TEST MODE - Test 7 Flashcards
The symptoms of fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS):
Select one:
A.
gradually decline during early childhood with the appropriate environmental stimulation.
B.
are largely reversible with the proper diet during the first several months of life.
C.
are limited primarily to physical defects (facial abnormalities and retarded growth).
D.
are largely irreversible and include physical, behavioral, and cognitive impairments.
Fetal alcohol syndrome is the most severe form of fetal alcohol spectrum disorder (FASD) and is characterized by a pattern of physical, behavioral, and cognitive impairments that are associated with alcohol consumption by pregnant women.
a. Incorrect Although some of the facial deformities become less obvious with increasing age, most deficits are irreversible.
b. Incorrect Proper diet has not been found to have a significant effect on impairments due to fetal alcohol syndrome.
c. Incorrect fetal alcohol syndrome also involves substantial cognitive and behavioral problems.
d. CORRECT The severity and nature of the symptoms of fetal alcohol syndrome are related to the amount of alcohol consumed by the mother during pregnancy. For most children, however, the symptoms are serious and are, to a large degree, irreversible.
The correct answer is: are largely irreversible and include physical, behavioral, and cognitive impairments.
A psychologist is hired by a defense attorney to evaluate a defendant to determine the appropriateness of the insanity defense. During the first meeting with the defendant, the psychologist explains the purpose of the evaluation. The defendant says he doesn’t want to cooperate with the evaluation because of the limits on confidentiality. The psychologist should:
Select one:
A.
obtain a court order before evaluating the defendant.
B.
obtain as much information from the defendant as possible and explain to the court why the evaluation is not complete.
C.
explain to the defendant that privilege is waived in this situation and that the evaluation is in his best interests.
D.
postpone the evaluation and notify the defense attorney of the defendant’s concerns.
This issue is addressed in the Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychology.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT This response is most consistent with “common sense” and with the provisions of Paragraph 6.03.01 of the Specialty Guidelines.
The correct answer is: postpone the evaluation and notify the defense attorney of the defendant’s concerns.
The primary goal of self-instructional training (SIT) for children exhibiting hyperactivity and excessive impulsivity is to:
Select one:
A.
eliminate obsessive ruminations.
B.
re-align intention and action.
C.
clarify response contingencies.
D.
insert thought between stimulus and response.
SIT involves training the individual to guide his/her actions with internally-originated verbal instructions. Additional information about SIT is provided in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect This answer is close but not as good as response d.
c. Incorrect Although self-instruction includes self-reinforcement, this is not the primary goal of SIT.
d. CORRECT Hyperactive and impulsive children often respond to events automatically. The goal of SIT is to reduce automatic behaviors by inserting thoughts between an event and the response to that event.
The correct answer is: insert thought between stimulus and response.
When conducting a principal components analysis, the components are extracted so that:
Select one:
A.
each component accounts for the same amount of variability.
B.
the first component accounts for the largest amount of variability.
C.
the last component accounts for the largest amount of variability.
D.
the middle component accounts for the largest amount of variability.
Principal components analysis is similar to factor analysis and is used to identify a set of variables that accounts for all (or nearly all) of the total variance in a set of test scores.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Principal components are extracted so that the first component accounts for the largest amount of variability in test scores; the second component accounts for the second largest amount of variability, etc.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: the first component accounts for the largest amount of variability.
You are developing an educational program to discourage high school students from using drugs. You are considering using “fear arousal” as one method for persuading the students but should keep in mind that the research has shown that:
Select one:
A.
lower levels of fear arousal are associated with the greatest amount of opinion change.
B.
the greater the amount of fear aroused, the greater the opinion change.
C.
high levels of fear arousal are associated with the greatest amount of opinion change as long as certain conditions are met.
D.
fear arousal is not a good method for inducing opinion change.
Like many relationships, the relationship between fear arousal and attitude change is a complex one.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Although some early research suggested that high fear arousal results in less attitude change than low fear arousal, subsequent studies have demonstrated that high levels of fear arousal are the most effective for inducing attitude change as long as the fear-arousing message is accompanied by information about what actions to take to reduce or avert dangerous consequences.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: high levels of fear arousal are associated with the greatest amount of opinion change as long as certain conditions are met.
Dr. K. has just started working at a community mental health center. Several of his new clients belong to an ethnic minority group that he has not had prior experience working with. Dr. K. should:
Select one:
A.
refuse to see the clients because he has not had adequate experience.
B.
see the clients only if he has completed appropriate coursework on cross-cultural counseling.
C.
ask the clients if they desire a referral and, if so, refer them to another therapist.
D.
see the clients but obtain appropriate supervision or consultation.
During the course of his/her career, a therapist will ordinarily want to acquire new skills and will want to expand his/her practice to include new kinds of clients. This is particularly true for Dr. K. since he is working at a clinic where some clients are apparently members of minority groups.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT The ethical guidelines recommend that therapists seek appropriate supervision or consultation when working with clients who belong to an unfamiliar group or population. In some situations, a referral would be an appropriate course of action, but supervision or consultation seems best in this case.
The correct answer is: see the clients but obtain appropriate supervision or consultation.
The only time a client is able to see you is during her lunch hour, which requires her session to be limited to 30 minutes because of the distance she must travel to get to your office. When you bill her insurance company, however, you bill for the entire hour. This is:
Select one:
A.
ethical since the shorter sessions are being provided at the client’s request.
B.
ethical since your policy is to always bill clients for an entire hour.
C.
unethical.
D.
a legal, but not an ethical, issue.
The action described in this question represents insurance fraud which is both illegal and unethical.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT This is the best answer of those given. Providing any inaccurate information to the insurance company would represent insurance fraud.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: unethical.
Research on the use of hypnosis to recover repressed memories suggests that:
Select one:
A.
memories recalled under hypnosis are both more accurate and more detailed than other memories.
B.
memories recalled under hypnosis are about as reliable as other memories.
C.
memories recalled under hypnosis are less reliable than other memories and may be more susceptible to distortion.
D.
memories recalled under hypnosis are almost always confabulated.
It has been difficult to check the accuracy of “repressed memories” that have been retrieved under hypnosis, and there is not a great deal of empirical research on this topic. However, the research on memory suggests that memories are often constructed (or reconstructed) to some degree rather than simply recalled and that hypnosis can exacerbate this process.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT This is the best conclusion that can be drawn about repressed memories retrieved under hypnosis. While some memories may be accurate, care must be taken in accepting memories retrieved under hypnosis since hypnosis seems to make people particularly susceptible to suggestion and to believing that false memories are, in fact, true.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: memories recalled under hypnosis are less reliable than other memories and may be more susceptible to distortion.
Chin and Benne (1976) propose that which of the following techniques would be part of a normative-reeducative strategy for overcoming resistance to change in an organization?
Select one:
A.
providing information to employees about the need for change
B.
having groups of employees discuss ways to accomplish change
C.
having a strong leader describe ways to achieve change
D.
using rewards to encourage employees to comply with plans for change
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Chin and Benne (1976) identified three strategies for overcoming resistance to change in organizations: rational-empirical, normative-reeducative, and power-coercive.
a. Incorrect Providing employees with information about the change when resistance to change is due to a lack of knowledge is characteristic of the rational-empirical strategy.
b. CORRECT Use of the normative-reeducative strategy is based on the premise that peer pressure and sociocultural norms are effective methods for promoting change. Therefore, having employees work together to accomplish change is likely to be part of this strategy.
c. Incorrect Relying on a strong leader to gain cooperation is characteristic of the power-coercive strategy.
d. Incorrect Using rewards is also characteristic of the power-coercive strategy.
The correct answer is: having groups of employees discuss ways to accomplish change
Taddio and colleagues (1997, 2005) examined pain perception in newborns and found that, when newborn boys were not given anesthesia during circumcision:
Select one:
A.
they showed no adverse reactions, suggesting that they did not experience pain.
B.
they showed an adverse reaction but exhibited no subsequent effects of this experience.
C.
they showed an adverse reaction followed by increased sensitivity to pain in subsequent months.
D.
they showed an adverse reaction followed by decreased sensitivity to pain in subsequent months.
Contrary to what was previously believed, research has confirmed that newborns are sensitive to pain.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Taddio et al. found that newborns who were not given anesthesia during circumcision displayed a more adverse reaction to a vaccination several months later than did those who were given anesthesia. Other research has confirmed that exposure to painful medical procedures during early infancy can affect later pain perception, although the exact effects may depend on whether the infant was full-term or premature.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: they showed an adverse reaction followed by increased sensitivity to pain in subsequent months.
According to Fiedler’s (1984) contingency theory of leadership, task-oriented leaders are most effective when the work situation is _______________ with regard to the leader’s sense of certainty, predictability, and control over his/her employees.
Select one:
A.
moderate in favorableness
B.
very high in favorableness
C.
very low in favorableness
D.
very high or very low in favorableness
Fiedler’s theory distinguishes between low-LPC (task-oriented) and high-LPC (person-oriented) leaders.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Fiedler concluded that low-LPC leaders are most effective in extreme situations, i.e., in situations that are very high or very low in favorableness. In contrast, high-LPC leaders are most effective in moderately favorable situations.
The correct answer is: very high or very low in favorableness
A psychologist constructs a new test of cynicism. She correlates the scores on her new test with scores on another test of cynicism and obtains a correlation of .22. Then, she correlates scores on her test with scores on a test of repressed anger and obtains a correlation of .60. The psychologist has obtained evidence that her test has:
Select one:
A.
good construct validity.
B.
inadequate construct validity.
C.
good criterion-related validity.
D.
inadequate criterion-related validity.
The psychologist has obtained a low correlation (.22) between her test and another test that measures the same theoretical construct (cynicism). In contrast, she obtained a relatively high correlation (.60) between her test and a test that measures a different theoretical construct (repressed anger).
a. Incorrect A test with good construct validity would have a high correlation with another test of the same trait (high convergent validity) and a low correlation with another test of a different trait (high divergent validity).
b. CORRECT This test has low convergent validity since the correlation between the test and another test of the same construct is low. It also has low divergent validity, as evidenced by the high correlation between the test and a test of a different trait. Convergent and divergent validity provide evidence of construct validity, or the usefulness of a test for measuring a theoretical trait or construct.
c. Incorrect A test has high criterion-related validity when scores on the test correlate highly with scores on a criterion measure.
d. Incorrect A test has low criterion-related validity when scores on the test do not correlate highly with scores on a criterion.
The correct answer is: inadequate construct validity.
In contrast to Maslow’s need hierarchy theory, Alderfer’s ERG theory:
Select one:
A.
places motivation within a satisfaction/dissatisfaction framework.
B.
proposes that needs emerge in a predictable order.
C.
assumes that needs may become more (rather than less) important as they are fulfilled.
D.
has received little support as an explanation for motivation in the workplace.
ERG theory is a modification of Maslow’s need hierarchy theory. Among other things, it reduces Maslow’s five needs to three: existence, relatedness, and growth.
a. Incorrect This sounds like Herzberg’s two-factor theory.
b. Incorrect This is a characteristic of Maslow’s (not Alderfer’s) theory.
c. CORRECT This is an assumption of ERG theory and the opposite of what Maslow’s theory predicts.
d. Incorrect Alderfer’s theory has actually received more support than Maslow’s.
The correct answer is: assumes that needs may become more (rather than less) important as they are fulfilled.
The effects of teratogens on the developing organism vary with the type of teratogen and the organ system. However, in general, these agents are most likely to cause severe structural damage:
Select one:
A.
during the first eight weeks of development.
B.
during the 9th through 18th weeks of development.
C.
during the second trimester.
D.
during the third trimester.
The effects of teratogens on fetal development depend on several factors including the type and amount of the substance, the duration of exposure, the time of exposure, and the mother’s physiological condition.
a. CORRECT Teratogens can have a negative effect on fetal development during the entire pregnancy, but their consequences are much more severe during critical periods of development when the organ system is growing most rapidly. The critical period varies from organ to organ, but generally occurs within the first eight weeks of development. (An exception is the central nervous system, which has a critical period that extends into the 16th week of development.)
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: during the first eight weeks of development.
Agranulocytosis is a potential side effect of clozapine, carbamazepine, and a number of other psychiatric drugs. Early symptoms of this disorder include:
Select one:
A.
fever, sore throat, mouth ulcers, and lethargy.
B.
nausea, diarrhea, vomiting, and a metallic taste in the mouth.
C.
sweating, palpitations, headache, tremulousness, and cardiac arrhythmia.
D.
constricted pupils, decreased visual acuity, sweating, constipation, and nausea.
Agranulocytosis is caused by a failure of the bone marrow to produce a sufficient number of certain white blood cells, which increases the body’s susceptibility to infection.
a. CORRECT Fever, sore throat, chills, mouth ulcers, lethargy, and weakness are early signs of agranulocytosis.
b. Incorrect These are potential gastrointestinal side effects of lithium.
c. Incorrect These symptoms may occur when a beta-blocker is abruptly discontinued.
d. Incorrect These are signs of narcotic-analgesic use.
The correct answer is: fever, sore throat, mouth ulcers, and lethargy.
On the MMPI-2, an attempt to “fake good” is suggested by which of the following?
Select one:
A.
elevated F scale score with low L and K scale scores.
B.
elevated F and L scale scores with a low K scale score.
C.
low F scale score with elevated L and K scale scores.
D.
low K scale score with a moderately high L scale score and a very high F scale score.
To identify the correct answer to this question, you need to be familiar with the interpretations of scores on the MMPI-2’s F, L, and K scales.
a. Incorrect A high F scale score with low L and K scale scores suggests an attempt to “fake bad.”
b. Incorrect This pattern is not indicative of an attempt to “fake good.”
c. CORRECT A low score on the F (infrequency) scale indicates an absence of psychopathology, social conformity, or an attempt to “fake good”; a high score on the L (lie) scale suggests an attempt to “fake good,” conformity, or denial; and a high score on the K (correction) scale suggests an attempt to “fake good,” denial, or a lack of insight.
d. Incorrect Although an elevated L scale score suggests an attempt to “fake good,” a high F scale score and a low K scale score may indicate an attempt to “fake bad.”
The correct answer is: low F scale score with elevated L and K scale scores.
PET scans of people with _______________ show that these individuals often have increased activity levels in the orbitofrontal cortex, cingulate cortex, and caudate nucleus.
Select one:
A.
Posttraumatic Stress Disorder
B.
Narcolepsy
C.
Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder
D.
Schizophrenia
Knowing that the caudate nucleus is one component of the basal ganglia and that the basal ganglia are involved in voluntary movement and that the orbitofrontal cortex and cingulate cortex mediate emotional reactions may have helped you identify the correct response to this question.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Activity in these areas of the brain is higher in individuals with OCD, especially during provocation of symptoms. In contrast, drug and behavioral treatments for OCD reduce activity in these areas.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder
A menopausal woman who is considering hormone replacement therapy (HRT) should be advised that this treatment may do all of the following except:
Select one:
A.
reduce the risk for osteoporosis.
B.
reduce or eliminate “hot flashes.”
C.
increase sex drive.
D.
reduce mood symptoms.
HRT continues to be controversial because it is not only associated with a number of benefits but also with some negative side effects.
a. Incorrect This is one of the major advantages of HRT.
b. Incorrect HRT is effective for alleviating hot flashes.
c. CORRECT The results of research investigating the effects of HRT on libido are inconsistent, and the best conclusion that can be drawn at this time is that it does not increase sex drive.
d. Incorrect HRT does alleviate mood swings.
The correct answer is: increase sex drive.
According to _______________, successful intelligence is composed of three components – analytical, creative, and practical.
Select one:
A.
Sternberg’s triarchic model
B.
Gardner’s multiple intelligences model
C.
the Cattell-Horn-Carroll theory
D.
Carroll’s three-stratum theory
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the four theories of intelligence listed in the answers to this question. These are described in the Psychological Assessment chapter of the written study materials.
a. CORRECT Sterberg’s triarchic theory describes successful intelligence as consisting of the three components listed in this question.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: Sternberg’s triarchic model
During the third therapy session, a client confides to her psychologist that she was once a sex worker. The psychologist is offended by this type of behavior, feels incapable of dealing with the client objectively, and terminates therapy immediately. His action is:
Select one:
A.
unethical because it represents abandonment of the client.
B.
ethical because he could not deal with the client objectively.
C.
unethical because a therapist should not allow personal opinions to interfere with professional activities.
D.
ethical since he has seen the client in therapy for only a few sessions.
During the course of therapy, a therapist may occasionally feel incapable of providing a client with the services the client needs. When such situations arise the therapist should handle them in an appropriate, professional manner. If the therapist feels that he/she must terminate therapy, he/she should do so with extreme care. The therapist should be careful not to “blame” the client, and an appropriate referral should be made.
a. CORRECT This situation clearly represents abandonment of the client. Although a therapist might feel it necessary to terminate therapy due to personal beliefs, termination must be handled in a professional, sensitive manner. A therapist must evaluate his/her feelings carefully, and arrange for a referral if necessary. Abrupt termination is not appropriate.
b. Incorrect Although termination might have been appropriate in this situation, the therapist did not handle the termination properly.
c. Incorrect Although it is important that therapists remain objective, a therapist cannot always prevent his/her personal feelings from affecting therapy. When these feelings interfere with the quality of the therapy, the therapist needs to take action necessary to protect the interests of the client.
d. Incorrect The situation described was not handled appropriately and clearly constitutes an ethical violation.
The correct answer is: unethical because it represents abandonment of the client.
The “FI scallop” refers to:
Select one:
A.
the pause followed by accelerated responding that occurs within each fixed interval.
B.
the increase in responding that occurs after reinforcement at the end of each fixed interval.
C.
the gradual pause followed by an essential instantaneous high rate of responding that occurs between each fixed interval.
D.
the pause in responding that signals satiation after exposure to an extended fixed interval schedule.
The term “scallop” is ordinarily applied to the response pattern that is observed when an organism is being reinforced on a fixed interval schedule.
a. CORRECT When using an FI schedule, the delivery of reinforcement is typically followed first by a pause in responding and then an increasing rate of responding until the next reinforcement is delivered. On a cumulative record, this produces a “scallop.”
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: the pause followed by accelerated responding that occurs within each fixed interval.
Bobby B. obtains a test score of 110. The test has a mean of 120 and a standard deviation of 10 and test scores have a range of 100 and are normally distributed. If Bobby’s teacher converts all of the students’ test scores to T-scores or z-scores, Bobby’s score will be which of the following?
Select one:
A.
T = 60; z = +1.0
B.
T = 90; z = -1.0
C.
T = 40; z = -2.0
D.
T = 40; z = -1.0
T-scores and z-scores are standard scores, which means they report an examinee’s score in terms of standard deviations from the mean.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Knowing that the T-score distribution has a mean of 50 and standard deviation of 10 and that the z-score distribution has a mean of 0 and standard deviation of 1 would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. Since Bobby’s raw score is one standard deviation below the mean, his T-score would be 40 and his z-score would be -1.0. (In the T-score distribution, a score of 40 is one standard deviation below the mean and, in the z-score distribution, a z-score of -1.0 is one standard deviation below the mean.)
The correct answer is: T = 40; z = -1.0
The internal consistency of test items can be assessed with which of the following?
Select one:
A.
kappa statistic
B.
split-half reliability
C.
alternate forms reliability
D.
coefficient of stability
Internal consistency (homogeneity of test items) is used as an index of reliability.
a. Incorrect The kappa statistic is used to measure inter-rater reliability.
b. CORRECT Split-half reliability is a type of internal consistency reliability and provides information on the consistency of items in two halves of the test.
c. Incorrect Alternative forms reliability provides information on the equivalence of items contained in two different forms of the test.
d. Incorrect The coefficient of stability (test-retest reliability coefficient) provides information of the consistency of a test over time.
The correct answer is: split-half reliability
A researcher for a major drug company is going to test a new anti-depressant for market viability, why would the researcher choose a Practical Clinical Trial (PCT) over another method?
Select one:
A.
A PCT is intended to answer a single, clearly formulated research question by concentrating on a major outcome of direct clinical significance.
B.
A PCT provides multiple answers which gives it a complex depth for which a researcher may analyze for more effective results.
C.
A PCT tends to provide a clear, formulated answer that the researcher can utilize to demonstrate cause and effect between the three major variables being studied.
D.
A PCT is a rich and complex system of analysis for which a researcher may utilize to test multiple interventions.
The correct answer is A. PCTs tend to be large, simple trials with many hundreds, if not thousands, of patients. PCTs frequently provide relevant information on common conditions, such as depression or anxiety, or the availability of a variety of treatments, both pharmacological and psychosocial. Answers B, C, and D are incorrect because PCTs tend to be simple, not complex; there is not a set number of variables being tested; and is practical and therefore very useful in the testing for various psychological interventions and treatments.
The correct answer is: A PCT is intended to answer a single, clearly formulated research question by concentrating on a major outcome of direct clinical significance.
Among the groups listed below, admission rates for psychiatric hospitalization are highest for which of the following?
Select one:
A.
never married men
B.
married men
C.
divorced men
D.
widowers
Of the choices given, never married men have the highest rate of psychiatric hospitalization for both men and women. Other factors to consider for admission rates include age (with the highest proportion between age 25 to 44) and race (with whites representing the largest number of psychiatric inpatients).
a. CORRECT This is the correct response. See the Clinical Psychology chapter for additional information on psychiatric hospitalization rates.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: never married men
A research psychologist designs a study that involves hospitalized psychiatric patients who have legal guardians. Before beginning the study, he obtains signed consents from the legal guardians. The psychologist has acted:
Select one:
A.
unethically since he has breached the patients’ confidentiality.
B.
ethically as long as the patients are allowed to withdraw from the study at any time.
C.
ethically as long as he has also obtained assent from the patients.
D.
ethically, since all a psychologist must obtain in this situation is the informed consent of legal guardians.
This issue is addressed in Standard 3.10 of the APA’s Ethics Code.
a. Incorrect Ethical guidelines require that informed consent be obtained from the patients’ legal guardians in this situation.
b. Incorrect Standard 8.02(a) dictates that participants have the right to withdraw from research at any time. However, this is not the best answer since it does not address the question’s underlying ethical issue; i.e., the need for psychologists to obtain assent from participants who are legally incapable of giving informed consent.
c. CORRECT This answer is consistent with the requirements of the Ethics Code – i.e., when research participants are not legally capable of giving informed consent (either because they are mentally incompetent or minors), consent must be obtained from their legal guardians, and the participants should be provided with understandable information and their asent to participate should be obtained.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: ethically as long as he has also obtained assent from the patients.
Freud and the object relations theorists share in common an emphasis on the role of _________________ in personality development.
Select one:
A.
the superego
B.
innate sexual and aggressive drives
C.
early childhood experiences
D.
separation and individuation
Object relations theory shares a number of assumptions in common with Freudian theory but differs in its emphasis on the need for interpersonal relationships (versus needs related to sex and aggression).
a. Incorrect This is true about Freudian theory but not about object relations theory.
b. Incorrect This characterizes Freudian theory.
c. CORRECT Object relations theorists, like Freud, believe that early childhood experiences are critical to personality development. They also posit a stage theory of development, but they view interpersonal relations as the primary contributor to personality.
d. Incorrect This applies only to object relations theory.
The correct answer is: early childhood experiences
As defined by Carl Jung, individuation refers to:
Select one:
A.
being able to separate one’s intellectual and emotional functioning.
B.
differentiating between self and object.
C.
experiencing a state of anonymity.
D.
integrating parts of the self to create a unique identity.
For the exam, you want to be familiar with all of the terms that are referred to in the four answers to this question. a. Incorrect This answer describes Bowen’s concept of differentiation. According to Bowen, the greater a person’s differentiation, the better able he/she is to resist becoming emotionally fused with other family members. b. Incorrect This answer refers to Mahler’s separation-individuation phase of early development. c. Incorrect This describes deindividuation which is used to explain why a person may be more willing to act aggressively or in other uncharacteristic ways when acting as a member of a group than when acting alone. d. CORRECT As defined by Jung, individuation is the goal of psychological development and involves integrating the conscious and the unconscious elements of the psyche.
The correct answer is: integrating parts of the self to create a unique identity.
During her first session, Jane, age 43, tells the clinician that she needs to work on anxiety and relationship issues. She says she divorced her second husband 11 months ago and has been dating a man she met at church for a month but thinks he’s going to “dump” her because of her physical problems. Jane has Type 2 diabetes, which is well-managed with medication. However, she complains of frequent stomach problems, severe headaches, and back pain and says she spends a lot of time researching diseases on the Internet to try to figure out what’s wrong with her besides diabetes. Jane has been evaluated by a physician who told her that, other than diabetes, she does not have any medical problems. What DSM-5 diagnosis should the clinician consider first?
Select one:
A.
Somatic Symptom Disorder
B.
Factitious Disorder
C.
Illness Anxiety Disorder
D.
Psychological Factors Affecting Other Medical Condition.
Answer A is correct: Jane’s symptoms are consistent with Somatic Symptom Disorder, which is included in the DSM-5 with Somatic Symptom and Related Disorders. The essential feature of this disorder is the presence of multiple somatic symptoms that cause distress or disruption in one’s daily life.
Answer B: Factitious Disorder is characterized by falsification of physical or psychological symptoms or induction of an illness or injury that is associated with an identified deception. No information given in the question suggests that Jane is faking or causing her symptoms.
Answer C: Illness Anxiety Disorder is characterized by excessive worry about being or becoming ill and usually does not include somatic symptoms or includes only symptoms of mild intensity.
Answer D: The diagnosis of Psychological Factors Affecting Other Medical Conditions is assigned when a person’s psychological problems affect the course of a medical condition or interfere with its treatment. Jane’s symptoms do not seem to be interfering with her management of her diabetes.
The correct answer is: Somatic Symptom Disorder
The reviewer for a managed health care organization decides that additional services for one of your clients are not medically necessary. You strongly disagree with her decision because you believe your client’s condition is likely to worsen without additional therapy sessions. The client cannot afford to pay for therapy sessions himself. To act ethically and to minimize your legal liability in this situation, you should:
Select one:
A.
carefully explain to the client the reason for termination and have him sign a waiver of responsibility.
B.
provide the client with the names of several therapists who you know provide services at a low fee.
C.
see the client at no fee for several sessions before terminating therapy.
D.
file an appeal with the managed health care organization.
An important aspect of managed health care are the ethical and legal dilemmas that it can create.
a. Incorrect This action would not be ethical and basically constitutes abandonment of the client.
b. Incorrect Although a referral might be the action that is eventually taken, in most cases, it would not be the best first course of action from either an ethical or legal perspective.
c. Incorrect If it becomes necessary to end the therapeutic relationship, providing the client with free sessions during the termination period would be an ethical course of action. However, this is not the best answer of those given.
d. CORRECT In his discussion of “Legal Liability and Managed Care,” P. S. Appelbaum concludes that a psychologist’s ethical and legal obligation in cases such as this one is to appeal the reviewer’s decision (American Psychologist, 48(3), 251-7, 1993).
The correct answer is: file an appeal with the managed health care organization.
Recent research investigating treatments for Generalized Anxiety Disorder suggests that the most effective intervention is:
Select one:
A.
EMDR.
B.
systematic desensitization.
C.
stress inoculation training.
D.
cognitive-behavioral therapy.
A number of well-designed studies on interventions for Generalized Anxiety Disorder confirm that the best treatment is cognitive or cognitive-behavioral in nature.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT The studies have consistently found that a multicomponent cognitive or cognitive-behavioral approach is most effective for Generalized Anxiety Disorder. See, e.g., D. H. Barlow, J. Esler, and A. Vitali, Psychosocial treatments for panic disorders, phobias, and generalized anxiety disorder, in P. E. Nathan and J. M. Gorman (eds.), A guide to treatments that work, New York, Oxford University Press, 1998.
The correct answer is: cognitive-behavioral therapy.
Dr. Greene, a psychologist in private practice, sets his clients’ fees according to their ability to pay as determined by their yearly income. As a result, some of his clients are paying a very low fee or no fee, while others are paying a fee that is considerably above-average for the location of his practice. Dr. Greene’s fee policy is:
Select one:
A.
illegal in most states and clearly unethical.
B.
legal in most states but unethical.
C.
both legal and ethical.
D.
ethical but illegal in most states.
Sliding scale fees are legally and ethically acceptable as long as the fee arrangement is made clear from the onset of therapy.
a. Incorrect Sliding scale fees are not unethical and illegal.
b. Incorrect Sliding scale fees are not unethical.
c. CORRECT Sliding scale fees are a common practice and are both legal and ethical.
d. Incorrect Sliding scale fees are not illegal.
The correct answer is: both legal and ethical.
Dr. Able, a psychologist, has been seeing a client for five months and feels that the client may not be benefitting from treatment. When she mentions this to him, the client says he is quite satisfied with the progress of therapy. Based on this information, Dr. Able’s best course of action would be to:
Select one:
A.
continue seeing the client in therapy since the client is satisfied.
B.
tell the client that she is ethically required to refer him to another therapist.
C.
obtain supervision to ensure that her treatment is effective.
D.
consult with another psychologist to discuss the situation.
When psychologists believe that a client is not benefitting from treatment, special consideration must be given to the situation.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Although referral (response b) might be acceptable, it is not necessary as a first course of action in this case given the circumstances. Instead, consultation would be a better action since it would help the therapist determine if his evaluation of the situation is correct.
The correct answer is: consult with another psychologist to discuss the situation.
You are working in a correctional facility and are asked to evaluate a prisoner to determine his eligibility for parole. In this situation, you should:
Select one:
A.
conduct the evaluation as requested since it is part of your job.
B.
conduct the evaluation only if you believe it will serve a useful dispositional function.
C.
conduct the evaluation after reminding the prisoner that anything he says can be shared with prison authorities.
D.
refuse to conduct the evaluation unless it has been court-ordered.
Relatively little has been written about ethical considerations in correctional facilities, so few guidelines are available. However, APA published recommendations in a 1978 issue of the American Psychologist that apply to this situation (Report of the task force on the role of the psychologist in the criminal justice system, American Psychologist, 33, 1099-1133, 1978).
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Recommendation 3 of the above-cited document states that “Other than for legitimate research purposes, psychological assessments of offenders should be performed only when the psychologist has a reasonable expectation that such assessments will serve a useful therapeutic or dispositional function.”
c. Incorrect APA recommends that the “ideal level of confidentiality of therapeutic services in criminal justice settings should be the same as the level of confidentiality that exists in voluntary noninstitutional settings.” Although there certainly are exceptions to confidentiality in prison settings that would not apply elsewhere, it’s not true that a prisoner has no right to confidentiality, which this response implies.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: conduct the evaluation only if you believe it will serve a useful dispositional function.
According to Berscheid and Walster’s (1974) two-factor theory of love, love is the result of:
Select one:
A.
attraction and arousal.
B.
passion and intimacy.
C.
mutual attraction and reciprocal reinforcement.
D.
physiological arousal and a label for it.
Berscheid and Walster conceptualize love as being similar to other emotions.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Support for the two-factor theory is provided, for example, by a study showing that couples who participate in an exciting, arousing game together subsequently report stronger positive feelings toward one another than couples who participate in a more mundane activity.
The correct answer is: physiological arousal and a label for it.
The attorney of a former client of yours requests that you provide her with test data and other information included in the client’s file. You should:
Select one:
A.
provide the information since the request comes from the client’s attorney.
B.
provide the information as requested only if you feel it is in the best interests of the client.
C.
provide the information as requested only if the client has signed a release.
D.
refuse to provide the information unless the client has signed a release and you believe the attorney is qualified to interpret the information.
Release of client information to a third party is addressed in Ethics Code Standard 9.04.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect The best interests of the client are certainly of concern, but this is not the best answer because it overlooks the client’s confidentiality.
c. CORRECT Standard 9.04 states that psychologist may withhold test data “to protect a client/patient or others from substantial harm” but that does not seem relevant to this situation. Therefore, the psychologist should release the test data as requested once the client has signed a release.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: provide the information as requested only if the client has signed a release.
Although no single structural abnormality of the brain explains the majority of cases of Schizophrenia, _____________ has been most frequently found in patients with this disorder.
Select one:
A.
enlargement of the frontal lobes
B.
enlargement of the ventricles
C.
atrophy of the cerebellum
D.
atrophy of the right hemisphere
Several structural brain abnormalities have been linked to Schizophrenia, although no single abnormality has been found to underlie the majority of cases.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT A minority of patients (15 to 30%) exhibit enlargement of the lateral and third ventricles, which is the largest percent found to have any of the structural abnormalities identified so far. Other abnormalities found in an even smaller percent of patients include smaller-than-normal hippocampus and amygdala.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: enlargement of the ventricles
Freud’s psychosexual theory of development is based on the premise that, in each stage:
Select one:
A.
efforts to obtain pleasure center on a different part of the body.
B.
a different psychological need is “prepotent.”
C.
the source of anxiety is related to a different psychosocial conflict.
D.
the source of anxiety is related to a different psychic need.
Freud’s psychosexual theory emphasizes the impact of the sex drive (libido) on development.
a. CORRECT In each stage of development, a different part of the body is most sensitive to erotic stimulation.
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: efforts to obtain pleasure center on a different part of the body.
A research study examined the relationship between television viewing habits and academic achievement test scores. The results showed that children who watched more television generally had lower test scores. The Pearson-product moment correlation coefficient was -.81. What is the proportion of variance of achievement test scores that is accounted for by television viewing?
Select one:
A.
0.9
B.
0.66
C.
-0.81
D.
-0.9
The value of the Pearson-product moment correlation coefficient ranges from -1.0 to +1.0, and the corresponding proportion of variance (which is referred to as the coefficient of determination) is computed by squaring the correlation coefficient.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT The correlation coefficient for television viewing and achievement scores is -.81. The proportion of variance is calculated by squaring -.81 (i.e., -.812), which is approximately .66.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: 0.66
During an experiment, the investigator asks participants about their beliefs regarding the study’s purpose and how they were expected to perform. When analyzing the data, she finds that participants’ actual performance is consistent with their beliefs and expectations. This suggests that the study’s results may be confounded by:
Select one:
A.
carryover effects.
B.
the halo bias.
C.
the Hawthorne effect.
D.
demand characteristics.
In this situation, the participants may have acted in ways consistent with their expectations rather than simply in response to the experimental manipulation.
a. Incorrect Carryover effects occur in repeated measures designs when the effects of one treatment have an impact on the effects of subsequent treatments.
b. Incorrect The halo bias is a type of rating error and occurs when a rater’s rating of a person on one dimension of performance affects how the rater rates that person on unrelated dimensions of performance.
c. Incorrect The Hawthorne effect occurs when research participants act differently because of the novelty of the situation and the special attention they receive as research participants.
d. CORRECT Demand characteristics are unintentional cues in the experimental environment or manipulation that affect participants’ beliefs or expectations and thereby may account for the results of the study.
The correct answer is: demand characteristics.
Bilateral lesions in which of the following areas of the brain is most likely to result in a loss of the fear response without loss of other emotional responses?
Select one:
A.
amygdala
B.
hippocampus
C.
suprachiasmatic nucleus
D.
thalamus
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the major functions of the areas of the brain listed in the answers to this question.
a. CORRECT The case of “patient SM” has confirmed that the amygdala is responsible for the experience of fear in response to frightening stimuli. SM has focal bilateral amygdala lesions as the result of a rare disease. While she is able to experience other emotions, she does not experience fear. See J. S. Feinstein et al., The human amygdala and the induction and experience of fear, Current biology, 21(1), 34-38, 2010.
b. Incorrect The hippocampus plays a role in learning and memory, including converting short-term declarative memories to long-term memories.
c. Incorrect The suprachiasmatic nucleus mediates the sleep-wake cycle and other circadian rhythms.
d. Incorrect The thalamus is involved in motor activity, language, and memory and acts as a “relay station” for all of the senses except olfaction.
The correct answer is: amygdala
Classically conditioned reflexes are an example of implicit memory and are mediated primarily by the:
Select one:
A.
suprachiasmatic nucleus
B.
hippocampus
C.
arcuate fasciculus
D.
cerebellum
Implicit memories are recalled without conscious awareness. Skills and habits, emotional associations, and classically conditioned reflexes are examples of implicit memories.
a. Incorrect The suprachiasmatic nucleus controls circadian rhythms.
b. Incorrect The hippocampus is essential for the formation of explicit memories.
c. Incorrect The arcuate fasciculus is a bundle of fibers that connects Broca’s area with Wernicke’s area.
d. CORRECT Conditioned reflexes rely primarily on the cerebellum. For example, the cerebellum played a key role in Pavlov’s research in which dogs were conditioned to respond to a bell with salivation. Other areas of the brain involved in implicit memory include the amygdala (which mediates emotional associations) and the striatum (which is responsible for memories of skills and habits).
The correct answer is: cerebellum
George Kelly is associated with which of the following?
Select one:
A.
Reality Therapy
B.
Personal Construct Therapy
C.
Existential Therapy
D.
Solution Focused Therapy
George Kelly developed Personal Construct Therapy (PCT) in the 1950s as both a theory of personality and approach to therapy.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Personal Construct Therapy (also known as “constructive alternativism”) is based on the premise that people construe (construct) their own experiences. His approach was very influential in the development of narrative-constructivist approaches to therapy. Additional information about Personal Construct Therapy is provided in the Clinical Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: Personal Construct Therapy
When working with an African American client exhibiting “healthy cultural paranoia,” an Anglo therapist would be best advised to:
Select one:
A.
refer the client to an African American therapist.
B.
use a culturally sensitive approach that ameliorates the client’s paranoia.
C.
help the client bring feelings of suspiciousness, frustration, and antipathy toward whites into conscious awareness.
D.
help the client understand that his/her behavior is manifestation of resistance.
C. R. Ridley presents a “typology of black client self-disclosure,” which relates the willingness to self-disclose to four levels of “paranoia”: intercultural nonparanoic disclosure; functional paranoiac; healthy cultural paranoiac; and confluent paranoiac (Clinical assessment of the nondisclosure of the black client, American Psychologist, 39(11), 1234-1244, 1984).
a. Incorrect This is probably the best course of action, according to Ridley, for the confluent paranoiac but isn’t necessary for the individual experiencing healthy cultural paranoia.
b. Incorrect This isn’t the best response since healthy cultural paranoia may not need to be “ameliorated.”
c. CORRECT Ridley recommends that therapists confront the meaning of the client’s cultural paranoia by bringing his/her feelings into conscious awareness and then help the client clarify when it is appropriate or inappropriate to self-disclose.
d. Incorrect This is not the course of action recommended by Ridley.
The correct answer is: help the client bring feelings of suspiciousness, frustration, and antipathy toward whites into conscious awareness.
Jacob, age 14, is being seen by a school clinician for repeated angry outbursts at school. He is persistently irritable, constantly argues with adults, has a history of behavioral referrals, and recently changed schools after being expelled for threatening a teacher. Jacob’s parents also report outbursts at home. He is failing in school, and his parents are thinking of sending him to a wilderness camp where he can “get some sense knocked into him.” The most likely DSM-5 diagnosis for Jacob is which of the following?
Select one:
A.
Intermittent Explosive Disorder
B.
Oppositional Defiant Disorder
C.
Bipolar II Disorder
D.
Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder
Answer D is correct: Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder involves severe, recurrent temper outbursts with a persistent irritable or angry mood between outbursts on most days.
Answer A: A persistent irritable mood between temper outbursts is not characteristic of Intermittent Explosive Disorder.
Answer B: Oppositional Defiant Disorder differs from Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder primarily in terms of the severity, frequency, and chronicity of the temper outbursts, with Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder having more severe, frequent, and chronic symptoms. When the criteria for both disorders are met, a diagnosis of Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder is assigned.
Answer C: The essential feature of Bipolar II Disorder is hypomania (a distinct period of abnormally elevated, expansive, or irritable mood accompanied by increased activity or energy). Although people with Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder are irritable, they do not exhibit the increased energy that is characteristic of Bipolar II Disorder. Also, the mood disturbance associated with Bipolar Disorder is episodic in nature, whereas the mood disturbance associated with Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder is persistent.
The correct answer is: Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder
You have been seeing a couple in therapy for six months. The wife calls you and says she wants to start seeing you for individual sessions also. You should:
Select one:
A.
bring up this possibility in the next couples session.
B.
tell her you cannot see her individually until couples therapy is over.
C.
refer her to another therapist for individual therapy.
D.
make an appointment with her to determine if her problem warrants individual therapy.
Standard 10.02 of the Ethics Code makes it clear that, in couples therapy, psychologists must avoid potentially conflicting roles. One way to ensure that conflicts do not occur is to clarify one’s policies and responsibilities. It may or may not be the psychologist’s policy to provide individual therapy while also providing conjoint therapy, and this should have been clarified at the onset of therapy. Also, a referral may be appropriate, but the issue should first be discussed in conjoint therapy.
a. CORRECT Bringing up the issue in the next couples therapy session would be the best initial course of action.
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: bring up this possibility in the next couples session.
A person is exhibiting the actor-observer effect when he/she tends to:
Select one:
A.
view the behavior of others as due to dispositional factors and his/her own behaviors as due to situational factors.
B.
view the behavior of others as due to situational factors and his/her own behaviors as due to dispositional factors.
C.
overestimates his/her own ability to succeed and underestimates the ability of others to succeed.
D.
underestimates his/her own ability to succeed and overestimates the ability of others to succeed.
Knowing that the actor-observer effect refers to the types of attributions that people make (i.e., dispositional versus situational attributions) would have allowed you to eliminate answers c and d.
a. CORRECT Research on attribution of cause has found that we tend to attribute the behaviors of others to dispositional factors (which is referred to as the fundamental attribution bias). However, when making attributions about our own behaviors, we tend to attribute them to situational factors. The difference when making attributions about our own behaviors and the behaviors of others is referred to as the actor-observer effect.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: view the behavior of others as due to dispositional factors and his/her own behaviors as due to situational factors.
In Albert Ellis’s (1985) A-B-C model, B refers to:
Select one:
A.
the environmental barriers to rational thought.
B.
the biological bases for human behavior.
C.
a person’s belief about an activating event.
D.
a person’s behavioral reaction to an activating event.
Ellis’s A-B-C model is central to the theory and practice of his Rational-Emotive Behavior Therapy.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Ellis described emotions and behaviors in terms of a chain of events – an external activating event (A), the person’s belief about the activating event (B), and the emotional or behavioral consequence of that belief (C).
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: a person’s belief about an activating event.
A practitioner of Beck’s cognitive behavioral therapy works together with a therapy client to identify and test faulty interpretations. This process is referred to as:
Select one:
A.
cognitive experimentation.
B.
collaborative empiricism.
C.
cognitive disputation.
D.
collaborative analysis.
A key feature of Beck’s cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) is its collaborative approach.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT In CBT, the therapist and client work collaboratively to reality test the client’s cognitions. This approach is referred to as collaborative empiricism.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: collaborative empiricism.
An employee is receiving counseling from a psychologist through his company’s employee assistance program. In this situation, the psychologist can let the employee’s supervisor know that the employee is receiving treatment:
Select one:
A.
under no circumstance.
B.
only if the employee was referred to the program by the supervisor.
C.
as long as the employee has signed an authorization for release of confidential information.
D.
as long as no other information about the treatment is given to the supervisor.
Confidentiality is a critical issue in employee assistance programs (EAPs). Under normal circumstances, information about an employee’s condition or treatment is not revealed without the employee’s consent.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for reasponse c.
c. CORRECT Confidentiality may be breached in the context of EAPs in those situations that it can be breached in other contexts (e.g., when a client has signed an authorization or is believed to be a danger to him/herself or to others).
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: as long as the employee has signed an authorization for release of confidential information.
An advantage of the “paired comparison” technique is that it:
Select one:
A.
helps reduce certain rater/observer biases.
B.
provides helpful information for employee feedback.
C.
is less time-consuming to complete than other techniques.
D.
is more acceptable to employees and supervisors than other methods.
The paired comparison technique is a relative method for assessing performance that entails comparing an employee to other employees on predefined dimensions of job performance.
a. CORRECT One advantage of relative measures is that they help reduce rater biases.
b. Incorrect This is the opposite of what is true.
c. Incorrect This is the opposite of what is true.
d. Incorrect Employees tend to dislike relative measures because they do not want to be compared to other employees.
The correct answer is: helps reduce certain rater/observer biases.
Marlatt and Gordon’s (1985) relapse prevention model focuses on:
Select one:
A.
situations antecedent to relapse.
B.
the perceived consequences of relapse.
C.
controlled drinking.
D.
contingency management.
Marlatt and Gordon’s approach to the definition and treatment of addictions is classified as a social learning approach that combines behavioral and cognitive principles.
a. CORRECT According to Marlatt and Gordon, relapse is a failure to maintain a behavior change after treatment and is best avoided by identifying and dealing with its antecedents.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: situations antecedent to relapse.
Freud (1984) introduced the concept of “defense” in his description of hysteria and attributed hysteria to which of the following defense mechanisms?
Select one:
A.
projection
B.
reaction formation
C.
sublimation
D.
repression
Freud’s initial explanation for hysteria was that it represents an attempt to eliminate memories related to early psychic trauma from consciousness.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Repressions is considered the most basic defense mechanism because it underlies all others. It was the initial defense mechanism identified by Freud, and he used it to explain the etiology of hysteria.
The correct answer is: repression
Which of the following techniques would be appropriate for using scores on measures of self-esteem, hopelessness, and perceived social support to classify adolescents as either non-depressed, vulnerable to depression, or depressed?
Select one:
A.
linear regression analysis
B.
multiple regression analysis
C.
multiple discriminant function analysis
D.
principal components analysis
For the EPPP, you’ll want to be familiar with the appropriate use of each of the techniques listed in the answers to this question. Additional information about these techniques is provided in the Statistics and Research Design chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect Linear regression is appropriate when a single predictor will be used to predict or estimate a score on a single criterion.
b. Incorrect Multiple regression is appropriate when multiple predictors will be used to predict a score on a single criterion.
c. CORRECT Multiple discriminant function analysis is an extension of discriminant function analysis when multiple predictors will be used to classify individuals into one of three or more criterion groups.
d. Incorrect Principle components analysis is similar to factor analysis and is used to identify the set of variables (components) that accounts for the total variance in a set of test scores.
The correct answer is: multiple discriminant function analysis
Parkinson’s disease is associated primarily with a degeneration of cells in the:
Select one:
A.
reticular formation.
B.
substantia nigra.
C.
amygdala.
D.
temporal and occipital lobes.
Parkinson’s disease is a progressive neurological condition characterized by tremor, rigidity, bradykinesia, and postural instability.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT The substantia nigra is part of the basal ganglia and is the primary site of neuronal loss in Parkinson’s disease. Additional information on Parksinson’s disease is provided in the Physiological Psychology and Psychopharmacology chapter of the written study materials.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: substantia nigra.
Approximately 80% of children with ADHD continue to have symptoms of the disorder as adolescents. However, in adolescence, symptoms of ____________ typically decrease.
Select one:
A.
hyperactivity
B.
inattention
C.
hyperactivity and inattention
D.
inattention and impulsivity
The studies have found that the majority of children with ADHD continue to have symptoms in adolescence but that the symptoms change somewhat.
a. CORRECT Hyperactivity typically decreases in adolescence, while impulsivity (especially verbal and emotional impulsivity) and inattention continue. In addition, during adolescence, ADHD is often masked by other problems such as oppositionality, learning difficulties, low self-esteem, and deficits in social skills. See, e.g., G. Kewley, Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder: What can teachers do?, New York, Routledge, 2011.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: hyperactivity
REM (rapid eye movement) sleep accounts for about ___ of a newborn’s total sleep period and ___ of an adult’s total sleep period.
Select one:
A.
75%; 10%
B.
50%; 20%
C.
30%; 40%
D.
10%; 50%
Sleep patterns vary over the lifespan, and the pattern of an infant is quite different from that of an adult.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Infants not only begin a sleep period with REM sleep but also spend more time in REM sleep, with REM sleep representing about 50% of their total sleep period. In contrast, adults begin a sleep period with non-REM sleep and spend less time (about 20%) in REM sleep.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: 50%; 20%
As defined in the APA’s Ethics Code, uninvited in-person solicitation of business by a psychologist is:
Select one:
A.
acceptable as long as the solicitation is not coercive.
B.
acceptable when it involves providing disaster or community outreach services.
C.
acceptable as long as the person’s “best interests” are of paramount concern.
D.
never acceptable.
The uninvited in-person solicitation of business is addressed in Standard 5.06 of the APA’s Ethics Code.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Standard 5.06 generally prohibits psychologists from engaging in uninvited in-person solicitation of business. However, it also notes that the prohibition does NOT preclude psychologists from “providing disaster or community outreach services.”
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: acceptable when it involves providing disaster or community outreach services.
When discussing a new screening test that you’ve developed with several psychologists, one of the psychologists says, “Let’s say that I know a particular patient does not have the disorder that is assessed by the screening test. What is the chance that the test results will show that my patient does not have the disorder?” This psychologist is interested in your test’s:
Select one:
A.
sensitivity.
B.
specificity.
C.
positive predictive value.
D.
negative predictive value.
The terms listed in the answers to this question are used to describe the accuracy or usefulness of diagnostic tests. Additional information about these terms is provided in the Test Construction chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect A test’s sensitivity refers to the proportion of individuals with the disorder who are correctly identified by the test as having the disorder.
b. CORRECT A test’s specificity refers to the proportion of individuals without the disorder who are correctly identified by the test as not having the disorder.
c. Incorrect A test’s positive predictive value refers to the proportion of individuals who test positive for the disorder and actually have the disorder.
d. Incorrect A test’s negative predictive value refers to the proportion of individuals who test negative for the disorder and actually do not have the disorder.
The correct answer is: specificity.
Research on attachment has shown that young victims of child abuse are most likely to exhibit which of the following attachment patterns?
Select one:
A.
disengaged
B.
avoidant
C.
ambivalent
D.
disorganized
Ainsworth distinguished between three attachment patterns (secure, insecure/ambivalent, and insecure/avoidant), and Main subsequently identified the disorganized/disoriented pattern.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Mary Main found that about 80% of maltreated children exhibit a disorganized/disoriented pattern of attachment.
The correct answer is: disorganized
The venom of the black widow spider is believed to cause violent and uncontrollable muscle contractions by affecting the activity of which of the following neurotransmitters?
Select one:
A.
acetylcholine
B.
norepinephrine
C.
enkephalin
D.
serotonin
To answer this question, you must know which of the neurotransmitters listed is involved in the control of the skeletal muscles. Alternatively, you might be able to choose the right answer through a process of elimination.
a. CORRECT Acetylcholine is found in the peripheral nervous system, the spinal cord, and certain regions of the brain. In the peripheral nervous system, it activates both muscles and glands. The venom of the black widow spider is believed to work by causing a continuous flow of acetylcholine into the neuromuscular junction, resulting in uncontrollable muscle contractions.
b. Incorrect Norepinephrine, a catecholamine, is most associated with personality, mood, and drive states.
c. Incorrect Enkephalin, one of the endogenous morphine substances found in the brain, is believed to be involved in the mediation of pain.
d. Incorrect Serotonin is believed to be involved in the suppression of the ARAS, the regulation of temperature, hunger, and aggression, and the affective disorders and schizophrenia.
The correct answer is: acetylcholine
To evaluate an intervention designed to increase the time a hyperactive child stays on-task when doing schoolwork, the best technique would be:
Select one:
A.
situational sampling.
B.
event recording.
C.
interval recording.
D.
sequential analysis.
There are several methods for sampling and recording behavioral observations. In this situation, the behavior may have no clear beginning or end, and the purpose of the evaluation is to determine how long the child exhibits the behavior.
a. Incorrect Situational sampling is used when an experimenter is interested in observing a behavior in different contexts.
b. Incorrect Event recording is used primarily to investigate rare events (behaviors) and usually involves counting the number of times the behavior occurs during an event, which wouldn’t be appropriate in this case.
c. CORRECT Interval recording involves dividing a period of time into equal intervals and recording whether or not the target behavior occurred during each interval. This technique could be easily used to assess time-on-task.
d. Incorrect Sequential analysis is used to study complex behavioral sequences (e.g., social interactions).
The correct answer is: interval recording.
Dr. A., a psychologist, provides office space and secretarial services to Dr. B., a newly-licensed psychologist, in exchange for 25% of the fee that Dr. B. collects from his clients. Dr. A. begins referring clients to Dr. B. and charges him 35% for the referred clients. This is:
Select one:
A.
unethical because the arrangement violates APA’s prohibition against “fee splitting.”
B.
unethical because the percentage that Dr. A. is charging Dr. B. is exploitative.
C.
ethical only if the larger fee for referred clients reflects increased costs to Dr. A. for making referrals to Dr. B.
D.
ethical because the arrangement does not violate the provisions of the Ethics Code regarding referral fees.
Although referral fees are not entirely prohibited by the Ethics Code, there are some restrictions.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT It is ethical to pay a fee for a referral when the fee reflects the person’s expenses for making the referral. However, charging more for referred patients than non-referred patients when there are no additional costs would be unacceptable.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: ethical only if the larger fee for referred clients reflects increased costs to Dr. A. for making referrals to Dr. B.
You receive a letter from the attorney of a former client requesting that you send test information to her from the client’s file. The requested information will be used in a court case and includes the test questions, the client’s responses to those questions, and the client’s test scores. The attorney’s letter is accompanied by a signed release from the client. To be consistent with ethical requirements, you should:
Select one:
A.
release all test information as requested.
B.
release only a summary of the client’s test information.
C.
release the clients responses and test scores but not the test questions.
D.
refuse to release any information to anyone other than a mental health professional.
Answer C is correct: Standards 9.04 and 9.11 of the APA’s Ethics Code distinguish between test data and test material and state that test data may be provided to an attorney or other person listed in a client’s release but that test material should not be released because doing so may constitute a breach of test integrity and security. As defined in Standard 9.11, test material includes “manuals, instruments, protocols, and test questions or stimuli.” Of the answers given, this one is most consistent with the provisions of the APA’s Ethics Code and with Paragraph IV.11 of the Canadian Code of Ethics for Psychologists.
The correct answer is: release the clients responses and test scores but not the test questions.
The routing subtests for the Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scales, Fifth Edition (SB5) are which of the following?
Select one:
A.
Quantitative Reasoning and Memory for Sentences
B.
Delayed Response and Block Span
C.
Object Series/Matrices and Vocabulary
D.
Procedural Knowledge and Verbal Analogies
Administration of the SB5 begins with the routing subtests, which are used to determine the beginning level of administration for the remaining subtests.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT The Object Series/Matrices and Vocabulary subtests are the routing subtests for the SB5.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: Object Series/Matrices and Vocabulary
Whenever a mother yells at her child when he is whining, the boy stops whining for a short period. Over time, the mother notices that she’s having to yell at her son more and more often to keep the boy from whining. The boy is controlling his mother’s behavior through:
Select one:
A.
positive reinforcement.
B.
negative reinforcement.
C.
positive punishment.
D.
negative punishment.
Note that this question is asking about the mother’s behavior (yelling), not the boy’s behavior. To determine what is occurring, you have to determine (1) whether the mother’s yelling is increasing or decreasing and (2) what occurs after the mother yells: The mother’s yelling is increasing, which indicates that it is being reinforced. And the consequence following her yelling is removed (i.e., the boy temporarily stops whining). This indicates that the reinforcement is negative.
a. Incorrect Positive reinforcement involves the application of a stimulus following a behavior with a resultant increase in the behavior. In the situation described in this question, the stimulus is removed following the behavior, not applied.
b. CORRECT As described above, this situation is an example of negative reinforcement. The mother’s behavior is increasing because a stimulus is removed after the behavior occurs.
c. Incorrect Punishment results in a decrease in the behavior, with positive punishment occurring when a behavior decreases because a stimulus is applied following the behavior.
d. Incorrect Negative punishment is occurring when a behavior decreases because a stimulus is withdrawn following the behavior.
The correct answer is: negative reinforcement.
Dr. Weiner, a psychologist, is conducting a research study and obtains subjects for his study by placing advertisements in a local newspaper. Dr. Weiner informs potential subjects about all aspects of the study and tells them that they should not agree to participate unless they are willing to stay for its duration (six sessions over a six-week period), since once they sign up, they will not be permitted to withdraw from the study. According to APA’s Ethics Code, the proposed arrangement is:
Select one:
A.
clearly ethical.
B.
ethical as long as the withdrawal restriction is included in the informed consents that all subjects must sign.
C.
ethical as long as the withdrawal restriction has been determined to be crucial to the study.
D.
unethical.
A researcher must respect the participants’ right to withdraw at any time for any reason in the course of a study.
a. Incorrect A withdrawal restriction such as the one described in the question is unethical.
b. Incorrect Under no conditions is such a withdrawal restriction ethical.
c. Incorrect Under no conditions is such a withdrawal restriction ethical.
d. CORRECT This answer is in line with Standard 8.02 of the APA’s Ethics Code.
The correct answer is: unethical.
Based on her study of preschoolers and their parents, Diana Baumrind (1967, 1971) concluded that children of __________ parents tend to be aggressive, mistrusting, dependent, and “conflicted-irritable.”
Select one:
A.
instrumental
B.
permissive
C.
authoritative
D.
authoritarian
Baumrind originally categorized parents as authoritarian, authoritative, permissive or rejecting-neglecting.
a. Incorrect This is not one of the categories identified by Baumrind.
b. Incorrect Baumrind found that children of permissive parents tend to be “impulsive-aggressive.”
c. Incorrect Baumrind found that children of authoritative parents are most often “energetic-friendly.”
d. CORRECT Baumrind’s research linked authoritarian parenting with children who are “conflicted-irritable” - i.e., fearful, moody, easily annoyed, and aimless.
The correct answer is: authoritarian
Researchers relied primarily on which of the following techniques to derive the “Big Five” personality traits?
Select one:
A.
meta-analysis
B.
LISREL
C.
discriminant analysis
D.
factor analysis
Development of the five-factor model of personality was based on an atheoretical “lexical” approach.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT The lexical approach assumes that all socially-relevant personality characteristics are encoded in language, and the original identification of the “Big Five” traits began with an list of 18,000 traits derived by Gordon Allport from the 1925 edition of Webster’s Dictionary. Factor analysis of these traits by a number of investigators produced the same five core factors.
The correct answer is: factor analysis
The “storm and stress theory” of adolescent mental health proposes that most adolescents experience extensive physical, social, and psychological turmoil. Research conducted in the past three or four decades on this topic:
Select one:
A.
confirms that most adolescents do experience substantial “storm and stress.”
B.
demonstrates that “storm and stress” is characteristic of adolescents in westernized cultures only.
C.
indicates that, for the large majority of individuals, adolescence is not a time of significant “storm and stress.”
D.
shows that “storm and stress” is largely due to increases in family conflicts during the adolescent period.
Research conducted in the past few decades has largely refuted Hall’s (1904) proposition that adolescence is a time of substantial “storm and stress.”
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Studies suggest that, while adolescents may exhibit greater emotional lability, only about 10 to 20% of adolescents exhibit some type of severe emotional turmoil, which is approximately the same percent as found in the adult population.
d. Incorrect In fact, contrary to the popular view of adolescence, the research suggests that family conflicts do not actually increase substantially during this period.
The correct answer is: indicates that, for the large majority of individuals, adolescence is not a time of significant “storm and stress.”
In contrast to Korsakoff’s Syndrome, Alzheimer’s disease is associated with:
Select one:
A.
more severe anterograde amnesia.
B.
greater confabulation.
C.
less severe working memory impairment.
D.
a wider range of cognitive deficits.
Korsakoff’s syndrome and Alzheimer’s disease share several symptoms.
a. Incorrect This response is imprecise and not the best one – e.g., how is anterograde amnesia measured and what stage of Alzheimer’s is being compared to Korsakoff’s syndrome? Also, an essential feature of Korsakoff’s syndrome is severe anterograde amnesia.
b. Incorrect Confabulation is an essential feature of Korsakoff’s syndrome.
c. Incorrect Alzheimer’s disease is actually associated with more severe working memory deficits than Korsakoff’s syndrome is.
d. CORRECT Korsakoff’s syndrome is characterized by disproportionate memory deficits relative to other types of cognitive impairment [M. D. Kopelman, The Korsakoff Syndrome, British Journal of Psychiatry, 166(2), 154-173, 1995]. In contrast, Alzheimer’s disease involves memory impairment plus severe impairments in other aspects of cognitive functioning.
The correct answer is: a wider range of cognitive deficits.
For children of divorced parents, increased frequency of contact with the noncustodial father:
Select one:
A.
is consistently associated with more behavior problems and lower academic achievement.
B.
is consistently associated with fewer behavior problems and better academic achievement.
C.
is associated with fewer behavior problems and better academic achievement only when the father is supportive and authoritative.
D.
is unrelated to severity of behavior problems or level of academic achievement regardless of the father’s supportiveness and parenting style.
The long-term impact of contact with the noncustodial father on child outcomes was investigated by E. M. Hetherington [An overview of the Virginia Longitudinal Study of divorce and remarriage with a focus on early adolescence, Journal of Family Psychology, 7(1), 39-56, 1993].
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Hetherington found that frequency of contact with the noncustodial father itself was not predictive of child outcomes. However, a greater frequency of contact was associated with better outcomes – especially for boys – when the father was supportive, authoritative in terms of parenting style, and did not frequently engage in open conflict with his ex-spouse in front of the child.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: is associated with fewer behavior problems and better academic achievement only when the father is supportive and authoritative.
Dr. Muzak wants to determine if background music (music versus no music) affects performance on three different cognitive tasks. Subjects will receive all combinations of all levels of music and task, but they will be administered in a different order to different subgroups of subjects. This is an example of which research design?
Select one:
A.
split-plot
B.
randomized block
C.
Solomon
D.
counterbalanced
Answer D is correct: This question describes a type of within-subjects design. The counterbalanced design is a type of within-subjects design in which the order of the different levels of the independent variable(s) are applied to different subjects or subgroups of subjects in a different order.
Answer A: When using a split-plot (mixed) design, the study has at least one between-groups variable and one within-subjects variable.
Answer B: In a randomized block design, at least one of the IVs is a blocking (extraneous) variable, and subjects within each block are randomly assigned to levels of another IV.
Answer C: The Solomon four-group design is used to measure the effects of pretesting on a study’s internal and external validity.
The correct answer is: counterbalanced
Studies examining the consequences of divorce and maternal remarriage on children has revealed that boys and girls have difficulty adjusting to a stepfather during the first two years after remarriage and that:
Select one:
A.
both adapt thereafter and, in many cases, show better adjustment than peers whose mothers have not remarried.
B.
boys (but not girls) adapt thereafter and, in many cases, show better adjustment than male peers whose mothers have not remarried.
C.
girls (but not boys) adapt thereafter and, in many cases, show better adjustment than female peers whose mothers have not remarried.
D.
subsequently continue to be less well-adjusted than peers whose mothers have not remarried.
Questions on the effects of divorce and stepparenting are difficult because the research is not entirely consistent. However, there is some fairly consistent evidence that having a stepfather has fewer benefits for girls than for boys.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Boys adapt to stepfathers better than girls and often eventually show better adjustment than male peers whose mothers did not remarry (see, e.g., E. M. Hetherington, Coping with family transitions: Winners, losers, and survivors, Child Development, 60, 60-114, 1989).
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: boys (but not girls) adapt thereafter and, in many cases, show better adjustment than male peers whose mothers have not remarried.
Which of the following is NOT an example of a centralized communication network?
Select one:
A.
wheel
B.
chain
C.
circle
D.
Y
In a centralized communication network, all communication passes through a central person.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT The wheel, chain, and Y are examples of a centralized communication network, while the circle is an example of a decentralized network in which information can flow freely from one individual to another without having to go through a central person.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: circle
When working with older adults, it is important to remember that:
Select one:
A.
psychotherapy, especially insight-oriented therapy, is generally ineffective.
B.
there is greater variability among older people than younger people on a range of characteristics.
C.
a therapeutic alliance is particularly difficult to establish, especially when the therapist is young.
D.
all of the above.
When working with older adults, it is important to remember that there is greater variability among older people than younger people on a range of characteristics (physical health, cognitive skills, income, etc.).
a. Incorrect See explanation above.
b. CORRECT See explanation above. Additional information about providing therapy to older adults is provided in the Clinical Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: there is greater variability among older people than younger people on a range of characteristics.
Epidemiological studies on rates of various mental disorders in urban and rural areas in the United States have found that:
Select one:
A.
for most mental disorders, the rates are significantly higher in urban areas.
B.
for most mental disorders, the rates are significantly higher in rural areas.
C.
some disorders are more common in rural or in urban areas, but the differences in rates are usually not statistically significant.
D.
some disorders are more common in rural or in urban areas, and the differences in rates are usually statistically significant.
This is a difficult question to answer since the reported rates of various mental disorders in rural and urban areas vary somewhat from study to study.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Overall, the best conclusion that can be drawn is that there are few consistent (or statistically significant) differences in the rates of mental disorders in urban and rural areas. For example, a recent Healthcare for Communities (HCC) survey of 9,585 individuals living in rural and urban areas found no significant differences in the prevalence of the major types of mental illness (L. Tang et al., Report on the Survey Method for the Household Survey of Healthcare for Communities, 1997-1998, Los Angeles, Health Sciences Research Center, UCLA, 2001). This lack of significant differences between rates in rural and urban areas is consistent with the findings of the Epidemiologic Catchment Area Study and the National Comorbidity Survey.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: some disorders are more common in rural or in urban areas, but the differences in rates are usually not statistically significant.
The rotating shift is associated with a number of adverse consequences including fatigue, concentration, and performance errors. The negative effects can be reduced, however, when:
Select one:
A.
the rotation is clockwise and weekly.
B.
the rotation is clockwise and either rapid (every 3 days) or slow (every 3 weeks).
C.
the rotation is counterclockwise and weekly.
D.
the rotation is counterclockwise and either rapid (every 3 days) or slow (every 3 weeks).
Several factors contribute to the impact of the rotating shift on worker health and performance.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT There is evidence that the rotating shift has fewer negative consequences when the rotation is clockwise (morning, afternoon, night) and is either rapid or slow. Weekly rotations are generally most detrimental because they do not allow resynchronization of circadian rhythms (which slow rotations do) and are long enough to allow for the build up of a sleep deficit (which fast rotations do not do). See, e.g., O. Van Reeth, Sleep and circadian disturbances in shift work: Strategies for their management, Hormone Research, 49, 158-162, 1998.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: the rotation is clockwise and either rapid (every 3 days) or slow (every 3 weeks).
Kohlberg’s cognitive-developmental theory distinguishes between three stages in gender identity development. The first stage is ________, which involves recognizing one’s own gender and is ordinarily first apparent between 2 and 3 years of age.
Select one:
A.
gender constancy
B.
gender conservation
C.
gender identity
D.
gender stability
According to Kohlberg’s cognitive-developmental theory, the development of gender identity involves a sequence of three stages - gender identity, gender stability, and gender constancy.
a. Incorrect Gender constancy does not develop until 6 to 7 years of age.
b. Incorrect Gender conservation is an alternative term for gender constancy.
c. CORRECT Children begin to identify themselves (and others) as either a boy or girl at 2 to 3 years of age. This is referred to as gender identity.
d. Incorrect Gender stability is usually evident by 4 to 6 years of age.
The correct answer is: gender identity
Which of the following is used to determine the amount of variability in one variable that is predictable from another variable?
Select one:
A.
coefficient of determination
B.
Cronbachs alpha
C.
coefficient of concordance
D.
eta
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the coefficients listed in the answers to this question.
a. CORRECT The coefficient of determination is calculated by squaring the correlation coefficient and provides a measure of shared variability, or the amount of variability in one variable that can be explained by variability in another variable (or, put another way, the amount of variability in one variable that is predictable from another variable).
b. Incorrect Cronbach’s alpha provides an estimate of a measure’s internal consistency reliability.
c. Incorrect The coefficient of concordance provides an estimate of inter-rater reliability for ranked data and three or more raters.
d. Incorrect Eta is a correlation coefficient that is used to estimate the variability of two continuous variables that have a nonlinear relationship.
The correct answer is: coefficient of determination
Latent class analysis (LCA) is most similar to which of the following techniques? Select one:
A.
multitrait-multimethod matrix
B.
cluster sampling
C.
latent trait analysis
D.
ANCOVA
LCA is used to identify the underlying latent structure of a set of observed data.
a. Incorrect The multitrait-multimethod matrix is used to assess construct (convergent and divergent) validity.
b. Incorrect LCA is similar to cluster analysis - not cluster sampling, which is a sampling technique that entails selecting clusters (groups) of participants rather than individual participants.
c. CORRECT Latent trait analysis (LTA) is also used to identify the underlying latent structure of a set of observed data. A primary difference between the two techniques is that, in LCA, the latent variable that determines the structure is nominal; while, in LTA, the latent variable is continuous.
d. Incorrect The ANCOVA (analysis of covariance) is a type of analysis of variance that is used to statistically remove the effects of an extraneous variable (the covariate) on the dependent variable so that it is easier to detect the effects of the independent variable on the dependent variable.
The correct answer is: latent trait analysis
Pavlov found that requiring dogs to make difficult discriminations between stimuli during the course of conditioning trials led to which of the following?
Select one:
A.
superstitious behavior
B.
experimental neurosis
C.
overshadowing
D.
blocking
For the exam, you want to be familar with all of the phenomena listed in the answers to this question. These are described in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT In one series of studies, Pavlov found that dogs that were conditioned to respond with salivation to a circle but not to respond with salivation to an ellipse subsequently exhibited unusual behaviors when presented with a more circular ellipse. He attributed this behavior to a conflict between cortical excitation and inhibition and referred to it as experimental neurosis.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: experimental neurosis
Precocious puberty, or the development of secondary sex characteristics prior to age 8 in girls and 8.5 in boys, has been linked to premature awakening of the:
Select one:
A.
hypothalamic-pituitary axis.
B.
hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis.
C.
hippocampal-anterior thalamic axis.
D.
mesocorticolimbic-dopaminergic axis.
You would have been able to choose the correct response for this question as long as you knew that the hypothalamus is involved in the release of the sex hormones and that the adrenal glands are associated with stress (but not sex) hormones (response b).
a. CORRECT The hypothalamic-pituitary axis is also known as the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis and is involved in sexual maturation.
b. Incorrect The hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis is involved in stress and anxiety.
c. Incorrect The hippocampal-anterior thalamic axis is involved in memory (especially episodic memory).
d. Incorrect The mesocorticolimbic-dopaminergic system is the brain’s “reward pathway” and mediates the reinforcing effects of drugs.
The correct answer is: hypothalamic-pituitary axis.
Which of the developmental changes is most likely to occur in males between the ages of 40-45?
Select one:
A.
a decrease in work satisfaction
B.
significant personality change and emotional disturbance due to the “mid-life” crisis
C.
a shift in perspective from “time-since-birth” to “time-left-to-live”
D.
peaceful acceptance of the impending black doom of the grim reaper
According to Levinson, the mid-life transition, or the transition between early and middle adulthood, occurs between the ages of 40-45.
a. Incorrect Research suggests that middle aged men (and women) are more satisfied with their work than younger adults.
b. Incorrect Contrary to popular belief, research suggests that mid-life is not a time of crisis for most people.
c. CORRECT As a result of an increasing awareness of mortality, the mid-life transition is marked by a shift in awareness from “time-since-birth” to “time-left-to-live.”
d. Incorrect Patently absurd and potentially offensive. responses such as this one are not likely to be correct.
The correct answer is: a shift in perspective from “time-since-birth” to “time-left-to-live”
For a person with Bipolar Disorder, the risk for suicide is greatest:
Select one:
A.
when depressive symptoms are most severe.
B.
when depressive symptoms have become less severe.
C.
shortly after the onset of a depressive episode.
D.
shortly after the onset of a manic episode.
There is some evidence that the risk for suicide is related to the severity of symptoms.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT According to some experts, the risk for suicide is greatest when depressive symptoms begin to lift. Apparently, this is because, at this time, suicidal ideation has not subsided and the individual has the increased energy and planning ability required to carry out a suicide plan. See, e.g., H. N. Holmes (ed.), Professional guide to diseases, Springhouse, PA, Springhouse, 2001.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: when depressive symptoms have become less severe.
A family therapist using Minuchin’s structural approach is most likely to be interested in which of the following?
Select one:
A.
communication styles
B.
transgenerational processes
C.
boundaries
D.
exceptions
As its name implies, Minuchin’s structural family therapy focuses on the structural characteristics of the family.
a. Incorrect Although communication patterns provide clues about family structure, this is not the best response of those given.
b. Incorrect This sounds more like Bowenian family therapy.
c. CORRECT Minuchin considered maladaptive behavior to be the result of overly rigid or permeable boundaries between family members.
d. Incorrect Exceptions are of interest to solution-focused therapists.
The correct answer is: boundaries
The onset of bulimia often follows a period of moderate dieting, which has been linked to low blood levels of tryptophan. Low levels of tryptophan, in turn, are associated with:
Select one:
A.
lower-than-normal levels of brain serotonin.
B.
higher-than-normal levels of brain serotonin.
C.
lower-than-normal levels of brain dopamine.
D.
higher-than-normal levels of brain dopamine.
Even if you are unfamiliar with the link between tryptophan and serotonin, you would have been able to choose the correct response if you know that the SSRIs have been found effective for treating bulimia.
a. CORRECT Tryptophan is a precursor of serotonin, and a rapid drop in plasma levels of tryptophan is known to precede a decrease in brain levels of tryptophan and serotonin.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: lower-than-normal levels of brain serotonin.
Research (e.g., Davidson and Parker, 2001) evaluating the mechanisms that contribute to the effectiveness of EMDR (eye movement desensitization and reprocessing) has generally found that its beneficial effects are attributable to:
Select one:
A.
rapid eye movements.
B.
exposure to the feared stimulus.
C.
a placebo effect.
D.
counterconditioning.
P. R. Davidson and K. C. H. Parker summarize the research in their article, Eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR): A meta-analysis [Journal of Consulting and Clinical Psychology, 69, 305-316, 2001].
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Based on the results of their meta-analysis, these investigators conclude that “eye movements are unnecessary and that EMDR may be viewed as an imaginal exposure technique” (p. 2).
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: exposure to the feared stimulus.
Taking _______ to treat the symptoms of the flu, chickenpox, or other viral illness can produce Reyes syndrome.
Select one:
A.
ibuprofen
B.
aspirin
C.
an antihistamine
D.
an antibiotic
Reyes syndrome is a rare disorder that is most common in children and adolescents, usually affects the brain and liver, and can be fatal.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Although the cause of Reyes syndrome is still unknown, it has been linked to the use of aspirin and other salicylate-containing medications during or shortly after a viral, fever-causing illness. Early symptoms include persistent vomiting, listlessness, and drowsiness.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: aspirin
According to Margaret Mahler’s object relations theory, the development of a sense of self is the result of a separation-individuation process that begins at about _____ months of age.
Select one:
A.
2 to 3
B.
4 to 5
C.
8 to 10
D.
12 to 14
Mahler distinguishes between two phases that contribute to the development of a unique sense of self: symbiosis and separation-individuation.
a. Incorrect An infant is in the symbiosis phase at this age.
b. CORRECT Separation-individuation is triggered by the child’s ability to separate from his/her primary caregiver. The process begins at about 4 to 5 months of age when a child who is being held by his/her caregiver is able to lean away to scan the environment.
c. Incorrect This age is very important for the separation-individuation process because the child is now able to crawl away from his/her caregiver. However, the process begins prior to 8 to 10 months of age.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: 4 to 5
