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ST > EENT test > Flashcards

EENT test Flashcards

1
Q

purpose of the iris

A

regulate the amount of light entering the eye

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2
Q

the nerve that carries visual impulses to the brain is?

A

optic nerve

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3
Q

what does the anterior chamber of the eye contain?

A

aqueous humor

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4
Q

procedure to treat retinal detachment

A

scleral buckling

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5
Q

uses ultrasonic energy to fragment the lens during extracapsular cataract extraction

A

phacoemulsifier

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6
Q

place where the optic nerve leaves the eyeball?

A

blind spot

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7
Q

what cranial nerve is the optic nerve?

A

2

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8
Q

transparent anatomical structure known as the window of the eye?

A

cornea

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9
Q

term to describe the condition when the eyes are crossed?

A

strabismus

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10
Q

medications that dilate the eye pupils are?

A

mydriatics

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11
Q

mydriatic example

A

atropine

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12
Q

miotic example

A

miochol

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13
Q

contains the vitreous humor, a gelatenous substance which helps maintain the eyeball’s shape

A

posterior chamber

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14
Q

left eye abbrev.

A

OS

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15
Q

right eye abbrev.

A

OD

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16
Q

incision made into the eardrum?

A

myringotomy, paracentesis, tympanotomy

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17
Q

procedure uses a graft to reapir a perforated eardrum to help restore or improve hearing?

A

tympanoplasty

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18
Q

an alligator forceps is used to place an ear tube in the tympanic membrane during a myringotomy?

A

true

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19
Q

describe the surgical specialty that treats diseases of the ear, nose, throat

A

otorhinolaryngology

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20
Q

general consideration during all ears, nose or throat procedures?

A

always have suction available

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21
Q

what is the organ of corti known as?

A

organ of hearing

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22
Q

what is the stapes a part of?

A

auditory ossicles

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23
Q

structure that connects the middle ear and throat, allowing the eardrum to vibrate freely?

A

eustachian tube

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24
Q

what cranial nerve is the acoustic nerve?

A

8

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25
Q

procedure in which an incision is made into the canine fossa of the upper jaw to expose the antrum and clean out the sinus cavity?

A

caldwell luc

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26
Q

name the 4 paranasal sinuses

A

maxillary, frontal, ethmoidal, sphendoidal

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27
Q

structure that serves as a boundary between the external auditory canal and the middle ear

A

tympanic membrane

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28
Q

name the procedure performed to remove a cholesteatoma

A

mastoidectomy

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29
Q

3 bones found in the middle ear

A

malleous, incus, stapes

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30
Q

washing hands for eye surgery?

A

wash powder from gloves, can act as a foreign body

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31
Q

suture for eye surgery

A

4-0 to 12-0

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32
Q

7 bones to form eye

A

sphenoid, ethmoid, superior maxillary, zygomatic, lacrimal and palate

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33
Q

extrinsic muscles

A

functions to move the eye in various directions and helps focus them together

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34
Q

conjunctivea

A

transparent membrane that lines the eyelide

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35
Q

eyelids

A

protects the globe and eye from light, injury

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36
Q

canthus

A

where eyelids meet

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37
Q

lacrimal caruncle

A

pink tissue mass at inner corner

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38
Q

lacrimal apparatus

A

produces and secretes tears

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39
Q

lacrimal gland

A

secretes tears

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40
Q

lacrimal ducts

A

carry tears from inner canthus to the lacrimal sac

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41
Q

lacrimal punctum

A

opening of duct

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42
Q

lacrimal sac

A

drains into the nose

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43
Q

cornea

A

allows light rays to pass to retina, window of the eye

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44
Q

sclera

A

white, provides support to the eye

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45
Q

choroid

A

prevents reflection of light within eyeball

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46
Q

ciliary body

A

affects accommodation of eye

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47
Q

iris

A

colored part of the eye

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48
Q

pupil

A

in center of eye, actually an opening

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49
Q

retina

A

receives images and sends to brain via optic nerve

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50
Q

optic disc

A

where the optic nerve enters the eye

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51
Q

macula

A

yellow spot in center of retina

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52
Q

fovea centralis

A

containing only cones

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53
Q

myopic

A

nearsighted

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54
Q

hyperopic

A

farsighted

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55
Q

anterior chamber

A

lies in front of the iris, filled with aqueous humor

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56
Q

canal of schlemm

A

drains excess fluid

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57
Q

glaucoma

A

increased pressure

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58
Q

lens

A

reflects light to retina

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59
Q

vitreous body

A

gelatinous mass, maintains shape of eyeball

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60
Q

what fills posterior 4/5 of eyeball?

A

vitreous body

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61
Q

optic nerve

A

carries visual impulses to the brain, 2

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62
Q

oculomotor nerve

A

moves eyeball and constricts pupil, 3

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63
Q

trochlear nerve

A

innervates the superior oblique muscle, 4

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64
Q

abducens

A

innervates the lateral rectus muscle, 6

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65
Q

opthalmic artery

A

main arterial supply to the orbit and globe

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66
Q

central retinal artery and vein

A

travels through the optic nerve

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67
Q

both eyes abbrev.

A

OU

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68
Q

excision of chalazion

A

hard tumor found on the inner or outer surface of the eyelid

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69
Q

repair of entropian

A

abnormal inversion of lower eyelid

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70
Q

repair of ectropian

A

abnormal sagging and eversion of lower eyelid causing excess tearing

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71
Q

blepharoptosis repair

A

abnormal drooping of upper eyelid caused by lack of muscle strength

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72
Q

lacrimal duct probing

A

obstruction or narrowing of lacrimal duct

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73
Q

dacryocystorrhinostomy

A

creation of a new tear passageway from the lacrimal sac directly into the nasal cavity for drainage

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74
Q

enucleation

A

removal of entire globe within insertion of a round implant into the socket

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75
Q

what is enucleation done for?

A

intraocular malignance

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76
Q

evisceration

A

removal of contents of the eye, leaving the sclera and attached muscles intact

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77
Q

excision of ptergium

A

triangular encroachment of conjunctiva which slowly proliferates to the front of the cornea

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78
Q

strabismus

A

both eyes are not directed or focused the same object

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79
Q

esotropia

A

one or both eyes turn intoward the nose

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80
Q

exotropia

A

one or both eyes turn out

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81
Q

hypertropia

A

one eye is higher than the other

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82
Q

lateral resection for strabismus

A

portion of muscle is excised and severed end is re attached at original insertion point

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83
Q

lateral muscle?

A

too long

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84
Q

mediat recession strabismus

A

muscle is severed at point of insertion and sutured further back

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85
Q

medial muscle?

A

too short

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86
Q

repair of eye lacerations

A

apposed with 10-0 suture or tissue

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87
Q

corneal transplant

A

thickened or opaque cornea caused by disease or degeneration

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88
Q

what is corneal transplant done for?

A

to improve vision using tissue donor graft

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89
Q

trephine

A

used to obtain full thickness corneal button 7-8 mm in diameter

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90
Q

lasik

A

curvature of cornea is re shaped using an excimer laser

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91
Q

cataract extraction

A

removal of the lens which has become opaque, restore vision

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92
Q

iridectomy

A

section of iris tissue is removed

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93
Q

trabeculectomy

A

incising a flap, creating a fistula

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94
Q

scleral buckling

A

band is placed around eye and secured with a silicone band

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95
Q

retinopexy

A

air or gas bubble is injected to press against detached retina

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96
Q

cryotherapy

A

causes inflammatory reaction

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97
Q

vitrectomy

A

removal of the vitreous humor

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98
Q

anterior vitrectomy

A

removing small portions of the vitreous from front structures of the eyes

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99
Q

posterior segment vitrectomy

A

removal of retained posterior segment intraocular foreign bodies

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100
Q

conjunctivitis

A

inflammation of the conjunctive commonly due to an infection

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101
Q

macular degeneration

A

loss of vision in the center of the visual field

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102
Q

nitrous oxide

A

nerve used on middle ear procedures

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103
Q

pinna (auricles)

A

projection part of the ear, collects sound waves

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104
Q

external auditory canal

A

directs sound waves

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105
Q

temporal bone

A

composed of squamous and mastoid air cells

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106
Q

tympanic membrane

A

eardrum, vibrates when sound waves strike it

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107
Q

malleus

A

transmits vibrations from eardrum to incus

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108
Q

stapes

A

transmits vibrations from incus to oval window

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109
Q

oval and round window

A

stapes transmits vibrations via fluid of inner ear though these membrans

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110
Q

semicircular canals

A

contain receptors that detect motion

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111
Q

cochlea

A

contains receptors for hearing

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112
Q

equilibrium

A

inner ear function

113
Q

semicircular canals

A

organ of equilibrium

114
Q

hearing loss factors

A

dieases, trauma, infection

115
Q

conductive hearing loss

A

interference of soundwave transmission

116
Q

sensori neural hearing loss

A

involves the inner ear or cochlear division of the acoustic nerve

117
Q

tympanogram

A

measures vibrations of tympanic membrane

118
Q

ENG

A

tests balance mechanism of inner ear

119
Q

tuning fork

A

measures bone conduction

120
Q

audiometry

A

tests hearing

121
Q

serous otitis media

A

eustachian tube is blocked, middle ear pressure increases

122
Q

acute otitis media

A

comes on quicker

123
Q

chronic otitis media

A

recurrent middle ear infections, may causes hearing loss

124
Q

path of sound transmission

A

occurs through bone, air and fluid conduction

125
Q

vestibular nervve

A

equilibrium

126
Q

cochlear nerve

A

hearing

127
Q

what do the vestibular and cochlear nerve form?

A

8th cranial nerve

128
Q

function of the nose

A

passageway for air between outside of body and the lungs

129
Q

nares

A

cartilage structures which form the nose

130
Q

posterior nares

A

opens directly into pharynx

131
Q

alar cartilage nose

A

form the nares

132
Q

nostrils

A

actual opening of nares

133
Q

nasal septum

A

divides the 2 chambers

134
Q

anterior nasal septum

A

cartilage

135
Q

posterior nasal septum

A

bony attachment to ethmoid and volmer bones

136
Q

meatus nose

A

nasal cavity passageway

137
Q

turbinates nose

A

projections from the nasal lateral wall

138
Q

names of nose turbinates

A

inferior, middle, superior

139
Q

paranasal sinuses

A

air cavities lined with mucous membrane

140
Q

function of paranasal sinuses

A

lighten weight of skull, secrete mucous

141
Q

pharynx

A

passageway from base of skull to esophagus (throat)

142
Q

nasopharynx

A

most superior- located behind nasal cavity

143
Q

where are the tonsils and adenoids located?

A

nasopharynx

144
Q

oropharynx

A

middle portion-ends at hyoid bone

145
Q

where is the palatine tonils located?

A

oropharynx

146
Q

lingual tonsils

A

located on posterior surface at base of tongue

147
Q

laryngopharynx

A

inferior portion, larynx found here

148
Q

larynx

A

voicebox, between trachea and pharynx

149
Q

thyroid cartilage

A

adams apple

150
Q

trachea

A

windpipe

151
Q

endaural

A

through ear canal

152
Q

transcanal

A

through ear canal

153
Q

postauricular

A

behind the ear, most common, allows for better exposure

154
Q

what do power drills use?

A

burrs only

155
Q

nitrous oxide

A

should be avoided in ear surgery, may increase middle ear pressure

156
Q

myringotomy with tube insertion

purpose/goal

A

incision into tympanic membrane entering a drainage tube

GOAL: decrease inner ear pressure and re establish drainage

157
Q

glove rule for myringotomy

A

never touch tube with gloves

158
Q

myringoplasty with fat graft

A

after ear tubes have been removed, fat taken out behind ear and placed over tympanic membrane defect

159
Q

stapedectomy

purpose/goal

A

removal of stapes with insertion of prosthesis

GOAL: restore hearing by re establishing the linkage between incus and oval window

160
Q

what is a stapedectomy indicated for?

A

progressive deafness due to otosclerosis

161
Q

do they use a drill in stapedectomy?

A

yes

162
Q

mastoidectomy

purpose/indication

A

removal of diseased bone of the mastoid process and mastoid space
indication: cholesteatoma

163
Q

cholesteatoma

A

accum. of squamous epithelium in middle ear and mastoid

164
Q

simple mastoidectomy

A

removal of diseased mastoid bone

165
Q

modified radical mastoidectomy

A

removal of diseased mastoid bone and some of the ossicles and canal wall

166
Q

what is used during mastoidectomy for precaution?

A

facial nerve monitoring to identify/preserve facial nerve

167
Q

tympanoplasty

purpose/goal

A

restoration of a diseased tympanic membrane or middle ear structure due to chronic otitis media or cholesteotoma
GOAL: repair perforation in the TM

168
Q

cochlear implant

A

sound is transformed into electrical system in the speech processor

169
Q

bone anchored hearing aid

A

moderate to severe conductive hearing loss

170
Q

semi implantable hearing aid

A

used in middle ear, directly stimulates the ossicles

171
Q

vertigo

A

inappropriate perception of motion

172
Q

menieres disease

A

affects hearing and balance to a varying degree

173
Q

nasal septal reconstruction

purpose/goal

A

excision and resection of nasal cartilage

GOAL: correct deviated septum

174
Q

cartilage for nasal reconstruction

A

save in saline moistened raytec in a safe place, don’t throw away

175
Q

treatment of epistaxis

A

surgery once ER tx has failed

176
Q

nasal antrostomy

A

chronic maxillary sinusitis, caldwell luc used to treat it

177
Q

caldwell luc procedure

purpose/goal

A

naso antral window is cut out of the maxillary bone to remove sinus mucosa
GOAL: clear away scar tissue from chronic infection

178
Q

symptoms caldwell luc

A

headache, cough

179
Q

sinus endoscopy

purpose/goal

A

excision of polyps, inflamed defects of the sinuses

GOAL: re establish ventilation by clearing the sinuses

180
Q

ethmoidectomy

purpose/goal

A

removal of diseased portion of middle turbinate

GOAL: treat chronic infalmm. sinus disease

181
Q

sphenoidectomy

A

creation of an opening into 1 or both sphenoidal sinuses

182
Q

nasal plypectomy

A

removal of polyps from the nasal cavity

183
Q

turbinectomy

A

removal of hypertrophied turbinates

184
Q

local/topical anesthetics

A

tetracaine, cocaine, novocaine, xylocaine, marcaine

185
Q

cocaine

A

vasoconstriction, not injected, tinted

186
Q

adrenalin (epi)

A

rapid vasoconstrictor

187
Q

neosynephrine

A

reduces swelling

188
Q

mydriatics

A

dilate pupils

*phenylephrine

189
Q

cycloplegic

A

prevents focusing dilate eye

*mydriacyl

190
Q

miotic

A

constricts pupilss *miochol

191
Q

corticosteroids

A

prevents normal inflamm. response

*celestone

192
Q

dyes

A

fluorescein sodium, gentian violet

193
Q

enzymatics

A

alpha chymar, chymotrypsin

194
Q

lubricants

A

healon, viscot

195
Q

irrigants

A

balanced salt solution, tis u sol

196
Q

retrobulbar

A

used for cataract surgery, temporary eye paralysis

197
Q

van lint

A

used for eyelid surgery, prevents squeezing of eyelid

198
Q

o brien

A

eyelid surgery, prevents squeezing of eyelid

199
Q

extraocular

A

procedures performed on the exterior surface of the eye or orbit

200
Q

intraocular

A

procedures performed on the interior of the eye, will always use a microscope

201
Q

when the eustachian tubes are blocked by hypertrophied adenoids, fluid accumulates in the middle ear from blood vessels located in the middle ear mucos?

A

true

202
Q

instrument used to hold the mouth open during T&A

A

mcivor

203
Q

function of the hurd dissector/pillar retractor?

A

retract tonsillar fossa

204
Q

at what age does the adenoid tissue shrink and basically disappear?

A

17

205
Q

what type of mid facial fracture is the most common?

A

le fort 1

206
Q

what function does a mouth prop have?

A

keep jaw apart

207
Q

what is the purpose of inserting a throat pack?

A

prevent aspiration of blood

208
Q

when is the throat pack removed?

A

before transport

209
Q

what procedures may be performed during dental restorations?

A

fillings, caps

210
Q

name the layers of skin included in a full thickness skin graft?

A

epidermis, dermis

211
Q

name the device used to expand the size of a split thickness skin graft

A

mesh grafter

212
Q

what sterile liquid is placed on the donor skin site as a lubricant when a split thickness skin graft is taken

A

mineral oil

213
Q

what is the medical term for the charred and pearly white appearance of tissue damaged by a 3rd degree burn

A

eschar

214
Q

name the muscle that is commonly used as a pedicle graft during a breast reconstruction?

A

trans rectus abdominis

215
Q

what is a stent dressing?

A

used on skin grafts to maintain contact

216
Q

what methods can be used to adhere a skin graft to the recipient site?

A

suture

217
Q

3 types of dermatoms and examples

A

knife-weck
battery-duval
electric-brownaire

218
Q

autograft

A

patients own body

219
Q

allograft

A

donors body

220
Q

cosmetic procedure commonly performed to correct protruding external ears

A

otoplasty

221
Q

eye surgeries are divided into extraocular and intraocular procedures. an example of an extraocular procedure would be?

A

removal of chalazion

222
Q

types of surgeries done on the eyelids

A

blepharoplasty
entropian repair
correction for ptosis
ectropian repair

223
Q

split thickness graft contains epidermis and a small portion of dermis?

A

true

224
Q

during a skin grafting procedure, the donor site is where the graft will be placed on the paint?

A

false

225
Q

rhinoplasty is the reconstruction of the nose for cosmetic purposes

A

true

226
Q

name the congenital defect in which the palatine bones don’t completely fuse during gestation

A

cleft palate

227
Q

procedure where the nasal cartilage is excised and resected to correct a deviated septum

A

septoplasty

228
Q

4 considerations when handling/cleaning microsurgical instruments

A

tips don’t rest on anything
tips come together
don’t crush
clean them good

229
Q

surgery performed to correct microtia involves?

A

reconstruction of an absent portion of the ear

230
Q

describe anomly syndactyly

A

abnormal connection of 2 or more fingers

231
Q

type of dermatome used for skin grafts

A

brown air split thickness!!!

232
Q

graft completelu detached from donor site and transferred to recipient site

A

free graft

233
Q

graft with vessel attachments left intact and transferred to recipient site

A

pedicle flap

234
Q

T&A

surgery/path/goal

A

excision of tonsils and adenoids, lingual tonsils not removed
PATH:chorinc tonsillitis, cancer
GOAL: excise infected tonsils

235
Q

uvulopalatopharyngoplasty

surgery/goal

A

cut out some of the soft tissue of the palate and stitch it up
GOAL: treat intractable snoring

236
Q

choanal atresia

A

congenital anomaly of the seophagus

237
Q

dental extractions

A

removal of 1 or more tooth due to gum and or tooth disease

238
Q

arch bars

purpose/goal

A

used to immobilize the jaw following jaw fracture

GOAL: repair fractured mandible

239
Q

what must accompany pt to pacu after arch bars?

A

wire cutters

240
Q

orbital floor fractuses

A

separates the eye from the maxillary sinus

241
Q

orbital blowouts

A

involves 1 or more bones of the orbit

242
Q

symptoms/goals of orbital fracture

A

double vision

GOAL: restore bone to correct anatomical position

243
Q

repair of fractured zygoma

A

due to blunt trauma, depressed fracture, trimalar fracture

244
Q

lefort 1

A

bilateral fracture of the maxilla

245
Q

lefort 2

A

fracture extends into nasal and ethmoid bones

246
Q

lefort 3

A

fractures are located high in the midface

247
Q

craniofacial reconstruction

A

for craniofacial deformities, coronal flap

248
Q

correction of retrognathism or prognathism

A

correction of jaw deformities

249
Q

TMJ

A

usually treated with conservative treatment by a dentist

250
Q

what shouldn’t be used on fingers and toes?

A

tissue necrosis

251
Q

dermatome

A

cutting instrument designed to remove a split thickness graft

252
Q

1st degree burn

A

outside layer of epidermis, heals in a few days

253
Q

2nd degree burn

A

epidermis and portion of dermis, blister, scar formation

254
Q

3rd degree burn

A

destrcution of entire skin thickness extending into subq and or further, white skin with minimal pain

255
Q

burn washing

A

patients with 3rd degree burn

256
Q

composite graft

A

surgical reconstruction, highly vascular areas

257
Q

rhytidectomy

A

removal of excess skin of face and neck area with tightening of underlying support structues
GOAL: improve appearance

258
Q

repair of radial dysplasia

A

congenital defect commonly referred to as clubhand

259
Q

how many classifications of deformities are there?

A

4

260
Q

blepharoplasty

A

removal of excess skin and peri orbital fat of the upper and or lower eyelids
GOAL: aesthetic improvement

261
Q

endoscopic brow lift

A

minimizes heaviness of the brow

262
Q

malar implants

A

cheek implants

263
Q

mentoplasty

A

cosmetic appearance of the chin

264
Q

dermabrasion

A

smooth skin surfaces that have been damaged by scars, acne

use dermabrader

265
Q

cleft lip

A

splitting of the upper lip

orbicularis oris muscle is aproximated

266
Q

augmentation mammoplasty

A

implantation of breast prosthesis

267
Q

reconstruction mammoplasty

A

after mastectomy, restors appearance of breast

268
Q

capsulotomy

A

exaggearated scar response to the breast implant

269
Q

mastopexy

A

correct breast ptosis

270
Q

abdominoplasty

A

excision of excess abd skin

271
Q

suction lipectomy

A

removal of excess fat deposits

272
Q

tumescence irrigation

A

helps in breaking up fatty tissue and aid in hemostasis

273
Q

polydactyly

A

duplication of digits, excess digit is excised

274
Q

another name for adenoids?

A

pharyngeal tonsils

275
Q

names of dermatomes

A

brown, zimmer, padgett hood

276
Q

used to remove tonsils from the fossa during tonsillectomy

A

tonsil snar

277
Q

abnormal drooping of the upper eyelid

A

ptosis

278
Q

what isn’t used to peform a turbinectomy?

A

percutaneous

ST (35 decks)

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