TEST MODE - Test 6 Flashcards
A 12-month old baby who has been classified as “insecure/ambivalent” is reunited with his mother in Ainsworth’s “Strange Situation.” Most likely, this baby will:
Select one:
A.
hit or push his mother when she approaches and continue to cry after she picks him up.
B.
run away from his mother when she approaches but then cling to her when she picks him up.
C.
greet his mother but try to avoid her when she attempts to pick him up.
D.
ignore his mother intially but welcome her attempts to pick him up.
Research using the Strange Situation has identified four distinct attachment patterns - secure, insecure/avoidant, insecure/ambivalent, and disorganized-disoriented. Information about these patterns is provided in the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials.
a. CORRECT These behaviors are characteristic of children with a insecure/ambivalent pattern.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: hit or push his mother when she approaches and continue to cry after she picks him up.
Shortly after a school psychologist begins working for a small rural school district, she finds that there are a number of children in a class for students with an Intellectual Disability who are emotionally disturbed but who appear to have an average or above average level of intelligence. The county has no class for emotionally disturbed children. The psychologist should: Select one:
A.
report the situation immediately to the psychology ethics committee in her state.
B.
report the situation immediately to the teacher’s standards and practices commission in her state.
C.
threaten to quit if the children are not placed in a regular classroom.
D.
evaluate each student and recommend an appropriate action regardless of available options.
This question presents a rather complex ethical dilemma. Before responding too quickly, consider the psychologist’s responsibilities and the options that are available. For ethics questions, the most conservative course of action is often the most appropriate one.
a. Incorrect At first glance, reporting may seem appropriate. However, the psychology ethics committee does not respond to complaints about the unethical activities of teachers and schools.
b. Incorrect There is no indication that the inappropriateness of this situation is the responsibility of a particular teacher.
c. Incorrect A psychologist should always try to correct a situation before quitting. Insisting that a situation be resolved and threatening to quit is not necessarily the most ethical or useful response.
d. CORRECT The psychologist’s first intervention should be to assess each child and make appropriate recommendations. If appropriate actions are not taken by the school, the psychologist will then want to consider other interventions (e.g., talking to the school board, consulting with the ethics committee).
The correct answer is: evaluate each student and recommend an appropriate action regardless of available options.
In terms of incremental validity, which of the following situations most supports the use of a new predictor?
Select one:
A.
moderate base rate with many applicants and few job openings
B.
low base rate with many applicants and few job openings
C.
moderate base rate with few applicants and many job openings
D.
low base rate with few applicants and many job openings
The degree to which a new selection technique will increase decision-making accuracy depends on several factors including the base rate (proportion of correct decisions without the new technique) and the selection ratio (ratio of applicants to job openings).
a. CORRECT A moderate base rate suggests that there’s room for improvement and, therefore, that a new predictor is likely to increase decision-making accuracy. Also, the situation is optimal when there are many applicants to choose from (a low selection ratio).
b. Incorrect A low base rate suggests that something else besides selection is the problem - e.g., the company’s standards of success are too high or employees need training in order to do the job satisfactorily.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: moderate base rate with many applicants and few job openings
Dr. Bill sets his clients’ fees on the basis of a “sliding scale” that is based on their current income. This practice is:
Select one:
A.
acceptable but not explicitly mentioned in the Ethics Code.
B.
unacceptable but not explicitly mentioned in the Ethics Code.
C.
explicitly recommended in the Ethics Code.
D.
explicitly prohibited in the Ethics Code.
Sliding scale fees are not explicitly addressed in the Ethics Code.
a. CORRECT Sliding scale fees are generally considered acceptable as long as they are fair and serve the best interests of the client.
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: acceptable but not explicitly mentioned in the Ethics Code.
The clinical course of AIDS dementia complex (ADC) is described in the literature in terms of six stages. For example, a person with AIDS who has unequivocal evidence of functional, intellectual, or motor impairment but is able to perform all but the most demanding aspects of activities of daily living and can walk without assistance is in which of the following stages?
Select one:
A.
Stage 0.5 (equivocal/subclinical)
B. Stage 1 (mild)
C. Stage 2 (moderate)
D. Stage 3 (severe)
AIDS dementia complex (ADC) has been estimated to affect up to one-third of adults and one-half of children with AIDS.
a. Incorrect Stage 0.5 is characterized by minimal or equivocal signs of impairment with no deficits in work or activities of daily living.
b. CORRECT The symptoms listed in the question are characteristic of Stage 1.
c. Incorrect A person in Stage 2 cannot work or perform demanding activities of daily living and may require assistance when walking.
d. Incorrect A person in Stage 3 has significant intellectual impairments and cannot walk unassisted. Additional information about the stages of ADC is provided in the Abnormal Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
The correct answer is: Stage 1 (mild)
Lawler’s (1973) model of facet satisfaction:
Select one:
A.
is similar to equity theory and assumes that job satisfaction is affected by comparisons of one’s own inputs and outcomes to the inputs and outcomes of others.
B.
is similar to need hierarchy theory and assumes that job satisfaction is related to the fulfillment of one’s most prepotent needs.
C.
is similar to two factor theory and views satisfaction and dissatisfaction as independent factors.
D.
is similar to goal setting theory and proposes that participation in the setting of work objectives is crucial for job satisfaction.
Lawler’s model of facet satisfaction is based on the premise that job satisfaction is a product of comparisons of one’s job inputs, the inputs of others, and the job’s characteristics to one’s outcomes and the outcomes of others.
a. CORRECT Like equity theory, Lawler’s model predicts that workers compare their own input/outcome ratios to the input/outcome ratios of comparable others. When the ratios are the same, the worker is satisfied; when the worker’s own ratio is larger than that of comparable others, the worker may feel guilt or other discomfort; and when the worker’s ratio is less than that of comparable others, he/she is dissatisfied.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: is similar to equity theory and assumes that job satisfaction is affected by comparisons of one’s own inputs and outcomes to the inputs and outcomes of others.
In his theory of career development, Donald Super uses which of the following to pictorially depict the various roles that a person participates in during the course of his/her life?
Select one:
A.
rainbow
B.
arch
C.
ladder
D.
web
Super uses several figures to illustrate and integrate aspects of career development.
a. CORRECT Super’s Life Career Rainbow illustrates the various roles people play (e.g., student, parent, worker) and how these roles correspond to a person’s life stages.
b. Incorrect Super’s arch illustrates the personal and environmental factors that determine a person’s career path.
c. Incorrect The ladder depicts the stages in Super’s career development model.
d. Incorrect The web illustrates the bases of career maturity.
The correct answer is: rainbow
“Autocorrelation” is most likely to be a problem when using which of the following research designs?
Select one:
A.
Solomon four-group
B.
repeated measures
C.
between groups
D.
double-blind
Answer B is correct: Autocorrelation refers to the correlation between measurements of the dependent variable when the dependent variable is repeatedly administered to the same subjects.
The correct answer is: repeated measures
A client says she is upset because her doctor has suggested she undergo tests for a possible hyperactive thyroid. She says she believes that doctors are always looking for excuses to perform unnecessary procedures in order to make more money. You should:
Select one:
A.
read up on hyperthyroidism so that you can give her an informed opinion.
B.
have her sign a release of information and contact her physician.
C.
refer her to an endocrinologist to discuss the purpose of the tests.
D.
explore the source of her hostility toward doctors.
This woman needs to find out if tests for hyperthyroidism are necessary. A psychologist cannot ethically render a professional opinion on this matter.
a. Incorrect No matter how much you read up on hyperthyroidism, you will not, as a psychologist, be qualified to offer a professional opinion. Thus, this course of action would be a direct violation of the above-cited principle.
b. Incorrect While this is not an unethical or incorrect course of action, it does not address the woman’s needs as well as answer c. The woman needs to know if the physician’s recommendation was warranted; the physician’s own opinion on this matter is not likely to be objective.
c. CORRECT Of the choices offered, a referral to an endocrinologist most directly meets the woman’s needs and addresses the issue of the psychologist’s competence, which is the ethical issue that underlies this question. An endocrinologist is qualified to discuss the tests with the woman.
d. Incorrect There is no indication in this question that the woman has general feelings of hostility toward doctors.
The correct answer is: refer her to an endocrinologist to discuss the purpose of the tests.
According to Albert Bandura, modeling (observational learning):
Select one:
A.
teaches new behaviors.
B.
disinhibits and facilitates behaviors already in one’s repertoire.
C.
provides cues as to the appropriateness of a particular behavior.
D.
all of the above.
Bandura’s research found that modeling is useful for the acquisition of new behaviors and for increasing or decreasing behaviors already in an individual’s repertoire.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT According to Bandura, modeling serves a number of functions including the ones listed in responses a, b, and c. (And, if you think about it, this makes sense: We learn a lot from observing others.)
The correct answer is: all of the above.
Prader-Willi syndrome is characterized by an intellectual disability and extreme obesity. It is caused by which of the following chromosomal abnormalities?
Select one:
A.
an extra chromosome
B.
a missing chromosome
C.
a chromosomal translocation
D.
a chromosomal deletion
Approximately 1 in 200 babies is born with a chromosomal abnormality.
a. Incorrect Down Syndrome and Klinefelter Syndrome are two disorders attributable to the presence of an extra chromosome.
b. Incorrect Turner Syndrome is an example of a disorder caused by the absence of a chromosome. It occurs only in females and involves the absence of one X chromosome.
c. Incorrect Translocation occurs when a section of a chromosome is attached to another chromosome.
d. CORRECT Deletion occurs when part of a chromosome is missing. Prader-Willi syndrome and cru-du-chat are two disorders caused by a chromosomal deletion.
The correct answer is: a chromosomal deletion
Of the 6 to 10% of adults over 65 who have dementia, what percent have Alzheimer’s disease?
Select one:
A.
85 to 95
B.
65 to 75
C.
40 to 50
D.
20 to 35
Estimates of the prevalence rates for Alzheimer’s disease and other forms of dementia vary, with rates increasing as age increases.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT The studies indicate that, of adults over 65 with dementia, between two-thirds to three-fourths have Alzheimer’s disease. See, e.g., H. C. Hendrie, Epidemiology of dementia and Alzheimer’s disease, American Journal of Geriatric Psychiatry, 6(2 Suppl. 1), S3-18, 1998.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: 65 to 75
A worker whose job consists primarily of handling customer complaints will be happier if she blames the customer’s problems on:
Select one:
A.
external, stable, and global factors.
B.
internal, stable, and specific factors.
C.
external, unstable, and global factors.
D.
external, unstable, and specific factors.
Attribution theory has been applied to the learned helplessness model of depression, and studies looking at the attributions of depression people indicate that they tend to make internal, stable, global attributions, especially of negative events.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT This is the best answer since external, unstable, specific attributions are the exact opposite of those associated with depression. It also seems logical that one will experience a better sense of self-efficacy if the problems of customers are controllable and changeable, which they would be if they are due to external, unstable, and specific factors.
The correct answer is: external, unstable, and specific factors.
Lewin’s field theory predicts that:
Select one:
A.
human behavior is due more to physical than to psychological factors.
B.
a leader’s power is directly affected by the characteristics of the task and environment.
C.
human behavior is a function of both the person and his/her environment.
D.
a group can be no more effective than its least effective member.
Lewin is probably best known for research on field theory.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT According to Lewin’s field theory, behavior is a function of the person and the environment. He expressed this relationship with the following formula: B = f(P, E).
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: human behavior is a function of both the person and his/her environment.
Which of the following individuals has proposed that organizational culture acts, at least in part, as a defense mechanism that helps organizational members avoid uncertainty and anxiety?
Select one:
A.
Herbert Simon
B.
Edgar Schein
C.
Leon Festinger
D.
Geert Hofstede
Knowing that Edgar Schein has written extensively on organizational culture would have helped you choose the correct answer to this question.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT In his book Organizational Culture and Leadership (1992), Schein describes the basic assumptions that underlie an organization’s culture as cognitive defense mechanisms. Additional information about Schein’s work on organizational culture is provided in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materails.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: Edgar Schein
A graduate student is extremely anxious about a lecture he has to give to undergraduate students the next morning. To reduce his anxiety, he drinks two beers. According to Steele and Joseph (1990), the student’s anxiety will actually increase in this situation if he:
Select one:
A.
relaxes and “does nothing.”
B.
performs a simple task.
C.
performs a moderately demanding task.
D.
performs a very demanding task.
C. M. Steele and R. A. Joseph have developed an attention-allocation model to explain why alcohol sometimes reduces anxiety but other times has no effect or actually increases anxiety (Alcohol myopia: Its prized and dangerous effects, American Psychologist, 45(8), 921-933, 1990).
a. CORRECT According to Steele and Joseph, alcohol creates a “myopia” in that it restricts the drinker’s attention to the most salient aspect of the situation and reduces attention to other, less salient aspects. Consequently, if an intoxicated person engages in a distracting task, he/she will worry less about the anxiety-arousing stimulus (e.g., giving a lecture). Conversely, if the person does not engage in a distracting task, he/she will focus on the anxiety-arousing stimulus and actually become more anxious about it.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: relaxes and “does nothing.”
A meta-analysis of the research on expressed emotion and relapse by Butzlaff and Hooley (1998) found that high levels of expressed emotion by family members:
Select one:
A.
are predictive of relapse for patients with schizophrenia but not for patients with a mood or eating disorder.
B.
are predictive of relapse for patients with a mood disorder or schizophrenia but not for those with an eating disorder.
C.
are predictive of relapse for patients with an eating disorder or a mood disorder but not for patients with schizophrenia.
D.
may be somewhat more predictive of relapse for patients with a mood or eating disorder than for patients with schizophrenia.
Expressed emotion has been well-established as a predictor of relapse in patients with schizophrenia, and recent studies have linked it to negative outcomes for a number of other disorders.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT R. L. Butzlaff and J. M. Hooley looked at studies investigating the impact of expressed emotion on outcomes for schizophrenia, mood disorders, and eating disorders and found that high expressed emotion by family members was more strongly predictive of relapse for mood and eating disorders than for schizophrenia, although all effect sizes for all three were significant. Specifically, they obtained weighted mean effect sizes for mood disorders, eating disorders, and schizophrenia of, respectively, .39, .51, and .31. (Expressed emotion and psychiatric relapse: A meta-analysis, Archives of General Psychiatry 55, 547-552, 1998.)
The correct answer is: may be somewhat more predictive of relapse for patients with a mood or eating disorder than for patients with schizophrenia.
According to the APA’sGeneral Guidelines for Providers of Psychological Services,the term “psychological services” applies to all of the following except:
Select one:
A.
administration and scoring of psychological tests.
B.
teaching psychology at a university.
C.
supervising delivery of psychological services.
D.
conducting psychotherapy in private practice.
As noted in the ethics and professional issues chapter of the written study materials, teaching psychology at a university is not listed as a psychological service in the General Guidelines for Providers of Psychological Services.
a. Incorrect This activity is defined as being a psychological service.
b. CORRECT As noted above, this activity is not defined as a psychological service.
c. Incorrect This activity is considered a psychological service.
d. Incorrect This activity is considered a psychological service.
The correct answer is: teaching psychology at a university.
Harry Harlow’s research confirmed the importance of which of the following in the development of attachment in infant monkeys?
Select one:
A.
oral gratification
B.
tactile comfort
C.
interactional synchrony
D.
pheromones
Harlow is best known for his research on early attachment and its consequences in infant monkeys.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Harlow and his colleagues found that infant monkeys preferred physical contact with a soft terrycloth surrogate mother to contact with a hard wire surrogate that provided food. They concluded that these results indicate that contact (tactile) comfort is most critical for attachment.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: tactile comfort
Anosognosia is best described as an impairment in:
Select one:
A.
coordination and balance.
B.
speech.
C.
self-awareness.
D.
visual perception.
Anosognosia is most often caused by brain trauma that affects the right hemisphere of the brain. It involves a lack of awareness of symptoms on the left side of one’s body.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Anosognosia is defined as a deficit in self-awareness and, more specifically, awareness of one’s own symptoms.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: self-awareness.
In general, peer pressure reaches its peak in intensity during:
Select one:
A.
preadolescence (ages 10 to 13).
B. early adolescence (ages 13 to 15).
C. middle adolescence (ages 15 to 17).
D. late adolescence (ages 17 to 19).
The age at which conformity to peer pressure peaks varies somewhat for different types of behavior but, for most behaviors, it is most intense at around age 14 or 15.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Peer pressure increases during preadolescence, peaks during early adolescence (ages 13 to 15), and then gradually declines.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: early adolescence (ages 13 to 15).
In Piaget’s model of cognitive development, which stage is associated with the development of object permanence?
Select one:
A.
sensorimotor stage
B.
preoperational stage
C.
concrete operational stage
D.
formal operational stage
Object permanence is the ability of a child to recognize that an object continues to exist when the object is no longer visible.
a. CORRECT Object permanence is an accomplishment associated with the sensorimotor stage. Basic skills are developed during this stage.
b. Incorrect The preoperational stage begins the emergence of semiotic functions.
c. Incorrect Children in the concrete operational stage are capable of mental operations, which are logical rules for transforming and manipulating information.
d. Incorrect During the formal operational stage, a person is able to think abstractly, relativistically, and hypothetically.
The correct answer is: sensorimotor stage
A client you have been seeing in therapy for three months tells you that her former therapist made repeated sexual advances toward her. She tells you that she does not want you to say anything about it to anyone and that she just wants to “get over it.” As an ethical psychologist, you should:
Select one:
A.
inform the client that you are ethically obligated to make a report to the state licensing board.
B.
convince the client that she should make a report to the appropriate authorities.
C.
tell the client that you will maintain confidentiality.
D.
tell the client that you must file a complaint with APA but that you will not reveal her name.
It is important to keep in mind that client confidentiality nearly always takes priority over other concerns.
a. Incorrect In this situation, you are not required to make a report since the client has not waived confidentiality.
b. Incorrect “Convincing” the client would not be the best course of action.
c. CORRECT You would not want to make a report unless you had permission from the client.
d. Incorrect Although you could file a complaint without naming the client, the Ethics Committee would be unable to take action in most cases.
The correct answer is: tell the client that you will maintain confidentiality.
Which of the following are related to the psychology of oppression?
Select one:
A.
Strength, learning, knowledge, and cultural individuality.
B.
Perceptions, willpower, self-surrender, and power status.
C.
Apathy, individualism, loss of identity, and group think.
D.
Motivation, emotions, ambitions, and ideals.
The correct answer is D. The psychology of oppression consists of: motivation, agency, perception, emotions, ambitions, ideals, reasoning, memory, aesthetics, and morals that accept the oppressive social system, desire it, identify with it, take it for granted as normal and even as ideal, take pleasure in it, defend it, and reject alternatives to it. Answers A, B and C are incorrect as none of these are related to the psychology of oppression other than perception.
The correct answer is: Motivation, emotions, ambitions, and ideals.
The presence of which of the following symptoms would suggest a diagnosis of Conduct Disorder rather than a diagnosis of Oppositional Defiant Disorder?
Select one:
A.
frequent lying and running away from home
B.
low frustration tolerance and temper outbursts
C.
drug use
D.
onset of symptoms after age 12
Conduct Disorder involves a pattern of behavior in which the basic rights of others and major age-appropriate social norms or rules are violated.
a. CORRECT Lying and running away are characteristic of Conduct Disorder. Behaviors associated with Oppositional Defiant Disorder are less severe and include negativism, defiance, and hostility.
b. Incorrect Low tolerance for frustration and temper outbursts are characteristic of both disorders.
c. Incorrect The use of drugs does not help distinguish between the two disorder.
d. Incorrect The onset of both disorders is typically prepubertal.
The correct answer is: frequent lying and running away from home
Difficulties in concentration, forgetfulness, sensitivity to cold, unexplained weight gain, and constipation are symptomatic of:
Select one:
A.
pernicious anemia.
B.
hyperadrenalism.
C.
hypoglycemia.
D.
hypothyroidism.
For the exam, you should be aware that several physical conditions can mimic mental disorders.
a. Incorrect Pernicious anemia is associated with depression, feelings of guilt and worthlessness, anorexia and weight loss, and weakness.
b. Incorrect Hyperadrenalism involves depression, anxiety, and somatic delusions.
c. Incorrect Symptoms of hypoglycemia include weakness, headache, hunger, and anxiety.
d. CORRECT The symptoms listed in the question are all associated with hypothyroidism.
The correct answer is: hypothyroidism.
A screening test designed to identify individuals with traumatic brain injury identifies a number of individuals as having brain injury when, in fact, they do not. These individuals are:
Select one:
A.
false positives.
B.
true positives.
C.
false negatives.
D.
true negatives.
In the context of decision-making theory, individuals may be classified as false positives, true positives, false negatives, or true negatives based on their performance on the predictor and the criterion. (In the situation described in this question, the screening test is the predictor and the actual diagnosis/condition is the criterion.)
a. CORRECT False positives are individuals identified by the screening test as having brain injury when, in fact, they do not.
b. Incorrect True positives are individuals identified by the screening test as having brain injury when, in fact, they do.
c. Incorrect False negatives are individuals identified as not having brain injury when, in fact, they do.
d. Incorrect True negatives are individuals identified as not having brain injury when, in fact, they do not.
The correct answer is: false positives.
A mother is most likely to accurately recall which of the following about her child?
Select one:
A.
birth weight
B.
ages when first crawled and walked alone
C.
height at certain ages
D.
age when read first word
Certain facts about one’s child seem to be recalled most easily and accurately. (Even if you are not familiar with the research in this area, you may have been able to derive the answer from your own experiences.)
a. CORRECT Although mothers may remember specific information such as grades, height, etc., they most consistently and accurately remember their children’s birth weights.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: birth weight
According to the Health Belief Model, health behavior is related to:
Select one:
A.
a combination of information, motivation, and behavioral skills.
B.
perceived severity, perceived susceptibility, and perceived benefits.
C.
habit.
D.
intentions and perceived norms.
Several models have been developed to predict when people will act in ways that benefit their health.
a. Incorrect These are components of the Information-Motivation-Behavioral Skills model of AIDS prevention.
b. CORRECT The Health Belief Model is based on the premise that perceived severity of consequences, perceived susceptibility to consequences, and perceived benefits of preventive behavior all contribute to health behavior.
c. Incorrect Habit is not a component of the Health Belief Model.
d. Incorrect This sounds more like the Theory of Reasoned Action.
The correct answer is: perceived severity, perceived susceptibility, and perceived benefits.
The expression of some of our traits is restricted by our genetic make-up. In other words, for these traits, genotype restricts phenotype to a small number of outcomes. This is referred to as:
Select one:
A.
equilibration.
B.
canalization.
C.
niche-picking.
D.
epigenesis.
For the exam, you want to be familiar with all of the terms listed in the answers to this question. Additional information about them is provided in the Lifespan Development chapter of the study materials.
a. Incorrect Equilibration is the term Piaget used to describe the drive toward cognitive equilibrium, which he considered to be the motivating force for cognitive development.
b. CORRECT Canalization occurs when phenotype is restricted by genotype to a small number of developmental outcomes.
c. Incorrect Niche-picking is an alternative term for active genotype-environment correlation and refers to the tendency of individuals to seek experiences that are consistent with their genetic predispositions.
d. Incorrect Epigenesis refers to the bidirectional and continuous influences of heredity and environment on developmental outcomes.
The correct answer is: canalization.
A caller to a suicide helpline is most likely to be which of the following?
Select one:
A.
an African-American male
B.
an African-American female
C.
a White male
D.
a White female
The few studies that have been conducted to identify the types of callers to suicide helplines indicate that they are consistent with the groups who are at high risk for a suicide attempt. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Young White females are the most frequent callers to suicide helplines. This is not too surprising since whites make up the largest proportion of the population, and females are at a higher risk than males for both depression and a suicide attempt.
The correct answer is: a White female
An electrolyte imbalance is a possible complication of Bulimia Nervosa. The danger of this complication lies in the fact that it can lead to:
Select one:
A.
cardiac arrhythmia and arrest.
B.
blood dyscracias.
C.
permanent memory loss.
D.
dehydration.
Of the conditions listed, only one is a consequence of an electrolyte imbalance.
a. CORRECT Electrolyte imbalances caused by vomiting and the use of laxatives and diuretics can have serious consequences, including, in extreme cases, cardiac arrhythmia and arrest.
b. Incorrect Blood dyscracias are not caused by electrolyte imbalances.
c. Incorrect Permanent memory loss has not be linked to electrolyte imbalances.
d. Incorrect Dehydration is one of the causes (not consequences) of an electrolyte imbalance.
The correct answer is: cardiac arrhythmia and arrest.
Research by Kaye, Gendall, and Strober (1998) suggests that food restriction associated with Anorexia Nervosa reduces __________ levels.
Select one:
A.
serotonin
B.
acetylcholine
C.
dopamine
D.
glutamate
Kaye et al. found that anorexia is related to a higher-than-normal levels serotonin in the brain.
a. CORRECT Kaye proposes that high levels of serotonin cause anxiety and that starvation reduces tryptophan, which then reduces brain levels of serotonin and temporarily relieves anxiety. See, e.g., W Kay et al., Serotonin neuronal function and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors in anorexia and bulimia, Biological Psychiatry, 44(9), 825-838, 1998.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: serotonin
The Bonferroni test helps control the experimentwise error rate by:
Select one:
A.
controlling the total number of comparisons that can be made.
B.
reducing the level of significance for each comparison.
C.
permitting individual comparisons only after the omnibus test has produced significant results.
D.
requiring that all comparisons be conducted as two-tailed tests.
For the exam, you want to have the Bonferroni test associated with planned (a priori) comparisons.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT The greater the number of planned comparisons, the greater the likelihood that a Type I error will be made. The Bonferroni test controls this possibility by reducing the level of alpha for each comparison.
c. Incorrect The Bonferroni test takes the place of the omnibus test (ANOVA) and post-hoc comparisons.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: reducing the level of significance for each comparison.
From the perspective of Prochaska and DiClemente’s (1984) transtheoretical model of change, the failures of treatment programs for cigarette smoking are often due to the fact that:
Select one:
A.
the majority of smokers are not ready to change.
B.
cigarette-smoking is self-reinforcing and difficult to extinguish.
C.
nicotine addiction has a genetic component.
D.
interventions do not address the environmental cues that trigger relapse.
The Prochaska and DiClemente model describes six stages of change: precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, maintenance, and termination. Additional information about these stages is provided in the Clinical Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
a. CORRECT Research by Prochaska and colleagues has shown that a majority of individuals with addictions are in the precontemplation or contemplation stage and, therefore, are ambivalent about change. For these individuals, most interventions will be unsuccessful.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: the majority of smokers are not ready to change.
A practitioner of Rogers’s client-centered therapy would use the Q-sort technique to:
Select one:
A.
facilitate identifying a client’s diagnosis.
B.
help the client identify specific therapy goals.
C.
help identify solutions to a client’s presenting problems.
D.
evaluate a clients progress in therapy.
The Q-sort technique involves rank-ordering descriptive statements that are printed on separate cards. It requires the sorter to distribute the cards into a fixed number of piles along a continuum (for example, a continuum ranging from “not at all characteristic of me” to “extremely characteristic of me”) and to do so in a way so that the piles create a normal distribution. In therapy, this technique is often used to evaluate a client’s self-perceptions.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Rogers used the Q-sort technique to evaluate therapy progress by evaluating a client’s degree of congruence between his/her self and ideal self. This involved having the client first sort the cards in terms of how well they describe the client’s current self and then in terms of his/her ideal self. The more similar the two sorts, the greater the congruence between the self and ideal self.
The correct answer is: evaluate a clients progress in therapy.
With regard to the termination of professional services, the Ethics Code requires psychologists to:
Select one:
A.
offer to help the client locate alternative services.
B.
take actions that protect the best interests of the client.
C.
provide pretermination counseling and suggest alternative services.
D.
take action that is consistent with the reason(s) for the termination.
Standard 10.10(c) of the Ethics Code applies in this situation. It advises that certain steps be taken, regardless of the reason for the termination.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT None of the responses given is wrong but this one comes closest to the actual language of the Ethics Code and, therefore, is the best answer.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: provide pretermination counseling and suggest alternative services.
When using the DSM-5, a clinician would code which of the following to indicate that a client has symptoms that do not meet the diagnostic criteria for a specific disorder but does not want to specify the reason why?
Select one:
A.
[Disorder] not otherwise specified
B.
[Disorder] provisional
C.
other specified disorder
D.
unspecified disorder
Answer D is correct: When using the DSM-5, diagnostic uncertainty about a client’s diagnosis is indicated by coding one of the following: Other specified disorder is coded when the clinician wants to indicate the reason why the client’s symptoms do not meet the criteria for a specific diagnosis (e.g., “other specified depressive disorder, recurrent brief depression”); and unspecified disorder is coded when the clinician does not want to indicate the reason why the client’s symptoms do not meet the criteria for a specific diagnosis (e.g., unspecified depressive disorder).
Answer A: See explanation for answer D.
Answer B: When using the DSM-5, the provisional specifier applies when “there is a strong presumption that the full criteria will ultimately be met for a disorder but not enough information is available to make a firm diagnosis” (p. 23).
Answer C: See explanation for answer D.
The correct answer is: unspecified disorder
A psychologist is asked to evaluate a prisoner for the purpose of making a recommendation about the prisoner’s readiness for parole. To be consistent with ethical guidelines, the psychologist should:
Select one:
A.
refuse to do the evaluation since making a recommendation in this situation is prohibited.
B.
conduct the evaluation but base his recommendation on the results of standardized tests only.
C.
conduct the evaluation as long as the prisoner has been told the purpose of the evaluation and has been warned about the limits on confidentiality.
D.
conduct the evaluation after obtaining a consent from the prisoner’s legal representative and report the results without making a recommendation.
Special precaution is required when conducting evaluations and making recommendations in forensic settings.
a. Incorrect Making a recommendation is not prohibited by APA guidelines.
b. Incorrect The techniques used by psychologists must be valid, but there is nothing that says a psychologist can only use standardized tests.
c. CORRECT This response is most consistent with the requirements of Standard 9.03(a) of the Ethics Code and Paragraph 6.03 of the Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychology (APA, 2012).
d. Incorrect Again, a recommendation is not prohibited, so this response is not as good as response c.
The correct answer is: conduct the evaluation as long as the prisoner has been told the purpose of the evaluation and has been warned about the limits on confidentiality.
A(n) __________ would be most likely to agree that the basic structure of memory, attention, and other aspects of cognition are similar throughout the lifespan and that increasing complexity of these abilities during childhood are due to increases in capacity and efficiency.
Select one:
A.
Piagetian
B.
Vygotskian
C.
information processing theorist
D.
ecological systems theorist
Experts in the area of cognitive development have different explanations for the cognitive changes that occur during childhood.
a. Incorrect Piaget viewed cognitive development as the result of qualitative changes that occur as the consequence of biological maturation and interactions with the environment.
b. Incorrect Vygotsky focused on the impact of sociocultural factors in cognitive development.
c. CORRECT As an example, according to information processing theorists (e.g., Case, 1985; Fischer, 1980), increases in abstract reasoning during adolescence are due to increases in the underlying capacities to attend to information and to hold information in memory.
d. Incorrect Ecological systems theorists (e.g., Bronfenbrenner) emphasize the impact of external factors on development.
The correct answer is: information processing theorist
For a claim of malpractice:
Select one:
A.
the therapist must have had malevolent intentions and there must be a causal connection between the therapist’s acts and the harm suffered by the client.
B.
the therapist must have had malevolent intentions and/or there must be some harm to the client as a result of the therapist’s acts.
C.
the therapist may or may not have had malevolent intentions but there must be a causal connection between the therapist’s acts and the harm suffered by the client.
D.
the therapist must have violated normal “standards of practice” or must have had malevolent intentions.
A complaint of malpractice requires that (1) the psychologist had a professional relationship with the client that established a legal duty of care; (2) there must be a demonstrable standard of care that the psychologist breached; (3) the client must have suffered harm or injury; and (4) the psychologist’s breach of duty must be the proximate cause of that harm or injury.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT The psychologist’s actions do not have to be malevolent but there must be evidence that the psychologist’s actions are the cause of the harm suffered by the client.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: the therapist may or may not have had malevolent intentions but there must be a causal connection between the therapist’s acts and the harm suffered by the client.
Dr. Blue, a psychologist, is hired by a company to administer tests for the purpose of evaluating current employees to determine if they should be considered for promotion. In this situation:
Select one:
A.
an informed consent from examinees should be obtained.
B.
an informed consent is not required since the employer is Dr. Blue’s “client.”
C.
an informed consent from examinees is not required, although they should be reminded about the limits of confidentiality.
D.
it is up to Dr. Blue to decide whether any information about the test should be given to examinees.
This issue is addressed in APA’s Statement on the Disclosure of Test Data and in Standards for Educational and Psychological Testing.
a. CORRECT In most situations, psychologists obtain informed consents prior to testing from the person being evaluated or his/her legal guardian. Although there are exceptions in certain employment situations, this response is the best of those given.
b. Incorrect While it is not always necessary to get an informed consent in employment situations, this response is not as good as response a because the fact that the employer is the client does not automatically eliminate the need for an informed consent. (And, even when it isn’t necessary to obtain a consent, the individual should ordinarily be given some information about the purpose of the test, etc.)
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: an informed consent from examinees should be obtained.
In the assessment of cognitive abilities with a standardized test, you would most likely “test the limits”:
Select one:
A.
before administering the test using standardized procedures.
B.
as an alternative to administering the test using standardized procedures.
C.
after administering the test using standardized procedures.
D.
whenever it seems appropriate to do so.
Testing the limits was one of the early methods used to obtain additional qualitative information about an examinee’s abilities.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Testing the limits is done after the entire test has been administered under standardized conditions. It is used to obtain additional information about an examinee and may involve providing cues or asking questions.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: after administering the test using standardized procedures.
A psychologist is hired by an industrial development corporation to administer tests to help select key personnel. After being hired, the psychologist learns that the corporation is interested in screening potential employees for “homosexual tendencies,” and he is asked by company management to administer a projective test for the purpose of assessing sexual orientation. The psychologist should:
Select one:
A.
administer the test to applicants only after obtaining signed informed consents from job applicants.
B.
administer the test and make recommendations but do not give management the actual test results.
C.
administer the test and give the results to management since it is not his responsibility to decide what information should be used in making employment decisions.
D.
refuse to administer the test and explain to management that it is inappropriate to utilize projective tests for this purpose.
Ethical guidelines require psychologists to use tests only for purposes for which the tests have been validated. For example, Standard 9.02(a) of the APA’s Ethics Code requires psychologists to use tests only for purposes that are “appropriate in light of the research on or evidence of the usefulness and proper application of the techniques.”
a. Incorrect Consent is not the issue in this situation. Obtaining an informed consent would not resolve the unethical use of a test.
b. Incorrect Use of a projective test to make employment decisions is not considered ethical due to a lack of validity evidence, and the psychologist, therefore, should not administer the test.
c. Incorrect It is the psychologist’s responsibility to ensure that tests and test results are not misused.
d. CORRECT Use of projective tests for this purpose is unethical because (1) projective tests have not been validated as job selection tests and (2) homosexuality has not been shown to be related to job performance. Therefore, using a projective test in the selection process to identify homosexual tendencies violates ethical guidelines.
The correct answer is: refuse to administer the test and explain to management that it is inappropriate to utilize projective tests for this purpose.
When using the DSM-5, level of severity of Intellectual Disability is based on:
Select one:
A.
The individual’s score on a standardized intelligence test.
B.
The individual’s adaptive functioning in conceptual, social, and practical domains.
C.
The degree of discrepancy between the individual’s cognitive and adaptive functioning.
D.
The degree of discrepancy between the individual’s IQ and academic achievement.
Answer B is correct: The DSM-5 distinguishes between four levels of severity for Intellectual Disability - mild, moderate, severe, and profound - and bases them on level of adaptive functioning in conceptual, social, and practical domains.
The correct answer is: The individual’s adaptive functioning in conceptual, social, and practical domains.
The results of the Seattle Longitudinal Study found that:
Select one:
A.
Measures of crystallized and fluid intelligence both begin to show substantial age-related declines in the mid- to late-40s.
B.
Measures of crystallized intelligence show earlier age-related declines than measures of fluid intelligence.
C.
Measures of perceptual speed and numeric ability begin to show age-related declines sooner than measures of vocabulary and verbal memory.
D.
Measures of inductive reasoning, spatial orientation, and verbal memory begin to show age-relaed declines in the mid- to late-20s.
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the results of the Seattle Longitudinal Study, which are described in the Psychological Assessment chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT The Seattle Longitudinal Study (which used a cross-sequential design that combined cross-sectional and longitudinal methodologies) found that, overall, intelligence remains relatively stable until the late 60s. However, of the mental abilities, perceptual speed and numeric ability are the first to decline.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: Measures of perceptual speed and numeric ability begin to show age-related declines sooner than measures of vocabulary and verbal memory.
The court offers a defendant the choice of jail or an in-patient alcohol treatment program after he is found guilty of driving while intoxicated. As the clinician who will be working with the man at the treatment center, you should keep in mind that:
Select one:
A.
a waiver of confidentiality is not required because treatment has been court-ordered.
B.
a waiver of confidentiality is not required because the man gave up his right to confidentiality by committing the crime.
C.
a waiver of confidentiality is not required because the man gave up his right to confidentiality by choosing the treatment program instead of jail.
D.
a waiver of confidentiality is required and should be obtained before you release any information about the man’s treatment to the court.
Even though the treatment is court-ordered, a waiver of confidentiality is required before any information about the man’s treatment is released to the court.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT The usual procedure is for the individual to sign a waiver of confidentiality when he/she chooses the treatment option. However, you would want to check to make sure this has occurred and, if not, you would want to obtain a signed waiver. See, e.g., L. C. Sobell and M. B. Sobell, Preserving client rights, New York: The Free Press, 1981.
The correct answer is: a waiver of confidentiality is required and should be obtained before you release any information about the man’s treatment to the court.
_________ is most often used to initially diagnose a cerebral contusion because it is usually available in medical settings, is cost effective, and can be performed quickly.
Select one:
A.
MRI
B.
CT
C.
SPECT
D.
PET
A cerebral contusion is bruising of the brain that is caused by a head injury.
a. Incorrect An MRI is more sensitive and accurate than a CT scan but is often not available, is more costly, takes more time, and may require sedation of the patient. Consequently, it is used less often than a CT scan for the initial detection of a contusion.
b. CORRECT A CT scan is most commonly used to initially detect a contusion for the reasons stated in this question. See, e.g., B. Lee and A. Newberg, Neuroimagining in traumatic brain imaging, NeuroRx, 2(2), 372-383, 2005.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: CT
You agree to see an adolescent in therapy. Before you begin therapy, the parents tell you they will want information about how their son is progressing. As an ethical psychologist, you should:
Select one:
A.
tell the boy you’ll have to tell his parents everything.
B.
tell the boy’s parents that you can’t tell them anything.
C.
agree in advance with all parties what, if anything, will be revealed to the parents.
D.
proceed with caution.
Ethically, a psychologist has the obligation to protect the confidentiality of his/her client, but legally, in most situations, parents have the right to information obtained in therapy about their minor child. This dilemma is acknowledged by the Ethics Code, which requires that psychologists consider the preferences and best interests of individuals who are legally incapable of giving informed consent.
a. Incorrect In most circumstances, this course of action will not be consistent with the adolescent’s best interest.
b. Incorrect If you do this, you will be acting in conflict with the law. Legally, in most situations, parents have the right to information obtained in therapy by a psychologist about their minor children. Ethically, however, in order to safeguard the child’s interests, psychologists should try to encourage parents to respect confidentiality.
c. CORRECT This course of action best meets the psychologist’s ethical and legal obligations. An advance agreement safeguards the interests of the adolescent, who would be made aware of the types of information which may not be kept confidential.
d. Incorrect Certainly, you should proceed with caution in this situation, as you should in any situation in which you are faced with a possible ethical dilemma. However, this is a very general response to a situation that is more specific. When answering these types of questions, you should choose responses with a level of specificity that matches the question.
The correct answer is: agree in advance with all parties what, if anything, will be revealed to the parents.
An adult with traumatic brain injury is likely to obtain the lowest scores on which of the following WAIS-IV subtests?
Select one:
A.
Symbol Search, Coding, and Cancellation
B.
Block Design, Visual Puzzles, and Picture Completion
C.
Digit Span, Arithmetic, and Letter-Number Sequencing
D.
Vocabulary, Similarities, and Information
Answer A is correct: The WAIS-IV Technical Manual provides score profiles for various clinical groups. It indicates that individuals in several clinical groups – e.g., traumatic brain injury, mild Alzheimer’s dementia, and ADHD – obtained the lowest score on the Processing Speed Index, which consists of the Symbol Search, Coding, and Cancellation subtests.
The correct answer is: Symbol Search, Coding, and Cancellation
A supervisor administers a test on the material covered in a training program to employees who have just completed the program in order to assess its effectiveness. Six months later, the same supervisor rates the employees on their job performance and correlates the two sets of scores. She obtains a correlation coefficient of .65. Most likely, the magnitude of the coefficient has been biased by which of the following?
Select one:
A.
shrinkage
B.
criterion contamination
C.
a contrast effect
D.
demand characteristics
In the situation described in this question, the same person is rating employees on the predictor and criterion.
a. Incorrect Shrinkage is associated with cross-validation.
b. CORRECT When knowledge of a person’s performance on the predictor affects how he/she is rated on the criterion, criterion contamination has occurred and is likely to inflate the criterion-related validity coefficient. A coefficient of .65 is relatively high and may reflect criterion contamination.
c. Incorrect The contrast effect occurs when the ability of previous interviewees or applicants affects how a subsequent interviewee or applicant is evaluated.
d. Incorrect Demand characteristics are cues in the environment that inform research participants what behaviors are expected from them.
The correct answer is: criterion contamination
An intern at a large mental health clinic decides to work at another agency and makes appointments to see several of her previous clients at her new place of employment. Her actions are:
Select one:
A.
commendable since it makes it possible for the clients to have continuity in therapy.
B.
ethical as long as adequate supervision is available at the agency.
C.
unethical because she has previously worked with the clients.
D.
unethical because the clients are already receiving services from the clinic.
Standard 10.04 of the APA’s Ethics Code states that, “in deciding whether to offer or provide services to those already receiving mental health services elsewhere, psychologists carefully consider the treatment issues and the potential client’s/patient’s welfare. Psychologists discuss these issues with the client/patient … in order to minimize the risk of confusion and conflict, consult with the other service providers when appropriate, and proceed with caution and sensitivity to the therapeutic issues.”
a. Incorrect As suggested by this Standard, interns should not take clients from a previous place of employment without considering the professional relationships involved, the therapeutic issues, and the welfare of the clients.
b. Incorrect Interns should not see clients without supervision. However, even if appropriate supervision is available, an intern should not offer his/her services to clients of a previous place of employment.
c. Incorrect This response really doesn’t make sense.
d. CORRECT This response is most in line with Standard 10.04. By going ahead and making the appointments, the intern is not taking steps to minimize the risk of confusion and conflict and is not consulting with the other service providers.
The correct answer is: unethical because the clients are already receiving services from the clinic.
A manager engaged in long-range planning for his company is fairly confident about the strategic plan he has developed for the future but has some reservations about its acceptability. In this situation, the approach-avoidance conflict model predicts that, as it gets closer to the time to implement the plan:
Select one:
A.
the positive aspects of the plan will increase in strength for the manager while the negative aspects decrease.
B.
the negative aspects of the plan will increase in strength for the manager while the positive aspects decrease.
C.
the positive and negative aspects of the plan will both increase in strength for the manager, but the negative aspects will increase more.
D.
the positive and negative aspects of the plan will both decrease in strength for the manager, but the positive aspects will decrease more.
The approach-avoidance conflict is an intraindividual conflict that occurs when a goal or alternative has both positive and negative qualities. For information on other types of intraindividual conflict, see the Social Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT As distance from the goal decreases, the strength of both the “approach gradient” and the “avoidance gradient” increases. However, the strength of the avoidance gradient increases more rapidly, meaning that, as you get closer to the goal, the more likely that you will choose to avoid it.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: the positive and negative aspects of the plan will both increase in strength for the manager, but the negative aspects will increase more.
The impact of social roles on behavior was demonstrated by:
Select one:
A.
Berkowitz’s research on the frustration-aggression hypothesis.
B.
Latane and Darley’s research on bystander apathy.
C.
Zimbardo’s prison study.
D.
Sherif’s Robber’s Cave study.
For the exam, you want to be familiar with all of the studies listed in the answers to this question. These studies are described in the Social Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Zimbardo’s (1972) prison study demonatrated that, under certain conditions, people will behave in uncharacteristically irrational and unacceptable ways that are consistent with assigned social roles.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: Zimbardo’s prison study.
Transformational leaders:
Select one:
A.
appeal to the self-interest of their followers.
B.
help followers recognize that their goals are compatible with the organization’s goals.
C.
induce followers to transcend self-interest for the sake of the organization.
D.
redefine the organization’s goals to better coincide with the self-interest of followers.
Transformational leaders motivate followers to accept and support organizational change that is in the best interests of the organization.
a. Incorrect This is more characteristic of transactional leaders.
b. Incorrect This is less consistent with descriptions of transformational leaders than response c.
c. CORRECT Transformational leaders motivate workers to achieve transcendental goals that go beyond each worker’s immediate self-interests.
d. Incorrect This is not true about transformational leaders.
The correct answer is: induce followers to transcend self-interest for the sake of the organization.
For the treatment of migraine headaches:
Select one:
A.
autogenic training is more effective than thermal biofeedback.
B.
thermal biofeedback is more effective than autogenic training.
C.
thermal biofeedback plus autogenic training is more effective than either treatment alone.
D.
thermal biofeedback plus autogenic training is no more effective than either treatment alone.
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the research on the use of biofeedback for the disorders addressed in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Several studies have found that this combination of treatments is the best approach for migraine headaches.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: thermal biofeedback plus autogenic training is more effective than either treatment alone.
Research on Helms’s White Racial Identity Development Model has shown that White therapists are most effective in cross-cultural counseling situations when they are in which stage of identity development?
Select one:
A.
the stage that matches the client’s stage of identity development
B.
the stage that complements the client’s stage of identity development
C.
the reintegration stage
D.
the autonomy stage
Helms’s (1995) model distinguishes between six stages of identity development: contact, disintegration, reintegration, pseudo-independence, immersion-emersion, and autonomy.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT The research on Helms’s model has found that, the more advanced the White therapist’s identity development, the greater his/her effectiveness when working with clients from culturally diverse groups.
The correct answer is: the autonomy stage
With regard to power in the client-therapist relationship, a feminist therapist would most likely:
Select one:
A.
recognize that her power stems primarily from her ability to serve as a role-model.
B.
acknowledge the power differential inherent in the relationship but view it as a temporary condition.
C.
initially foster her position of power so as to maximize her influence.
D.
regard power a “non-issue” because feminist therapists consider the therapeutic relationship to be egalitarian.
A key feature of feminist therapy is its promotion of an egalitarian approach.
a. Incorrect Although the therapist is viewed as a role model by many feminist therapists (and their clients), feminist therapists attempt to minimize the power differential inherent in the therapeutic relationship.
b. CORRECT This issue is addressed by M. A. Douglas in her chapter entitled “The Role of Power in Feminist Therapy: A Reformulation” [in L. B. Rosewater and L. E. A. Walker (Eds.), Handbook of feminist therapy: Woman’s issues in psychotherapy, New York: Springer, 1985]. According to Douglas, the power differential inherent in the therapeutic relationship should, first of all, be acknowledged. It should also be viewed as temporary since the goal of therapy will be to terminate the relationship and/or to readjust the relationship so that it is more egalitarian. Douglas stresses the importance of minimizing the power differential inherent in the therapeutic relationship.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect Feminist therapists acknowledge the power differential inherent in the therapeutic relationship and view it as an issue that must be dealt with.
The correct answer is: acknowledge the power differential inherent in the relationship but view it as a temporary condition.
In organizations, quality circles (QCs):
Select one:
A.
consist of workers who make work-related decisions that were previously made by management.
B.
consist of workers who make suggestions to management about solutions to work-related problems.
C.
include a designated internal change agent who is responsible for initiating, guiding, and evaluating a change effort.
D.
include an external change agent who helps employees adapt to change.
QCs consist of a small team of employees who work together on a particular job and meet voluntarily to discuss solutions to job productivity problems.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT A feature that distinguishes QCs from other types of work teams is that members of QCs do not make final decisions about solutions to problems but, instead, recommend their solutions to management.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: consist of workers who make suggestions to management about solutions to work-related problems.
According to the overjustification hypothesis:
Select one:
A.
external rewards increase intrinsic interest.
B.
intrinsic interest decreases the valuation of external rewards.
C.
external rewards decrease intrinsic interest.
D.
intrinsic interest increases the valuation of external rewards.
The overjustification hypothesis predicts that, when an external reward is given to a person for performing an intrinsically rewarding activity, the person’s intrinsic activity will decrease.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Results of research demonstrating this phenomenon have been interpreted in terms of Bem’s self-perception theory, which proposes that people make attributions about their own attitudes and feelings by observing their own behaviors. This theory implies that a person observing herself doing something for an external reward would conclude that the external reward, and not intrinsic interest, is the cause of her behavior.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: external rewards decrease intrinsic interest.
A client you have been seeing for eight months says he wants to quit therapy. He feels that the original problems he came to therapy for have all been resolved. You disagree and feel that there is good reason for the man to continue seeing you. You should:
Select one:
A.
get the client to agree to a few more sessions.
B.
discuss his reasons for wanting to terminate.
C.
discuss his reasons for wanting to terminate and your reasons for thinking he should continue.
D.
let him terminate but let him know he can come back if he desires.
Obviously you can’t force a client to continue seeing you, but you should discuss your reservations about his termination.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT If you believe it would not be good for the client to quit at this time, you should discuss this with him. If he still wants to leave, then you’d want to assure him that he can come back and/or give him appropriate referrals.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: discuss his reasons for wanting to terminate and your reasons for thinking he should continue.
Difficulty in repeating words just spoken by another person and recalling the name of a familiar object are characteristic symptoms of:
Select one:
A.
Wernicke’s aphasia only.
B.
Wernicke’s and conduction aphasia only.
C.
Wernicke’s and Broca’s aphasia only.
D.
Wernicke’s, Broca’s, and conduction aphasia.
The three aphasias listed in the responses - Wernicke’s, Broca’s and conduction - share several characteristics. These characteristics are described in the Physiological Psychology and Psychopharmacology chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT All three types of aphasia involve the two symptoms listed in the question (difficulty in repeating words and recalling the names of familiar objects). Note that conduction aphasia is due to damage to nerve fibers that connect Broca’s area to Wernicke’s area.
The correct answer is: Wernicke’s, Broca’s, and conduction aphasia.
To encourage college students to participate in her research study, Dr. LaPlace offers students free admittance to a popular four-hour workshop (“Finding a Meaningful Relationship and Keeping It”) that is offered by a colleage of hers. This policy:
Select one:
A.
is unacceptable since it is coercive and, therefore, violates the provisions of the Ethics Code.
B.
is unacceptable since it represents a multiple relationship and, therefore, violates the provisions of the Ethics Code.
C.
is unacceptable since it represents a “conflict of interest” and, therefore, violates the provisions of the Ethics Code.
D.
may be acceptable as long as Dr. LaPlace is careful to clarify any risks, obligations, and so on with the students.
The Ethics Code does not prohibit the use of inducements for encouraging people to participate in a research studybut does place some limitations on their use.
a. Incorrect The situation described in this question cannot really be considered coercive: It would be coercive if the research was being conducted in a prison and prisoners were led to believe that they would receive special privileges if they participate in the research study.
b. Incorrect There may be cases when this would be true, but there isn’t any information in the question to assume that a multiple (dual) relationship is relevant to this situation.
c. Incorrect A conflict of interest is not relevant to this situation.
d. CORRECT Standard 8.06(b) of the Code states that in offering professional services as an inducement to potential research participants, “psychologists clarify the nature of the services, as well as the risks, obligations, and limitations.
The correct answer is: may be acceptable as long as Dr. LaPlace is careful to clarify any risks, obligations, and so on with the students.
The most consistent evidence for neurogenesis in human adults has been provided for which of the following areas of the brain?
Select one:
A.
reticular formation
B.
hippocampus
C.
medulla oblongata
D.
hypothalamus
Neurogenesis is the development of new neurons.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Until relatively recently, it was believed that humans do not experience neurogenesis following the postnatal period. However, there is now consistent evidence that neurogenesis continues throughout the lifespan in the hippocampus and olfactory bulb. (See, e.g., P. S. Erikkson et al., Neurogenesis in the adult human hippocampus, Nature Medicine, 4, 1313-1317, 1998.) While there have been some reports of postnatal neurogenesis in the caudate nucleus, amygdala, neocortex, and substantia nigra, these findings have not been consistently replicated.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: hippocampus
Longitudinal research by John M. Gottman (1994) has linked criticism, defensiveness, contempt, and stonewalling to a high risk for:
Select one:
A.
divorce in the first seven years following marriage.
B.
child abuse.
C.
delinquency in girls in early adolescence.
D.
acting out behaviors by boys following the divorce of their parents.
Knowing that Gottman and his colleagues have investigated risk factors for divorce would have helped you identify the correct response to this question.
a. CORRECT Gottman and his colleagues (1994) have conducted longitudinal research investigating the interactions between married couples that predict divorce. They have found that the combination of criticism, defensiveness, contempt, and stonewalling (which they refer to as the “four horseman of the Apocalypse”) is associated with a high risk for early divorce, while the suppression of both positive and negative affect predicts later divorce.
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: divorce in the first seven years following marriage.
Research on the comorbidity of the eating disorders suggests that the rates of OCD, Social Phobia, and Specific Phobia are:
Select one:
A.
higher in individuals with Anorexia Nervosa and Bulimia Nervosa than in other individuals and that the onset of the anxiety disorder is most often prior to the onset of the eating disorder.
B.
higher in individuals with Anorexia Nervosa or Bulimia Nervosa than in other individuals and the onset of the anxiety disorder is most often simultaneous with the onset of the eating disorder.
C.
higher in individuals with Anorexia Nervosa or Bulimia Nervosa than in other individuals and the onset of the anxiety disorder is most often after the onset of the eating disorder.
D.
similar in individuals with Anorexia Nervosa or Bulimia Nervosa as the rates for other individuals and the onset is most often simultaneous with the onset of the eating disorder.
The research has generally found that the rates of several anxiety disorders are higher among individuals with an eating disorder than among individuals in the general population.
a. CORRECT The majority of studies have found that the onset of the anxiety disorder precedes the onset of the eating disorder. See, e.g., W. H. Kaye et al., Comorbidity of anxiety disorders with anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa, American Journal of Psychiatry, 161, 2215-2221, 2004.
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: higher in individuals with Anorexia Nervosa and Bulimia Nervosa than in other individuals and that the onset of the anxiety disorder is most often prior to the onset of the eating disorder.
Dr. Tout, a psychologist, has been asked to serve as a fact witness by the plaintiff’s attorney. The plaintiff was in a car accident three months ago and is claiming that he has suffered from persistent emotional problems as a result of the accident. He has been seeing Dr. Tout in therapy for these problems for several weeks. During her testimony in court, Dr. Tout is asked by the plaintiff’s attorney whether, in her opinion, the patient’s emotional difficulties are directly related to the accident. Dr. Tout should:
Select one:
A.
comply with the request as long as she also presents any information regarding possible limitations of her opinion.
B.
comply with request only if her evaluation of the defendant has provided her with sufficient information for an informed opinion.
C.
comply with the request only if the defendant has waived his right to confidentiality.
D.
not comply with the request unless she is ordered to do so by the court.
The distinction between a fact witness and an expert witness is an important one. As their names imply, a fact witness testifies only to the facts, while an expert witness can offer an opinion. Note that, in this question, Dr. Tout has been asked to serve as a fact witness.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT This issue is addressed by T. P. Remley in Preparing for court appearances, American Counseling Association, Alexandria, VA, 1991. Remley notes that a fact witness should not render an opinion at a hearing or trial and, if asked to give an opinion, should note that he/she is not in a position to do so because of potential bias, insufficient information on which to base an opinion, etc. (A psychologist may be required to give an opinion when ordered to do so by the court. However, even in this situation, the psychologist should qualify the opinion with a statement about its potential limitations.)
The correct answer is: not comply with the request unless she is ordered to do so by the court.
Self-monitoring is used in cognitive-behavioral therapies:
Select one:
A.
to facilitate diagnosis.
B.
as both an assessment tool and an intervention.
C.
to foster feelings of self-efficacy.
D.
to explore the underlying meaning of events.
Self-monitoring is what it sounds like – in involves monitoring one’s own behavior.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Self-monitoring has been found useful not only as an assessment technique but also as an intervention because it tends to alter the target behavior in the desired direction.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: as both an assessment tool and an intervention.
When factors in a factor matrix are “oblique,” this means that:
Select one:
A.
the correlation coefficient for any two factors is equal to zero.
B.
the correlation coefficient for any two factors is greater than zero.
C.
the identified factors explain a statistically significant amount of variability in test scores.
D.
the identified factors do not explain a statistically significant amount of variability in test scores.
For the exam, you want to know the difference between orthogonal and oblique factors.
a. Incorrect In the context of factor analysis, orthogonal means “uncorrelated.”
b. CORRECT In the context of factor analysis, oblique means “correlated.”
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: the correlation coefficient for any two factors is greater than zero.
Which of the following is best conceptualized as a type of aversive counterconditioning?
Select one:
A.
implosive therapy
B.
overcorrection
C.
response cost
D.
covert sensitization
Aversive counterconditioning is used to eliminate an undesirable behavior that produces a pleasant or positive response (e.g., sexual arousal) by pairing stimuli associated with that behavior with stimuli that produce an unpleasant response. By doing so, the pleasant response is replaced by the unpleasant response and the behavior is reduced or eliminated.
a. Incorrect Implosive therapy is used to eliminate anxiety and involves exposing the individual to the anxiety-arousing stimulus in imagination for an extended period of time.
b. Incorrect Overcorrection is usually classified as a type of punishment and involves having the individual engage in certain behaviors as a penalty for having performed the target behavior - e.g., “fixing” the consequences of the target behavior and/or engaging in alternative desirable behaviors.
c. Incorrect Response cost is a type of negative punishment that involves removing a stimulus (e.g., a privilege) following a behavior whenever it occurs in order to reduce the frequency of that behavior.
d. CORRECT When using covert sensitization to eliminate an undesirable behavior, the individual imagines an unpleasant (aversive) consequence while imagining that he/she is engaging in the behavior.
The correct answer is: covert sensitization
The diagnosis of a spinal cord injury generally relies on which of the following?
Select one:
A.
X-ray and MRI or CT
B.
X-ray and CPAP
C.
actigraphy and MRI or CT
D.
actigraphy and PET or SPECT
The procedure used to diagnose a spinal cord injury varies somewhat from facility to facility but ordinarily includes an X-ray and either an MRI or CT.
a. CORRECT An X-ray is often the initial assessment and is used to identify fractures or other injuries to the spine. An MRI or CT is then used to obtain information on injury to the soft tissues of the spine.
b. Incorrect CPAP (continuous positive airway pressure) is a treatment for sleep apnea.
c. Incorrect Actigraphy is used to monitor body movement and is sometimes used in the assessment of sleep disorders.
d. Incorrect See explanations above.
The correct answer is: X-ray and MRI or CT
A psychologist investigating short-term memory shows the letter “T” to each research subject for a brief period and, after removing the letter, asks the subject what he or she has seen. The psychologist finds that many subjects report seeing the wrong letter, with the most common error of recall being which of the following letters?
Select one:
A.
L
B.
D
C.
S
D.
F
This is a difficult question that requires you to know that information in short-term memory is believed to be primarily coded acoustically.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Studies similar to the one described in this question have found that errors in short-term memory usually involve a confusion of letters that sound alike, thereby supporting the theory that information is stored acoustically in short-term memory. Of the letters listed in the responses, only “D” sounds like “T”.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: D
Freud argued that the “work of the mental apparatus is directed toward keeping the quantity of excitation low.” If the mental apparatus is unsuccessful in doing so, the result is likely to be which of the following?
Select one:
A.
anxiety
B.
ego decompensation
C.
psychosis
D.
object-cathexis
Excessive excitation by the id’s impulses, according to Freud, leads to anxiety.
a. CORRECT The function of the ego’s defense mechanisms, for example, is to keep the conflicts that produce anxiety out of consciousness.
b. Incorrect This is a “made up” term.
c. Incorrect While unresolved anxiety can, from a Freudian perspective, lead to psychosis, this is not necessarily the case and, therefore, is not the best answer.
d. Incorrect Although object cathexis is a psychoanalytic term, it refers to the id’s investment of energy into an object that will satisfy an instinctual need and is not the correct answer to this question.
The correct answer is: anxiety
Weber’s law explains why:
Select one:
A.
you perceive objects that are close together as a single stimulus or unity.
B.
you can be heard when you whisper in a very quiet room but must shout to be heard in a very loud, noisy room.
C.
you perform better in the presence of others on simple tasks but worse in the presence of others on difficult or complex tasks.
D.
you feel less pain after banging your elbow when you vigorously rub your elbow or apply heat to it.
Weber’s law is one of the psychophysical laws that explains the relationship between physical stimuli and their psychological effects.
a. Incorrect This is the prediction made by the Gestaltian “law of proximity.”
b. CORRECT According to Weber’s law, the “just-noticeable difference” in a stimulus is proportional to the magnitude of the original stimulus. It explains why a whisper is audible in a quiet room but not in a very noisy room.
c. Incorrect This answer describes social facilitation (performing better in the presence of others on simple tasks) and social inhibition (performing worse in the presence of others on complex tasks).
d. Incorrect This answer illustrates the prediction made by the gate-control theory of pain.
The correct answer is: you can be heard when you whisper in a very quiet room but must shout to be heard in a very loud, noisy room.
In adults, the early motor symptoms of Huntington’s disease most often involve:
Select one:
A.
tingling, numbness, and weakness in one limb.
B.
repetitive movements in the extremities and face.
C.
slowness and poverty of movement.
D.
difficulty swallowing and speaking.
The early signs of Hungtington’s disease vary from individual to individual. For some, the initial symptoms are motor; for others, affective or cognitive.
a. Incorrect These symptoms are characteristic of multiple sclerosis.
b. CORRECT For many adults, early motor symptoms include rapid, repetitive, involuntary movements in the extremities and face - e.g., “piano-playing” movements of the fingers and facial grimaces.
c. Incorrect Slowness and poverty of movement are characteristic of Parkinson’s disease.
d. Incorrect Difficulty swallowing and speaking are characteristic of the later stages of Huntington’s disease.
The correct answer is: repetitive movements in the extremities and face.
The parent of a one-year-old says her daughter shows signs of understanding some of what is said to her. However, the girl is still babbling and the closest she has come to a word is “dadada.” You:
Select one:
A.
advise the parent that this is within the range of normal language development.
B.
tell the parent that most children don’t speak their first words until 16 or 17 months of age.
C.
refer the parent and her daughter to a speech pathologist for an evaluation of the child’s language ability.
D.
consider the possibility of a diagnosis of Expressive Language Disorder.
At 12 months of age, children still babble, although their babbling consists primarily of identical sound sequences (“dadada”). While many children have spoken their first words by this age, it is not uncommon for first words to appear in subsequent months.
a. CORRECT The child’s language development is “on track.”
b. Incorrect Most children utter their first words prior to 17 or 18 months.
c. Incorrect The child’s language skills do not indicate developmental delays, so this is unnecessary.
d. Incorrect The child’s language abilities are not indicative of a disorder.
The correct answer is: advise the parent that this is within the range of normal language development.
A psychology intern administers tests to clients of a mental health clinic, but her supervisor scores the tests and interprets their results. When preparing the psychological report, the supervisor does not indicate that the intern administered the tests. This is:
Select one:
A.
ethical as long as the client was informed that the examiner is a psychology intern and was given the supervisors name.
B.
ethical since the supervisor is ultimately responsible for the accuracy of the psychological report.
C.
unethical since the intern should not be administering psychological tests.
D.
unethical since the intern should be listed as the examiner in the report.
Answer D is correct: This issue is not directly addressed in the Ethics Code or the Standards for Educational and Psychological Testing. Therefore, to answer this question, you must consider which response is most consistent with the “spirit” of these documents. This response is most consistent with the provisions of the APA guidelines. See, for example, Standard 5.01(b) of the Ethics Code, which prohibits psychologists from making misleading statements, and Standard 6.06, which requires psychologists to provide accurate information to payors and funding sources.
The correct answer is: unethical since the intern should be listed as the examiner in the report.
Research on parenting styles suggests that parents who are _____________ are most likely to have adolescents who are high in academic achievement.
Select one:
A.
high in both demandingness and warmth
B.
high in demandingness but low in warmth
C.
low in demandingness and warmth
D.
low in demandingness but high in warmth
Two dimensions are often used to categorize parenting styles - demandingness/control and warmth/support.
a. CORRECT Research by Baumrind and others has confirmed that an authoritative parenting style (i.e., a style characterized by a high degree of warmth and demandingess) is most predictive of academic success in adolescence.
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: high in both demandingness and warmth
The “paired comparison” technique is:
Select one:
A.
a method of job analysis.
B.
a method of job evaluation.
C.
a relative measure of job performance.
D.
an absolute measure of job performance.
The paired comparison technique is a performance appraisal technique.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT When using the paired comparison technique, all employees are compared to each other in pairs for each dimension of job performance.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: a relative measure of job performance.
Which of the following approaches in family therapy encourages the therapist to develop a “therapeutic triangle” with family members?
Select one:
A.
extended family systems therapy
B.
communication/interaction family therapy
C.
adaptive family therapy
D.
strategic family therapy
In extended family systems theory, one therapeutic technique involves creating a therapeutic triangle in which the therapist actively interacts with two family members during the treatment process. The goal is to shed light on and reduce the fusion that exists between family members.
a. CORRECT Bowen’s extended family systems therapy encourages the therapist to become a member in a therapeutic triangle with two family members (usually the spouses/partners).
b. Incorrect In communication/interaction family therapy, the therapist serves as a facilitator and teacher.
c. Incorrect Adaptive family therapy is a “made up” term.
d. Incorrect Although strategic family therapy involves an active therapist, the role of the therapist is to assess the problems, not to become a member of the family’s triangles.
The correct answer is: extended family systems therapy
Sherif et al.’s (1961) “Robber’s Cave” study is considered important because of the information it provided on:
Select one:
A.
social facilitation and inhibition.
B.
competition and cooperation.
C.
bystander apathy.
D.
conformity to group norms.
Sherif et al.’s (1961) study was one of the first that investigated factors that produce and alleviate intergroup competition.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Sherif and his colleagues found that introducing a superordinate goal that could be accomplished only when members of two groups cooperated was the most effective way for reducing intergroup competition and hostility.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: competition and cooperation.
The “risky shift phenomenon” is a potential problem when:
Select one:
A.
employees are low in both motivation and ability.
B.
employees work together to derive a work-related decision.
C.
a subjective rating scale is used to evaluate employee performance.
D.
a controversial message is delivered by a highly credible communicator.
The research has shown that group decision-making is associated with a number of potential liabilities including the risky shift phenomenon.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT The risky shift is the tendency for decisions made by a group to be less conservative (more risky) than the decisions made by individuals working alone. For additional information on the risky shift and related phenomena, see the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the AATBS written study materials.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: employees work together to derive a work-related decision.
A partial seizure is characterized by:
Select one:
A.
a focal onset in one hemisphere of the brain with or without a loss of consciousness.
B.
a focal onset in one hemisphere of the brain without a loss of consciousness.
C.
a focal onset in one hemisphere of the brain with a loss of consciousness.
D.
a simultaneous onset in both hemispheres of the brain without a loss of consciousness.
Epileptic seizures are categorized as either partial or generalized.
a. CORRECT Partial seizures begin in one hemisphere and affect movement and sensations beginning on one side of the body. Simple partial seizures do not affect consciousness, while complex partial seizures do alter consciousness.
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: a focal onset in one hemisphere of the brain with or without a loss of consciousness.
For Kohler and other Gestalt psychologists, learning is the result of which of the following?
Select one:
A.
the development of mental models
B.
the formation of associations between stimuli and responses
C.
the perception of relationships among elements of the problem
D.
observation and imitation of the behavior of others
Kohler was one of the founders of Gestalt psychology, which is based on the assumption that “the whole is greater than the sum of its parts.” He is probably best known for his work on insight.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Kohler described insight as a type of relational thinking - i.e., the sudden understanding of relationships among elements of the problem situation.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: the perception of relationships among elements of the problem
Research on the impact of cultural identification on substance abuse among Native American youth has found that the risk for abuse is:
Select one:
A.
lowest for those who are acculturated into the non-Native American (mainstream) culture.
B.
lowest for those who can adapt to both Native American and non-Native American cultures.
C.
highest for those who strongly identify with the Native American culture and reject the non-Native American culture.
D.
highest for those who do not strongly identify with either the Native American or non-Native American culture.
The studies have established a link between risk for substance abuse and cultural identity for Native American youth.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT The studies have shown that either strong identification with one’s own Native American tribe or a bicultural identity is associated with a lower risk for substance use than a strong identification with the mainstream culture only. See, e.g., E. R. Oetting, F. Beauvais, and J. Velarde, Marijuana use by reservation Native American youth, Listening Post (Indian Health Service), 4, 25-28, 1982.
c. Incorrect Strong identification with the Native American culture is associated with a lower risk for substance abuse.
d. Incorrect The highest risk seems to be for those who reject the Native American culture and are highly acculturated into the mainstream.
The correct answer is: lowest for those who can adapt to both Native American and non-Native American cultures.
Which of the following is specifically excluded as a “disability” in the Americans with Disabilities Act?
Select one:
A.
HIV/AIDS
B.
learning disabilities
C.
transvestism
D.
diabetes
Disability is defined in the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) as “a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more of the major life activities” of an individual.
a. Incorrect HIV/AIDS is included as a disability.
b. Incorrect Dyslexia and other learning disabilities are included in the definition of disability.
c. CORRECT The ADA lists several conditions that do NOT qualify as disabilities. These include transvestism, exhibitionism, gender identity disorder not resulting from a physical impairment, compulsive gambling, kleptomania, and use of illegal drugs.
d. Incorrect Diabetes is included as a disability.
The correct answer is: transvestism
Research on the effects of divorce on the parent-child relationship has generally shown that, during the initial period following divorce, the relationship between the custodial parent and his/her child often changes. Specifically, during this period, the custodial mother most often:
Select one:
A.
provides harsher but more inconsistent punishment.
B.
becomes overindulgent and overpermissive.
C.
spends more time with her child.
D.
is more concerned about the effectiveness of her parenting skills.
According to Wallerstein and Blakeslee (1990), the period following divorce is typically characterized by a “diminished capacity to parent.”
a. CORRECT Mothers, immediately after divorce, are often more punitive but their punishments are commonly inconsistent.
b. Incorrect This is not what has been reported in the literature about custodial mothers.
c. Incorrect Both parents tend to become more self-involved following a divorce and, therefore, typically spend less time with their children.
d. Incorrect This is not what has been found in follow-up studies of divorced families.
The correct answer is: provides harsher but more inconsistent punishment.
To determine the degree of association between two continuous variables that have been artificially dichotomized, you would use which of the following correlation coefficients?
Select one:
A.
eta
B.
biserial
C.
tetrachoric
D.
contingency
For the licensing exam, you want to be familiar with the uses of the four correlation coefficients listed in the answers to this question.
a. Incorrect Eta is used to determine the relationship between two continuous variables when the relationship is known to be nonlinear.
b. Incorrect The biserial correlation coefficient is used to determine the relationship between one continuous variable and one artificially dichotomized variable.
c. CORRECT The tetrachoric correlation coefficient is used to determine the relationship between two normally distributed continuous variables that have been artificially dichotomized. For example, it would be used to assess the degree of association between treatment outcome and symptom severity, when both variables were originally measured on a continuous scale but were then dichotomized so that outcome is categorized as either successful or unsuccessful and symptom severity is categorized as either mild or severe.
d. Incorrect The contingency correlation coefficient is used to determine the relationship between two nominal variables.
The correct answer is: tetrachoric
Eric Erikson proposed that an adolescent who doesn’t successfully resolve the psychosocial conflict of identity versus identity confusion due to uncertainty about his/her sexual identity is likely to exhibit which of the following maladaptive responses?
Select one:
A.
compulsion
B.
inertia
C.
disdain
D.
repudiation
Erikson described the outcomes of each stage of psychosocial development in terms of basic strengths (virtues) and maladaptive responses (danger).
a. Incorrect Compulsion is the maladaptive outcome of inadequate resolution of the autonomy vs. shame/doubt conflict.
b. Incorrect This is the maladaptive outcome for the industry vs. inferiority conflict.
c. Incorrect Disdain is the result of inadequate resolution of the integrity vs. despair conflict.
d. CORRECT Repudiation is the maladaptive outcome for inadequate resolution of the identity vs. identity confusion conflict.
The correct answer is: repudiation
When using the split-half method to estimate the reliability of a 100-item speed test:
Select one:
A.
the split of the test into halves should be done in a random way.
B.
the test should be split so that the first 50 items are grouped together and the second 50 items are grouped together.
C.
the resulting reliability coefficient will overestimate the reliability of the test if the split is made on the basis of odd- versus even-numbered items.
D.
the resulting reliability coefficient will underestimate the reliability of the test if the split is made on the basis of odd- versus even-numbered items.
Internal consistency reliability is generally not used to assess the reliability of speed tests because it produces a spuriously high reliability coefficient..
a. Incorrect This would not overcome the bias introduced by using this method for assessing reliability.
b. Incorrect This procedure would not be appropriate since all of the items that were not completed would be in the same half of the test.
c. CORRECT For the exam, be sure to remember that split-half and other forms of internal consistency reliability overestimate the reliability of a speed test.
d. Incorrect This is the opposite of what is true.
The correct answer is: the resulting reliability coefficient will overestimate the reliability of the test if the split is made on the basis of odd- versus even-numbered items.
