Exam Simulation: Test 2 Flashcards
In vivo exposure with response prevention has been found to be an effective treatment for Agoraphobia, Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder, and several other anxiety disorders. Studies investigating the effects of this treatment for this suggest that:
Select one:
A.
frequent, brief exposures are more effective than less frequent, longer exposures to the feared stimuli
B.
people with high arousability are more responsive to in vivo treatments than people with low arousability
C.
high anxiety provocation is not the key factor in its effectiveness
D.
counterconditioning is a necessary component of treatment
The correct answer is C.
The goal of in vivo exposure is to extinguish the classically conditioned response by repeatedly exposing the person to the CS without the US. As noted in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials, there is evidence that high anxiety arousal is NOT necessary for successful treatment with in vivo exposure.
Answer A: This is the opposite of what has been found to be true.
Answer B: Arousability has been linked to the effects of systematic desensitization, not in vivo exposure. Systematic desensitization is usually more successful for individuals low in arousability than for those high in arousability.
Answer D: Counterconditioning is not a component of in vivo exposure.
For a diagnosis of enuresis, the person must be at least ___ years old.
Select one:
A.
five
B.
six
C.
seven
D.
eight
The correct answer is A.
Enuresis is characterized by repeated voiding of urine into the bed or clothes at least twice a week for at least three consecutive months. Urination is usually involuntary but can be intentional. For this diagnosis, the person must be at least five years of age or the equivalent developmental level.
Answers B, C, and D: These responses are incorrect as an individual must be at least five years old to be diagnosed with enuresis.
Which of the following is not a symptom of Disinhibited Social Engagement Disorder?
Select one:
A.
Overly familiar behavior
B.
Minimal social and emotional responsiveness
C.
Willingness to go with an unfamiliar adult with minimal hesitation
D.
Absent checking with an adult caregiver
The correct answer is B.
Minimal social and emotional responsiveness to others is one of three symptoms of Reactive Attachment Disorder.
Answers A, C, and D: These responses are incorrect as these are all symptoms of Disinhibited Social Engagement Disorder.
The primary difference between the diagnoses of Somatic Symptom Disorder and Illness Anxiety Disorder is:
Select one:
A.
a high level of anxiety about health
B.
symptom duration
C.
the presence of somatic symptoms
D.
level of functional impairment
The correct answer is C.
The primary difference between the diagnoses of Somatic Symptom Disorder and Illness Anxiety Disorder is the presence of somatic symptoms. For a diagnosis of Somatic Symptom Disorder, the individual experiences one or more somatic symptoms. In contrast, somatic symptoms are not present, or if present, are only mild in intensity in Illness Anxiety Disorder.
Answer A: Both diagnoses involve a high level of anxiety about health or symptoms.
Answer B: Symptom duration for both disorders is six months.
Answer D: Level of functional impairment does not distinguish between Somatic Symptom Disorder and Illness Anxiety Disorder.
Hypocretin is a hormone involved in the regulation of sleep. A deficiency of this hormone is associated with which of the following diagnoses?
Select one:
A.
Rapid Eye Movement Sleep Behavior Disorder
B.
Non-Rapid Eye Movement Sleep Arousal Disorder
C.
Insomnia Disorder
D.
Narcolepsy
The correct answer is D.
A deficiency of hypocretin is a potential symptom of Narcolepsy. For a diagnosis of Narcolepsy, the individual must experience cataplexy (a brief loss of muscle tone), a deficiency of hypocretin, or a rapid eye movement latency that is less than or equal to 15 minutes.
Answers A, B, and C: These responses are incorrect as hypocretin is associated with a diagnosis of Narcolepsy.
Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder:
Select one:
A.
is diagnosed two times more often in adolescents than in adults
B.
cannot be diagnosed for the first time in adults
C.
must have a duration of one year in children and two years in adults
D.
must have a duration of one year in children and adults
The correct answer is B.
The diagnosis of Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder requires a combination of severe and recurrent temper outbursts. This diagnosis cannot be assigned for the first time before the individual is six years old or after he or she is 18 years of age. Moreover, the onset of symptoms must be before age 10.
Answer A: Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder should not be made for the first time in individuals who are 18 years of age or older.
Answers C and D: These responses are incorrect as this diagnosis should not be made for the first time in adults.
The symptoms of Major Depressive Disorder vary somewhat with age. Somatic complaints, irritability, and social withdrawal:
Select one:
A.
are common in children
B.
are common in preadolescents
C.
are common in older adults
D.
are common in preadolescent males
The correct answer is A.
The symptoms of Major Depressive Disorder vary somewhat with age. Somatic complaints, irritability, and social withdrawal are common in children.
Answer B: Aggressiveness and destructiveness may occur in preadolescents.
Answer C: In older adults, memory loss, distractibility, disorientation, and other cognitive symptoms may be present.
Answer D: Preadolescent males more commonly demonstrate aggressiveness and destructiveness.
Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder involves severe recurrent temper outbursts plus:
Select one:
A.
persistent verbal and physical aggression between temper outbursts
B.
a chronic, persistently irritable or angry mood between temper outbursts
C.
episodes of depressive symptoms between temper outbursts
D.
episodes of abnormally elevated mood between temper outbursts
The correct answer is B.
Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder involves severe recurrent temper outbursts manifested verbally and/or behaviorally, and a chronic, persistently irritable or angry mood between temper outbursts on most days.
Answers A, C, and D: These responses are incorrect as this diagnosis requires a persistently irritable mood between temper outbursts.
Individuals diagnosed with a Specific Learning Disorder typically have an IQ:
Select one:
A.
in the average to above-average range
B.
in the below-average range
C.
in the below-average to average range
D.
in the above-average range
The correct answer is A.
Individuals with a Specific Learning Disorder typically have an IQ in the average to above-average range.
Answer B: Specific Learning Disorder is not associated with a below-average IQ.
Answer C: Individuals with a Specific Learning Disorder typically do not have IQ’s that fall within the below-average range.
Answer D: Individuals with a Specific Learning Disorder typically evidence an IQ in the average to above-average range.
Which of the following is not a symptom of Dependent Personality Disorder?
Select one:
A.
Difficulty making decisions without advice or reassurance from others
B.
Fears disagreeing with others
C.
Views self as socially inept
D.
Goes to great lengths to gain nurturance from others
The correct answer is C.
Dependent Personality Disorder involves a pervasive need to be taken care of, which leads to submissive, clinging behavior, and fear of separation. All of the responses are symptoms of this disorder except for answer C. “Views self as socially inept” is a symptom of Avoidant Personality Disorder.
Answers A, B, and D: These are all symptoms of Dependent Personality Disorder.
The essential features of Anorexia Nervosa include:
Select one:
A.
restriction of energy, intense fear of gaining weight, and a disturbance in body weight perception
B.
excessive dieting, lower-than-normal body weight, and preoccupation with a distorted body image
C.
recurrent episodes of binge eating, inappropriate compensatory behavior, and self-evaluation that is overly influenced by body image
D.
excessive dieting, preoccupation with body image, and a lower-than-normal body weight
The correct answer is A.
The essential features of Anorexia include restriction of energy, intense fear of gaining weight or behavior that interferes with weight gain, and a disturbance in body weight perception, or a persistent lack of recognition of the seriousness of his or her low body weight.
Answers B and D: These responses are incorrect as they do not include the essential features of Anorexia Nervosa.
Answer C: This response more accurately describes the essential features of Bulimia Nervosa.
Which of the following is not considered an intrusion symptom?
Select one:
A.
Recurrent, involuntary, and distressing memories
B.
Recurrent distressing dreams
C.
Dissociative reactions
D.
An altered sense of the reality of one’s surroundings
The correct answer is D.
Symptoms of PTSD and Acute Stress Disorder fall within the following five categories: intrusion, negative mood, dissociation, avoidance, and arousal. All of the responses are intrusion symptoms except for answer D. An altered sense of the reality of one’s surroundings is a dissociative symptom.
Answers A, B, and C: These responses are incorrect as they are all intrusion symptoms.
People who are diagnosed with Dissociative Identity Disorder:
Select one:
A.
experience a sense of unreality, detachment or being an outside observer of one’s thoughts, feelings, and actions
B.
experience a sense of unreality or detachment regarding one’s surroundings
C.
are typically aware of their symptoms as they do not cause impairment in functioning
D.
typically conceal or are unaware of their dissociative symptoms
The correct answer is D.
Individuals with a diagnosis of Dissociative Identity Disorder typically conceal or are unaware of their dissociative symptoms.
Answer A: This describes depersonalization, not Dissociative Identity Disorder.
Answer B: This describes derealization, not Dissociative Identity Disorder.
Answer C: Individuals with this diagnosis are typically unaware of their symptoms, and symptoms cause significant distress or impaired functioning.
During an episode of depersonalization:
Select one:
A.
the individual lacks insight and experiences a sense of unreality regarding one’s surroundings
B.
the individual lacks insight and is preoccupied with having multiple personalities
C.
reality testing remains intact and symptoms cause impairment in functioning
D.
the individual cannot recall important autobiographical information
The correct answer is C.
Depersonalization/Derealization Disorder involves recurrent or persistent episodes of depersonalization or derealization. Depersonalization involves a sense of unreality, detachment, or being an outside observer of one’s thoughts, feelings, and actions. Reality testing remains intact during episodes, and symptoms cause significant distress or impaired functioning.
Answer A: The experience of unreality regarding one’s surroundings describes derealization. However, reality testing remains intact during these episodes.
Answer B: This response does not describe depersonalization.
Answer D: The inability to recall important autobiographical information is consistent with a diagnosis of Dissociative Amnesia.
A diagnosis of Reactive Attachment Disorder cannot be assigned without the presence of which of the following?
Select one:
A.
Evidence of extreme insufficient care
B.
Developmentally inappropriate social relatedness that began prior to age 2
C.
A pattern of inappropriate social relatedness in at least two settings
D.
The presence of one or more developmental delays
The correct answer is A.
Reactive Attachment Disorder is characterized by inappropriate social relatedness that is related to extreme insufficient (pathogenic) care.
Answer B: The diagnosis requires that symptoms begin prior to age 5 (not age 2).
Answer C: The diagnosis does not require signs of inappropriate social relatedness in at least two settings.
Answer D: Developmental delays are not required for the diagnosis.
The duration of Brief Psychotic Disorder is:
Select one:
A.
one day to less than one week
B.
one day to less than one month
C.
three days to less than one month
D.
one week to less than one month
The correct answer is B.
Brief Psychotic Disorder involves one or more characteristic symptoms (delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, grossly disorganized or catatonic behavior), with at least one symptom being delusions, hallucinations, or disorganized speech. Symptoms have a duration of one day to less than one month.
Answers A, C, and D: These responses are incorrect as the correct duration for a diagnosis of Brief Psychotic Disorder is one day to less than one month.
For a diagnosis of Cyclothymic Disorder, symptoms must include:
Select one:
A.
at least one hypomanic episode
B.
multiple major depressive episodes
C.
multiple periods of hypomanic symptoms that do not meet the criteria for a hypomanic episode
D.
multiple periods of manic symptoms that do not meet the criteria for a manic episode
The correct answer is C.
Cyclothymic Disorder is characterized by multiple periods of hypomanic symptoms that do not meet the criteria for a hypomanic episode and multiple episodes of depressive symptoms that do not meet the criteria for a major depressive episode. Symptoms must last for at least two years in adults and one year in children and adolescents.
Answers A, B, and D: These responses are incorrect as they are not accurate requirements for a diagnosis of Cyclothymic Disorder. The diagnosis requires hypomanic symptoms that do not meet the criteria for a hypomanic episode and depressive symptoms that do not meet the criteria for a major depressive episode.
As a treatment for Tourette’s Disorder, the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs):
Select one:
A.
are more effective than haloperidol or pimozide for alleviating tics
B.
are useful for reducing obsessive-compulsive symptoms that often accompany this disorder
C.
cannot be used in conjunction with haloperidol or pimozide because of the risk for a toxicity syndrome
D.
are contraindicated because of their exacerbating effects on tics
The correct answer is B.
Several psychotropic medications are used to treat Tourette’s Disorder and comorbid symptoms. For example, an SSRI is usually useful for alleviating the obsessive-compulsive symptoms that often accompany this disorder.
Answers A, C, and D: Antipsychotic medications, such as haloperidol and pimozide are most often prescribed to treat Tourette’s Disorder. However, SSRIs are often useful for alleviating obsessive-compulsive symptoms that often accompany Tourette’s Disorder. Moreover, psychostimulants are frequently avoided to treat comorbid ADHD symptoms because they may increase tics in some individuals.
Malingering involves the intentional production of ____________ symptoms to obtain an external reward.
Select one:
A.
somatic
B.
psychosomatic
C.
psychological
D.
physical or psychological
The correct answer is D.
In the DSM-5, malingering is classified with Other Conditions That May Be a Focus of Clinical Attention. It involves the intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms to obtain an external reward.
Answers A, B, and C: These responses are incorrect as the definition of malingering includes the production of physical or psychological symptoms.
Lazarus and Folkman’s (1984) transactional model of stress distinguishes between three types of cognitive appraisal. Primary appraisal refers to:
Select one:
A.
a person’s initial evaluation of the intensity of the threatening situation
B.
a person’s evaluation of the relevance of a potentially stressful event to his or her well-being
C.
a person’s evaluation of whether his or her resources and abilities are sufficient to adequately cope with a threatening situation
D.
a person’s continuous monitoring of a situation and use of new information
The correct answer is B.
Lazarus and Folkman’s (1984) transactional model of stress distinguishes between three types of cognitive appraisal: primary appraisal, secondary appraisal, and cognitive reappraisal. Primary appraisal refers to a person’s evaluation of the relevance of a potentially stressful event to his or her well-being.
Answer A: This is not one of the types of cognitive appraisal included in the transactional model of stress.
Answer C: This response describes secondary appraisal.
Answer D: This answer describes cognitive reappraisal.
Individuals who are diagnosed with Bulimia Nervosa:
Select one:
A.
ordinarily maintain their body weight at or below a minimally normal weight for height and age
B.
ordinarily lose weight due to recurrent compensatory behaviors such as self-induced vomiting
C.
ordinarily maintain their body weight at or above a minimally normal weight for height and age
D.
ordinarily gain weight due to recurrent episodes of binge eating
The correct answer is C.
Bulimia Nervosa involves recurrent episodes of binge eating, with a sense of lack of control over eating; recurrent compensatory behaviors to prevent weight gain; and self-evaluation that is overly influenced by body weight and shape. Individuals who are diagnosed with Bulimia ordinarily maintain their body weight at or above a minimally normal weight for height and age.
Answers A, B, and D: These responses are incorrect as individuals who are diagnosed with Bulimia typically maintain a weight at or above the minimally normal weight for height and age.
Which of the following is not a subtype of Delusional Disorder?
Select one:
A.
Religious
B.
Persecutory
C.
Jealous
D.
Somatic
The correct answer is A.
Delusions are false beliefs that are maintained despite conflicting evidence. Subtypes of Delusional Disorder include erotomanic, grandiose, jealous, persecutory, somatic, mixed, and unspecified. The DSM-5 does not include a subtype for religious delusions.
Answers B, C, and D: These responses are incorrect as they are all subtypes of Delusional Disorder.
Which of the following requires the presence of symptoms that involve disturbances in voluntary motor or sensory functioning?
Select one:
A.
Somatic Symptom Disorder
B.
Illness Anxiety Disorder
C.
Conversion Disorder
D.
Factitious Disorder
The correct answer is C.
Conversion Disorder (Functional Neurological Symptom Disorder) requires the presence of symptoms that involve disturbances in voluntary motor or sensory functioning and suggest a serious neurological or other medical condition, with evidence of an incompatibility between the symptom and recognized medical conditions.
Answer A: Somatic Symptom Disorder involves the presence of one or more somatic symptoms that cause distress.
Answer B: Illness Anxiety Disorder is characterized by a preoccupation with having a serious illness and an absence of somatic symptoms or the presence of mild somatic symptoms.
Answer D: Individuals diagnosed with Factitious Disorder Imposed on Self falsify physical or psychological symptoms that are associated with their deception. They engage in deceptive behavior even in the absence of an external reward.
The diagnosis of Somatic Symptom Disorder requires which of the following?
Select one:
A.
The presence of one or more somatic symptoms
B.
Persistent and disproportionate thoughts about the seriousness of the symptoms
C.
Persistently high level of anxiety about one’s health or symptoms
D.
Excessive time and energy devoted to health concerns or symptoms
The correct answer is A.
The essential feature of Somatic Symptom Disorder is the presence of one or more somatic symptoms that cause distress. Of the symptoms listed this is the only requirement for the diagnosis.
Answers B, C, and D: These responses are incorrect as they are all possible symptoms of Somatic Symptom Disorder, but not required. For this diagnosis, an individual must meet criteria for at least one (but not all) of the symptoms listed in these responses.
Habit reversal training was originally developed to treat:
Select one:
A.
obsessions and compulsions
B.
nervous habits and motor tics
C.
Childhood-Onset Fluency Disorder
D.
Tourette’s syndrome
The correct answer is B.
Habit reversal training was originally designed as a treatment for nervous habits and motor tics. It has since been applied to the treatment of a number of other symptoms including stuttering.
Answer A: This is not true.
Answer C: While habit reversal training is now used as a treatment for this disorder, especially among older children and adults who suffer from stuttering, it was not originally developed specifically to treat this disorder.
Answer D: Habit reversal training was not originally developed as a treatment for this specific disorder alone.
Habit reversal training includes training in all of the following areas except:
Select one:
A.
competing response
B.
motivation
C.
decompression
D.
generalization
The correct answer is C.
Habit reversal training incorporates awareness, relaxation, motivation, competing response, and generalization training. ‘Decompression’ training is not an actual training.
Answer A: Competing response training is incorporated into habit reversal training.
Answer B: Motivation training is also incorporated.
Answer D: Generalization training is incorporated into habit reversal training.
Which specifier is used when a clinician believes that the full criteria for a diagnosis will eventually be met?
Select one:
A.
Unspecified
B.
Other specified
C.
Differential
D.
Provisional
The correct answer is D.
The provisional specifier is used when the clinician does not currently have sufficient information for a firm diagnosis but believes the full criteria for the diagnosis will eventually be met.
Answer A: This is a term used in diagnostic codes.
Answer B: This is also a term used in diagnostic codes.
Answer C: This is not a specifier.
According to Brier (1994), which of these populations has a higher risk of arrest and conviction for antisocial behavior?
Select one:
A.
Children diagnosed with Tourette’s syndrome and ADHD
B.
Children diagnosed with ADHD and a Specific Learning Disorder
C.
Adults diagnosed with ADHD
D.
Adults diagnosed with Tourette’s syndrome and a Specific Learning Disorder
The correct answer is B.
Between 20% to 30% of children with a Specific Learning Disorder are also diagnosed with ADHD. According to Brier (1994), these children are at a higher risk for antisocial behavior and for arrest and conviction for antisocial behavior.
Answer A: This is not true.
Answer C: This population’s risk level is not as high as children with ADHD and a Specific Learning Disorder.
Answer D: According to Brier, children diagnosed with ADHD and a Specific Learning Disorder are at a higher risk level.
All of the following can be used to indicate diagnostic uncertainty except:
Select one:
A.
provisional (code)
B.
provisional (specifier)
C.
unspecified disorder
D.
other specified disorder
The correct answer is A.
The DSM-5 provides two codes and one specifier that can be used to indicate diagnostic uncertainty. The provisional label is used as a diagnostic specifier rather than a code.
Answer B: The provisional specifier may be used when the clinician does not currently have sufficient information for a firm diagnosis but believes the full criteria for the diagnosis will eventually be met.
Answer C: Unspecified disorder is coded when the clinician does not want to indicate the reason why the client’s symptoms do not meet the criteria for a specific diagnosis.
Answer D: Other specified disorder is coded when the clinician wants to indicate the reason why the client’s symptoms do not meet the criteria for a specific diagnosis.
Dr. Jones, a licensed clinical psychologist, hires a psychology graduate student to administer the MMPI-2 to some of his clients. This is:
Select one:
A.
unethical since psychological tests should be administered only by licensed professionals
B.
ethical as long as Dr. Jones accepts full responsibility for the consequences of testing
C.
ethical only if the student has completed at least one graduate-level course in psychological testing
D.
ethical only if Dr. Jones provides the student with appropriate training and supervision
The correct answer is D.
Of the alternatives given, this response is most consistent with the requirements of the Standard 2.05 of the Ethics Code and Principle II.7 of the Canadian Code of Ethics for Psychologists.The minimum competence requirements for the administration of psychological tests are not well-defined in the Ethics Code or Standards for Educational and Psychological Testing. However, Standard 2.05 states that “Psychologists who delegate work to employees, supervisees, or research or teaching assistants or who use the services of others, such as interpreters, take reasonable steps to (1) avoid delegating such work to persons who have a multiple relationship with those being served that would likely lead to exploitation or loss of objectivity; (2) authorize only those responsibilities that such persons can be expected to perform competently on the basis of their education, training, or experience, either independently or with the level of supervision being provided; and (3) see that such persons perform these services competently.”
Answer A: APA’s ethical guidelines do not require that psychological tests be administered by licensed professionals only.
Answer B: Dr. Jones is, of course, ultimately responsible for the activities of his assistant. However, this is not sufficient.
Answer C: The completion of a single course in psychological testing would probably be insufficient training for the administration of psychological tests.
Microaggressions may present as all of the following except:
Select one:
A.
Microassaults
B.
Microinequalities
C.
Microinvalidations
D.
Microinsults
The correct answer is B.
Microassaults, microinsults, and microinvalidations are the three forms of microaggression described by D. W. Sue et al. (Racial microaggressions in everyday life: Implications for clinical practice, American Psychologist, 62, 271-286, 2007). Microinequalities is a made-up term.
Answer A: Microassaults are “explicit racial derogations characterized primarily by a violent verbal or nonverbal attack meant to hurt the intended victim through name-calling, avoidant behavior or purposeful discriminatory actions” (p. 278).
Answer C: Microinvalidation refers to “verbal comments or behaviors that exclude, negate, or nullify the psychological thoughts, feelings, or experiential reality of a person of color” (p. 278). “Color blindness” is a type of microinvalidation.
Answer D: Microinsults are “remarks or comments that convey rudeness, insensitivity and demean a person’s racial heritage or identity” (p. 278).
According to psychoanalytic theory, transference ______________________.
Select one:
A.
is a natural response to countertransference
B.
is a client’s attempt to overcome resistance
C.
may foster a therapeutic alliance
D.
helps a client recognize and resolve unconscious conflicts
The correct answer is D.
Transference involves the development on the part of a client of feelings, attitudes, and defenses toward his/her therapist that represents a displacement of feelings toward significant people in the client’s past. The analysis of transference helps a client recognize and resolve his/her unconscious conflicts.
Answer A: While both are associated with psychoanalysis, transference is not a response to countertransference. While Freud considered transference and its resolution to be desirable, he felt that countertransference (the therapist’s feelings, attitudes, and defenses toward the client) should be avoided.
Answer B: Even though working through transference helps a client resolve unconscious conflicts, which he/she may resist acknowledging, psychoanalytic theory does not suggest what is stated here. Transference may occur when there is no resistance.
Answer C: Transference is not considered to be something that improves the therapeutic alliance but, rather, something that helps the client resolve his/her unconscious conflicts. An important goal of psychoanalysis is to work through transference.
Recovery of cognitive ability following head trauma follows a predictable pattern in most patients. For example, with regard to disorientation, recovery usually occurs in which sequence?
Select one:
A.
Orientation to personal information, then to place, and finally to time
B.
Orientation to time and place followed by orientation to personal information
C.
Orientation to place, then to personal information, and finally to time
D.
Orientation to personal information, then to time, and finally to place
The correct answer is A.
Recovery of cognitive functions following head trauma usually follows a set pattern. For example, with regard to retrograde amnesia, the most remote memories return first. Orientation to personal information is recovered first, followed by place and then time. Patients who continue to be disoriented to personal information rarely exhibit orientation to time or place.
Answers B, C, & D: Recovery typically involves orientation to personal information, then to place, and finally to time.
Children with Tourette’s Disorder often have symptoms of ADHD. In addition, they most often exhibit which of the following?
Select one:
A.
Obsessions and compulsions
B.
Separation anxiety
C.
Conduct problems
D.
Below-average IQ
The correct answer is A.
The most common comorbid symptoms for Tourette’s Disorder are obsessions and compulsions and symptoms of ADHD.
Answer B & C: While these disorders may co-occur with Tourette’s Disorder, they are not the most commonly co-occurring disorders for this syndrome.
Answer D: Tourette’s syndrome does not lessen one’s intelligence.
Bandura’s social learning theory implies that, in organizational settings, a training program will be most effective when:
Select one:
A.
it provides immediate rewards for achieving goals
B.
trainees participate in defining the program’s goals
C.
trainees possess prerequisite skills before training begins
D.
models are clearly and consistently reinforced for successful performance
The correct answer is C.
Bandura has provided guidelines for applying social learning theory to the workplace. (See, e.g., R. Wood and A. Bandura, Social cognitive theory of organizational management, Academy of Management Review, 13, 361-384, 1999). Bandura stresses the importance of (1) self-efficacy beliefs; (2) intrinsic motivation; (3) focusing on overt activities and behaviors; and (4) ensuring that people have prerequisite skills.
Answer A: Immediate rewards are not necessary.
Answer B: Bandura’s theory does not suggest this.
Answer D: Bandura’s research indicated that it is not always necessary for the model to be rewarded in order for an observer to imitate the model’s behavior.
In conflict resolution, the primary role of a mediator is to:
Select one:
A.
derive a workable solution to the problem that will be acceptable to all disputants
B.
have disputants offer solutions and then choose the best one him/herself
C.
help disputants consider alternative solutions to the problem
D.
act as a “go-between” by working with each disputant individually
The correct answer is C.
Mediators facilitate the conflict resolution process. While they may offer suggestions, they do not determine the solution to a problem. Disputants are often inflexible with regard to their own idea of the best solution to a problem, and an important task for a mediator is to increase disputants’ flexibility regarding alternatives. One way to achieve this goal is to suggest alternatives.
Answers A & B: Mediators may offer suggestions; however, they allow the disputants to choose the solution.
Answer D: A mediator may do this initially when conflict and hostility are high, but it’s only a temporary role and not a primary one.
As defined by Phinney and Devich-Navarro, the term alternating bicultural refers to:
Select one:
A.
having a distinct ethnic identity and a distinct American identity
B.
having two competing altering ethnic identities
C.
having a strong integrated ethnic and American identity
D.
alternating between having an ethnic identity and no identity
The correct answer is A.
Phinney and Devich-Navarro (1997) distinguish between six categories of acculturation assimilated, fused, blended bicultural, alternating bicultural, separated, and marginal. The term alternating bicultural refers to having distinct ethnic and American identities.
Answer B: This does not define alternating bicultural.
Answer C: This describes blended bicultural.
Answer D: This does not define any of the six categories of acculturation defined by Phinney and Devich-Navarro.
Phinney and Devich-Navarro (1997) found that most African American and Mexican American teens identified with which of the following categories of acculturation?
Select one:
A.
Blended bicultural, alternating bicultural, or separated
B.
Assimilated, fused, or separated
C.
Marginal, separated, or fused
D.
Bicultural, marginal, or separated
The correct answer is A.
Phinney and Devich-Navarro (1997) distinguish between six categories of acculturation-assimilated, fused, blended bicultural, alternating bicultural, separated, and marginal. Their research with African American and Mexican American adolescents found that the majority described themselves as either blended bicultural, alternating bicultural, or separated.
Answers B, C, & D: Of the six categories identified by Phinney and Devich-Navarro, African American and Mexican American adolescents were most likely to identify as blended bicultural, alternating bicultural, or separated.
As defined by Salvador Minuchin, triangulation is:
Select one:
A.
a therapeutic technique that helps family members achieve insight
B.
a structural configuration that is desirable because it improves communication
C.
a chronic boundary problem that serves a conflict-diffusing function
D.
a chronic boundary disturbance involving “talking through” rather than “talking to”
The correct answer is C.
Although the term “triangulation” is probably most associated with Bowen, Minuchin and other family therapists also use this term. Even if you are unfamiliar with Minuchin’s use of this term, knowing that he focuses on boundary disturbances and emphasizes the role of stress in family dysfunction would have helped you pick this as the correct response. As noted in the Clinical Psychology chapter of the written study materials, Minuchin describes several types of rigid triads (triangles) that all serve to reduce conflict and stress - i.e., triangulation, detouring, and stable coalition.
Answer A: Triangulation is not a positive indicator.
Answer B: Triangulation does not improve communication.
Answer D: This does not define triangulation.
Phinney and Devich-Navarro’s (1997) six categories of acculturation include:
Select one:
A.
assimilated, fused, blended bicultural, alternating bicultural, separated, and marginal
B.
assimilated, fused, bicultural, alternating multicultural, separated, and marginal
C.
assimilated, fused, bicultural, accommodated, separated, and marginal
D.
assimilated, fused, bicultural, alternating bicultural, separated, and marginal
The correct answer is A.
Phinney and Devich-Navarro (1997) proposed a model of acculturation that included six categories of acculturation: assimilated, fused, blended bicultural, alternating bicultural, separated, and marginal.
Answer B: Alternating multicultural is not one of the six categories.
Answer C: Accommodated is not one of the six categories.
Answer D: Blended bicultural is missing from this list, making it incorrect.
Adequate “floor” is especially important when a test will be used to:
Select one:
A.
make intra-individual comparisons
B.
confirm a diagnosis of Intellectual Disability
C.
assign students to advanced placement classes
D.
evaluate the readiness of employees for promotion
The correct answer is B.
In the context of testing, “floor” refers to the test’s ability to discriminate among examinees at the low end of the score range. To make a diagnosis of Intellectual Disability and distinguish between different levels of severity, you have to be able to discriminate among individuals with low intelligence. This requires adequate “floor” - i.e., the test has to have enough easy items to distinguish between people with different levels of low intelligence.
Answer A: Adequate floor has no relevance for intra-individual assessment.
Answer C: Adequate floor is not essential when performing advanced placement testing.
Answer D: Adequate floor has little relevance for employee readiness assessment.
A person with associative visual agnosia:
Select one:
A.
can name a familiar object she sees but does not know how to use it
B.
can name a familiar object spontaneously but not when she is asked to do so
C.
cannot name a familiar object she sees but may recognize it when it is placed in her hand and cannot copy or match a drawing of the object
D.
cannot name a familiar object she sees but may know what it is used for and can copy or match a drawing of the object
The correct answer is D.
The term visual agnosia refers to the inability to recognize familiar objects by sight. Associative and apperceptive visual agnosia are two types of visual agnosia that you want to be familiar with for the EPPP. This response describes associative visual agnosia, which occurs when visual and language areas become disconnected.
Answer A: This is not characteristic of visual agnosia.
Answer B: This does not describe associative visual agnosia.
Answer C: This response describes the condition known as apperceptive visual agnosia.
Use of multicomponent behavior therapy in conjunction with nicotine replacement therapy as an intervention for cigarette smoking:
Select one:
A.
is no better than nicotine replacement therapy alone
B.
is no better than behavior therapy alone
C.
is better than nicotine replacement therapy alone only for individuals who have developed tolerance for nicotine
D.
is better than nicotine replacement therapy alone, especially in terms of long-term effects
The correct answer is D.
There is some evidence that, in terms of short-term effects, a combined treatment does not have significant advantages over nicotine replacement therapy alone. However, in terms of long-term abstinence, the combined treatment is best. See R. C. Klesges, K. D. Ward, and M. DeBon, Smoking cessation: A successful behavioral/pharmacologic interface, Clinical Psychology Review, 16(6), 479-496, 1996.
Answers A & B: The use of these two therapies conjointly has been found more effective than either therapy alone.
Answer C: Administering these treatments conjointly has been found to be more effective regardless of the occurrence of nicotine tolerance.
Lee, Oh, & Mountcastle (1992) hold that indigenous healing practices share all of the following commonalities except:
Select one:
A.
a rejection of White cultural norms and healing practices
B.
a reliance on community and family networks to care for the disturbed individual
C.
integration of religious and spiritual practices
D.
incorporation of respected community healers
The correct answer is A.
Based on their review of 16 non-Western indigenous practices, Lee, Oh, and Mountcastle (1992) conclude that these practices share three characteristics: First, they rely on community and family networks to care for the disturbed individual. Second, the religious and spiritual practices of the community are integrated into the healing process. Third, the healing process is often conducted by a traditional healer or other respected member of the community. However, a rejection of White cultural norms is not inherently universal.
Answer B: Lee at el. found that one important commonality is the incorporation of community and family.
Answer C: Integrated spiritual practices was also found to be a unifying factor.
Answer D: Inclusion of local healers was found to be a third and final commonality.
The inability to repeat what one has just heard and to name familiar objects without a loss of comprehension is characteristic of which of the following?
Select one:
A.
Broca’s and Wernicke’s aphasia
B.
Wernicke’s aphasia
C.
Conduction aphasia
D.
Anomic aphasia
The correct answer is C.
The aphasias all involve a disruption in language. Conduction aphasia is narrower in terms of symptoms than Broca’s aphasia and Wernicke’s aphasia. It is the result of damage to the arcuate fasciculus which connects Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas and involves the symptoms listed in the question.
Answer A: Broca’s aphasia involves difficulty in producing speech, while Wernicke’s aphasia involves impaired comprehension with fluent aphasia.
Answer B: Wernicke’s aphasia is characterized by impairment in comprehension and fluent aphasia.
Answer D: Anomic aphasia is characterized by impairments in the ability to retrieve and label semantic concepts.
_________________ is based on the assumption that illness can arise from either natural or supernatural forces that affect physical, emotional, and/or spiritual functioning.
Select one:
A.
Ho’oponopono
B.
Ataque de Nervios
C.
Marianismo
D.
Curanderismo
The correct answer is D.
Curanderismo is a holistic system of healing that is practiced in some Latin American countries and Hispanic American communities in the United States. It is based on the assumption that illness can arise from either natural or supernatural forces that affect physical, emotional, and/or spiritual functioning.
Answer A: Ho’oponopono is a traditional Hawaiian spiritual healing ritual for restoring harmony among family members by resolving a current conflict or other interpersonal problem.
Answer B: This is a specific culture-bound syndrome.
Answer C: This term refers to a traditional feminine gender role common in some Latino cultures.
Conceptual incarceration involves:
Select one:
A.
polarizing oneself into “good” and “bad” components
B.
mentally imprisoning oneself
C.
adopting a White, Anglo-Saxon Protestant worldview and lifestyle
D.
concealing anger or other unacceptable feelings by acting composed and calm
The correct answer is C.
Landrum and Batts (1985) hold that one of the many impacts of racial oppression may be the development of conceptual incarceration which involves the adoption of a White, Anglo-Saxon Protestant worldview and lifestyle.
Answer A: This partially defines the split-self syndrome.
Answer B: This does not describe conceptual incarceration.
Answer D: This describes playing it cool.
When treating a patient with Delirium, a priority is to identify and then treat or remove its cause. In addition, it is important to:
Select one:
A.
make sure that the patient is provided with adequate stimulation
B.
keep the patient in a quiet room where he/she can be monitored by a family or staff member
C.
administer a neuroleptic to reduce the patient’s disorientation and agitation
D.
make sure family members and friends visit regularly
The correct answer is B.
Delirium is characterized by disorientation and confusion, so an important goal is to provide an environment that decreases disorientation. For example, it is important to reduce distractions and to provide a quiet, well-lit room and constant monitoring.
Answer A: Although “adequate stimulation” could be taken to mean stimulation that is appropriate for a disoriented state, this response is not the best answer as it is too vague.
Answer C: Neuroleptics may or may not be appropriate, depending on the cause of the Delirium.
Answer D: With a delirious patient, you want to provide a consistent environment, so regular visits by different people would probably be contraindicated.
A group therapy member is typically providing advice when other members of the group speak up. Which stage of the group process is this member MOST likely in?
Select one:
A.
third stage
B.
first stage
C.
second stage
D.
there are no stages to the group process
The correct answer is B.
According to Yalom, the first stage of group therapy is characterized by attempts to determine the group’s structure and meaning; a stereotyped, restricted, and rational communication style; a search for similarities among group members; and advice seeking and giving.
Answer A: During the third stage, group cohesiveness develops. As a result, unity, intimacy, and closeness become the chief concerns; trust and self-disclosure increase; attendance improves, and members show concern whenever a member is absent.
Answer C: In the second stage, “each member attempts to establish his or her preferred amount of initiative and power; and gradually a control hierarchy, a social pecking order, emerges” (p. 304). Advice giving is replaced by criticism, judgmental statements, and other negative comments.
Answer D: In his book, The Theory and Practice of Group Psychotherapy, Irvin Yalom (1985) describes the first few months of group therapy as involving three formative stages.
Research on “gendered environments” suggests that, in the classroom:
Select one:
A.
boys have more interactions with teachers and tend to receive more feedback and praise
B.
girls have more interactions with teachers and tend to receive more feedback and praise
C.
boys get more praise from teachers, while girls receive more criticism
D.
boys get more criticism from teachers, while girls receive more praise and assistance
The correct answer is A.
The research on teacher behaviors is inconsistent and difficult to summarize. However early studies as well as more recent ones do seem to suggest that teachers respond differently to male and female students. Of the responses given, this is the best summary of the research. Males receive more attention from teachers and that attention often fosters better academic achievement.
Answer B: The opposite is true.
Answers C & D: The general consensus of research has not substantiated these statements.
A young man has just received a diagnosis of Narcissistic Personality Disorder. You can expect that he will display which of the following?
Select one:
A.
Rapidly changing and shallow expression of emotions
B.
Instability in self-image, interpersonal relationships, and mood
C.
Grandiose behavior and a lack of empathy
D.
Excessive emotionality and attention seeking
The correct answer is C.
Narcissistic Personality Disorder involves a pervasive pattern of grandiosity, a need for admiration, and a lack of empathy.
Answer A: Rapidly changing and shallow expression of emotions are characteristic of Histrionic Personality Disorder.
Answer B: Instability in self-image, interpersonal relationships, and mood are characteristic of Borderline Personality Disorder.
Answer D: Excessive emotionality and attention seeking are characteristic of Histrionic Personality Disorder.
When treating an 8-year old child who doesn’t like going to bed at night because he’s afraid of the dark, which of the following interventions would Graziano and Mooney (1984) recommend?
Select one:
A.
A social skills technique that relies on modeling with guided participation and behavioral rehearsal
B.
A cognitive self-control technique that incorporates visual imagery and positive self-statements
C.
A behavioral technique that includes flooding (in vivo exposure with response prevention)
D.
A behavioral technique that includes systematic desensitization
The correct answer is B.
In general, behavioral and cognitive-behavioral techniques have been found most effective for alleviating phobias in both children and adults. Unfortunately, knowing this doesn’t help with this question since all of the techniques listed fall into this category. Considering the boy’s age may have helped you eliminate at least two of the answers (c and d). This technique has been described by A. M. Graziano and K. C. Mooney (Children and Behavior Therapy, New York, Aldine, 1984), who found it to be an effective treatment for children who fear the dark. Cognitive self-control involves several steps: At bedtime, the child first relaxes, then visualizes a pleasant scene, and then makes self-statements such as “I am brave. I can take care of myself in the dark.” This technique is considered a self-control technique since it is administered by the child him/herself (although the parents are also involved in reminding the child to use the technique and in monitoring the child’s progress).
Answer A: Participant modeling has been found to be more useful for childhood phobias involving animals and dental and medical procedures.
Answer C: The use of flooding with children is controversial and is not considered a treatment-of-choice by most authorities.
Answer D: Systematic desensitization has generally not been found to be particularly effective with children (see Graziano and Mooney for a review of the literature).
As it relates to the prevalence of psychiatric disorders across Latino subgroups in the United States, Algeria et al. (2007) found:
Select one:
A.
increased rates of psychiatric disorders among US-born, English-language-proficient, and third-generation Latinos
B.
decreased rates of psychiatric disorders among US-born, English-language-proficient, and third-generation Latinos
C.
increased rates of psychiatric disorders among first-generation, spanish-speaking Latino immigrants
D.
decreased rates of psychiatric disorders among English-language-proficent Latino immigrants
The correct answer is A.
Alegria et al. (2007) conducted a national study examining the prevalence of psychiatric disorders across Latino subgroups in the United States. These researchers found that stressors associated with cultural transmutation led to increased rates of psychiatric disorders among US-born, English-language-proficient, and third-generation Latinos. [Alegra M, Mulvaney-Day N, Torres M, Polo A, Cao Z, Canino G. Prevalence of psychiatric disorders across Latino subgroups in the United States. Am J Public Health. 2007 Jan;97(1):68-75. doi: 10.2105/AJPH.2006.087205. Epub 2006 Nov 30.]
Answer B: The opposite is true.
Answer C: Increased rates were found among third-generation, english-speaking Latino immigrants.
Answer D: Increased rates of psychiatric disorders were observed among this population.
The primary purpose of “informed consent” is best defined as:
Select one:
A.
providing a client with the information needed to make a reasonable decision about the services offered
B.
providing a client with information about the particular situations in which confidentiality may be breached
C.
ensuring that a client is provided with appropriate and adequate services
D.
protecting the practitioner from malpractice claims
The correct answer is A.
An informed consent should be obtained prior to providing psychological services to an individual and prior to a subject’s participation in research. This question is pretty straightforward. The goal of an informed consent is to protect the recipient of psychological services (or subjects in research studies) by providing them with the information they need to make an informed decision about whether or not to participate.
Answer B: Detailing the limitations of confidentiality is only one part of informed consent.
Answer C: This does not define the purpose of informed consent.
Answer D: This is arguably the least important purpose of informed consent, the most important being protecting client welfare.
Which of the following therapies is characterized by the dual goals of helping clients take responsibility for and experience the natural consequences of their actions?
Select one:
A.
Transactional analysis
B.
Individual psychology
C.
Personal construct therapy
D.
Reality therapy
The correct answer is D.
The term “responsibility” is a key one in this question and may have helped you identify the correct response. According to Glasser, a “success identity” results when one takes responsibility for fulfilling one’s own needs and does so in ways that do not interfere with the ability of others to do the same thing.
Answer A: The ultimate goal of transactional analysis is to promote client autonomy.
Answer B: The goal of Adler’s individual psychology is to help clients develop a more adaptive style of life.
Answer C: The goal of Kelly’s personal construct therapy is to help clients identify and revise or replace maladaptive personal constructs so that they are better able to “make sense” of their experiences.
“Multicollinearity” could be expected to:
Select one:
A.
cause the values of the regression coefficients to vary substantially from sample to sample
B.
cause the multiple correlation coefficient to vary substantially from sample to sample
C.
increase as the number of dependent variables decreases
D.
decrease as the correlation between independent variables increases
The correct answer is A.
Multicollinearity occurs when predictors in a multiple regression equation correlate highly with one another. When predictors are correlated and the predictors and criterion are administered to different samples and new regression coefficients (beta weights) are derived for each sample, there tends to be a great deal of fluctuation in the size of the weights. (It isn’t necessary for you to understand why this is so for the exam – just know that it is!)
Answer B: The actual relationship between the predictors and criterion shouldn’t change much from sample to sample as the result of multicollinearity, so the multiple correlation coefficient won’t change substantially.
Answer C: You may have been able to eliminate this response because it doesn’t really make any sense.
Answer D: By definition, multicollinearity INCREASES as the correlation between predictors increases.
Dr. Jenkins had been working with a client who died by suicide three days after her last therapy appointment. The client’s family is suing Dr. Jenkins for malpractice. In order for the court to find Dr. Jenkins has been negligent, the family’s attorney must prove ________________.
Select one:
A.
Dr. Jenkins’s reckless disregard caused the suicide
B.
Dr. Jenkins’s gross incompetence caused the suicide
C.
Dr. Jenkins’s callous disregard caused the suicide
D.
Dr. Jenkins’s breach of duty caused the suicide
The correct answer is D.
In order to prove negligence, a court must determine that the psychologist’s breach of duty was the proximate cause of the person’s harm or injury.
Answer A: Malpractice does not require reckless disregard.
Answer B: Malpractice does not require gross incompetence.
Answer C: Malpractice does not require callous disregard.
Jessica Perkins completed her Ph.D. in clinical psychology and has started a post-doc position in a university counseling center where she is accumulating supervised hours enabling her to sit for the EPPP and her state jurisprudence exam. When Jessica meets with a new client she should ___________.
Select one:
A.
provide the name and contact information for her supervisor
B.
not introduce herself as “Dr. Perkins”
C.
explain what a postdoc entails and how it differs from an internship
D.
record her sessions so her supervisor can provide feedback
The correct answer is A.
Many states require supervised hours beyond the doctoral degree in order for trainees to become licensed. Because Dr. Perkins is under supervision as she accumulates hours toward licensure, she should provide her clients with the name and contact information of her supervisor.
Answer B: If Jessica has obtained her Ph.D. in clinical psychology she may ask her clients to use that title, but she should also explain her status as an unlicensed professional who is under supervision.
Answer C: This is not necessary.
Answer D: While recording her sessions is a good idea provided she has her clients’ informed consent, recording is not required by the APA’s Ethics Code.
Dr. Winters is a clinical psychologist with a private practice who is hired by a university to teach a graduate course. In terms of her ethical obligation, Dr. Winters is required to do which of the following?
Select one:
A.
Ensure that there are multiple means by which to evaluate students
B.
Ensure that the course content reflects the most recent research in the area
C.
Ensure that accurate information about the course is available to all interested parties
D.
Ensure that the seminar content is consistent with the interests and needs of the students
The correct answer is C.
Ethical Standard 7.02 of the Ethics Code addresses this issue. It states, “Psychologists…take reasonable steps to ensure that there is a current and accurate description of the program content…training goals and objectives, stipends and benefits, and requirements that must be met for satisfactory completion….”
Answer A: This answer is incorrect. While this is generally a good idea, it is not explicitly required by the Code.
Answer B: This answer is incorrect as there would be times when it would not apply, such as when the seminar is covering the history of psychology.
Answer D: This answer is incorrect. Although student interests and needs are a consideration when defining course content, they are not the only consideration, and this action is not explicitly required by the Code.
You have been working with Justine as a client for three months. She tells you suddenly that this will be her last session. You believe this is not a good time for Justine to stop therapy and are concerned about the implications of her decision. You should _________________________________.
Select one:
A.
discuss with her the reasons you believe she should continue and recommend that she reconsider her decision
B.
allow the client to terminate
C.
offer the client with three or more referrals
D.
inform Jessica that you are not responsible for any negative repercussions associated with terminating prematurely
The correct answer is A.
This is the best response of those given. In this situation, the psychologist would want to discuss the possible risks of terminating therapy at this time and encourage the client to reconsider her decision.
Answer B: Obviously, a client has a right to discontinue treatment. This creates an ethical dilemma, however, when the psychologist believes that termination is ill-advised.
Answer C: Although the action described in this response would also be important, it should follow a discussion about the possible consequences of leaving.
Answer D: Discussing the risks of terminating therapy at this time and documenting that conversation is the more appropriate decision.
According to HIPAA regulations, psychotherapy notes are ____________.
Select one:
A.
required to obtain payment from insurance companies
B.
part of the clinical record that must be released to the client upon request
C.
kept separate from documentation required to provide treatment
D.
relevant to HIPAA only if they are released in an electronic form
The correct answer is C.
Under HIPAA, psychotherapy notes that document or analyze conversations in therapy are kept separate from other patient documentation. Psychologists may choose whether or not to release psychotherapy notes to a client unless state law requires it. See the study manual for more information on how HIPAA views psychotherapy notes.
Answer A: This answer is incorrect. Psychotherapy notes are kept separately from information needed to bill insurance.
Answer B: Psychotherapy notes are not considered part of the clinical record that is released to clients, unless state law requires it.
Answer D: This answer does not accurately describe the role and function of psychotherapy notes under HIPAA.
According to the APA Publication Manual, which of the following should be used in referring to a client?
Select one:
A.
A wheelchair bound woman
B.
A wheelchair bound female
C.
A female who uses a wheelchair
D.
A woman who uses a wheelchair
The correct answer is D.
The Publication Manual offers specific recommendations for avoiding bias in language. Saying “a woman who uses a wheelchair” places the person first and correctly uses “woman” rather than “female” as a noun. See the Study Guide for additional information on this topic.
Answer A: This answer is incorrect, because it does not use person first language.
Answer B: This answer does not use person first language, and it uses “female” as a noun rather than as an adjective.
Answer C: While this answer uses person first language, it is incorrect because it refers to a woman as a female.
Dr. Chen’s new client mentions she is seeing another therapist on Tuesdays but would like to work with Dr. Chen on Thursdays to help her “get through the week.” Dr. Chen should _________________.
Select one:
A.
require the client to sign a release so Dr. Chen can talk with the other therapist
B.
tell the client she is unable to work with her since she is already seeing another therapist
C.
tell the client she will need to terminate her treatment with the other therapist before Dr. Chen can work with her on a regular basis
D.
discuss the issue further with the client
The correct answer is D.
Standard 10.04 states that “in deciding whether to offer or provide services to those already receiving mental health services elsewhere, psychologists carefully consider the treatment issues and the potential client’s/patient’s welfare. Psychologists discuss these issues with the client patient…and proceed with caution.”
Answer A: While it is a good idea to have the client sign a release so Dr. Chen could consult with the other therapist, this answer does not reflect what is required by the ethics code.
Answer B: The ethics code does not state this.
Answer C: This answer does not align with the language in the APA’s Ethics Code.
According to the APA’s Ethics Code, if a client does not pay a psychologist for services as agreed, the psychologist _________.
Select one:
A.
should write off the uncollected fees, as collecting them will be more expensive to the client and the therapist
B.
should write off the uncollected fees, as collecting them may be exploitative to the client
C.
must inform the client that a collection agency will be used to collect the fees
D.
must obtain a client’s permission before using a collection agency to collect the fees
The correct answer is C.
Standard 6.04 states that “if the recipient of services does not pay for services as agreed, and if psychologists intend to use collection agencies or legal measures to collect the fees, psychologists first inform the person that such measures will be taken and provide that person the opportunity to make prompt payment.”
Answer A: While a psychologist may opt to simply write off the unpaid fees, this answer does not address the language used in the APA’s Ethics Code.
Answer B: The Ethics Code does not recommend this action.
Answer D: The psychologist is not required to obtain the client’s permission to use a collection agency.
The APA’s Ethics Code allows barter when:
Select one:
A.
it is not clinically contraindicated
B.
it is not exploitative or clinically contraindicated
C.
only in communities where barter for services is a common practice
D.
only in communities where barter for services is a common practice and it is not exploitative or clinically contraindicated
The correct answer is B.
Standard 6.05 states that “psychologists may engage in barter for their services only when (1) it is not clinically contraindicated, and (2) the resulting arrangement is not exploitative.”
Answer A: This answer is incomplete because it does not include the second condition under which psychologists may engage in barter.
Answer C: This answer is not part of the conditions included in the APA’s Ethics Code.
Answer D: The APA’s Ethics Code does not include a provision related to communities where barter is a common practice.
Dr. Garland has been working with a client, Patricia, for six months. Patricia initially began treatment with Dr. Garland for help in coping with a breakup with her significant other. Patricia is doing well and does not appear to be gaining additional benefits from therapy. What is Dr. Garland’s ethical responsibility in this case?
Select one:
A.
Dr. Garland should continue providing services to Patricia until she voices she is ready to terminate.
B.
Dr. Garland should point out other problematic areas Patricia should examine in their therapy.
C.
Dr. Garland should move toward termination with Patricia.
D.
The Ethics Code does not address this issue directly, but psychologists should examine the General Guidelines for Providers of Psychological Services for help in making a decision.
The correct answer is C.
Standard 10.10 requires psychologists to “terminate therapy when it becomes reasonably clear that the client/patient no longer needs the service, is not likely to benefit or is being harmed by continued service.”
Answer A: In the event that it is “reasonably clear” a client is not benefiting from further treatment, a psychologist should move toward termination.
Answer B: If the client is doing well, and seems to have resolved their concerns, the Ethics Code advises psychologists to move toward termination rather than looking for additional concerns that might come under the purview of treatment.
Answer D: This answer is incorrect. The Ethics Code provides clear guidance on this issue.
Dr. French would like to have 6th grade students in a local middle school complete a survey related to her research. Dr. French needs to __________.
Select one:
A.
obtain informed consent from the students
B.
obtain informed consent from the school administrators
C.
obtain assent from the students
D.
obtain assent from the students’ parents
The correct answer is C.
Standard 3.10 notes that when psychologists conduct research they obtain informed consent. However, “for persons who are legally incapable of giving informed consent, psychologists…seek the individual’s assent…and obtain appropriate permission from a legally authorized person.” In this case, students can provide assent, and parents should provide consent or permission for their child to participate.
Answer A: Because the students are not legally authorized to consent, they may provide their assent.
Answer B: School personnel are not legally authorized to provide permission on the students’ behalf.
Answer D: This answer is incorrect, because while parents need to provide permission for their children to participate, the term “assent” refers specifically to the actions of individuals who are legally incapable for giving informed consent.
In teaching a psychology graduate course in ethics, one of Dr. Frank’s students asks what is the best way to predict whether a therapist will have a sexual relationship with a client. Dr. Frank should reply that ____________.
Select one:
A.
it is impossible to answer this question
B.
research results suggest therapists of particular theoretical orientations are more likely to have sex with their clients
C.
male therapists are at higher risk than female therapists
D.
inexperienced therapists are at higher risk than experienced therapists
The correct answer is C.
Pope et al.’s (1993) study found that male therapists were more likely to engage in sexual relationships with their clients than female therapists.
Answer A: Pope et al.’s (1993) work in this area is often quoted as a means of shedding some light on this question.
Answer B: There has been no relationship established between theoretical orientation and a therapist’s likelihood of engaging in a sexual relationship with a client.
Answer D: There has been no relationship established between a therapist’s level of experience and the likelihood of engaging in a sexual relationship with a client.
Dr. Anderson is a new psychologist hired to work in a university counseling center. At orientation, he meets a psychology intern who is also new to the site. Dr. Anderson is close in age to the student and finds himself attracted to her. If Dr. Anderson decides to pursue an intimate relationship with the student, he will be acting ___________.
Select one:
A.
ethically as long as he does not supervise her client caseload
B.
ethically, provided he communicates with the administrators of the counseling center about his intentions
C.
unethically
D.
unethically, because he could be accused of sexual harassment
The correct answer is C.
Standard 7.07 states that “psychologists do not engage in sexual relationships with students or supervisees who are in their department, agency, or training center or over whom psychologists have or are likely to have evaluative authority.”
Answer A: This answer fails to account for the other ways in which the psychologist might oversee the student’s work, including through routine performance evaluations, training seminars, and outreach to the community.
Answer B: The APA’s Ethics Code does not indicate that exceptions are granted provided administrators are aware of the situation.
Answer D: This answer is incorrect, because while it may be true he could be accused of sexual harassment, that is not the reason becoming sexually involved with the student is unethical.
The EPPP is helpful as a measure of psychologists’ ________.
Select one:
A.
competence
B.
knowledge
C.
training
D.
reasoning ability
The correct answer is B.
The EPPP is designed to assist boards “in their evaluation fo the qualifications of applicants for licensure and certification” by assessing “the knowledge that the most recent practice analysis has determined as foundational to the competent practice of psychology” (ASPPB, 2010).
Answer A: The EPPP is an assessment of knowledge, and while knowledge is a component of competence, this answer is less accurate than the answer that states the test evaluates knowledge.
Answer C: The EPPP does not evaluate training.
Answer D: While reasoning is involved in responding to answers on the EPPP, the test is designed as an assessment of knowledge.
Dr. Wallice’s new client tells him she had a sexual relationship with her former therapist. Dr. Wallace should _______________.
Select one:
A.
attempt to resolve the issue with the previous therapist
B.
attempt to resolve the issue with the previous therapist if he can do so without violating the client’s confidentiality
C.
formally report the ethics violation
D.
formally report the ethics violation, without violating the client’s confidentiality
The correct answer is D.
While the APA’s Ethics Code encourages psychologists to resolve ethical violations informally, when “informal resolution appears appropriate,” when the violation involves “substantial harm” and is not appropriate for an informal resolution, filing an official complaint is warranted. Sexual misconduct is an offense that involves “substantial harm.” Importantly, client confidentiality takes precedence over the need to educate or punish an offending psychologist.
Answer A: This answer is incorrect, because sexual misconduct is considered an offense that involves “substantial harm.”
Answer B: Even though this answer acknowledges the need to protect client confidentiality, it is incorrect because of the severity of the offense.
Answer C: This answer is incorrect, because it fails to account for the need to protect the client’s confidentiality.
Dr. Smith’s state licensing board contacts her to prove that she has obtained her annual continuing education hours. Because Dr. Smith has moved, she does not receive their letters. The state licensing board files an ethics complaint with APA. If Dr. Smith does not respond to APA’s Ethics Committee, she is _________.
Select one:
A.
in violation of the law
B.
in violation of her ethical responsibility
C.
in violation of both the law and her ethical responsibility
D.
in violation of neither the law nor her ethical responsibility provided she completed her required continuing education hours
The correct answer is B.
Standard 1.06 states “Psychologists cooperate in ethics investigations, proceedings, and resulting requirements of the APA or any affiliated state psychological association to which they belong….Failure to cooperate is itself an ethics violation.”
Answer A: If Dr. Smith does not respond to APA’s Ethics Committee inquiry, she is in violation of her ethical responsibility rather than a legal responsibility.
Answer C: This answer is incorrect. The question is asking about Dr. Smith’s failure to respond to APA’s Ethics Board. This is an ethical problem, rather than a legal one.
Answer D: This answer is incorrect. The central concern of this question has to do with Dr. Smith’s responding to the APA Ethical Committee’s inquiry. Psychologists are required to respond per Standard 1.06.
You are hired by a defense attorney as a consultant in a criminal case. You subsequently receive a subpoena from the prosecuting attorney, requesting that you serve as a fact witness at a deposition. You should ____________.
Select one:
A.
refuse to act as a fact witness because doing so would involve you in a “multiple relationship”
B.
get permission from the defense attorney before appearing at the deposition
C.
clarify the expectations of both attorneys with regard to your roles before appearing at the deposition
D.
appear at the deposition but refuse to provide any information without a court order
The correct answer is C.
This issue is addressed in Standard 3.05(c) of the APA’s Ethics Code and Principle I.26 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 3.05(c) recommends that psychologists avoid multiple relationships. However, it also states that, when psychologists are “to serve in more than one role in judicial or administrative proceedings, at the outset they clarify role expectations and the extent of confidentiality and thereafter as changes occur.” In other words, it is acceptable to adopt dual roles in some situations. The acceptability of dual roles in legal proceedings when one role is a fact witness is addressed in the “Guidelines for Child Custody Evaluations in Divorce Proceedings.”
Answer A: While psychologists want to avoid multiple relationships when possible, it is important to understand the exceptions to this general rule.
Answer B: This answer is incorrect. Rather than seeking permission, the psychologist should clarify role expectations with the parties involved.
Answer D: This answer is incorrect. See the explanation for Answer C.
If a psychologist loses his or her professional license as a result of misconduct, APA may ______.
Select one:
A.
not take further action given a psychologist cannot be subjected to “double jeopardy”
B.
take action against that psychologist if she or he is a member of APA
C.
take action against that psychologist whether or not she or he is a member of APA
D.
not take further action unless the psychologist, whether a member or nonmember, is granted an in-person hearing
The correct answer is B.
The APA’s Ethics Code specifies the APA may take action against a member after “his or her conviction of a felony, expulsion or suspension from an affiliated state psychological association, or suspension or loss of licensure.”
Answer A: This answer is incorrect. “Double jeopardy” does not apply.
Answer C: The APA does not take action against psychologists who are not members.
Answer D: This answer is incorrect. “…the 2001 Rules and Procedures do not guarantee an opportunity for an in-person hearing” when the sanction is less than expulsion, however, this answer is incorrect because it includes nonmembers of APA.
The General Principles are aspirational in nature meaning that they are ________.
Select one:
A.
designed to guide psychologists with broadly phrased ideals
B.
principles that define right and wrong behavior on the part of psychologists
C.
ethical principles with explicit interpretations
D.
often used as a basis for imposing sanctions
The correct answer is A.
The General Principles, as opposed to Ethical Standards, “…guide and inspire psychologists toward the very highest ethical ideals of the profession.”
Answer B: The General Principles do not define right and wrong behavior.
Answer C: This answer is incorrect. The General Principles are vague and overarching rather than explicit in their meaning.
Answer D: The General Principles should not be used as a basis for imposing sanctions.
The APA’s Ethics Code violations may be enforced by ____________.
Select one:
A.
the APA Ethics Committee only
B.
the aspirational principles
C.
Standards of Practice
D.
other professional groups and licensing boards
The correct answer is D.
The Introduction and Applicability section of the APA’s Ethics Code states “Actions that violate the standards of the Ethics Code may also lead to the imposition of sanctions on psychologists or students whether or not they are APA members by bodies other than APA, including state psychological associations, other professional groups, psychology boards, other state or federal agencies, and payors for health services.”
Answer A: The APA Ethics Committee is not the only entity who may issue sanctions based on violating the ethical responsibilities described in the Ethics Code.
Answer B: This answer is incorrect. The aspirational principles are broad statements intended to inspire psychologists to the highest principles. They are not applicable to this question.
Answer C: Standards of Practice are not applicable to this question.
Dr. Freeman works for a community mental health center that requires her to see 8 clients each day. Dr. Freeman believes this heavy case load compromises her ability to focus on her clients and to meet their needs. Dr. Freeman should _______.
Select one:
A.
file an ethics complaint against her employer with APA
B.
file an ethics complaint against her employer with the state licensing board
C.
make known her commitment to the Ethics Code
D.
strive to do her best clinical work in spite of the challenging demands of the job
The correct answer is C.
Standard 1.03 states “If the demands of an organization with which psychologists are affiliated or for whom they are working are in conflict with the Ethics Code, psychologists clarify the nature of the conflict, make known their commitment to the Ethics Code, and take reasonable steps to resolve the conflict….”
Answer A: Unless the administrator is a member of APA, the Ethics Committee will not act on the complaint. Even if her supervisor is a member, however, Dr. Freeman should take other steps first to attempt to resolve the issue.
Answer B: If the administrator is a licensed professional, it is possible the board may hear the complaint, but again, it would be better for Dr. Freeman to take some initial steps first.
Answer D: This answer fails to account for the fact that psychologists have a responsibility to confront policies that are in conflict with their ethical responsibilities.
Dr. Godfrey is currently divorcing her husband. The proceedings have been stressful while she has been managing a full client load. Dr. Godfrey should _______________.
Select one:
A.
refer her clients to other practitioners until her divorce is resolved
B.
secure a different job that is less demanding of her personal resources
C.
seek consultation and possibly cut back on her practice
D.
explain her situation to her clients and let them decide what they want to do
The correct answer is C.
This answer closely aligns with Standard 2.06 which states, “When psychologists become aware of personal problems that may interfere with their performing work-related duties adequately, they take appropriate measures, such as obtaining professional consultation or assistance, and determine whether they should limit, suspend, or terminate their work-related duties.”
Answer A: Dr. Godfrey might decide to refer some or even all of her clients, but this would not be her first course of action.
Answer B: Again, Dr. Godfrey may ultimately decide to find another job, but this answer does not track well with the APA’s Ethics Code.
Answer D: This answer is incorrect. Dr. Godfrey has a professional responsibility to decide what is in the best interest of her clients in terms of their treatment.
Which of the following is not true regarding informed consent?
Select one:
A.
It should be documented.
B.
It does not apply to people who are incapable of giving informed consent.
C.
It is necessary when an experimental treatment is given as part of a research study.
D.
It should include information about confidentiality.
The correct answer is B.
Note that this question asks which statement is NOT true. Standard 3.10 states “For persons who are legally incapable of giving informed consent, psychologists nevertheless (1) provide an appropriate explanation, (2) seek the individual’s assent, (3) consider such persons’ preferences and best interests, and (4) obtain appropriate permission from a legally authorized person.”
Answer A: Informed consent should be documented according to Standard 3.10.
Answer C: Informed consent is required in most research studies where participants are involved and always when an experimental treatment is administered.
Answer D: Standard 3.10 specifies that informed consent should include information about confidentiality.
Dr. Peterson wants to encourage her students to participate in research studies as participants, because she views that experience as central to their experience as psychology majors. Dr. Peterson decides to require her students to sign up to participate in the psychology department subject pool. Dr. Peterson is behaving _______.
Select one:
A.
ethically, because participation is part of students’ educational experience
B.
ethically, only if the experiments do not cause harm or distress
C.
unethically unless she offers them extra credit for their time
D.
unethically unless she provides a comparable alternative option
The correct answer is D.
Standard 8.04 states that when participation in research is required for a course (whether part of a grade or for extra credit), students must be offered alternative activities.
Answer A: Instructors must provide students with an alternative and comparable means by which to obtain credit.
Answer B: This answer fails to account for the central concern of this question, which is that instructors provide an alternative means of obtaining credit.
Answer C: This answer is incorrect. Extra credit is permissible, provided students have an alternative way to earn it besides through participating in research.
Sexual harassment ____________________________________.
Select one:
A.
is explicitly prohibited by ethical guidelines
B.
is not explicitly prohibited by ethical guidelines but is implicitly prohibited by standards limiting multiple relationships
C.
is not explicitly prohibited by ethical guidelines but is implicitly prohibited by standards limiting sexual intimacies
D.
is not explicitly prohibited by ethical guidelines but is implicitly prohibited by standards requiring avoidance of harm
The correct answer is A.
Sexual harassment is explicitly addressed by Standard 3.02 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Principle I.4 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 3.02 of the Ethics Code states that “psychologists do not engage in sexual harassment”; and Principle I.4 of the Canadian Code of Ethics states that psychologists “abstain from all forms of harassment, including sexual harassment.”
Answer B: This answer is incorrect. Sexual harassment is explicitly addressed in the codes.
Answer C: This answer is incorrect as sexual harassment is explicitly prohibited in the ethics codes.
Answer D: This answer is incorrect. The ethics codes prohibit sexual harassment explicitly.
Which of the following best describes ethical requirements regarding sexual intimacies with supervisees?
Select one:
A.
Ethical guidelines do not prohibit sexual relationships with supervisees.
B.
Ethical guidelines prohibit sexual relationships with supervisees under any circumstances.
C.
Ethical guidelines prohibit sexual relationships with current supervisees only when the relationship will impair the psychologist’s objectivity and effectiveness as a supervisor.
D.
Ethical guidelines prohibit sexual relationships with supervisees over whom the psychologist has evaluative authority.
The correct answer is D.
Being familiar with the exact language of the ethical guidelines would have allowed you to identify the correct response to this question. Standard 7.07 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Principle II.28 of the Canadian Code of Ethics prohibit psychologists from becoming involved in sexual relationships with students and supervisees over whom they have evaluative authority.
Answer A: Is incorrect, because ethics codes prohibit sexual intimacies with supervisees when there is an evaluative relationship.
Answer B: This answer is incorrect as the language specifies that supervisors who have an evaluative role with supervisees should not engage in sexual intimacies.
Answer C: This answer is incorrect. Supervisors are prohibited from having sexual intimacies with their supervisees when they are in an evaluative role.
A researcher is studying the ability of college students to remember lists of related word pairs (e.g., dog-cat, chair-table). Prior to studying the to-be-remembered list of word pairs, the experimental group is presented with a list of opposite word pairs such as tall-short, while the control group completes multiplication problems. What results should the researcher expect when the two groups are subsequently asked to recall the word pairs?
Select one:
A.
Due to retroactive interference, the control group will recall more word pairs
B.
Due to retroactive interference, the experimental group will recall more word pairs
C.
Due to proactive interference, the experimental group will recall fewer word pairs
D.
Due to proactive interference, the control group will recall fewer word pairs
The correct answer is C.
This question describes a standard proactive interference study. During the first phase, the experimental group is presented with a list of word pairs (e.g., tall-short) and the control group engages in an unrelated arithmetic task. During the second phase, the experimental and control groups both study the to-be-remembered word pairs (e.g., dog-cat). During the third phase, participants in both groups are asked to recall the word pairs. For the experimental group, the two tasks are similar, and the first list of word pairs interferes with the ability to learn or recall the second list. This is referred to as proactive interference. For the control group, the two tasks are dissimilar, and there is less interference. Consequently, the control group will remember more words than the experimental group.
Answer A: It is not true that due to retroactive interference, the control group will recall more word pairs. See explanation for answer C.
Answer B: It is not true that due to retroactive interference, the experimental group will recall more word pairs. See explanation for answer C.
Answer D: It is not true that due to proactive interference, the control group will recall fewer word pairs. See explanation for answer C.
At age 8, a girl receives a WISC FSIQ score of 144. When she is retested at age 12, she obtains a score of 138. Which of the following best accounts for this decline in her IQ score?
Select one:
A.
Demand characteristics
B.
Cohort effects
C.
Normal aging effects
D.
Statistical regression
The correct answer is D.
Statistical regression refers to the tendency of extreme scores to regress toward the mean on retesting and may threaten a study’s internal validity whenever participants are chosen on the basis of their extreme scores on a pretest. Although statistical regression is typically used in the context of scores obtained by a group of examinees (rather than an individual examinee), of the answers given, it is the best choice.
Answer A: Demand characteristic refers to experimental participants forming an interpretation of the experiment’s purpose and then changing their behavior accordingly. See explanation for answer D.
Answer B: Cohort effect refers to variations in a study over time among subjects who share in common some type or time frame of experience. See explanation for answer D.
Answer C: Normal aging effects does not account for this decline in IQ score. See explanation for answer D.
The criminal justice system provides intervention at what level of prevention?
Select one:
A.
Primary
B.
Secondary
C.
Tertiary
D.
Quartiary
The correct answer is C.
Methods of prevention are classified based on the level of intervention. Primary prevention focuses on all members of an identified group. Secondary prevention targets specific individuals who are at high risk. Tertiary prevention intervenes after the incidence of the behavior. The criminal justice system intervenes after an individual engages in a criminal act.
Answer A: The criminal justice system provides intervention at the tertiary, not the primary, level of prevention. See explanation for answer C.
Answer B: The criminal justice system provides intervention at the tertiary, not the secondary, level of prevention. See explanation for answer C.
Answer D: The criminal justice system provides intervention at the tertiary, not the quartiary, level of prevention. See explanation for answer C.
A psychologist is hired to develop a community program for seniors that will focus on maintaining social contacts and reducing the risk of social isolation. This program is an example of which of the following?
Select one:
A.
Milestone prevention
B.
Primary prevention
C.
Secondary prevention
D.
Tertiary prevention
The correct answer is B.
In this situation, a program is being developed for a particular population rather than specific individuals from that population. Since this program is aimed at all seniors in the community, it is a primary prevention.
Answer A: Bloom (1968) distinguishes between community-wide, milestone, and high-risk preventions. Milestone programs are aimed at people experiencing a transition (e.g., retirement).
Answer C: A secondary prevention would be aimed at specific individuals who have been identified as being at high-risk. As originally defined, secondary prevention always involves some kind of screening process to identify individuals.
Answer D: A tertiary program is for people who have already suffered mental health problems. Its purpose is to reduce the risk for relapse or a continuation or worsening of the problem.
The view that depression is the result of exposure to an aversive event coupled with the tendency to attribute negative events to personal, global, and stable factors is consistent with:
Select one:
A.
the reformulated learned helplessness model
B.
the fundamental attribution bias
C.
the original aversive events model
D.
Rehm’s self-control model
The correct answer is A.
In the late 1970s, the learned helplessness model was expanded to include the role of attributions in the development of depression. (Note that, as described in the Abnormal Psychology chapter of the written study materials, the most recent version of the model places less emphasis on attributions and, instead, focuses on the role of hopelessness.)
Answer B: The fundamental attribution bias refers to the tendency to attribute the behavior of others to dispositional factors.
Answer C: The “original aversive events model” is a “made-up” term.
Answer D: Rehm’s self-control model views depression as being the result of problems
related to self-monitoring, self-evaluation, and self-reinforcement.
Dr. Staret is renting Dr. Tyro office space and providing him with secretarial services, and he charges Dr. Tyro on a “per patient” basis. Dr. Tyro will be receiving occasional referrals from Dr. Staret. This arrangement is:
Select one:
A.
unethical because it represents “fee-splitting”
B.
unethical because it represents a “multiple relationship”
C.
ethical as long as the per patient fee is based on Dr. Staret’s actual costs
D.
ethical as long as the per patient fee does not include a referral fee
The correct answer is C.
Although “fee-splitting” is not explicitly prohibited by the Ethics Code, certain restrictions apply when client fees will be shared. The per patient fee must reflect Dr. Staret’s actual costs and can include any costs involved in making a referral.
Answer A: This scenario does not involve “fee-splitting” but rather Dr. Staret’s actual costs. See explanation for response C.
Answer B: This scenario does not involve the issue of “multiple relationships.” See explanation for response C.
Answer D: A referral fee is acceptable as long as it represents the costs involved in making the referral (e.g., the time Dr. Staret spends preparing a client’s file or discussing the case with Dr. Tyro).
Universal symbols in the delusions and hallucinations of psychotic patients would be of most interest to:
Select one:
A.
Perls
B.
Sullivan
C.
Adler
D.
Jung
The correct answer is D.
The term “universal symbols” should have helped you recognize the correct answer to this question. Of the individuals listed, only Jung incorporates the notion of universal symbols into his work. When working with psychotic patients, Jung noticed a great deal of similarity in the content of their delusions and hallucinations, and this led to the development of his theory of archetypes and the collective unconscious.
Answer A: Perls did not work with universal symbols in the delusions and hallucinations of psychotic patients. See explanation for answer D.
Answer B: Sullivan did not work with universal symbols in the delusions and hallucinations of psychotic patients. See explanation for answer D.
Answer C: Adler did not work with universal symbols in the delusions and hallucinations of psychotic patients. See explanation for answer D.
You conduct a research study to assess the effects of T.V. violence on aggressive behavior. The study will take place over three consecutive weeks. During the first week, you will observe 20 children during recess for five consecutive days and calculate their average number of aggressive acts. During the second week, you will have all children observe aggressive T.V. programs for two hours on three separate days. Then, during the third week, you will again observe the children during recess for five days and calculate their average number of aggressive acts. The biggest threat to the internal validity of this study is:
Select one:
A.
carryover effects
B.
statistical regression
C.
selection
D.
history
The correct answer is D.
In any single-group design involving a before and after comparison, change in status on the DV might be due to the intervention or to an external event that occurred at about the same time the intervention was applied. In other words, the study’s internal validity is threatened by history.
Answer A: Carryover effects are a problem when two or more levels of an IV are applied to the same participants.
Answer B: Statistical regression is a problem when the group or groups have been selected because of their extreme status on the DV or a related variable, which is not the case in this study.
Answer C: Selection is a problem in between-groups studies when participants cannot be randomly assigned to the different groups. This is a within-subjects study, so selection is not a threat.
