
is prohibited only when the psychologist currently has evaluative authority over the student.
D.
is prohibited when the psychologist currently has or is likely to have evaluative authority over the student.
For the exam, you want to be familiar with ethical guidelines for sexual relationships with students, supervisees, and clients. These guidelines are discussed in the chapter on ethics and professional issues in the written study materials.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Sexual relationships with students and supervisees is addressed in Standard 7.07 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Principle II.28 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 7.07 states: “Psychologists do not engage in sexual relationships with students or supervisees who are in their department, agency, or training center or over whom psychologists have or are likely to have evaluative authority.”
The correct answer is: is prohibited when the psychologist currently has or is likely to have evaluative authority over the student.
Universal symbols in the delusions and hallucinations of psychotic patients would be of most interest to:
Select one:
A.
Perls.
B.
Sullivan.
C.
Adler.
D.
Jung.
The term “universal symbols” should have helped you recognize the correct answer to this question.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Of the individuals listed, only Jung incorporates the notion of universal symbols into his work. When working with psychotic patients, Jung noticed a great deal of similarity in the content of their delusions and hallucinations, and this led to the development of his theory of archetypes and the collective unconscious.
The correct answer is: Jung.
In a research study designed to evaluate the accuracy of a selection test for police officers, the test is found to have high validity coefficients for Whites, African Americans, and Asian Americans, but a low validity coefficient for American Indians. In this situation, race/ethnicity is a:
Select one:
A.
suppressor variable.
B.
moderator variable.
C.
distractor variable.
D.
mediator variable.
In this situation, the predictor appears to have differential validity–i.e., different validity coefficients for different groups.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT The characteristic that distinguishes the groups is referred to as a moderator variable. The moderator variable (in this case, ethnicity) “moderates” the relationship between the predictor and criterion.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: moderator variable.
Spontaneous recovery is associated with which of the following?
Select one:
A.
higher-order conditioning
B.
stimulus discrimination
C.
extinction
D.
overshadowing
Spontaneous recovery occurs when an extinguished conditioned response recurs without additional conditioning trials.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Pavlov found that, following extinction trials, dogs in his studies often spontaneously emitted the condtioned reponse, and he referred to this as spontaneous recovery. Spontaneous recovery is the reason why it is often necessary to conduct multiple extinction sessions in order to eliminate a conditioned response.
d. Incorrect See explanation for resopnse c.
The correct answer is: extinction
Research on the impact of mental practice on athletic performance has found that it is:
Select one:
A.
more beneficial for experienced (skilled) individuals than for novices and when it makes use of internal imagery.
B.
more beneficial for novices than for experienced individuals and when it makes use of external imagery.
C.
equally as beneficial for experienced individuals and novices when it makes use of internal imagery.
D.
equally as effective for experienced individuals and novices regardless of the type of imagery used.
Mental practice refers to the use of mental images in the absence of any overt physical activity to learn or improve one’s skills. It is frequently used to enhance athletic performance.
a. CORRECT Studies on mental practice have confirmed that it is useful for improving athletic performance when added to physical practice but that its effects are moderated by the skill level of the individual, the type of imagery, and the type of task. Specifically, the research has shown that mental practice is less effective for novices than for skilled individuals; is more effective when it makes use of internal imagery (i.e., imagining the behavior as though one is actually performing it rather than observing oneself performing it); and is more effective for sports that have cognitive elements (e.g., dance and gymnastics) than for sports that rely primarily on strength or motor skills.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: more beneficial for experienced (skilled) individuals than for novices and when it makes use of internal imagery.
From smallest to largest in magnitude, the measures of central tendency in negatively skewed disribution are:
Select one:
A.
mode, median, and mean.
B.
median, mode, and mean.
C.
mode, mean, and median.
D.
mean, median, and mode.
Knowing that the median is always the middle score would have allowed to narrow the choices to answers a and d.
a. Incorrect This describes the relationship of the measures of central tendency in a positively skewed distribution.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Remember that the “tail tells the tale,” which means that, in a negatively skewed distribution, most scores are located in the positive (high) end of the distribution and the tail is created by the presence of a few scores in the negative (low) end of the distribution. Since the mean is most affected by the presence of the outliers in the negative end, it will have the lowest value of the three measures of central tendency.
The correct answer is: mean, median, and mode.
The technique known as “protocol analysis” was derived from:
Select one:
A.
cognitive science.
B.
Gestalt psychology.
C.
the medical model.
D.
social-learning theory.
Knowing that protocol analysis is a qualitative evaluation techique used to assess human thought (cognitive) processes would have helped you identify the correct response to this question.
a. CORRECT The term “cognitive science” refers to a broad range of disciplines and approaches (e.g., cognitive psychology, neuroscience, computer science) that focus on the acquisition and use of knowledge. Protocol analysis involves having the individual “think aloud” while solving a cognitive problem.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: cognitive science.
To determine the degree of association between number of hours studied and score on the EPPP when data on both variables have been converted to ranks, you would use which of the following?
Select one:
A.
Spearman rho
B.
Pearson r
C.
point biserial
D.
phi coefficient
In this situation, you want to determine the correlation between two variables that are reported in terms of ranks.
a. CORRECT The Spearman rho (also known as the Spearman rank-order correlation coefficient) is used to determinee the degree of association between two variables that are expressed as ranks.
b. Incorrect The Pearson r is used when both variables are continuous.
c. Incorrect The point biserial is the appropriate correlation coefficient when one variable is continuous and the other is a true dichotomy.
d. Incorrect The phi coefficient is used when both variables are true dichotomies.
The correct answer is: Spearman rho
