Exam Simulation: Test 1 Flashcards
Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder is more common in males than in females among those aged:
Select one:
A.
8 to 12
B.
21 to 26
C.
35 to 40
D.
60 to 65
The correct answer is A.
The rates of OCD for males and females are about equal among adolescents and adults. However, because the onset of the disorder is earlier for males than for females, OCD is more prevalent among male children than female children.
Answers B, C, and D: Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder is more common in males than in females among those aged 8-12 years of age.
Level 1 cross-cutting symptom measures are useful for:
Select one:
A.
confirming a diagnosis
B.
screening symptoms
C.
treatment planning
D.
measuring treatment outcomes
The correct answer is B.
Level 1 cross-cutting symptom measures assess 13 domains for adults and 12 domains for children and adolescents and are useful for identifying areas that require additional evaluation.
Answers A, C, & D: Level 2 cross-cutting symptom measures provide in-depth information on specific domains (e.g., anxiety, depression, substance use) to help guide diagnosis, treatment planning, and follow-up.
The Outline for Cultural Formulation assess all of the factors except:
Select one:
A.
cultural identity
B.
cultural conceptualization of distress
C.
psychosocial stressors and cultural factors that impact the client’s vulnerability and resilience
D.
universal factors relevant to the client-therapist relationship
The correct answer is D.
The Outline for Cultural Formulation provides guidelines for assessing four factors: the client’s cultural identity; the client’s cultural conceptualization of distress; the psychosocial stressors and cultural factors that impact the client’s vulnerability and resilience; and cultural factors relevant to the relationship between the client and therapist. Universal factors are not the focus of a cultural formulation.
Answer A: Cultural identity is an important assessment factor.
Answer B: One’s conceptualization of distress within the context of culture is also an important factor.
Answer C: Cultural factors impacting vulnerability and resilience are also important factors to assess when making a cultural formulation.
The Cultural Formulation Interview is:
Select one:
A.
structured
B.
open-ended
C.
semi-structured
D.
unstructured
The correct answer is C.
The Cultural Formulation Interview (CFI) is a semi-structured interview consisting of 16 questions designed to obtain information on the client’s views regarding the social/cultural context of his/her presenting problems.
Answer A: The CFI is semi-structured.
Answer B: The CFI is not an open-ended interview.
Answer D: The CFI is not unstructured.
The Cultural Formulation Interview (CFI) assesses all of the following except:
Select one:
A.
cultural identity development
B.
cultural perceptions of cause, context, and support
C.
cultural definition of the problem
D.
cultural factors affecting self-coping and help seeking
The correct answer is A.
The CFI focuses on four domains: cultural definition of the problem; cultural perceptions of cause, context, and support; cultural factors affecting self-coping and past help-seeking; and cultural factors affecting current help-seeking. The CFI does not assess cultural identity development.
Answer B: Cultural perceptions of the cause, context, and support are assessed by the CFI.
Answer C: Assessing cultural definitions of the problem is also an important component of the CFI.
Answer D: Assessing cultural factors related to self-coping and help-seeking are also crucial to the CFI.
Specific Learning Disorder often co-occurs with all of the following except:
Select one:
A.
delays in language development
B.
attention and memory deficits
C.
below-average intelligence
D.
low self-esteem
The correct answer is C.
Individuals with Specific Learning Disorder typically have an IQ in the average to above-average range but have higher-than-normal rates of other problems and disorders, including delays in language development and/or motor coordination, attention and memory deficits, and low self-esteem.
Answer A: Delays in language development and/or motor coordination are correlated with Specific Learning Disorder diagnoses.
Answer B: ADHD is closely correlated with Specific Learning Disorder.
Answer D: Low self-esteem is also correlated with this diagnosis.
Research suggests that, in general, the most effective treatment for Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD) is which of the following?
Select one:
A.
Exposure with response prevention
B.
Overcorrection
C.
Desensitization and behavioral rehearsal
D.
Desensitization with reinforced practice
The correct answer is A.
A combination of exposure with response prevention and the tricyclic clomipramine or an SSRI is usually the treatment-of-choice for OCD. Exposure is often supplemented with thought stopping or other interventions that directly target obsessions.
Answers B, C, & D: Studies investigating the effects of various behavioral therapies have consistently found exposure with response (ritual) prevention to be the most effective treatment for OCD.
___________ refers to the ways that cultural groups experience, understand, and communicate suffering, behavioral problems, or troubling thoughts and emotions.
Select one:
A.
Cultural syndromes
B.
Cultural concepts of distress
C.
Cultural idioms
D.
Cultural explanations
The correct answer is B.
The DSM-5 defines cultural concepts of distress as the “ways that cultural groups experience, understand, and communicate suffering, behavioral problems, or troubling thoughts and emotions.”
Answer A: Cultural syndromes are clusters of symptoms and attributions that co-occur among individuals from a particular culture and are recognized by members of that culture as coherent patterns of experience.
Answer C: Cultural idioms of distress are used by members of different cultures to express distress and provide shared ways for talking about personal and social concerns.
Answer D: Cultural explanations refer to the explanatory models that members of a culture use to explain the meaning and causes of symptoms, illness, and distress.
Cultural idioms of distress are:
Select one:
A.
the explanatory models that members of a culture use to explain the meaning and causes of symptoms, illness, and distress
B.
clusters of symptoms and attributions that co-occur among individuals from a particular culture and are recognized by members of that culture as coherent patterns of experience
C.
phrases used by members of different cultures to express distress and provide shared ways for talking about personal and social concerns
D.
ways that cultural groups experience, understand, and communicate suffering, behavioral problems, or troubling thoughts and emotions
The correct answer is C.
Cultural idioms of distress are used by members of different cultures to express distress and provide shared ways for talking about personal and social concerns.
Answer A: This is the definition of cultural explanations.
Answer B: This is the definition of cultural syndromes.
Answer D: This is the definition of cultural concepts of distress.
The explanatory models that members of a culture use to explain the meaning and causes of symptoms, illness, and distress are referred to as:
Select one:
A.
cultural idioms of distress
B.
cultural narratives
C.
cultural syndromes
D.
cultural explanations
The correct answer is D.
The DSM 5 defines cultural explanations as the explanatory models that members of a culture use to explain the meaning and causes of symptoms, illness, and distress.
Answer A: Cultural idioms of distress are used by members of different cultures to express distress and provide shared ways for talking about personal and social concerns.
Answer B: This is a made up term.
Answer C: Cultural syndromes are clusters of symptoms and attributions that co-occur among individuals from a particular culture and are recognized by members of that culture as coherent patterns of experience.
Cultural syndromes are defined as:
Select one:
A.
clusters of symptoms and attributions that co-occur among individuals from a particular culture and are recognized by members of that culture as coherent patterns of experience
B.
ways that cultural groups experience, understand, and communicate suffering, behavioral problems, or troubling thoughts and emotions
C.
the explanatory models that members of a culture use to explain the meaning and causes of symptoms, illness, and distress
D.
phrases used by members of different cultures to express distress and provide shared ways for talking about personal and social concerns
The correct answer is A.
Cultural syndromes are clusters of symptoms and attributions that co-occur among individuals from a particular culture and are recognized by members of that culture as coherent patterns of experience.
Answer B: This is the definition of cultural concepts of distress.
Answer C: This is the definition of cultural explanations.
Answer D: This defines cultural idioms of distress.
____________ is/are useful for obtaining information on a client’s cultural concepts of distress.
Select one:
A.
The Outline for Cultural Formulation
B.
The Cultural Formulation Interview
C.
Cross-cutting symptom measures
D.
Cross-cutting cultural measures
The correct answer is B.
The Cultural Formulation Interview (CFI) is a semi-structured interview consisting of 16 questions designed to obtain information on the client’s views regarding the social/cultural context of his/her presenting problems. It focuses on four domains: cultural definition of the problem; cultural perceptions of cause, context, and support; cultural factors affecting self-coping and past help seeking; and cultural factors affecting current help seeking. The CFI is useful for obtaining information on a client’s cultural concepts of distress.
Answer A: The Outline for Cultural Formulation provides guidelines for assessing four factors: the client’s cultural identity; the client’s cultural conceptualization of distress; the psychosocial stressors and cultural factors that impact the client’s vulnerability and resilience; and cultural factors relevant to the relationship between the client and therapist.
Answer C: Cross-cutting symptom measures are designed to be used in the initial patient interview and during treatment to monitor progress. They provide information on mental health domains that are important across the psychiatric diagnoses.
Answer D: This is a made up term.
The DSM-5 provides three tools to help clinicians consider and understand the importance of cultural diagnosing and planning treatment. This tool set includes all of the following except:
Select one:
A.
the Cultural Formulation Interview
B.
Cultural concepts of distress
C.
Cultural measures of distress
D.
the Outline for Cultural Formulation
The correct answer is C.
The DSM-5 provides three tools to help clinicians consider and understand the impact of a client’s cultural background on diagnosis and treatment: the Outline for Cultural Formulation, the Cultural Formulation Interview, and Cultural concepts of distress. Cultural measures of distress is a made up term.
Answer A: The Cultural Formulation Interview (CFI) is a semi-structured interview consisting of 16 questions designed to obtain information on the client’s views regarding the social/cultural context of his/her presenting problems.
Answer B:The DSM-5 defines cultural concepts of distress as the “ways that cultural groups experience, understand, and communicate suffering, behavioral problems, or troubling thoughts and emotions.
Answer D: The Outline for Cultural Formulation provides guidelines for assessing four factors: the client’s cultural identity; the client’s cultural conceptualization of distress; the psychosocial stressors and cultural factors that impact the client’s vulnerability and resilience; and cultural factors relevant to the relationship between the client and therapist.
A patient is extremely suspicious, distrustful, and sensitive to criticism. He appears to be constantly on guard, checking his environment for potential threats and evidence to confirm his suspicions and beliefs. In addition, he describes his relationship with his employer as one that was originally warm and supportive but quickly turned into a contest of wills. The patient’s clothes are wrinkled and do not fit him well, and his glasses are held together with duct tape. The patient’s symptoms are most suggestive of which personality disorder?
Select one:
A.
Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder
B.
Schizotypal Personality Disorder
C.
Paranoid Personality Disorder
D.
Antisocial Personality Disorder
The correct answer is C.
This question is a reminder to consider all of the symptoms presented and not to over-focus on an atypical or unusual symptom. Although many personality disorders involve problems with relationships, your clue was this patient’s tendency toward suspicion and distrust. Paranoid Personality Disorder involves a pervasive distrust and suspiciousness of others that leads to the misinterpretation of the motives of others as malevolent.
Answer A: Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder involves a pervasive pattern of preoccupation with orderliness, perfectionism, and mental and interpersonal control, at the expense of flexibility, openness, and efficiency.
Answer B: Schizotypal Personality Disorder involves a pervasive pattern of social and interpersonal deficits marked by acute discomfort with, and reduced capacity for, close relationships and cognitive or perceptual distortions and eccentricities of behavior. While wrinkled, the man’s ill-fitting clothing may be more suggestive of Schizotypal Personality Disorder, his other symptoms are consistent with Paranoid Personality Disorder.
Answer D: Antisocial Personality Disorder involves a pervasive pattern of disregard for and violation of the rights of others. You have no evidence of antisocial acts in this case.
Echokinesis involves:
Select one:
A.
imitating someone else’s movements
B.
repeating the sounds someone else makes
C.
repeating socially undesirable words
D.
imitating the sounds and movements that other’s make
The correct answer is A.
Echokinesis involves imitating someone else’s movements.
Answer B: This sounds more like echolalia.
Answer C: This defines Coprolalia.
Answer D: Echokinesis does not involve mimicking sound.
Research in the area of pediatric psychology has found that openly communicating with children about their illness:
Select one:
A.
is detrimental
B.
has mixed results
C.
is recommended
D.
is inadvisable
The correct answer is C.
In most situations, open communication with a child about his/her illness is advisable.
Answer A: While it is important to provide children information in a developmentally appropriate manner, research has generally not found open communication to be detrimental.
Answer B: This is not true.
Answer D: The opposite is true.
Coprolalia involves:
Select one:
A.
repeating other’s vocalizations
B.
mimicking others movements
C.
mimicking other’s facial expressions
D.
repeating socially undesirable words
The correct answer is D.
Coprolalia involves repeating socially undesirable words.
Answer A: This is the definition of echolalia.
Answer B: This defines echokinesis.
Answer C: This does not describe coprolalia.
The rates of Schizophrenia are generally higher among Black Americans. This is due to:
Select one:
A.
internalized racism
B.
misdiagnosis
C.
poverty
D.
substance abuse
The correct answer is B.
Research suggests that the higher reported rate of Schizophrenia for African Americans is the result of misdiagnosis rather than actual differences in the prevalence of the disorder.
Answer A: While a lack of cultural competence among clinicians contributes to misdiagnosis among this population, internalized racism is not the cause of this discrepancy.
Answer C: Poverty may be a contributing factor to receiving adequate mental health care; however, misdiagnosis is believed to be the primary cause of this discrepancy.
Answer D: This is not true.
In the DSM-5, personality traits are measured using 5 domains:
Select one:
A.
affect, attachment, antagonism, disinhibition, and psychoticism
B.
affect, attachment, antagonism, inhibition, and psychoticism
C.
negative affect, detachment, protagonism, inhibition, and psychoticism
D.
negative affect, detachment, antagonism, disinhibition, and psychoticism
The correct answer is D.
The DSM-5’s personality inventories measure personality traits in five domains: negative affect, detachment, antagonism, disinhibition, and psychoticism.
Answer A: Attachment and affect are not personality domains.
Answer B: Affect, attachment, and inhibition are not personality domains.
Answer C: Protagonism and inhibition are not personality domains.
African Americans are more likely to experience hallucinations and delusions as symptoms of:
Select one:
A.
schizophrenia
B.
depression
C.
antisocial personality disorder
D.
borderline personality disorder
The correct answer is B.
The research suggests that the higher reported rate of Schizophrenia for African Americans is the result of misdiagnosis rather than actual differences in the prevalence of the disorder and that misdiagnosis is due to the fact that African Americans are more likely to experience hallucinations and delusions as symptoms of depression.
Answer A: African Americans are commonly misdiagnosed with Schizophrenia rather than depression or other disorders.
Answer C: These symptoms are not traditionally associated with this disorder.
Answer D: This is not true.
In order to meet DSM-5 criteria for Brief Psychotic Disorder, the presence of at least one of the following symptoms must be present with the exception of:
Select one:
A.
disorganized speech
B.
hallucinations
C.
grossly disorganized behavior
D.
delusions
The correct answer is C.
Brief Psychotic Disorder is characterized by the presence of one or more of four characteristic symptoms (delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, grossly disorganized or catatonic behavior) with at least one symptom being delusions, hallucinations, or disorganized speech.
Answers A, B, & D: One of these three symptoms is required for this diagnosis.
When considering diagnosing a Black American client with Schizophrenia, a culturally competent clinician would:
Select one:
A.
rule out substance use
B.
make sure the full criteria for the disorder is met
C.
assess for the potential of malingering
D.
assess whether psychotic symptoms are linked to depression
The correct answer is D.
The research suggests that the higher reported rate of Schizophrenia for African Americans is the result of misdiagnosis rather than actual differences in the prevalence of the disorder and that misdiagnosis is due to the fact that African Americans are more likely to experience hallucinations and delusions as symptoms of depression.
Answer A: Making this rule out is necessary with any client who may meet criteria for Schizophrenia.
Answer B: This would be necessary regardless of the client’s demographic.
Answer C: Ruling out malingering is not a cultural competence factor.
The three subtypes of Specific Learning Disorder include impairment in:
Select one:
A.
reading, writing, and spelling
B.
reading, writing, and comprehension
C.
reading, comprehending, and spelling
D.
reading, writing, and math
The correct answer is D.
The DSM-5 distinguishes between three subtypes of Specific Learning Disorder: impairment in reading, impairment in written expression, and impairment in mathematics.
Answer A: Spelling is not included as a subtype.
Answer B: Comprehension is not a subtype.
Answer C: Comprehension and spelling are not subtypes.
Beck’s depression cognitive triad includes negative illogical self-statements about:
Select one:
A.
oneself, the world, and the future
B.
oneself, others, and the world
C.
oneself, others, and the meaning of life
D.
oneself, others, and the future
The correct answer is A.
Beck’s (1976) cognitive theory views depression as being related to negative, illogical self-statements about oneself, the world, and the future. This is referred to as the “depressive cognitive triad.
Answer B: The triad does not include negative thoughts about others.
Answer C: Beck did not include negative thoughts about others or the meaning of life in this categorization.
Answer D: The triad does not include negative thoughts about others.
Renee R., age 16, is brought to therapy by her mother, who says her daughter has recently become “another person.” She says Renee used to be easy-going and was well-liked at school by her peers and teachers. However, for about the last three weeks, Renee has been constantly irritable and “on the go,” has been smoking and drinking, and has started having trouble at school. When the therapist interviews Renee, he learns that she is engaging in high-risk sexual behavior but feels that nothing bad can happen to her. Based on these symptoms, the most likely diagnosis is:
Select one:
A.
ADHD
B.
Cyclothymic Disorder
C.
Bipolar I Disorder
D.
Bipolar II Disorder
The correct answer is C.
The sudden change in Renee’s behavior and the nature and duration of her symptoms are most suggestive of a manic episode. Bipolar I Disorder requires the presence of one or more manic episodes.
Answer A: Although some of Renee’s symptoms are consistent with ADHD in adolescence, a diagnosis of this disorder requires an onset of symptoms prior to age 12.
Answer B: Cyclothymic Disorder requires fluctuating hypomanic and depressive symptoms for at least one year in children and adolescents.
Answer D: Bipolar II disorder is characterized by a combination of major depressive and hypomanic episodes.
Bill B., a 26-year old small business owner, has trouble completing tasks at home and work, frequently “blows his fuse” at family members and employees, and has his wife do all the paperwork at the office because he doesn’t have the patience for it. His wife says Bill never listens to her and often does things without thinking about the consequences. When asked about his past, Bill says that he often got in trouble while he was in school. He frequently got into fights and, in high school, was arrested several times for drugs and drunk driving. All through school, his teachers said he wasn’t living up to his potential. Although Bill no longer uses illegal drugs, he often drinks heavily on weekends. Based on these symptoms, the most likely diagnosis for Bill is:
Select one:
A.
Antisocial Personality Disorder
B.
Adult Antisocial Behavior
C.
ADHD
D.
Bipolar I Disorder
The correct answer is C.
Bill’s childhood history of problem behaviors and his current attention difficulties and impulsivity are most suggestive of ADHD.
Answer A: For a diagnosis of Antisocial Personality Disorder, there should be a current pattern of antisocial behavior.
Answer B: Adult Antisocial Behavior is included in the DSM-5 with Other Conditions That May Be a Focus of Clinical Attention and applies when the individual exhibits antisocial behavior that does not meet the diagnostic criteria for Antisocial Personality Disorder or another mental disorder.
Answer D: The continuous and long-term nature of Bill’s symptoms are more suggestive of ADHD than Bipolar I Disorder.
All of the following interventions are recommended for stuttering except:
Select one:
A.
using exposure to reduce fear of verbal communication
B.
reducing psychological stress at home
C.
removing pressures to communicate verbally
D.
habit reversal training
The correct answer is A.
Stuttering is clinically diagnosed as Childhood-Onset Fluency Disorder. While exposure therapy is typically regarded as one of the most effective treatments for phobias, research has not supported the effectiveness of such treatment with the alleviation of stuttering. Rather, it has been found that the symptoms of this disorder become worse when there is special pressure to communicate.
Answer B: This has been found to be one of the most effective interventions for reducing stuttering among children.
Answer C: This is recommended as symptoms often worsen when such conditions are present.
Answer D: This is recommended for older children and adults who continue to struggle with stuttering.
The DSM-5 urges consideration of the following differentials when diagnosing Autism Spectrum Disorder except:
Select one:
A.
Stereotypic Movement Disorder
B.
Intellectual Disability
C.
Schizophrenia
D.
Social Anxiety Disorder
The correct answer is D.
According to the DSM-5, Autism Spectrum Disorder must be distinguished from Rett Syndrome, Selective Mutism, Language Disorder, Intellectual Disability, Stereotypic Movement Disorder, ADHD, and Schizophrenia. Social Anxiety Disorder is not included as a differential.
Answer A: Individuals along the spectrum may have motor deficits. Thus, this is an important differential diagnosis to consider.
Answer B: This is a common differential as many individuals with Autism Spectrum Disorder have intellectual impairments.
Answer C: Given the overlap of some of the negative symptoms associated with Schizophrenia this is an important differential.
According to the DSM-5, Specific Learning Disorder is more common among:
Select one:
A.
males
B.
women
C.
children
D.
adults
The correct answer is A.
Specific Learning Disorder is more common in males than in females, with reported gender ratios ranging from 2:1 to 3:1.
Answer B: The opposite is true.
Answer C: This disorder may be more commonly diagnosed during childhood but is not more common among this population.
Answer D: People with a Specific Learning Disorder continue to have learning difficulties throughout adolescence and adulthood.
Several authorities have noted that traditional forms of psychotherapy reflect a Eurocentric (Western) perspective that emphasizes:
Select one:
A.
a concrete non-linear approach
B.
a linear cause-effect approach
C. a reciprocal (interactive) approach
D.
a directive behavioral approach
The correct answer is B.
This issue has been addressed by several experts interested in family therapy or cross-cultural counseling. The Eurocentric perspective emphasizes one-on-one problem-solving and adopts an atomistic, linear, and reductionist cause-effect approach.
Answer A: Traditional Western psychotherapies emphasize a linear approach.
Answer C: Traditional Western therapies are not reciprocal.
Answer D: There are numerous directive and non-directive traditional models.
A person with anosognosia will:
Select one:
A.
be unable to recognize parts of her own body
B.
be unable to recognize familiar faces
C.
deny the paralysis in her left leg
D.
report an area of blindness in her left visual field
The correct answer is C.
Anosognosia is one of several types of agnosia. All agnosias are characterized by a failure of recognition that is NOT due to a sensory deficit or verbal or intellectual impairment. Anosognosia involves a failure to recognize one’s own neurological symptoms (e.g., paralysis). It often accompanies asomatognosia.
Answer A: This is called asomatognosia and is due to damage to the somatosensory cortex. It usually involves the left side of the body.
Answer B: Prosopagnosia is the inability to recognize familiar faces.
Answer D: This is called a scotoma and is due to damage to the primary visual cortex.
Which of the following approaches best fits with a Transtheoretical Model of therapy?
Select one:
A.
The therapist focuses on what is needed to help the client make the next step of change.
B.
The therapist focuses on the client’s strengths and resources.
C.
The therapist explores the client’s early relationships.
D.
The therapist focuses on the client’s ambivalence about making changes.
The correct answer is A.
According to the Transtheoretical Model of behavior change, the therapist does not focus on the origin or characteristics of a maladaptive behavior but instead focuses on factors that facilitate a behavioral change.
Answer B: This best describes Solution-Focused therapy
Answer C: This best describes Interpersonal or Psychodynamic Therapy
Answer D. Although there is some overlap between the Transtheoretical Model and Motivational Interviewing, this description most closely aligns with the primary technique of Motivational Interviewing: enhancing the client’s intrinsic motivation by helping the client examine and resolve their ambivalence about changing.
Which of the following are required for a DSM diagnosis of Antisocial Personality Disorder?
Select one:
A.
A pervasive pattern of disregard for and violation of the rights of others that began prior to age 15 plus a current age of 16 or older
B.
A pervasive pattern of disregard for and violation of the rights of others that began prior to age 15 plus a current age of 18 or older
C.
A pervasive pattern of disregard for and violation of the rights of others since age 14, a history of Conduct Disorder symptoms prior to age 14, plus a current age of 16 or older
D.
A pervasive pattern of disregard for and violation of the rights of others since age 15, a history of Conduct Disorder symptoms prior to age 15, plus a current age of 18 or older
The correct answer is D.
For the diagnosis of Antisocial Personality Disorder, the DSM requires a pervasive pattern of disregard for and violation of the rights of others since age 15 with symptoms of Conduct Disorder prior to age 15 and a current age of 18 years or older.
Answers A, B, & C: While all of these answer choices contain partially accurate information, only choice D lists fully accurate criteria consistent with the DSM.
“Criterion deficiency” refers to:
Select one:
A.
the degree to which the conceptual criterion is not measured by the actual criterion
B.
the degree to which the actual criterion systematically measures something other than the conceptual criterion
C.
the degree to which the actual criterion is entirely unrelated to the conceptual criterion
D.
the degree to which the actual criterion provides inconsistent information about the conceptual criterion
The correct answer is A.
For the exam, you want to be familiar with several terms that are used to describe the adequacy of a criterion measure. These are described in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials. This is the correct definition of criterion deficiency. An actual criterion (the criterion measure) is deficient to the extent that it does not measure the conceptual (or hypothetical) criterion. In other words, job performance is due to several factors, but most criterion measures are deficient because they measure only one or two of those factors.
Answer B: This response describes one aspect of criterion contamination.
Answer C: This describes another aspect of criterion contamination.
Answer D: This describes the unreliability of a criterion measure.
According to Hersey and Blanchard’s (1974) situational leadership model, a ________ leader is most effective for an employee who is low in ability and high in motivation.
Select one:
A.
telling
B.
selling
C.
delegating
D.
participating
The correct answer is B.
Hersey and Blanchard’s situational leadership model distinguishes between the four leadership styles listed in the answers to this question and proposes that the best style is the one that matches the employee’s ability and motivation. A selling leader is best for employees who are low in ability but high in motivation.
Answer A: A telling leader is best for employees who are low in both ability and motivation.
Answer C: A delegating leader is best for employees who are high in both ability and motivation.
Answer D: A participating leader is best for employees who are high in ability but low in motivation.
A brief period of electrical stimulation of the hippocampus enhances nerve cell electrical activity in that area of the brain for minutes to hours. This is referred to as:
Select one:
A.
graded potentiation
B.
hyperpolarization
C.
absolute refractory period
D.
long-term potentiation
The correct answer is D.
Interestingly, the phenomenon described in this question not only occurs in the living brain but can also be induced in cells that have been removed from the brain. This is the name given to the phenomenon described in this question. Long-term potentiation (LTP) is believed to underlie certain types of learning and memory.
Answer A: Graded potentiation is a made-up term.
Answer B: Hyperpolarization refers to a state of inhibition.
Answer C: During the absolute refractory period, a cell cannot “fire” regardless of the amount of stimulation.
Which of the following imaging techniques would be used to obtain a “metabolic map” of the brain during various mental and physical activities?
Select one:
A.
CT
B.
PET
C.
MRI
D.
NMR
The correct answer is B.
In this situation, it is the function of the brain that is of interest. PET scans provide information on the functions of the brain (e.g., metabolic functions).
Answer A: CT is a structural imaging technique.
Answer C: MRI is also a structural technique.
Answer D: NMR (nuclear magnetic resonance) is another name for MRI, which is a structural imaging technique. (An fMRI is a functional technique.)
Which of the following is a cause of conductive deafness?
Select one:
A.
Infection of the middle ear
B.
Damage to the hair cells
C.
Cochlear damage
D.
Lesions in the auditory cortex
The correct answer is A.
There are three types of deafness: conductive, sensorineural, and central. Conductive deafness results from failure of mechanical stimulation to reach the cochlea and can be caused by an infection or obstruction in the outer or middle ear.
Answer B: This refers to sensorineural deafness.
Answer C: Damage to the cochlea results in sensorineural deafness.
Answer D: This is a cause of central deafness.
Group polarization has occurred when:
Select one:
A.
group members are split in their solution to a problem
B.
group members make riskier decisions as a group than they would have as individuals
C.
group members make either riskier or more conservative decisions as a group than they would have as individuals
D.
group members are encouraged to think alike and all dissent is discouraged
The correct answer is C.
Group polarization refers to the tendency for a group’s decision to be more extreme (polarized) that the decisions that individual members would have made alone. This is an accurate description of group polarization.
Answer A: This is not an accurate description of group polarization.
Answer B: This describes the “risky shift” phenomenon.
Answer D: This sounds more like groupthink.
In his study on the effects of therapy fees on satisfaction with therapy, a social psychologist finds that clients who have to work overtime or get a second job to pay for therapy generally express greater satisfaction than wealthy clients, clients whose insurance covers most of their fee, or clients who are receiving therapy for free or at low cost. This finding provides support for which of the following?
Select one:
A.
The overjustification hypothesis
B.
Cognitive dissonance theory
C.
The approach-avoidance conflict
D.
Equity theory
The correct answer is B.
The results of the study indicate that people who “struggle” for therapy say it gives them greater satisfaction. This finding is consistent with other research on cognitive dissonance, including studies showing that students say they like a dull club more when they have experienced a difficult initiation.
Answer A: The overjustification hypothesis is used to explain why intrinsic motivation decreases after external rewards have been applied.
Answer C: The approach-avoidance conflict doesn’t really fit the situation described in this question.
Answer D: Equity theory makes predictions about how people perform in situations they perceive to be either equitable or inequitable.
Research investigating the relationship between interest test scores and future occupational choice suggests that these tests have the highest predictive validity for:
Select one:
A.
individuals with lower SES
B. middle-class individuals
C.
individuals with higher SES
D.
both lower and upper SES
The correct answer is B.
Socioeconomic status is one factor that has been found to affect the predictive validity of interest inventories. Members of the middle class usually have the greatest latitude when it comes to choosing an occupation and, therefore, are most likely to choose jobs that coincide with their interests.
Answer A: Those with lower SES do not always have the opportunity to pursue occupations that coincide with their interests and frequently choose jobs that provide the greatest pay and security.
Answer C: Those with higher SEC often choose occupations on the basis of family tradition or societal expectations rather than interests.
Answer D: Members of the middle class usually have the greatest latitude when it comes to choosing an occupation and, therefore, are most likely to choose jobs that coincide with their interests.
The __________ is best described as the “gateway to memory” because of its involvement in the storage of new information.
Select one:
A.
hippocampus
B.
hypothalamus
C.
thalamus
D.
R.A.S.
The correct answer is A.
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the major functions of the brain structures listed in the answers to this question. Damage to the hippocampus is associated with memory impairments, especially impairments in retaining recently acquired information.
Answer B: The hypothalamus is involved in a number of important functions including the maintenance of the body’s internal balance (homeostasis).
Answer C: The thalamus relays sensory messages to the cortex.
Answer D: The reticular activating system (RAS) is involved in arousing the cortex and screening incoming information.
You saw a family in therapy for several months but they terminated when the husband and wife decided to get a divorce. Now, two months later, you are being asked to conduct an evaluation of the husband for a custody hearing. Your best course of action is to:
Select one:
A.
do so but avoid making a recommendation without evaluating all members of the family
B.
do so only with the consent of both parents
C.
do so only if you believe you can remain unbiased
D.
not conduct the evaluation
The correct answer is D.
This issue is addressed by ethical guidelines that require psychologists to avoid multiple relationships. This issue is addressed, for example, in Guideline 7 of the Guidelines for Child Custody Evaluations in Family Law Proceedings, which states that “psychologists strive to avoid conflicts of interest and multiple relationships in conducting evaluations.”
Answers A, B, C: While these options are not definitively unethical, considering the potential for bias, the most ethical choice would be to forego conducting the evaluation altogether.
When conducting a research study, you want to ensure that you will detect a difference between the treatment group and the control (no treatment) group. Therefore, you will:
Select one:
A.
decrease error variance by decreasing the magnitude of the independent variable
B.
increase experimental variance by increasing the magnitude of the independent variable
C.
decrease the probability of making a Type I error by decreasing alpha
D.
decrease the probability of making a Type II error by increasing beta
The correct answer is B.
Rephrased, this question would read “how do you increase power?” To identify the correct answer to this question, your understanding of power must be beyond a definitional level (e.g., “power is 1 - beta,” or “power is the probability of correctly rejecting a false null hypothesis,”) and at an abstract or conceptual level. Power can be thought of as the sensitivity of an empirical study. That is, if significant differences exist between groups, a powerful study will be sensitive enough to detect the differences. Increasing the magnitude of the independent variable would increase experimental variance by increasing the difference between the experimental and control (no treatment) groups. This would increase power, or the ability to detect the effects of the independent variable. As an example, if you are studying the effects of a new learning procedure on performance, you are more likely to detect its effects if you administer the learning procedure to the experimental group subjects for six weeks rather than for one week.
Answer A: Decreasing the magnitude of the independent variable will result in less power. For instance, if you are studying the effects of a drug on a behavior, you are less likely to detect its effects when your experimental group receives a low dosage than when it receives a higher dosage. Moreover, this response does not make sense because decreasing the magnitude of the independent variable does not decrease error variance.
Answer C: Decreasing alpha does decrease the probability of making a Type I error but, at the same time, it reduces power.
Answer D: Power does increase as the probability of making a Type II error decreases. However, this response does not make sense, since an increase in beta will, by definition, result in an INCREASE of the probability of making a Type II error.
A client who is classified as being in the preparation stage of the transtheoretical model:
Select one:
A.
is engaging in meaningful action in preparation for change
B.
plans to take action within the next six months that will alter his/her problematic behavior
C.
is planning to take action to change within the next month and has formulated a realistic action plan
D.
has committed to preparing to make consistent changes over the course of the next year
The correct answer is C.
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the six stages of Prochaska and DiClemente’s stages of change model: precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, maintenance, and termination. A person in the preparation stage is planning to take action in the near future (usually defined as in the next month) and has formulated a realistic plan of action for modifying his/her behavior.
Answer A: A person in the preparation stage has not yet actually engaged in actions to change but is mentally preparing to do so.
Answer B: A person in the contemplation stage intends to take action in the next six months.
Answer D: Persons in the preparation stage plan to make changes within the next month.
Eighteen-month old Tylee has learned the word “cup” and applies it to other similar objects such as bowls, glasses, and bottles. This is referred to as:
Select one:
A.
underextension
B.
overextension
C.
overregularization
D.
expansion
The correct answer is B.
Children exhibit a number of predictable errors when learning to speak. As its name implies, overextension involves applying a word to a wider collection of objects or events than is appropriate.
Answer A: Underextension involves applying a term too narrowly (e.g., using “dog” to refer only to the family dog).
Answer C: Overregularization is an overextension of grammatical rules to words that are exceptions (e.g., adding “s” to “feet”).
Answer D: Expansion refers to the feedback that adults seem to naturally give young children, which provides children with information on appropriate language use.
Holland’s Self-Directed Search provides scores on six occupational themes. A person who obtains the highest score on the realistic theme is best suited for a job involving:
Select one:
A.
physical, mechanical, or outdoor activities
B.
scientific, mathematical, or analytic tasks
C.
activities that require attention to detail and good organization skills
D.
tasks that require business, management, or sales skills
The correct answer is A.
Holland’s scale distinguishes between five occupational themes (“RIASEC”): realistic, investigative, artistic, social, enterprising, and conventional. People who score high on the realistic scale are well suited for these types of tasks.
Answer B: These tasks fit the investigative type.
Answer C: These activities fit the interests of individuals receiving the highest score on the conventional scale.
Answer D: These tasks are of greatest interest to individuals with a high score on the enterprising scale.
A solution-focused therapist is working with a husband and wife whose conversations frequently escalate to bitter fights. The therapist will most likely:
Select one:
A.
reduce tension during therapy sessions by having the husband and wife talk directly to her rather than to each other
B.
instruct the couple to take a ten-minute “time-out” whenever they begin to argue at home
C.
ask the couple if they can remember a time when they were able to talk for an extended period without arguing
D.
ask the couple what rewards they derive from arguing
The correct answer is C.
As its name implies, solution-focused therapy focuses on solutions rather than problems. Solution-focused therapists use “exceptions” to help identify solutions to a client’s problems. An exception is a time when the problem did not exist or existed in a less intense form.
Answer A: This sounds more like the approach a Bowenian family therapist would adopt.
Answer B: This isn’t characteristic of the solution-focused approach.
Answer D: This is not characteristic of this approach.
Tiedeman and O’Hara’s (1963) model of career development emphasizes which of the following?
Select one:
A.
Basic interests
B.
Basic instinctual needs
C.
Vocational identity
D.
Locus of control
The correct answer is C.
Tiedeman and O’Hara (1963) viewed career development as a process involving the acquisition of a personal vocational identity.
Answers A, B, & D: Tiedeman and O’Hara emphasized the development of a vocational identity. They proposed that the achievement of a personal vocational identity involves balancing integration (being part of a career field) with differentiation (retaining individuality and uniqueness).
A study conducted by Buhrmester and Furman (1990) of 3rd, 6th, 9th, and 12th graders found that, as children approach the end of middle childhood, relationships between siblings become more:
Select one:
A.
distant
B.
egalitarian
C.
conflictual
D.
complementary
The correct answer is B.
Research by D. Buhrmester and W. Furman found a combination of closeness and conflict among siblings in middle childhood with a trend toward less conflict and greater egalitarianism with increasing age (Perceptions of sibling relationships during middle childhood and adolescence, Child Development, 61, 1387-1398, 1990).
Answers A, C, & D: The study cited in the question found that, by the end of middle childhood, sibling relationships had become much more egalitarian and lower in intensity and conflict.
When a therapist overlooks a client’s career difficulties because the client is going through a divorce, this is referred to as:
Select one:
A.
diagnostic overshadowing
B.
career overshadowing
C.
vocational overshadowing
D.
diagnostic overlooking
The correct answer is C.
Vocational overshadowing occurs when a professional overlooks a client’s vocational problems because the client has a co-existing personal problem.
Answer A: Diagnostic overshadowing was originally used to describe the tendency of health professionals to attribute all of a person’s psychiatric symptoms to his or her intellectual disabilities.
Answer B: This is a “made up” term.
Answer D: Diagnostic overlooking is not an actual clinical term.
For Miller and Dollard (1941), the approach-approach conflict:
Select one:
A.
is a dilemma because as soon as the individual approaches one positive goal, the pull of the other positive goal increases in strength
B.
is a dilemma that is often resolved by “leaving the field” and choosing a third goal
C.
is not really a dilemma since, once the individual begins to approach one positive goal, the strength of the pull of the other positive goal decreases
D.
is an unpredictable dilemma because it is impossible to ever know if the appropriate goal has been selected
The correct answer is C.
Miller and Dollard distinguish between three conflicts: approach-avoidance, avoidance-avoidance, and approach-approach.
Answer A: This is not a prediction made by Miller and Dollard but does sound somewhat like what Lewin concluded about this type of dilemma.
Answer B: This sounds more like what Lewin concluded about avoidance-avoidance conflicts. According to Miller and Dollard, the approach-approach conflict is not really a dilemma. When it does arouse conflict, it is because there are hidden or latent avoidance conditions operating.
Answer D: According to Miller and Dollard the approach-approach conflict is not really a dilemma.
Which of the following aspects of the central nervous system is least well-developed at birth?
Select one:
A.
Diencephalon
B.
Midbrain
C.
Cerebral cortex
D.
Cerebellum
The correct answer is C.
The brain develops both before and after birth in an orderly sequence. At birth, the infant’s brain is about one-fourth the size of an adult brain. The cortex is not well-developed at birth, which suggests that newborn behaviors are primarily reflexive (i.e., mediated by the lower centers of the brain). Some areas of the cortex (e.g., those involved in problem-solving, self-concept, and planning) do not fully develop until adolescence or early adulthood.
Answer A: The diencephalon consists of the thalamus and hypothalamus and is sufficiently well-developed at birth to allow for critical functions that are necessary for life.
Answer B: Like the diencephalon, the midbrain is relatively well-developed at birth.
Answer D: The cerebellum is involved in motor coordination, and the motor areas of the brain develop prior to the areas governing the higher cognitive functions.
As used by Lorenz (1965), the term “critical period” refers to:
Select one:
A.
the period from ages three to six months during which the basic structure of the personality is formed
B.
periods when the infant shows predictable “growth spurts”
C.
the third trimester when the brain is at greatest vulnerability to structural damage
D.
a period shortly after birth during which an infant ordinarily bonds with its mother
The correct answer is D.
The term “critical period” refers to a period when a specific experience will have its greatest impact on development. Lorenz applied the term to the period during which geese bond with (imprint on) their mothers. Lorenz found that the “critical period” for imprinting in geese is 2-3 days after birth. In other words, geese will stay close (attach) to stimuli that they are exposed to two to three days after birth. Research investigating the existence of a similar critical period in humans has been inconclusive.
Answer A: As defined by Lorenz, the critical period involves bonding rather than personality development and occurs shortly after birth.
Answer B: Lorenz’s definition of the critical period does not involve growth spurts.
Answer C: As defined by Lorenz, the critical period occurs after birth.
Which of the following is an example of cultural encapsulation?
Select one:
A.
A client belonging to a minority group cannot separate problems due to individual factors from those related to oppression.
B.
A White male therapist doesn’t recognize that he interprets clients’ problems from his own cultural worldview.
C.
A young woman’s conflict is related to her inability to separate from the values, attitudes, and expectations of her immigrant parents.
D.
A therapist tends to view all problems of minority clients as due to factors inherent to the client’s cultural background.
The correct answer is B.
The term cultural encapsulation was used by Wrenn (1985) to describe the characteristics of a therapist who is “encapsulated” within his/her dominant culture. Culturally encapsulated therapists not only view clients’ problems through the filter of their own culture but are also unaware of doing so.
Answers A & C: Cultural encapsulation relates to the therapist’s worldview and how this impacts her/his client conceptualizations.
Answer D: This describes racial prejudice.
Dr. Hyer, a psychologist who heads the personnel committee at a mental health facility, recommends that a psychologist who has an unresolved charge of sexual harassment against him not be considered for a promotion. In terms of ethical guidelines published by the American and Canadian Psychological Associations, Dr. Hyer _____.
Select one:
A.
has acted ethically since sexual harassment is explicitly prohibited by ethical guidelines
B.
acted ethically as long as he is willing to consider the psychologist for promotion if he is acquitted of the harassment charge
C.
has acted unethically by violating the ethical requirement that psychologists not deny promotions on the basis of pending sexual harassment charges
D.
has acted unprofessionally but has not violated ethical guidelines
The correct answer is C.
This is one of the issues that is explicitly addressed by the Ethics Code. Standard 1.08 of the APA’s Ethics Code applies in this situation. It specifically prohibits denying a person employment or promotion “based solely upon their having made or their being the subject of an ethics complaint.” This prohibition does not necessarily, however, preclude such actions when a charge against an individual has been proven. This answer is also most consistent with Principle I.13 of the Canadian Code of Ethics for Psychologists.
Answer A: Unless the charge has been proven, denying promotion or employment under these circumstances is prohibited.
Answer B: This answer does not reflect the position of either the APA’s Ethics Code or the Canadian Code of Ethics.
Answer D: This answer fails to address the ethical issue specific to dealing with allegations that have not been proven.
A young man is found guilty of driving while intoxicated and is required by the court to receive in-patient treatment at an alcohol rehabilitation center. As a therapist working at the rehabilitation center, you should be aware that _______.
Select one:
A.
it is not necessary to have the man sign a waiver of confidentiality since his treatment is court-ordered
B.
it is not necessary to have the man sign a waiver of confidentiality because he has apparently voluntarily chosen treatment rather than some other form of punishment
C.
it is not necessary to have the man sign a waiver of confidentiality since no information should be given to the court in this situation under any circumstances
D.
it is necessary to have the man sign a waiver of confidentiality before releasing any information to the court
The correct answer is D.
The best approach to answering a question on informed consents and waivers of confidentiality is to choose the most conservative answer. Although the court has ordered the treatment, the client’s right to confidentiality is not waived. In fact, a court order is likely to be required for the release of information to it, and the information that must be released would likely be limited to objective data (see, e.g., L. C. Sobell and M. B. Sobell, Client rights in alcohol treatment programs, In. G. T. Hannah, et al. (eds.), Preservation of Client Rights, New York: The Free Press, 1981).
Answer A: While the man has been court ordered to treatment, without a waiver of confidentiality, treatment information cannot be released.
Answer B: The man has not automatically given up his rights to confidentiality. A release or court order needs to be in place before releasing information.
Answer C: This answer is incorrect as it is likely the court will request treatment information and the psychologist will need to know his or her ethical and legal responsibilities.
Dr. Bradley is not a member of APA. If he violates the standards of ethical conduct in the APA Ethics Code, he _______.
Select one:
A.
cannot be sanctioned by APA or other professional bodies
B.
could still be sanctioned by his state licensure board
C.
could still be sanctioned by APA
D.
could still be sanctioned by both APA and his state licensure board
The correct answer is B.
The Introduction and Applicability section of the APA Ethics Code states, “Actions that violate the standards of the Ethics Code may also lead to the imposition of sanctions on psychologists or students whether or not they are APA members by bodies other than APA….” The state licensure board is one of those bodies.
Answer A: This answer is incorrect. APA cannot sanction nonmembers, but other boards and organizations may sanction psychologists who violate APA ethical standards.
Answer C: This answer is incorrect. The APA cannot sanction nonmembers.
Answer D: This answer is incorrect. While the state licensure board may sanction a psychologist, APA would not sanction a nonmember.
Due to his violation of the Ethics Code, Dr. Riley is __________.
Select one:
A.
legally liable in a court action
B.
legally liable only when the violation involves breach of contract
C.
legally liable in both court actions and in cases where there is breach of contract
D.
not automatically liable for court actions or breach of contract
The correct answer is D.
The APA Ethics Code states, “Whether a psychologist has violated the Ethics Code standards does not by itself determine whether the psychologist is legally liable in a court action, whether a contract is enforceable, or whether other legal consequences occur.”
Answer A: A psychologist who violates ethical standards is not automatically legally liable in court.
Answer B: A psychologist who violates ethical standards is not automatically legally liable in the event of contract breach.
Answer C: This answer is incorrect. Legal liability does not automatically stem from ethical violations.
The Ethics Code uses modifiers such as “reasonably” and “appropriate” to allow for professional judgment on the part of psychologists. When applied in the Ethical Standards, the term “reasonably” refers to _______.
Select one:
A.
the judgment of the psychologist’s peers, based on current APA ethical standards
B.
the knowledge the psychologist had or should have had at the time, regardless of the judgment of peers
C.
the knowledge of psychologists in similar circumstances, as determined by a jury of professional peers
D.
the judgment of psychologists engaged in similar activities in similar circumstances, given the knowledge the psychologist had or should have had at the time
The correct answer is D.
This language is taken directly from the APA Ethics Code, which states, “As used in this Ethics Code, the term reasonable means the prevailing professional judgment of psychologists engaged in similar activities in similar circumstances, given the knowledge the psychologist had or should have had at the time.
Answer A: This answer is incorrect because it is incomplete.
Answer B: This answer is incomplete as well.
Answer C: The APA Ethics Code does not refer to a jury of one’s peers.
The Ethics Code sets forth specific standards that address most situations psychologists encounter, with the primary goal best described as the _______.
Select one:
A.
promotion of the discipline of psychology
B.
protection of individuals and groups
C.
protection of people and education regarding ethical standards of the discipline
D.
education of students, psychologists, and the public regarding ethical standards of the discipline of psychology
The correct answer is C.
The Preamble of the APA Ethics Code states its goals include, “the welfare and protection of the individuals and groups with whom psychologists work and the education of members, students, and the public regarding ethical standards of the discipline.”
Answer A: Promoting discipline is not the main goal of the Ethics Code.
Answer B: This answer is incorrect because it does not fully respond to the question.
Answer D: Education is one goal of the Ethics Code, but this answer is incomplete as it does not address the other goal, which is protecting those with whom psychologists work.
According to the APA Ethics Code, engaging in pro bono services is __________.
Select one:
A.
required
B.
recommended
C.
recommended and required
D.
Neither recommended nor required
The correct answer is B.
Pro bono services are professional services a psychologist provides without charge. The term is not used explicitly in the Ethics Code, but General Principle B (Fidelity and Responsibility) encourages psychologists to contribute some of their professional time for little or no compensation. Given that pro bono services are described in the General Principles, they are not mandated, but are recommended only.
Answer A: This answer is incorrect. Because pro bono services are described in the aspirational General Principles, they are not required.
Answer C: This answer is incorrect. Pro bono services are recommended, but not required.
Answer D: This answer is incorrect. Pro bono services are recommended.
APA may take action against a member after his or her conviction of _______.
Select one:
A.
a crime that was committed when the psychologist was acting in a professional role
B.
misdemeanor or felony
C.
felony
D.
a crime that involves harm to another person regardless of whether it is associated with the psychologist’s professional role
The correct answer is C.
The Ethics Code states, “…APA may take action against a member after his or her conviction of a felony, expulsion or suspension from an affiliated state psychological association, or suspension or loss of licensure.”
Answer A: The APA may take action in the event of a member’s felony conviction regardless of whether it was associated with a psychologist’s private conduct.
Answer B: The APA does not take action in the event of a misdemeanor.
Answer D: This answer is too vague and does not reflect the language contained in the Ethics Code.
When a psychologist encounters a conflict between ethical and legal requirements, psychologists should resolve it in a way that _______________.
Select one:
A.
preserves the ethical foundations of the profession
B.
is in keeping with basic principles of human rights
C.
adheres to legal standards
D.
is in keeping with accepted practices
The correct answer is B.
In the Introduction of the APA Ethics Code, psychologists are advised that when there is a conflict between ethical and legal requirements, psychologists must resolve it in a way that is “in keeping with basic principles of human rights.”
Answer A: This answer is incorrect as it is incomplete. It is important to understand that the code advises psychologists to weigh human rights when faced with a conflict between ethical and legal responsibilities.
Answer C: This answer is incorrect. It fails to include language specific to the Ethics Code.
Answer D: This answer is too vague.
Dr. Cohen believes her colleague has engaged in unethical behavior that will result in harm to the colleague’s clients. Dr. Cohen files a report with the state licensing board. Dr. Cohen has acted _________.
Select one:
A.
ethically provided she does not violate confidentiality rights
B.
unethically, because she should have confronted her colleague first
C.
ethically, provided she does not file a complaint with the APA Ethics Committee until after the licensure board renders its decision
D.
unethically, because she should have filed a complaint with the APA Ethics Committee first
The correct answer is A.
Standard 1.05 states, “If an apparent ethical violation has substantially harmed or is likely to substantially harm a person or organization and is not appropriate for informal resolution…psychologists take further action appropriate to the situation.”
Answer B: While Standard 1.04 advises psychologists to “attempt to resolve the issue by bringing it to the attention of that individual,” Standard 1.05 allows for further action in more serious cases.
Answer C: This answer is incorrect. There are no restrictions regarding the order in which complaints should be filed.
Answer D: This answer is incorrect, as this is not required.
Dr. Grant’s new client tells her she stopped seeing her previous therapist because he repeatedly borrowed money from her and did not pay her back. The client said her friend is also a client of this psychologist and the friend believes the psychologist has a gambling problem, because he asked her for a loan as well. Dr. Grant should __________.
Select one:
A.
file an ethics complaint, given the psychologist’s behavior may involve substantial harm to other clients
B.
contact the client’s previous therapist to try to resolve the issue informally
C.
talk with the client about her options
D.
ask the client to give you the contact information of her friend so you can investigate further
The correct answer is C.
Of the answers available, this one is the best. Talking with the client about her options makes the most sense. While the other psychologist’s behavior is clearly unethical and may be causing harm, Dr. Cohen cannot file a complaint or contact the other therapist without the client’s permission.
Answer A: Client confidentiality takes precedence over reporting another psychologist’s unethical behavior, and this answer does not indicate the client has given permission.
Answer B: Without the client’s permission, Dr. Cohen cannot contact the previous psychologist.
Answer D: This answer is obviously incorrect as Dr. Cohen would not want to contact another client.
Dr. Stover is a psychologist whose practice involves assessment for educational and forensic concerns. After a hurricane devastates Dr. Stover’s community, the emergency response team asks her to help people coping with the aftermath. Dr. Stover should ___________.
Select one:
A.
let the response team know she is not qualified to provide individual and group psychotherapy
B.
agree to help only if it does not interfere with her regularly scheduled assessment appointments
C.
agree to help with the emergency response until appropriate services are available
D.
agree to help after she completes a refresher workshop on interviewing skills.
The correct answer is C.
This question addresses the boundaries of competence in crisis situations. Ethical Standard 2.02 states, “In emergencies, when psychologists provide services …for which psychologists have not obtained the necessary training, psychologists may provide such services in order to ensure that services are not denied.” Importantly, the standard also requires that services be discontinued once appropriate services are available.
Answer A: Given this is an emergency situation, Dr. Stover may provide services.
Answer B: This answer is incorrect as it fails to address the central ethical concern, which is responding in an emergency.
Answer D: This answer is incorrect. While taking a refresher workshop is not a bad idea, it is unlikely that in a crisis situation, Dr. Stover should wait until that event is scheduled.
Dr. Kramer is in private practice. Which situation would be most likely to trigger concerns about vicarious liability?
Select one:
A.
Providing consultation to a foster care agency
B.
Agreeing to take psychology interns at her practice site
C.
Offering expert testimony in a child abuse case
D.
Offering to administer personality inventories to police candidates
The correct answer is B.
Vicarious liability refers to the legal responsibility psychologists assume when they supervise others. In accepting interns at her practice site, Dr. Kramer will be held responsible for the actions of her supervisees.
Answer A: This answer is incorrect. Vicarious liability is not likely to be an issue in this case.
Answer C: Vicarious liability is relevant to situations where a psychologist provides supervision, not testimony.
Answer D: Vicarious liability is not related to this situation.
Dr. Kennedy is a skilled cognitive-behavioral psychologist. While attending a conference, she stops to talk with a vendor selling biofeedback equipment. The vendor, also a therapist, tells Dr. Kennedy his equipment is intuitive to use, and that she can easily set it up and apply biofeedback with clients this coming week. Dr. Kennedy decides to buy the equipment to try the technique with some of her more challenging clients. Dr. Kennedy is _______.
Select one:
A.
behaving ethically given biofeedback is based on behavioral skills she already has
B.
behaving ethically, given psychologists are expected to learn new skills to remain competent
C.
behaving unethically if she does not first obtain biofeedback training prior to using it with her patients
D.
behaving unethically if she does not give patients the choice of using biofeedback instead of her usual therapeutic approach
The correct answer is C.
In this case, biofeedback would be a new technique that Dr. Kennedy has not used before. Standard 2.01 states that psychologists provide therapeutic services that are within their current level of competence. Dr. Kennedy needs to obtain training on this new technique before using it with patients.
Answer A: Even though biofeedback is related to behavioral techniques, its use requires specific training.
Answer B: This answer is incorrect. While psychologists are expected to update their skills, this answer misses the central ethical issue, which is obtaining the necessary training to be competent.
Answer D: This answer is incorrect. It overlooks the more critical issue of Dr. Kennedy needing to develop skills before trying biofeedback with her patients.
Dr. Preston has been planning to lead a pro bono grief group associated with the local hospice. She has screened the group members and notified them the first meeting will occur in one week. That evening, Dr. Preston learns that her sister has been killed in a car accident. Dr. Preston should ________.
Select one:
A.
proceed with the group as planned, letting the group know about the loss of her sister
B.
ask the group to meet without her for the first few weeks
C.
let the group know she needs to postpone the start of the group for two weeks, so she can deal with her sister’s death
D.
cancel the group
The correct answer is D.
Standard 2.06 advises psychologist to refrain from initiating professional activities when there is a likelihood that personal problems will interfere with those activities. The death of Dr. Preston’s sister is significant enough that she should cancel the group or find another psychologist to lead it.
Answer A: This answer is incorrect. Dr. Preston’s loss is likely to interfere with her ability to successfully lead the group.
Answer B: This answer is incorrect. It is unlikely “a few weeks” will be enough time to cope with her sister’s death in such a way that Dr. Preston can assure her competence.
Answer C: This answer is incorrect. Again, two weeks is unlikely to be enough time to assure she will lead the group with competence.
Which of the following best describes the ethical requirements regarding the two-year limit on sexual intimacies?
Select one:
A.
Psychologists may enter into a sexual relationship with a former client provided two years have passed since treatment ended.
B.
Psychologists do not engage in sexual intimacies with former clients/patients even after a two-year interval except in the most unusual circumstances.
C.
Psychologists may work with former intimate partners provided two years have passed since the relationship was terminated.
D.
Psychologists do not enter into a therapeutic relationship with a former sexual partner even after a two-year interval except in the most unusual circumstances.
The correct answer is B.
Ethics Standard 10.08 prohibits psychologists from having sexual relationships with a client for at least two years after therapy has ceased. Further, it states that such a relationship may be acceptable only in the “most unusual circumstances.” The standard lays out a series of circumstances the psychologist bears the burden of addressing to demonstrate the relationship is not exploitative.
Answer A: This answer is incorrect as it fails to account for the fact that sexual relationships two years after treatment has terminated should be highly unusual.
Answer C: This answer is incorrect. Accepting a client who is a former sexual partner is not ethical.
Answer D: This answer is incorrect. It is never ethical to begin therapy with a former sexual partner.
Which situation is most likely to be informed by the Tarasoff decision?
Select one:
A.
A client says his brother talks about killing his neighbor.
B.
A client confesses to you he killed a co-worker 8 years ago.
C.
A client says she is thinking about overdosing on pills.
D.
A client tells you he is thinking of poisoning his brother.
The correct answer is D.
The Tarasoff decision refers to a psychologist’s duty to protect an intended victim. If a client says he is thinking of poisoning his brother, the psychologist should act to protect the brother.
Answer A: This answer is incorrect. Tarasoff does not apply in this case.
Answer B: Tarasoff does not apply to past situations.
Answer C: Tarasoff does not apply to self-harm or suicide cases.
Dr. Israel is a psychologist in a university counseling center. A new 18-year old client tells Dr. Israel that growing up, her father would become violent when drunk, and that he repeatedly hit her. The student cries as she explains that violent incidents have become more frequent, leading the student to avoid going home to see her mother and two younger sisters who still live there. Dr. Israel should __________________.
Select one:
A.
contact the police, given the Tarasoff decision requires Dr. Israel act to protect the family
B.
continue meeting with the student to provide support
C.
contact authorities about child abuse
D.
help the client develop a safety plan for the next time she visits her family
The correct answer is C.
As mandated reporters, psychologists are required by law to report suspected child abuse. The fact that the client’s two younger sisters live in the home where the client’s father is violent, places them at risk, especially since the client was abused herself while she lived there.
Answer A: The Tarasoff decision does not have bearing on this case.
Answer B: This answer is not completely incorrect, but it fails to account for the fact that the psychologist has a responsibility to report suspected child abuse.
Answer D: Developing a safety plan is a good idea, but the more critical ethical and legal concern in this case is that fact that the psychologist has a responsibility to report suspected child abuse.
Dr. Huang is a psychology professor who maintains an active private practice. Her doctoral students appreciate the fact that Dr. Huang uses timely examples from her practice to illustrate clinical content she teaches. Dr. Huang is careful to provide pseudonyms that mask the identity of her patients in class. Dr. Huang has acted _______________.
Select one:
A.
ethically, given she does not reveal the identity of her patients
B.
unethically, because faculty should not use real-life examples of patients in their classroom instruction
C.
ethically, provided she does not use examples in her undergraduate courses, thereby limiting the sharing of patient information in doctoral courses
D.
unethically; masking patient names is not sufficient
The correct answer is D.
Standard 4.07 prohibits psychologists from using confidential, information about their clients unless they have taken reasonable steps to remove all personally identifiable information. Simply using a pseudonym is not sufficient, when other details have not been changed.
Answer A: Simply using a different name for the client is not sufficient to mask their identity.
Answer B: Faculty may use examples if they sufficiently protect a client’s identity or obtain client permission.
Answer C: Psychologists must protect their client’s confidentiality and mask their identity regardless of whether they are teaching undergraduate or doctoral students.
Dr. Peterson has been working with a 22-year-old female client for the past three months. The client tells Dr. Peterson she was sexually assaulted by an older boyfriend when she was 15. Dr. Peterson should _____________.
Select one:
A.
contact child abuse authorities, given the client was 15 when the abuse occurred
B.
find out whether the client’s boyfriend at the time currently has access to underaged youth he could be abusing
C.
contact the police, given they will handle the case now that the client is an adult
D.
continue working with the client to help her cope with the experience
The correct answer is D.
Dr. Peterson should continue working with the client.
Answer A: In most jurisdictions, psychologists are not required to report abuse when an adult client reveals she or he was abused as a child, unless there is reason to believe the perpetrator is still victimizing a minor.
Answer B: Unless the client indicates the abuser is still abusing children or youth, psychologists should not conduct an investigation to determine this.
Answer C: If the client wants to report the abuse to police, the psychologist can support her, but the psychologist should not file the report without the client’s permission.
To adhere with APA ethics requirements, a psychologist should _______________.
Select one:
A.
obtain a patient’s signature for informed consent
B.
document informed consent
C.
obtain a signature for a witness to document informed consent
D.
obtain the signature of both the patient and a witness to document informed consent
The correct answer is B.
The APA’s Ethical Code requires that psychologists document informed consent, but does not specify that such documentation must include a signature.
Answer A: While obtaining a signature is a good idea and is one way to document consent, it is not required by the APA’s ethics code.
Answer C: Securing a witness’s signature is not required by APA.
Answer D: APA does not require a signature by either a witness or the client, though it does require documentation in the record. A signature is one way to document informed consent, but it is not the only way.
Dr. Simmons recruits research participants through social media to join a focus group research study dealing with the stressors facing parents of teens. The focus group is scheduled to last for two hours and participants are told they will be paid $50 for their participation. At the beginning of the focus group, Dr. Simmons advises the participants that their comments will be kept confidential and that she needs all participants to stay for the full duration of the focus group in order to receive their payment. Dr. Simmons study is ________________.
Select one:
A.
unethical, because psychologists should not use social media to recruit research participants
B.
unethical because psychologists should not pay research participants
C.
unethical because psychologists should not require research participants to stay for the duration of a research study
D.
ethical, but Dr. Simmons should include the perspectives of the teens in addition to their parents
The correct answer is C.
Psychologists should not require research participants to stay for the full duration of the study and need to communicate that participants may leave.
Answer A: The APA Ethics Code does not specify that recruitment through social media is unethical.
Answer B: This answer is incorrect. Researchers may pay their participants for their time.
Answer D: This answer is incorrect, because it fails to acknowledge that psychologists should not mandate participants complete a research study if they want to leave before it is over.
Pope et al. (1993) found that which therapists were more likely to engage in sexual relationships with their clients?
Select one:
A.
Male therapists ages 30-32
B.
Female therapists ages 30-32
C.
Male therapists ages 42-44
D.
Female therapists ages 42-44.
The correct answer is C.
Pope et al.’s study found that male therapists were more likely to engage in sexual relationships with their clients than female therapists. Knowing this should help you narrow down your answer from the available choices. The average age for these male therapists who engaged in a sexual relationship was 42-44. Typically, the female client was younger and between the ages of 30 and 33.
Answer A: This answer is incorrect, because older male therapists were more likely to engage in a sexual relationship with their client.
Answer B: This answer is incorrect. Male therapists were reported as more likely to pursue a sexual relationship with a client.
Answer D: This answer is incorrect. It could be ruled out by knowing that male therapists were more likely than female therapists to pursue a relationship with a client.
Dr. Gingerich is preparing to terminate with a couple after working with them for several months. The next day Dr. Gingerich is contacted by the husband who says he would like to start working with Dr. Gingerich in individual therapy after the couple’s last session scheduled for next week. Dr. Gingerich’s best course of action would be to ________________.
Select one:
A.
make an appointment with him as long as you believe that he will benefit from individual therapy
B.
make an appointment with him only if it is your practice to see members of couples conjointly and individually
C.
suggest that you discuss this with him during the next conjoint session
D.
tell him that you’d be glad to see him individually once conjoint treatment has been terminated
The correct answer is C.
This is a difficult question because not enough information is given to know why the request for individual therapy was made and what has already been discussed about individual therapy with the couple. To identify why the man is seeking individual therapy and to avoid “secrets” and conflicts regarding confidentiality, the best course of action would be to discuss the possibility of seeing the man in individual therapy during the next conjoint session.
Answer A: This answer fails to account for the more critical concern related to the couple as the client and the potential for creating an alliance with the husband that alienates the wife.
Answer B: This answer does not adequately address the more critical concern related to establishing an alliance with one member of the couple at the expense of the other member.
Answer D: This answer is incorrect, because before deciding to pursue this route toward future treatment, the couple and therapist should discuss together the potential problems inherent in seeing one member of the couple and not the other, especially if the couple should want to resume therapy at a later date.
Dr. Stanford, a licensed psychologist, receives a call from Beth, a former client. Beth tells Dr. Stanford that she has been treated by her family medicine doctor for the past two months with an antidepressant. The woman says she doesn’t think the medication is helping at all and that she plans to stop taking the medication and start therapy again with Dr. Stanford. Dr. Stanford should __________.
Select one:
A.
make an appointment with Beth to discuss her concerns
B.
advise Beth that it would be best if she discusses her concerns with the family physician before scheduling an appointment with Dr. Stanford
C.
make an appointment with Beth so Dr. Stanford can determine whether the medication is helping or not
D.
tell Beth that he will call the doctor to discuss the Beth’s concerns
The correct answer is B.
This is the only response that involves advising the client to check with her doctor about the continued use of the medication. In most situations, psychologists currently cannot prescribe medication or give advice about medication. Therefore, the correct answer to this question must be the answer that involves advising the client to speak with the doctor who prescribed the medication.
Answer A: Because Dr. Stanford is not able to make recommendations about medications, this is not the best course of action.
Answer C: Because prescribing medications is not within Dr. Stanford’s area of expertise, this is not an appropriate course of action.
Answer D: Again, since Dr. Stanford is not able to give advice about medications, this is not the best choice.
At the gym, an acquaintance approaches you and asks if you’ve heard the rumor that a colleague of yours has a significant drinking problem and has been drunk while seeing clients. He heard your colleague passed out while treating someone who ultimately didn’t go back to see him. The acquaintance says that the rumor seems to be widely known and believed. You think that it’s possible that the rumor is true. What should you do?
Select one:
A.
Nothing, since it is only a rumor
B.
Suggest to the acquaintance that he discuss the rumor with the colleague
C.
Send a letter to the Ethics Committee about the matter
D.
Discuss the matter with the colleague yourself
The correct answer is D.
As an ethical psychologist, you have a responsibility to follow through on possible ethical violations of colleagues. The best course of action would be to confront the colleague directly. In the event that the rumor is not true, the colleague should be made aware of it.
Answer A: The APA’s Ethics Code requires psychologists to intervene in the event of a colleague’s unethical behavior. Therefore, you should not ignore this information.
Answer B: Because you are a psychologist and a colleague, you have a responsibility to act on this information.
Answer C: The APA’s Ethics Code advises psychologists to attempt to remedy the situation directly in most cases. Further, you do not have details to provide in a complaint.
Research on complex clinical decision-making has confirmed that:
Select one:
A.
statistical prediction is usually more accurate than clinical judgment.
B.
clinical judgment is usually more accurate than statistical prediction.
C.
clinical judgment is more accurate than statistical prediction as long as the clinician “optimizes” rather than “satisfices.”
D.
clinical judgment and statistical prediction are about equal in accuracy.
The correct answer is A.
Although the relative accuracy of statistical (actuarial) and clinical predictions continues to be debated, the research indicates that some general conclusions can be drawn. In their meta-analysis of the research, Grove and Meehl (1996) found that actuarial prediction alone was most accurate in 64 studies, a combination of actuarial prediction and clinical judgment was most accurate than either alone in 64 studies, and clinical judgment alone was most accurate in only 8 studies.
Answer B: Research on complex clinical decision-making has not confirmed that clinical judgment is usually more accurate than statistical prediction. See explanation for response A.
Answer C: Research on complex clinical decision-making has not confirmed that clinical judgment is more accurate than statistical prediction as long as the clinician “optimizes” rather than “satisfices” (which sounds like the opposite of what the bounded rationality (administrative) model espouses with regards to decison-makers). See explanation for response A.
Answer D: Research on complex clinical decision-making has not confirmed that clinical judgment and statistical prediction are about equal in accuracy. See explanation for response A.
According to ____________, symbolic play offers young children opportunities to engage in activities that are developmentally more advanced than they could successfully perform in reality on their own.
Select one:
A.
J. H. Flavell
B.
E. Gibson
C.
L. Vygotsky
D.
J. Piaget
The correct answer is C.
Symbolic (make-believe) play refers to play in which one object represents another (e.g., a doll represents a baby). For Vygotsky, symbolic play provides a “zone of proximal development” that enables a child to practice behaviors in a situation that requires less precision and accuracy than would be required in reality.
Answer A: Flavell is probably best known for his research on children’s ability to distinguish between appearance and reality.
Answer B: Eleanor and James Gibson are best known for their research on perceptual development in infants.
Answer D: Piaget viewed symbolic play as an opportunity to practice representational schemes.
When excellent performance on one measure can offset poor performance on another measure, which of the following techniques would be most useful for combining test scores?
Select one:
A.
Multiple regression
B.
Multiple cutoff
C.
Multiple hurdle
D.
Multiple baseline
The correct answer is A.
This question describes a situation in which a compensatory technique would be the preferred technique for combining test scores. Multiple regression is a compensatory technique for combining test scores since a low score on one test can be offset (compensated for) by high scores on other tests.
Answer B: Multiple cutoff is a noncompensatory technique.
Answer C: Multiple hurdle is also a noncompensatory technique.
Answer D: Multiple baseline refers to a research design, not a method for combining test scores.
Joining and accommodating are the initial steps in __________ family therapy.
Select one:
A.
object relations
B.
strategic
C.
Milan systemic
D.
structural
The correct answer is D.
For the exam, you want to have joining and accommodating associated with Minuchin’s structural family therapy. Minuchin viewed joining and accommodating as necessary initial processes that reduce family members’ resistance to change.
Answer A: Joining and accommodating are not the initial steps in object relations family therapy. See explanation for response D.
Answer B: Joining and accommodating are not the initial steps in strategic family therapy. See explanation for response D.
Answer C: Joining and accommodating are not the initial steps in Milan systemic. See explanation for response D.
In an experiment on memory, the researcher utters a string of ten letters within a span of 3 seconds and suddenly stops and asks the participant what the last four letters were. Apparently, this researcher is investigating:
Select one:
A.
working memory
B.
semantic memory
C.
iconic memory
D.
echoic memory
The correct answer is D.
In this study, the participant must recall what he/she has just heard – i.e., to recall information that is in sensory memory. The auditory part of sensory memory is referred to as echoic memory.
Answer A: Working memory is part of short-term memory.
Answer B: Semantic memory is part of long-term memory.
Answer C: Iconic memory is the visual aspect of sensory memory.
The final stage in Cross’s (1991) Black Racial Identity Development Model is:
Select one:
A.
internalization
B.
incorporation
C.
integrative awareness
D.
autonomy
The correct answer is A.
The most recent version of Cross’s model distinguishes between four stages of identity development: pre-encounter, encounter, immersion-emersion, and internalization. An African-American in the internalization stage has developed a strong ethnic identity but has also resolved global anti-white sentiments and become more bicultural.
Answer B: The final stage in Cross’s (1991) Black Racial Identity Development Model is not incorporation. See explanation for response A.
Answer C: The final stage in Cross’s (1991) Black Racial Identity Development Model is not integrative awareness. See explanation for response A.
Answer D: The final stage in Cross’s (1991) Black Racial Identity Development Model is not autonomy. See explanation for response A.
Cross-cultural research has identified several universal emotions that are associated with similar facial expressions by individuals from diverse cultures. Which of the following is NOT one of these?
Select one:
A.
Fear
B.
Anger
C.
Disgust
D.
Shame
The correct answer is D.
The universal emotions identified by Ekman (1993) and Izard (1971) are: happiness, sadness, fear, anger, disgust, surprise, and contempt. People from diverse cultural backgrounds use very similar facial expressions to express these emotions. Shame is not one of the universal emotions identified by the researchers.
Answer A: Fear is one of the universal emotions identified by the researchers. See explanation for response D.
Answer B: Anger is one of the universal emotions identified by the researchers. See explanation for response D.
Answer C: Disgust is one of the universal emotions identified by the researchers. See explanation for response D.
An infant’s first expression of fear is often in response to unfamiliar adults. The onset and severity of this “stranger anxiety” depends on several factors – for instance, the child’s temperament and previous experience with strangers – but is ordinarily first evident when the child is _____ months of age.
Select one:
A.
4 to 6
B.
8 to 10
C.
10 to 12
D.
13 to 15
The correct answer is B.
Stranger anxiety is considered one manifestation of a child’s attachment to his/her primary caregiver(s). In most infants, stranger anxiety is first evident by about 8 to 10 months.
Answer A: Stranger anxiety, in most infants, is not first evident by about 4 to 6 months. See explanation for response B.
Answer C: Stranger anxiety, in most infants, is not first evident by about 10 to 12 months. See explanation for response B.
Answer D: Stranger anxiety, in most infants, is not first evident by about 13 to 15 months. See explanation for response B.
Michael Rutter (1979) identified several factors ("Rutter's indicators") that increase the risk for psychopathology in children and adolescents. These include all of the following except:
Select one:
A.
low socioeconomic status
B.
large family size and overcrowding
C.
maternal psychopathology
D.
racial/ethnic minority status
The correct answer is D.
Rutter’s (1979) indicators for psychopathology are low SES, marital discord, large family size and overcrowding, paternal criminality, maternal psychiatric disorder, and being placed in foster care. Racial/ethnic minority status is not one of Rutter’s indicators.
Answer A: Low SES was identified by Rutter as a high-risk factor.
Answer B: Rutter identified large family size as a high-risk factor.
Answer C: Maternal psychopathology was also identified as a risk factor by Rutter.
