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ST > Test G, H > Flashcards

Test G, H Flashcards

1
Q

Who is the pre medication ordered by?

A

Surgeon

Anesthesiologist

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2
Q

class V

A

limited amounts of narcotic drugs ex: cough syrup with codeine

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3
Q

agonist

A

prolongs the response of a drug

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4
Q

disadvantage of spinal anesthesia

A

BP drop rapidly
respiratory difficulties
headache

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5
Q

What are essential features of the preinduction phase?

A

Pre mad along with caring visit

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6
Q

what is the last phase of consciousness?

A

hearing is exaggerated

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7
Q

Where is the endotracheal tube placed?

A

Oral or nasal cavity into the trachea

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8
Q

agents of inhalation general anesthesia

A

ultane
suprane
forane

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9
Q

Muscle relaxation

A

Blocking agents producing muscle relaxation

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10
Q

CO2 canister

A

prevents rebreathing of carbon dioxide

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11
Q

inhalation route of administration med

A

gases or fine mists

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12
Q

aminophylline

A

relaxes smooth muscle

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13
Q

CPR

A

Cardio pulmonary resuscitation

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14
Q

When is patient experiencing maximum effect of pre med?

A

At time of induction

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15
Q

what is an epidural used for?

A

manage post op pain

decreases amount of anesthetic used

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16
Q

antagonist

A

prevents agonist from binding then causing desired effect

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17
Q

More relaxed patients with anesthesia

A

Less anesthetic given

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18
Q

sodium pentothal-thiopental

A

hypnotic, stored in fate tissue

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19
Q

Hypnosis

A

Induce sleep from natural sleep sedation to full unconsciousness

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20
Q

class IV

A

low abuse potential ex: ativan

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21
Q

IV injection

A

most rapid

most reliable to ill patients

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22
Q

LMA

A

used on elective surgeries where patient has been NPO

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23
Q

what does MAC do?

A

decrease fear and anxiety but cooperative

asleep but can arouse patient

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24
Q

CNS agents

A

codeine

morphine

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25
Q

IM premedication

A

One hour before surgery starts

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26
Q

example of antiemetics

A

ondansetron (zofran)

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27
Q

what should not be done with the patient once the premedication is given?

A

NEVER sign surgical permit
not be left alone
be careful talking around them, may misinterpret

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28
Q

antibiotics

A

kill/inhibit MO’s in body

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29
Q

synergist

A

enhances action of another

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30
Q

contraindications

A

drug that may be undesirable in a certain situation

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31
Q

what does an anesthesia machine do?

A

delivers a precisely known mixture of gases

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32
Q

When does prep for anesthesia start?

A

Before the patient enters the OR

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33
Q

what is nitrous oxide?

A

compressed gas

colorless, fruity smell

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34
Q

epinephrine emergency drug

A

raises BP, increase heart beat

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35
Q

trade name for medication

A

actual company responsible for manufacture of the drug Ex: Bay, Excedrin

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36
Q

ways inhalation anesthetics is delivered

A

anesthesia mask
ET tube
LMA

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37
Q

pseudocholinesterase

A

inability to wear off muscle relaxants after anesthetic is worn off
patient is awake but paralyzed

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38
Q

class III

A

less potential for abuse, current approved

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39
Q

class II

A

high abuse, current approved

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40
Q

when are antiemetics given?

A

when pt has had past history of N/V

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41
Q

agents for nerve block

A

xylocaine-lidocaine

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42
Q

examples of IV method drugs

A

sodium pentothal

propofol

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43
Q

What does a sedative do for a patient?

A

Help patient go to sleep, but doesn’t put them to sleep

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44
Q

what is epinephrine never used on?

A

tips of body

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45
Q

therapectic effects

A

responses after tx

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46
Q

MAC

A

conscious sedation

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47
Q

why is pt NPO?

A

patient losses normal gag reflex

aspiration of stomach contents into lungs

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48
Q

3 factors for explosion

A

flammable gas
source of ignition
oxygen

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49
Q

steriod hormones

A

reduce postop swelling

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50
Q

lidocaine emergency drug

A

cardiac arrhythmias

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51
Q

Reasons to premedicate a patient

A 
Anesthesia reduced
Smoother induction 
Reduce anxiety 
Increase pain threshold 
Amnesic
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52
Q

where is spinal injected?

A

between 3rd and 4th lumbar vertebrae

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53
Q

antiemetics

A

prevent postop N/V

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54
Q

example of muscle relaxants

A

anectine-succinylcholine
norcuron-vercuronium
curare-tubocurarine chloride

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55
Q

Examples of narcotics

A

Demerol- meperidine*
Morphine*
Sublimaze- fentanyl

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56
Q

what is pharmacology?

A

study of medicine

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57
Q

digitoxin

A

reduces high BP

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58
Q

does the LMA take place of the ET tube?

A

no

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59
Q

what does anticoagulant prevent?

A

thrombosis

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60
Q

muscle relaxants

A

affect skeletal muscles only, make body flaccid

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61
Q

what does the IV method do?

A

produces rapid general anesthesia

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62
Q

Mid 1800’s social events

A

Ether frolics- nitrous oxide

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63
Q

3 times a drug is ID’d

A

removed from storage
on field
ST passes to surgeon

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64
Q

hypnoanesthesia

A

entranced state where painful stimulation is lost and cooperation is complete

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65
Q

concern with local anesthesia

A

not used on young, nervous, apprehensive patients

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66
Q

position for administration of spinal anethesia

A

on side

sitting up

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67
Q

what happens in danger stage of general anesthesia?

A

could cause death

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68
Q

generic name for medication

A

proposed by the company that first develops a drug

Ex: aspirin

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69
Q

is the IV method sterile?

A

yes

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70
Q

6 rights

A 
Patient
Drug
Dose 
Time/frequency 
Label 
Route
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71
Q

hearing during anesthesia

A

last sense to go
be careful what you say
don’t say knife, blade

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72
Q

measurement for volume

A

liter

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73
Q

why does patient need to be relaxed?

A

intubate
retract
abd viscera

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74
Q

NPO

A

after midnight

fasting required

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75
Q

indications

A

reasons to prescribe a certain drug

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76
Q

invasive monitoring devices

A

arterial catherization
CVP
art line

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77
Q

what is the disadvantage of epinephrine?

A

rise in BP

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78
Q

What are patient fears of surgery?

A

Death
Experiencing pain
Remaining awake during general anesthesia

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79
Q

Types of premeds?

A

IV or IM

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80
Q

class I

A

high abuse, no approved use

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81
Q

Atropine

A

Dries up secretions

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82
Q

side effects

A

expected reaction to a medication

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83
Q

oxycel

A

form clot

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84
Q

example of a dye?

A

methylene blue

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85
Q

what does a low dose of IV anesthesia produce?

A

conscious sedation

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86
Q

antacid

A

alters pH of gastric secretions and reduces gastric volume

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87
Q

gelfoam

A

form clot

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88
Q

adverse effects

A

undesirable affect of a med that can lead to organ damage

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89
Q

example of diuretic

A

mannitol

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90
Q

PRBC’s

A

left from one unit of whole blood after most of plasma is removed

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91
Q

Amnesic medication

A

Medication causing loss of memory during its time of effect

92
Q

instillation route of administration med

A

body cavity, eye, ears, nose

93
Q

flowmeter

A

measures the flow of gas

94
Q

whole blood

A

provides all clotting factors

95
Q

example of epidural

A

procaine-novocaine*

96
Q

what is the rule with thrombin?

A

use immediately after mixing

97
Q

Analgesia

A

Freedom from pain

98
Q

infiltration local anesthesia

A

drug injected directly into tissue

99
Q

treatment for shock

A

oxygen

volume replacement of blood

100
Q

bier block

A

anesthesia for distal portion of upper extremity

101
Q

nerve block

A

injected between operative site and entry of nerve to spinal cord

102
Q

atropine emergency drug

A

increase heart and respiration rates

103
Q

symptoms of shock

A

pale
clammy skin
rapid, weak pulse

104
Q

observations regarding postop care of patient

A

skin remains dry
BP normal
no aspiration of secretions

105
Q

propofol-diprivan

A

used for outpatient surgeries

106
Q

intrathecal

A

not administered by nurse!!

administered into spinal fluid

107
Q

example of contrast media

A

hypaque, renografin

108
Q

sodum bicarbonate

A

treats metabolic acidosis

109
Q

criccoid pressure

A

pressure on criccoid to reduce risk of aspiration

don’t let go until anesthesia says so

110
Q

What is general anesthesia free from?

A

Infection
Hemorrhage
Pain

111
Q

contrast media

A

radiopaque dye injected to identify its inner form

112
Q

what does the anesthesia provider do at the end of surgery with oxygen?

A

100% oxygen to get rid of n20 and other agents

113
Q

Bronchospasm

A

Spasmodic contraction of the muscular coat of the smaller divisions of the bronchi

114
Q

what is preoxygenation?

A

100% of oxygen for 3-5 minutes

115
Q

topical route of administration med

A

sublingual, buccal, nasal, vaginal, rectal

116
Q

chemical name

A

actual formulation of its constituents

Ex: acetylsalicylic acid

117
Q

Demerol

A

Reduces fear and anxiety

118
Q

Risk factor of anesthesia

A

There is always risk involved even in the most ideal situation

119
Q

What are examples of anticholinergics?

A

atropine*
robinul (glycopyrrolate)
scopolamine

120
Q

oxygen fail safe valves

A

shut off flow of gas in absence of oxygen

121
Q

family history important

A

if any close relative had unexplained death from anesthesia, you must be alerted about possible MH episode

122
Q

subcutaneous injection

A

slow absorption

risk of tissue damage

123
Q

what local anesthetic shouldn’t be injected?

A

cocaine

124
Q

How can you reduce risk factor for anesthesia by reducing length of time?

A

Work efficiently
Knowledge of procedure
Be ready

125
Q

local anesthesia

A

patient is awake

126
Q

Endotracheal tube

A

Flexible tube used to maintain a patients airway

127
Q

What is the purpose of anesthesia?

A

No discomfort
Normal physiology
Maintain optimal conditions

128
Q

anticoagulant

A

prolongs blood clotting time

129
Q

Who decides on anesthesia?

A

Surgeon
Anesthesia provider
Patient

130
Q

dyes

A

stain skin

131
Q

Examples of sedatives

A

Valium- diazepam*
Ativan- lorazepam
Versed- midazolam

132
Q

spinal or intrathecal

A

local injected into subarachnoid space

133
Q

Intubation

A

Insertion of endotracheal tube into the trachea by means of laryngoscope

134
Q

example of antacids

A 
ranitidine (zantac)
citric acid (bacitra)
135
Q

phases of general anesthesia

A

induction
maintenance
emergence

136
Q

advantages of spinal anesthesia

A

inexpensive
rapid onset
muscle relaxs

137
Q

Analgesics/ narcotics

A

Produces sleep, depresses CNS relieving pain

138
Q

oxytocics

A

pitocin, ergotrate, methergine

139
Q

What is balanced anesthesia?

A

Inhalation
Narcotics
Muscle relaxants

140
Q

protamine sulfate

A

anticoagulant, binds with heparin to inactivate heparins effect

141
Q

Anesthesia

A

Absence of essentially all sensation with or without the loss of consciousness

142
Q

Anticholinergic

A

inhibits secretion of mucous

143
Q

vaporizer

A

vaporizes liquid anesthetic into gas

144
Q

What is constantly being monitored by anesthesia provider?

A 
HR
breathing
Temperature 
BP
pH
CO2
145
Q

xylocaine emergency drug

A

treats cardiace arrhythmias

146
Q

PRN

A

as needed or when required

147
Q

examples of infiltration local anesthesia

A

lidocaine*

sensorcaine*

148
Q

emergence phase of anesthesia

A

patient begins to wake up

149
Q

relaxation stage of general anesthesia

A

homeostasis maintained

150
Q

topical local anestheisa

A

applied directly to surface

151
Q

inhalation general anesthesia

A

anesthesia machine through respiratory system then absorbed by the blood

152
Q

intra-articular injection

A

within a joint

153
Q

what is the goal of general anesthesia?

A 
asleep
pain free
muscles relaxed
airway secured
no memory
154
Q

dermal injection

A

between the layers of the skin

155
Q

neuromuscular blockade antagonism

A

neostigmine bromide-prostigmine*

156
Q

heparin

A

needs to be counteracted by protamine sulfate

157
Q

narcotic antagonists

A

narcan*

158
Q

why is it not possible for an anesthetist to give the same anesthetic agent to every patient?

A

age/condition of patient

159
Q

oral or enteral route of administration med

A

most convenient, comfortable, economical

160
Q

What type of surgery did dr Morton and dr long do?

A

Removed tumor from face of patient

161
Q

induction phase of anesthesia

A

begins with administration of agent

162
Q

what stage do you want the patient to be in for surgery?

A

between 2 and 3

163
Q

regional anesthesia

A

injected in or around particular group of nerves

164
Q

excitement stage of general anesthesia

A

no eyelid reflux

165
Q

pharmacodynamics

A

the action of the drug

166
Q

noninvasive monitoring devices

A

pulse ox
temperature
BIS
sethoscope

167
Q

What two men are known for their work with ether?

A

Dr. Long and Dr. Morton

168
Q

maintenance phase of anesthesia

A

incision until near completion of procedure

169
Q

agents for topical local anesthesia

A

cocaine (spray)

170
Q

what happens with the liquids for inhalation?

A

they are poured into vaporizer then converted into gas

171
Q

diuretics

A

draws fluid away from tissue and released into urinary system

172
Q

intramuscular injection

A

active muscle+faster absorption

173
Q

how does the ET tube protect the airway?

A

no aspiration or regurgitation

174
Q

what is the reaction with an epidural?

A

agent is slowly absorbed into CSF through the dura mater

175
Q

narrow spectrum antibiotics

A

for a few types of pathogens

176
Q

examples of antibiotics

A

penicillin, erythromycins

177
Q

drug used to treat malignant hyperthermia

A

dantrolene

178
Q

epidural or peridural

A

injected into spinal column outside dura

179
Q

broad spectrum antibiotic

A

long range of MO’s

180
Q

additive

A

alters some aspects of the agent

181
Q

what does local anesthesia go by?

A

body weight

182
Q

example of spinal anesthesia

A

procaine-novocaine*

183
Q

what is a patient feeling once premedicated?

A

still aware of surroundings but senses are not as sharp as normal

184
Q

pharmacokinetics

A

movement of drugs within the body

185
Q

where is the ET tube placed?

A

trachea to ensure an open airway

can go in nose if necessary

186
Q

characteristics of general anesthesia

A

affects entire body
blood stream
loss of consciousness
blocks pain

187
Q

Airway

A

A device used to prevent or correct obstructed respiratory passage

188
Q

What is the most dangerous component of any surgical invention?

A

Anesthesia, because it’s a state close to death

189
Q

methods of general anesthesia

A

inhalation
IV
rectal

190
Q

benefits of local anesthesia

A

simple to use
post op care lessened
ideal for short operations

191
Q

Extubation

A

Removal of endotracheal tube

192
Q

IV premedications

A

Given in the holding area

Versed

193
Q

plasma

A

fluid fraction of blood containing all clotting factors

194
Q

measurement for length

A

meter

195
Q

intravenous method

A

administered directly into blood stream by way of IV

196
Q

what do you do for a child putting on the anesthesia mask?

A

flavor mask

197
Q

Rx

A

take thou

198
Q

what does cry do with anesthesia?

A

speeds action of anesthetic

199
Q

Factors influencing anesthesia

A

Patient wishes
State of health
Mental status
Patient position

200
Q

measurement for weight or mass

A

gram

201
Q

what does epinephrine do?

A

lowers bleeding

increases duration of numbing effect

202
Q

uses for topical local anesthesia

A

bronch

laryngoscopy

203
Q

saying for converting

A

king, hector, did, drink, chocolate, milk

204
Q

Sedative

A

Agent which exerts a soothing or tranquilizing effect

205
Q

intra-cardiac injection

A

within the heart

206
Q

What is the 11th principle?

A

The edge of any container that holds sterile supplies is not sterile

207
Q

What is the 12th principle?

A

Contact with sterile goods is kept to a minimum

208
Q

What is the fourteenth principle?

A

Some operative areas cannot be sterile. Steps are taken to keep contamination to a minimum

209
Q

What is the sixteenth principe?

A

Sterile areas are continuously kept in view

210
Q

What is an example of the 11th principle?

A

The ST would lift the instrument straight up and out of the package being careful not to let the item touch the edges because the edges of packages are not sterile

211
Q

What is an example of the 12th principle?

A

The ST will pick and place an item where it belongs because excessive handling increases the chance of contamination

212
Q

What is an example of the 14th principle?

A

The ST will put on a hat, mask, scrub suit perform the surgical scrub to eliminate as many MO’s as possible because the skin cannot be sterilized only surgically clean

213
Q

What is an example of the 16th principle?

A

Once a sterile field is created the ST or CN would stay in the room because if the room is unattended an unidentified contamination may occur

214
Q

Volatile

A

Liquid that evaporated at room temperature

215
Q

What doesn’t LMA stop?

A

Aspiration

216
Q

Profofol

A

More alkaline than blood

217
Q

Ketamine

A

For children

218
Q

BIS

A

Brain waves

219
Q

50/50

A

Rapid onset, extends time

220
Q

Overdose of bier block

A

Ringing in the ears

221
Q

Adrenalin

A

Epinephrine

222
Q

1 liter

A

Quart

223
Q

500 cc

A

Pint

224
Q

Eye irrigation

A

Balanced salt solution

225
Q

Ad lib

A

As freely as desired

ST (35 decks)

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