Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Primary > STDs > Flashcards

STDs Flashcards

1
Q

Immunodeficiency disorders in which human immunodeficiency virus uses T4 (CD4) cells as a receptor and reservoir for HIV

A

Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Epidemiology: HIV
1. Modes of transmission similar to those of hepatitis B but
specifically: Blood, semen, vaginal secretions, and
breast milk
2. Risk of infection via needle stick is approximately _____

A

1:350

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Signs/Symptoms: HIV

  1. _____ ____ symptoms: Think seroconversion (a process of converting from HIV negative to HIV positive; the process takes approximately ___ weeks to 6 months)
  2. Early s/s include: _____, night sweats, and weight loss
A
  1. Flu-like
    3 weeks
  2. Fever
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  • It is more a constellation of signs/symptoms than any single one that is suspicious for AIDS AIDS = CD4 < ____ cells/uL and/or the presence of an opportunistic infection
A

200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Laboratory/ Diagnostics: HIV
1. _____ for initial screening; sensitivity > 99.9%
2. Western Blot test is confirmatory
3. Latest recommended HIV tests:
a. HIV-1/2 antigen/antibody combination immunoassay;
if positive, proceed to:
b. HIV-1/2 antibody differentiation immunoassay
4. Absolute CD4 lymphocyte count: Normal > ____
cells/uL
5. CD4 lymphocyte percentage
a. Risk of progression to AIDS high when < 20%
6. Viral load
a. ____: Based quantitative copies of HIV-branched
DNA or RNA
b. Results correlate closely with the progression of HIV
c. Ideally should be “zero” or “detectable”

A
  1. ELISA
  2. 800
  3. a. PCR
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Management: HIV
1. Therapy for Opportunistic Infections
a. Treat infection as it occurs
b. Bactrim for ___ _____ pneumonia
prophylaxis
2. Antiretroviral Treatment
a. Combination therapy is standard [____ ____ ____
(__)]
b. When to start AART remains somewhat
controversial.
CDC and UDDHS recommend starting medications
at
the time of HIV+ diagnosis
3. Monitor for the danger of drug resistance: Must be
taken exactly as prescribed!

A
  1. b. Pneumocystis jirovecii

2. a. Active Antiretroviral Therapy (AART)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Cause: Haemophilus ducreyi, a gram-negative bacillus

A

Chancroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Prevalence: Chancroid

  1. Endemic in many areas of the United States; must be a part of the differential diagnosis for genital ulcers
  2. Well established as a co-factor for H1V transmission (high rate of HIV identified among individuals presenting with chancroid)
  3. Estimated up to ___% of patients are also infected with syphilis and HSV
A
  1. 10%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Signs/Symptoms: __________
I. Women: Usually asymptomatic
2. Men: Single (or multiple) superficials, painful ulcer,
surrounded by an erythematous halo
3. Ulcers may be necrotic or seVerely erosive

A

Chancroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Diagnosis: Chancroid

  1. A probable diagnosis is usually a matter of exclusion
  2. Involves genitalia and unilateral bubo (or both)
  3. Painful genital ulcers in absence of ___ ____ and HSV (by inspection or culture) with coexisting tender inguinal lymphadenopathy is suggestive of chancroid
  4. The definitive diagnosis of chancroid is made morphologically (sensitivity no > 80%)
A
  1. T pallidum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

a. _______: The degree to which those Who have a

disease screen/ test positive

A

Sensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

b. ______: The degree to which those who do not

have a disease screen/test negative

A

Specificity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Treatment: Chancroid

  1. ______ (Zithromax) t gram by mouth x 1 dose or
  2. Ceftriaxone (Rocephin) 250 mg IM x i dose or
  3. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) 500 mg by mouth twice a day × 3 days
A
  1. Azithromycin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A parasitic STD caused by Chlamydia trachomatis that produces serious reproductive tract complications in either sex

A

Chlamydia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q 
Signs/Symptoms of Chlamydia:
Females: Often asymptomatic
1. Dysuria
2. Intramenstrual spotting 
3. Postcoital bleeding
4. Dyspareunia: \_\_\_\_\_ intercourse
5. Vaginal discharge
A
  1. Painful
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Males: Often asymptomatic Chlamydia:

  1. ______
  2. Thick, cloudy penile discharge
  3. Testicular pain
A
  1. Dysuria
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Laboratory/Diagnostics: Chlamydia
1. Chlamydia culture is the most definitive test (3 to 9 days
for results)
2. ____ _____ (__) methods preferred (low
cost; 30 to 120 min for results)

A
  1. Enzyme immunoassay (EIA)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Treatment: Chlamydia
1. ______ (Zithromax) 1 gram by mouth x 1 dose OR
2. Doxycycline (Vibramycin) 100 mg by mouth twice a day
x 7 days
3. Alternatives: Erythromycin, Ofloxacin, Levofloxacin
4. Report to the ______ department

A
  1. Azithromycin

4. health

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Cause: Human papillomavirus (HPV)

A

Genital Warts (Condyloma acuminata)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Prevalence

  1. The most common viral STD in the United States
  2. An estimated 3 million cases of HPV (including cervical HPV) are reported annually
A

Genital Warts (Condyloma acuminata)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Symptoms: Genital Warts (Condyloma acuminata)
Single (or multiple) soft, fleshy, papillary, or sessile, painless _____ growth around the anus, vulvovaginal area, penis, urethra, or perineum

A

keratinized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Diagnosis: Genital Warts (Condyloma acuminata)

  1. Clinical presentation; perhaps atypical ___ _____ of undetermined significance (ASCUS) or squamous intraepithelial lesion (SIL) on PAP smear
  2. Colposcopy useful in diagnosing fiat lesions
  3. May need to biopsy if at risk for cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN)
A
  1. squamous cell
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Treatment: Genital Warts (Condyloma acuminata)

  1. Keratolytic agents: Podophyllin (Pododema), trichloroacetic acid (TCA), or trichloroacetic acid (BCA)
  2. Referral for cryotherapy, ____ therapy, electrocautery, or excision
A
  1. laser
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Prevention

  1. Gardasil [Human Papillomavirus Quadrivalent (Types __, __, __, and ___) Vaccination]
    a. Indicated for females and males ages 9 to 26 years
    b. Given in 3 injections
  2. Cervarix [Human Papillomavirus Bivalent (Types 16 and 18) Vaccination]
    a. Indicated for females ages 10 to 25 years
    b. Same as above
A

6, 11, 16, and 18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

________
A bacterial STD caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae (gram-negative diplococci); causative organism may be cultured from the genitourinary tract, oropharynx, and/or anorectal

A

Gonorrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Incidence/General Concepts: Gonorrhea

  1. Produces _____ in men and cervicitis in women
  2. A leading cause of infertility among females in the United States
  3. Affects 1 to 2% of the general population
  4. Male to female transmission is 80 to 90% after exposure
A
  1. urethritis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Incidence/General Concepts: Gonorrhea

  1. Produces _____ in men and cervicitis in women
  2. A leading cause of infertility among females in the United States
  3. Affects 1 to 2% of the general population
  4. Male to female transmission is 80 to 90% after exposure
A
  1. urethritis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q 
Signs/Symptoms: Gonorrhea
Females: Often asymptomatic (80%)
1. Dysuria
2. \_\_\_\_\_ \_\_\_\_\_
3. Mucopurulent vaginal discharge (green) 
4. Labial pain and swelling
5. Lower abdominal pain
6. \_\_\_\_
7. Abnormal menstrual periods
8. Dysmenorrhea

Males: Often asymptomatic

  1. Dysuria
  2. Frequency
  3. White/yellow-green penile discharge
  4. _____ ____
  5. N and V
A

Female:

  1. Urinary frequency
  2. Fever

Male:
4. Testicular pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Treatment: Gonorrhea
1. ______ (Rocephin) 250 mg IM × 1 dose to treat
gonorrhea plus
2. Azithromycin (Zithromax) 1 gram orally × 1 dose to cover chlamydia
3. Report to the health department

A
  1. Ceftriaxone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Laboratory/Diagnostics: Gonorrhea

  1. Gram stain of discharge smear shows gram-negative diplococci and WBC
  2. Cervical culture for ___ ______ using modified Thayer-Martin media
A
  1. N. gononhoeae
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

_______ ___

Cause: Hepatitis B virus (HBV)

A

Hepatitis B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Prevention: Hepatitis B
1. Two commercially available hepatitis B preventive vaccines administered at ___, ____, _____ months: Recombivax HB and Engerix-B

A

0, 1, and 6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Treatment: Hepatitis B

  1. Supportive and symptomatic care
  2. _____ ___ immune globulin (HBIG) 0.06 ml/kg IM in a single dose within 14 days of exposure (earlier administration may be more effective)
A
  1. Hepatitis B
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

A recurrent viral STD with no cure, associated with painful genital lesions

A

Herpes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Herpes:
_______: Direct contact with active lesions or vires-containing fluid (saliva or cervical secretions)

A

Transmission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Herpes Simplex Virus ___ ___: Associated with infection of lips, face, and mucosa

A

Type 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Signs/Symptoms:

  1. Initial: Fever, malaise, dysuria, painful/pruritic ulcers for usually ___ days
  2. Recurrent: Less painful/pruritic ulcers for usually 5 days
  3. Herpetic whitlow: HSV-I=60%, HSV-2=40%
A
  1. 12
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Herpes Simplex Virus ____ ___: Associated with the genitalia

A

Type 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Management Herpes:
No treatment for curing the disease
Symptomatic treatment with drying and antipruritic agents
_______ (Zovirax) recommended for topical, oral, and IV use FamcMovir
Valacyclovir: Especially useful for asymptomatic viral shedding of HSV2

A

Acyclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Laboratory/Diagnostics: Herpes

  1. ______ or Tzanck stain
  2. The most definitive test is viral culture
A
  1. Papanicolaou
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Cause:

Immunotypes L1, L2, or L3 of Chlamydia trachomatis

A

Lymphogranuloma Venereum (LGV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Signs/Symptoms: Lymphogranuloma Venereum (LGV)
1. ____mm painless vesicle, bubo, or non-indurated ulcer
2. Regional adenopathy follows in approximately one month and is the most common finding
3. Stiffness and aching in groin followed by unilateral
swelling of inguinal region

A
  1. 2 to 3 mm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Diagnosis: Lymphogranuloma Venereum (LGV)
1. May be confused with chancroid
2. Definitive diagnosis requires isolating C. _____
from an appropriate specimen

A
  1. trachomatis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Treatment: Lymphogranuloma Venereum (LGV)

  1. _______ (Vibramycin) 100 mg orally twice a day x 21 days
  2. Aspirate buboes to prevent ulcerations
A
  1. Doxycycline
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Cause: Molluscum contagiosum virus

A

Molluscum Contagiosum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Prevalence: Molluscum Contagiosum

1. Occurs infrequently, about 1 for every ____ cases of GC

A

100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Signs/Symptoms: Molluscum Contagiosum

  1. Lesions are ______mm, smooth, rounded, firm, shiny flesh-colored to pearly-white papules
  2. Commonly seen on the trunk and anogenital region
A

1 to 5 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Diagnosis: Molluscum Contagiosum

1. Inspection and _____ exam

A

microscopic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Treatment: Molluscum Contagiosum

1. ______ with liquid nitrogen: Most popular method; may resolve without scarfing

A

Cryoanesthesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

STD involving multiple organ systems

A

Syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Cause: Syphilis

Treponema pallidum, a _____ with 6 to 14 regular spirals

A

spirochete

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Incidence/General Concepts

  1. The third most commonly reported infectious disease in the United States
  2. Approximately _____ new cases reported annually
A
  1. 200,000
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Four Clinical Stages & Syphilis:
_________
Seropositive, but asymptomatic

A

Latent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q 
Four Clinical Stages &amp; Syphilis: 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
   a. A chancre is painless 
   b. Indurated ulcer
   c. Located at the site of exposure
A

Primary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q 
Four Clinical Stages &amp; Syphilis: 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
   a. Flu-like symptoms 
   b. Highly variable skin rash on palmar and plantar 
       surfaces; mucous patches 
   c. Lymphadenopathy 
   d. Malaise
   e. Anorexia 
   f. Alopecia
   g. Arthralgias
A

Secondary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q 
Four Clinical Stages &amp; Syphilis: 
\_\_\_\_\_\_
   a. Leukoplakia
   b. Cardiac insufficiency 
   c. Aortic aneurysm 
   d. Meningitis
   e. Hemiparesis
   f. Hemiplegia
A

Tertiary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Serologic Tests: Syphilis
1. Nontreponemal: VDRL/RPR
2. Treponemal:
a. _________ treponemal antibody absorption (FTA-
ABS): Confirms positive in 85 to 95% of primary
cases and 100% of secondary cases
Microhemaggluthaation assay for antibody to T.
pallidum (MHA-TP)

A
  1. a. Fluorescent
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Treatment

  1. Primary, secondary, or early syphilis of less than 1-year duration
    a. _____ _____ G 2.4 million traits IM
A
  1. a. Benzathine penicillin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Treatment
2. Late, latent, and indeterminate length; tertiary stage
a. Benzathine penicillin G 2.4 million traits IM weekly x 3
weeks
3. Penicillin allergic
a. _______ 100 mg orally twice a day, or
b. Erythromycin 500 mg orally four times a day
4. Report to the health department

A
  1. a. Doxycycline
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Tanner staging for girls: breast development

a. ________ breast
b. Breast buds with areolar enlargement
c. Breast enlargement without separate nipple contour
d. _____ and nipple project as a secondary mound
e. Adult breast: Areola recedes, nipples retracts

A

a. Preadolescent

d. Areola

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

The absence of menstrual flow

A

Amenorrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Absence of menarche by age 16

A

Primary Amenorrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Cessation of menstrual flow after the establishment of normal menstrual cycling

A

Secondary Amenorrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

______ is the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea

A

Pregnancy

65
Q

Teens experiencing ______amenorrhea should be referred and evaluated for chromosomal defect, anatomic anomalies, hormonal imbalances, tumor ant trauma

A

primary

66
Q

_______ amenorrhea

a. absence of menarche
b. absence of secondary sex characteristics
c. abnormal growth and development

A

Primary

67
Q

_______ amenorrhea

a. absence of expected menses with a history of regular cycles

A

Secondary

68
Q

Physical examination

  1. A complete evaluation to identify etiology
  2. _____ _____ to identify any anatomical defects
A
  1. Pelvic exam
69
Q

Diagnostic Tests:

1) Primary
a) Consider _____ test
b) Refer to endocrinologist
2) Secondary
a) Pregnancy test
b) Referral for other studies

A

1) a) pregnancy

70
Q

______ ____: Abnormal Results
Overview:
1. Detects the presence of abnormal and/ or precancerous cells on the cervix of the uterus
2. Asa screening test, the PAP smear has reduced mortality for cervical cancer by ruffly 50%
3. However, 1/3 of the test have false-negative results; screening as recommended is necessary
4. In the United States, cervical cancer is the third most common GYN cancer

A

Papanicolaou Test

71
Q

Risk Factors/ Cause: Papanicolaou Test

1) ____; early, multiple sexual partners
2) Mal partner who has had multiple sexual partners
3) Cigarette smoking

A

HPV

72
Q

Interpretation of Test Results (______ ______ _____)
1) Reporting categories
a) Normal findings: No atypia, no malignancy
b) Infection
c) Reactive or reparative changes
d) Squamous cell abnormality; Bethesda Classification:
Cervical Intraepithelial Neoplasia (CIN)
aa) ASCUS - Atypical Squamous Cell of
Undetermined Significance
bb) Low-grade SIL - CIN 1 (HPV or mild dysplasia)
CIN 2 (Moderate dysplasia)
CIN 3 (severe dysplasia)
CIS (carcinoma in situ)
cc) Squamous cell carcinoma
2) Changes in glandular cells AGCUS, presence of endometrial cells, adenocarcinoma, or other neoplasms

A

Bethesda Classification System

73
Q

Management:

  1. Infection: Treatment based on the causative agent; repeat PAP 3 to 4 months after treatment
  2. For specific abnormal findings such as ASCUS:
    a) ___ testing
    b) repeat PAP smear
    c) Colposcopy
    3) Refer if CIN 2,3, or CIS
A

HPV

74
Q

aa) ASCUS - ____ ___ ___ ___ ___ ____
bb) Low-grade SIL - CIN 1 (HPV or mild dysplasia)
CIN 2 (Moderate dysplasia)
CIN 3 (severe dysplasia)
CIS (carcinoma in situ)
cc) Squamous cell carcinoma

A

Atypical Squamous Cell of

Undetermined Significance

75
Q

CIN 1 (__ ____ ___ ___)

A

HPV or mild dysplasia

76
Q

CIS (____ ___ ___)

A

carcinoma in situ

77
Q

CIN 2 (_____ ___)

A

Moderate dysplasia

78
Q

CIN 3 (____ ____)

A

severe dysplasia

79
Q

Top 4 “killers” of adults in the United States

  1. _____ ____
  2. Cancer
  3. Lower respiratory disease
  4. ____ (___)
  5. Unintentional accidents
A
  1. Heart disease (CAD)

4. CVA (Stroke)

80
Q

Cancer in women:

  1. Responsible for the highest mortality? _______
  2. Leading GYN-associated cancer “killer”? Ovarian
  3. Is the highest incidence other than skin cancer? Breast
A

Lung

81
Q

Cancer in women:

  1. Responsible for the highest mortality? Lung
  2. Leading GYN-associated cancer “killer”? _______
  3. Is the highest incidence other than skin cancer? Breast
A

Ovarian

82
Q

Cancer in women:

  1. Responsible for the highest mortality? Lung
  2. Leading GYN-associated cancer “killer”? Ovarian
  3. Is the highest incidence other than skin cancer? ____
A

Breast

83
Q

Cancer in men:

  1. Responsible for the highest mortality? _____
  2. Other than skin cancer, the 2nd most common cancer in men and #2 cancer “killer”? Prostate
A

Lung

84
Q

Cancer in men:

  1. Responsible for the highest mortality? Lung
  2. Other than skin cancer, the 2nd most common cancer in men and #2 cancer “killer”? _____
A

Prostate

85
Q

Combining cancer in men and women:

  1. Leading cancer”killer”? _____
  2. Second leading cancer”killer”? Colorectal
A

Lung

86
Q

Combining cancer in men and women:

  1. Leading cancer”killer”? Lung
  2. Second leading cancer”killer”? _______
A

Colorectal

87
Q

Cervical Cancer Screening Guidelines for Average-Risk Women: 2012
a) When to start screening
b) Statement about annual screening
c) American Cancer Society (ACS), American Society for
Colposcopy and Cervical Pathology (ASCCP), and
American Society for Clinical Pathology(ASCP)2
d) Age 21. Women are aged < ____ years should not be screened regardless of the age of sexual initiation for other risk factors. (Strong recommendation)

A

21

88
Q

Cervical Cancer Screening Guidelines for Average-Risk Women: 2012
a) When to start screening
b) Statement about annual screening
c) U.S Preventive Services Task Force (USPSTF)3
d) Age ___. (A recommendation) Recommend against
screening women aged < 21 years. ( D
recommendation)

A

d) 21 years

89
Q

Cervical Cancer Screening Guidelines for Average-Risk Women: 2012
a) When to start screening
b) Statement about annual screening
c) American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists
(ACOG)4
d) Age 21 regardless of the age of onset of sexual
activity. Should be avoided < ___ years. (Level A
evidence)

A

21 years

90
Q

Cervical Cancer Screening Guidelines for Average-Risk Women: 2012
a) American Cancer Society (ACS), American Society
for Colposcopy and Cervical Pathology (ASCCP), and
American Society for Clinical Pathology (ASCP)2
b) Statement about annual screening?
c) Women of ____ age should not be screened annually
by any screening method. (Strong recommendation)

A

any

91
Q

Cervical Cancer Screening Guidelines for Average-Risk Women: 2012
a) U.S Preventive Services Task Force (USPSTF)3
b) Statement about annual screening?
c) Individuals and clinicians can use the annual ____
test screening visit as an opportunity to discuss
other health problems and preventive measures.
Individuals, clinicians, and health systems should
seek effective ways to facilitate the receipt of
recommended preventive services at intervals that
are beneficial to the patient. Efforts also should be
made to ensure that individuals are able to seek care
for additional health concerns as they present.

A

c) Pap

92
Q

Cervical Cancer Screening Guidelines for Average-Risk Women: 2012
a) American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists
(ACOG)4
b) Statement about annual screening?
c) Physicians should inform their patients that ____
gynecologic examinations may be appropriate.
(Level C evidence)

A

annual

93
Q

Screening method and interval

a) Cytology( conventional or liquid-based)
b) ACS, ASCCP, ASCP
c) 21-29 years of age - Every ____ years (Strong recommendation)

A

3 years

94
Q

Screening method and interval

a) Cytology( conventional or liquid-based)
b) ACS, ASCCP, ASCP
c) 30-65 years of age - Every ___ years (Strong recommendation)

A

3 years

95
Q

Screening method and interval
a) HPV co-test (cytology + HPV test administered
together)
b) ACS, ASCCP, ASCP
c) 21-29 years of age - HPV co-testing should not be used for women aged

A

c) less 30 years

96
Q

Screening method and interval
a) HPV co-test (cytology + HPV test administered
together)
b) ACS, ASCCP, ASCP
c) 30-65 years of age - For women who want to extend their screening interval, HPV co-testing every ___ years is an option.
(A recommendation)

A

5 years

97
Q

Screening method and interval
a) Primary HPV testing
b) ACS, ASCCP, ASCP
c) For women aged 30-65 years, screening by HPV
testing alone is ___ recommended in most clinical
settings. (Weak recommendation)

A

c) not

98
Q

Screening method and interval

a) USPSTF
b) Cytology( conventional or liquid-based)
c) 21-29 years of age - Every __ years (Strong recommendation)

A

3 years

99
Q

Screening method and interval

a) USPSTF
b) Cytology( conventional or liquid-based)
c) 30-65 years of age - Every __ years (Strong recommendation)

A

3 years

100
Q

Screening method and interval
a) USPSTF
b) HPV co-test (cytology + HPV test administered
together)
c) 21-29 years of age - Recommend against ___ co-testing women aged < 30 years.
(D recommendation).

A

HPC

101
Q

Screening method and interval
a) USPSTF
b) HPV co-test (cytology + HPV test administered
together)
c) 30-65 years of age - For women who want to extend their screening interval, HPV co-testing every ___ years is an option.
(A recommendation)

A

5 years

102
Q

Recommends against screening for cervical cancer with HPV testing (alone or in combination with cytology) in women aged < ___ years. (D recommendation)

A

30 years

103
Q 
Screening method and interval
a) ACOG 
b) Cytology( conventional or liquid-based)
c) 21-29 years of age - Every \_\_\_ years.
(Level A evidence)
A

3

104
Q

Screening method and interval

a) ACOG
b) Cytology( conventional or liquid-based)
c) 30-65 years of age - May screen every __ years with a history of 3 negative cytology tests. (Level A evidence)

A

3

105
Q

Screening method and interval

a) ACOG
b) HPV co-test (cytology + HPV test administered
together)
c) ___ years of age - HPV co-testing should not be used for women aged <30 years.

A

21-29 years

106
Q

Screening method and interval

a) ACOG
b) HPV co-test (cytology + HPV test administered
together)
c) ____ years of age - Every 5 years (Strong recommendation); this is the preferred method (Weak recommendation)

A

c) 30-65 years

107
Q

Between 65-70 years of age with __ consecutive normal cytology tests and no abnormal tests in the past 10 years (Level B evidence).
An older woman who is sexually active and has multiple partners should continue to have routine “ screening.

A

3

108
Q
  1. Screening post-total hysterectomy
    a) Women who have had a total hysterectomy (removal
    of the uterus and cervix,) should ____ screening
    unless the hysterectomy was done as a treatment for
    cervical pre-cancer or cancer. Women who have had
    a hysterectomy without removal of the cervix (supra-
    cervical hysterectomy) should continue screening
    according to guidelines.
A

stop

109
Q
  1. Screening post-total hysterectomy
    a) Recommend against screening in women who have
    had a hysterectomy with removal of the cervix and
    who do not have a history of a high-grade
    precancerous lesion (_____ or ___) or cervical
    cancer. (D recommendation )
A

CIN2 or CIN3

110
Q
  1. Screening post-total hysterectomy
    a) If removal for benign disease and no history of high-
    grade CIN or worse may ______ screening.
    (Level A evidence) Women with whom a negative
    history cannot be documented should continue to be
    screened. (Level B evidence)
A

discontinue

111
Q
  1. Inflammation or infection of the vulva and vagina most
    commonly caused by bacteria, protozoa, and/or fungi
  2. Trichomoniasis, bacterial vaginosis, and candidiasis are commonly responsible for _________. Only trichomonas, often asymptomatic in men, are considered to be sexually transmitted.
A

Vulvovaginitis

112
Q

___ _____, frothy flay yellow-green

discharge pruritus, vaginal erythema, “strawberry patches” on cervix and vagina, dyspareunia, dysuria

A

Trichomonas Malodorous

113
Q

____ _____: Watery, gray, “fishy” smelling discharge, vaginal spotting

A

Bacterial vaginosis

114
Q

_______: Thick, white, curd-like discharge; vulvovaginal erythema with pruritus

A

Candidiasis

115
Q

Wet prep:

_______: Normal saline mixture shows motile trichomonads

A

Trichomonas

116
Q

Wet prep:

_____ _____: Normal saline mixture showed clue cells

A

Bacterial vaginosis

117
Q

Wet prep:

______: KOH mixture shows pseudohyphae

A

Candidiasis

118
Q

Trichomonas management is _____ (__) 2 grams by mouth single dose or 500 mg by mouth twice a day for 7 days

A

Metronidazole (Flagyl)

119
Q

Bacterial vaginosis management is ____ (___) 500 mg by mouth twice a day for saving days or 2 grams by mouth single dose or gel ( 0.75%) 5 grams intravaginally twice a day for five days

A

Metronidazole (Flagyl)

120
Q

_______ (___) vaginal vream (2%) 5 grams intravaginally at bedtime X7 days or 300 mg by mouth twice a day X7 days

A

Clindamycin (Cleocin)

121
Q

Candidiasis

a) ____ (__) or clotrimazole (Gyne- Lotrimin) (1%) 5 grams intravaginally at bedtime X 7 days

A

Miconazole (Mono-star)

122
Q

Candidiasis

b) _____ (___) 80 mg suppository, 1 suppository at bedtime X 3 days Butaconazole: 3 applications

A

Terconazole (Terazol)

123
Q

The general term for inflammation and infection involving the uterus, fallopian tubes, ovaries, and surrounding tissues

A

Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)

124
Q

Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID): Most prevalent, polymicrobial causative agents include C. trachomatis, ___ ______, E. coli, G. vaginalis, H. influenza, and Streptococcus agalactiae

A

N. gonorrhoeae

125
Q

Symptoms/ history of PID:

a) Fever/ chills
b) _______
c) Vomiting
d) ____ _______
e) dysuria
f) Dyspareunia
g) ____ _____ ____
h) Inferitlity

A

b) Nausea
d) Vaginal discharge
g) Lower abdominal pain

126
Q

Physical Examination: PID

a) Positive cervical motion tenderness (CMT)
b) _____ tenderness
c) Abdominal tenderness
d) Fever > 38 degrees celsius

A

b) Adnexal

127
Q

Diagnostic Test: PID

a) ____ testing
b) Elevated ____ or C- reactive protein
c) Ultrasound documentation of ovarian cyst

A

a) STD

b) ESR

128
Q

Management: PID
a) Empiric, broad-spectrum antibiotics coverage recommended
b) Outpatient management
aa) Regimen A:
i) _______ (______) 250 mg IM once single
dose plus
ii) Doxycycline (Vibramycin) 100 mg twice a day by
mouth x 14 days with or without Metronidazole 500
mg by mouth twice a day x 14 days

A

b) i) Ceftriaxone (Rocephin)

129
Q

Management of: PID
a) Outpatinet management
bb) Regimen B:
i) Cefoxitin (Mefoxin) 2 gm IM plus
ii) Probenecid (Benemid) 1 gm oral single dose plus
iii) _____ (___) 100 mg orally twice a
day x 14 days with or without Metronidazole 500
mg orally x 14 days

A

Doxycycline ( Vibramycin)

130
Q

Cramping pain occurring with menstruation

A

Dysmenorrhea

131
Q

________: dysmenorrhea occurs in adolescent women as a result of a high level of __________
a) Pain begins after the onset of menses and no pelvic pathology is identified

A

Primary

prostaglandin

132
Q

_______: dysmenorrhea occurs in women > 20; more likely associated with some form of pelvic disease

A

Secondary

133
Q

Symptoms/ History:

1) ___________ Dysmenorrhea
a) Cramping that radiates to the back and upper thighs
b) Headache
c) Diarrhea
d) Fatigue may be present
e) Occasional nasuea with vomitins
f) Self- limited to 72 hours

A

Primary

134
Q

Symptoms/ History:

1) ___________ Dysmenorrhea
a) Pain in regard to etiology

A

Secondary

135
Q

Physical Examination:

1) ______: Normal pelvic exam with the exception of uterine tenderness during menses

A

Primary dysmenorrhea

136
Q

Physical Examination:

2) ________: Exam findings related to etiology

A

Secondary dysmenorrhea

137
Q

Manamgnet: dysmenorrhea

1) Primary
a) Prostaglandins synthetase inhibitors (PGSIs)
i) Ibuprofen (Advil, etc.)
ii) ________ (Naprosyn)
iii) Indomethacin (Indocin)

A

ii) Naproxen

138
Q

Management: dysmenorrhea

2) Oral ________ pills

A

2) contraceptive

139
Q

Management: dysmenorrhea

3) ______

A

3) exercise

140
Q

Management: dysmenorrhea

4) High _____ diet and reduction of sugar, caffeine, and salt

A

fiber

141
Q

______ ______ _______
Overview
1. Abnormal uterine bleeding is usually the result of endocrine dysfunction.
2. Heavy bleeding episodes may also be the result of other problems such as polycystic ovarian disease, in, mature hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian axis (adolescents), resistant follicular stimulation (perimenopause), and others

A

Abnormal Uterine Bleeding.

142
Q

Symptoms/History: Abnormal Uterine Bleeding

  1. Extremely _____ _____ of variable duration
  2. Variable frequency of bleeding
  3. Infrequent and irregular bleeding
A

heavy bleeding

143
Q

Abnormal Uterine Bleeding:
___________: Infrequent, irregular; frequency >
40 days

A

Oligomenorrhea

144
Q

Abnormal Uterine Bleeding:
________: Frequent, irregular; frequency < 18
days

A

Polymenorrhea

145
Q

Abnormal Uterine Bleeding:
____________: Regular frequency but bleeding
excessive and prolonged

A

Menorrhagia

146
Q

Abnormal Uterine Bleeding:

_________: Bleeding between cycles

A

Metrorrhagia

147
Q

Abnormal Uterine Bleeding:
___________: Prolonged, frequent, excessive,
irregular bleeding

A

Menometrorrhagia

148
Q

Abnormal Uterine Bleeding:

_________: Variable quantity between cycles

A

Intermenstrual

149
Q

Diagnostic Test for abnormal uterine bleeding:

1) Initial: HCG (quantitative)
a) Prolactin
b) ____ ____ (__)
c) CBC
d) PAP
e) STD screening
f) _______

A

b) Thyroid functions (TSH)

f) urinalysis

150
Q

Somatic and affective symptoms which occur 7 to 10 days prior to menstruation and ends with the onset of menses

A

Premenstrual Syndrom (PMS)/ Premature Dynsphori disorder (PDD)

151
Q

Overview:

1) PMS incidence slowly increases from adolescence; peaks during the 30s; quickly decreases after age ___
2) Precise etiology is unknown

A

41

152
Q

Symptoms/ History: Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS)

1) _______: Body aches, breast tenderness, feeling of bloating, beaches, food cravings, poor coordination
2) Emotional: Hypersensitigy, irritability, mood swings, depressive symptoms, anxiety, tension, fear of loss of control, confusion

A

1) Somatic

153
Q

Physical examination: Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS)

1) Exclude other possible complications causes
2) Diagnosis made by ____ (menstrual/ PMS diary)

A

history

154
Q

PMS is management is:
a) A variety of strategies have been posed to assist with symptom management include: Bromocriptine (Parlodel), alprazolam (______), buspirone (BuSpar), tricyclic antidepressants (Nortipriyline, Pamelor), clomipramine HCL (Anafranil), serotonin reuptake inhibits, atenolol (Tenormin), oral contraceptive pills, progesterone

A

Xanax

155
Q

Dietary Premature Syndrome (PMS)/ Premature Dysphoric Disorder (PDD):
1) Dietary
a) _______ restriction may play a role since caffeine
can increase anxiety, tension, depression, and
irritability
b) Others: Vitamin E, salt restriction, vitamin B6,
exercise

A

1) a) Caffeine

156
Q

Abnormal metabolism of androgens and estrogen; results in ovarian cysts

A

Polycystic Ovarian Syndrom (PCOS)

157
Q

Overview: Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS)

a) The most common cause of ______in some and one of the most common endocrine orders of reproductive-age women
b) Age of won’t typically pre-menopause but diagnosis may be delayed due to unmasking of symptoms during menopause; cause unknown but genetic thought to play a role

A

infertility

158
Q

Symptoms/ History: Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS)

1) menstrual irregularity
2) Infertility
3) ________
4) Obesity and metabolic syndrome
5) Acne

A

3) Histutism

159
Q

Associated Conditions: Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS)

1) Diabetes, metabolic syndrome
2) Heart and blood vessel complications
3) _______ cancer
4) Sleep apnea

A

Uterine cancer

Primary (44 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions