Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Primary > Diagnosis and Management of Neurologic Disorders > Flashcards

Diagnosis and Management of Neurologic Disorders Flashcards

1
Q

Olfactory is what cranial nerve?

A

CN 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Olfactory is associated with what type of nerve?

A

Sensory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The optic nerve is cranial what?

A

CN 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The optic nerve is for what?

A

vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The optic nerve is what type of nerve?

A

Sensory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Oculomotor is what CN?

A

CN 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Oculomotor is what type of nerve?

A

Motor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Oculomotor is used most with ____, opening ____, pupillary constriction

A

EOMs, eyelids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The trochlear nerve is what CN ___?

A

CN 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Trochlear nerve major function is?

A

Down and inward eye movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The trochlear nerve is what type of nerve?

A

Motor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The trigeminal nerve is what CN?

A

CN 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The major function of the trigeminal nerve is?

A

Muscles of mastication, the sensation of face, scalp, cornea, mucus membranes and nose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The trigeminal nerve is what type?

A

both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The abducens nerve major function is?

A

Lateral eye movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The abducens nerve is number what?

A

six

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The abducens nerve is what type?

A

motor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The facial nerve is number what?

A

seven

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The major function of the facial nerve?

A

Move face, close mouth, and eyes, taste (anterior 2/3), saliva and tear secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The type of facial nerve is?

A

both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The acoustic is what nerve number?

A

8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The major function of acoustic nerve is?

A

Hearing and equilibrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The type of acoustic nerve is?

A

sensory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The glossopharyngeal is what nerve?

A

9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The glossopharyngeal function is what?

A

Phonation (one-third), gag reflex, carotid reflex swallowing, taste (posterior)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The glossopharyngeal nerve is what type of nerve?

A

both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The vagus nerve is number?

A

ten

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The function of the vagus nerve is what?

A

Talking, swallowing, general sensation for the carotid body, carotid reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The vagus nerve is what type?

A

both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The spinal accessory nerve is what number?

A

11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The major function of the spinal accessory nerve is what?

A

movement of the trapezius and sternomastoid muscles (shrug shoulders)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

The spinal accessory nerve is what type of nerve?

A

motor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The hypoglossal nerve is what CN?

A

12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The hypoglossal nerve major function is?

A

move the tongue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

The hypoglossal nerve is what type?

A

motor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Components of Headache Evaluation

Chronology is the _____ important history item

A

most

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Components of Headache Evaluation

Location, duration, and quality should be _____

A

evaluated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Components of Headache Evaluation

Associated activity: ____, sleep, tension, relaxation

A

Exertion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Components of Headache Evaluation

Timing of the ______ cycle

A

menstrual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Components of Headache Evaluation

Presence of _____ symptoms

A

associated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Components of Headache Evaluation

6. Presence of “_____”

A

triggers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Signs/Symptoms

  1. Vise-like or tight in quality
  2. Usually generalized
  3. Maybe most intense about the neck or back of the head 4. No associated focal neurological symptoms
  4. Usually last for several hours
A

Tension Headaches Most common type of headache (90% of all headaches)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

_____ Headaches Most common type of headache (90% of all headaches)

A

Tension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Laboratory/Diagnostics

1. _____specific for tension headache

A

None

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Management tension headache:

  1. Over the counter analgesics
  2. _______
A

Relaxation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Migraine headaches are divided into two categories: _____ Migraine (migraine with aura) and

A

Classic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q 
Migraine headaches are divided into two categories: 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ migraine (migraine without aura).
A

common

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Migraine:

They have been related to dilation and excessive pulsation of branches of the external ____ artery

A

carotid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Migraine:

Typically lasts ___ to __ hours following the trigeminal nerve pathway.

A

2 to 72 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Causes/Incidence Migraine:

Onset usually in _______ or early adult years

A

adolescence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Causes/Incidence Migraine:

Often there is a _____ history

A

family

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Causes/Incidence Migraine:

_____ more often affected than males

A

Females

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Causes/Incidence Migraine:
A variety of “triggers” are associated with migraine: Emotional or physical _____, lack or excess sleep, missed meals, specific foods, alcoholic beverages, menstruation, use of oral contraceptives

A

stress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Causes/Incidence Migraine:

____ containing foods

A

Nitrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Causes/Incidence Migraine:

Changes in _____

A

weather

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Symptoms Migraine:

1. Unilateral, lateralized throbbing headache that occurs _______

A

episodically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Symptoms Migraine:

2. May be dull or _______

A

throbbing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Symptoms Migraine:

3. Build _____ and last for several hours or longer

A

gradually

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Symptoms Migraine:

4. Focal neurologic _______ may precede or accompany migraines

A

disturbances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Symptoms Migraine:
5. Visual disturbances occur commonly: Field defects, luminous visual _________ (i.e., stars, sparks or zigzag of lights)

A

hallucinations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Symptoms Migraine:

6. Aphasia, ________, tingling, clumsiness, or weakness may occur

A

numbness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Symptoms Migraine:

7. Nausea and ________

A

vomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Symptoms Migraine:

8. Photophobia and _________

A

phonophobia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Physical Exam Findings migraine:

1. Many times are normal although may see neuro _____as described above

A

deficits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Physical Exam Findings migraine:

2. Appears ____

A

ill

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Physical Exam Findings migraine:

3. Careful neuro exam for focal deficits or findings supportive of ______

A

tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

In patients with new migraine headaches, a variety of _________ studies must be done to rule out organic causes of the symptoms

A

baseline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q 
Migraine/ Laboratory/Diagnostics
1. Blood chemistries, basic metabolic panel (BMP)
2. CBC
3. VDRL
4. ESR
5. \_\_\_\_ scan of the head
6. Other studies as indicated by the history and physical 
    exam
A

CT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Management Migraine:

1. Avoidance of ____ factors very important

A

trigger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Management Migraine:

2. Relaxation/stress ____ techniques

A

management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q 
Management Migraine:
\_\_\_\_\_\_ daily therapy if attacks occur more than 2 to 3 times per month, i.e.,
   a. Amitriptyline (Elavil) 
   b. Divalproex (Depakote) 
   c. Propranolol (Inderal) 
   d. Imipramine (Tofranil) 
   e. Clonidine (Catapres) 
   f. Verapamil (Calan)
   g. Topiramate (Topamax)
   h. Gabapentin (Neuromin) 
   i. Methysergide (Sansert)
   j. Magnesium  
*This is not an all-inclusive list
A

Prophylactic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Management Migraine:

a. _______ (Elavil)

A

Amitriptyline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Management Migraine:

b. Divalproex (_______)

A

Depakote

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Management Migraine:

c. ______ (Inderal)

A

Propranolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Management Migraine:

d. Imipramine (_____)

A

Tofranil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Management Migraine:

e. Clonidine (_____)

A

Catapres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Management Migraine:

f. Verapamil (_____)

A

Calan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Management Migraine:

g. ______ (Topamax)

A

Topiramate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Management Migraine:

h. _______ (Neuromin)

A

Gabapentin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Management Migraine:

i. Methysergide (______)

A

Sansert

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Management Migraine:

j. this is an electrolyte

A

Magnesium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Management of Acute Attack with Migraine:

1. ______ in a dark, quiet room

A

Rest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Management of Acute Attack with Migraine:

2. Simple analgesic (____) taken right away may provide some relief

A

ASA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Management of Acute Attack with Migraine:

3. Sumatriptan (Imitrex) ___ mg SQ at the onset, may repeat in 1 hour (total of 3 times per day)

A

6 mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Management of Acute Attack with Migraine:

4. Sumatriptan (Imitrex) __ mg orally at the onset of headache

A

25 mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Very painful syndromes, mostly affecting middle-aged men

A

Cluster Headaches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Causes/Incidence of Cluster Headaches:

1. Often ___ family history of headache or migraine

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Causes/Incidence of Cluster Headaches:

2. Maybe precipitated by _____ ingestion

A

alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Causes/Incidence of Cluster Headaches:

3. Characterized by severe, unilateral, _____ pain occurring daily for several weeks

A

periorbital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Causes/Incidence of Cluster Headaches:

4. Usually occur at ______t, awakening the client from sleep

A

night

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Causes/Incidence of Cluster Headaches:

5. Usually last less than ___ hours, pain-free months or weeks between attacks

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Causes/Incidence of Cluster Headaches:

6. ______ nasal congestion, rhinorrhea, and eye redness may occur

A

Ipsilateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Physical Exam Findings/ Cluster Headaches:

1. The usual exam is _____; may see eye redness and rhinorrhea

A

normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Management/ Cluster Headaches:

1. Treatment of individual attacks with oral drugs usually ________

A

unsatisfactory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Management/ Cluster Headaches:

2. Sumatriptan (Imitrex) 6 mg SQ maybe _______

A

effective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Management/ Cluster Headaches:

3. Inhalation of ____ 02 may help

A

100%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Management/ Cluster Headaches:

4. Ergotamine tartrate aerosol inhalation (____) may be effective

A

Ergostat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Periods of acute cerebral insufficiency lasting less than 24 hours without any residual deficits

A

Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Causes/General Concepts of TIA:

1. ______ due to atherosclerosis, thrombus, arterial occlusion, embolus, intracerebral hemorrhage or

A

Ischemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Causes/General Concepts of TIA:

2. _______ events (atrial fibrillation, acute MI, endocarditis, valve disease)

A

Cardio-embolic

101
Q

Causes/General Concepts of TIA:

3. TIA is indicative of an impending _____

A

stroke

102
Q

Causes/General Concepts of TIA:

4. Approximately 1/3 of patients with TIA will experience cerebral infarction within _____ years.

A

five

103
Q

Signs/Symptoms TIA:

1.Altered vision: Ipsilateral monocular blindness (___ _____)

A

amaurosis fugax

104
Q

Signs/Symptoms TIA:

2. Altered speech: Transient _____

A

aphasia

105
Q

Signs/Symptoms TIA:

3. Motor impairment: Paresthesias of the ______ arm, leg, or face

A

contralateral

106
Q

Signs/Symptoms TIA:

4. ______ deficits

A

Sensory

107
Q

Signs/Symptoms TIA:

5. Cognitive and behavioral _________

A

abnormalities

108
Q

Signs/Symptoms TIA:

6. D_______

A

Dysphagia

109
Q

Signs/Symptoms TIA:

7. V_____

A

Vertigo

110
Q

Signs/Symptoms TIA:

8. N______

A

Nystagmus

111
Q

TIA Classifications

1. _________: As a result of inadequate blood flow from vertebral arteries

A

Vertebrobasilar

112
Q

TIA Vertebrobasilar Classifications

a. Sign/ symptoms: Vertigo, ataxia, ______, visual field deficits, weakness, confusion, etc.

A

dizziness

113
Q

TIA Classifications:

  1. _____ : Due to carotid stenosis
    a. Presentations include: Aphasia, dysarthria, altered LOC, weakness, numbness
A

Carotid

114
Q

Laboratory/Diagnostics: TIA

1. ____ is best for distinguishing between ischemia, hemorrhage, and tumor

A

CT

115
Q

Laboratory/Diagnostics: TIA

2. ____ is superior to CT in detecting ischemic infarcts

A

MRI

116
Q

Laboratory/Diagnostics: TIA

3. E_____________

A

Echocardiogram

117
Q

Laboratory/Diagnostics: TIA

4. _______ doppler/ultrasound

A

Carotid

118
Q

Laboratory/Diagnostics: TIA

5. C_______ angiography

A

Cerebral

119
Q

Seizure:
2. Generalized:
a. Absence (____ ____): Sudden arrest of motor
activity with a blank stare

A

petite mal

120
Q

___ ____ is commonly discovered in children/adolescents; begin and end suddenly

A

Petite mal

121
Q

This is another general seizure that isn’t petite mal?

A

Tonic-clonic (grand mal)

122
Q

May have aura

A

Tonic-clonic (grand mal)

123
Q

Begins with tonic contractions (repetitive involuntary contractions of muscle), loss of consciousness, then clonic contractions (maintained involuntary contraction of the muscle)
Usually lasts 2-5 minutes
Incontinence may occur
Followed by a postictal period

A

Tonic-clonic (grand mal)

124
Q

Status Epilepticus: Series of ___ ___ seizures of > 10 minutes duration

A

grand mal

125
Q

Series of ___ ___ seizures of > 10 minutes duration
a. Medical emergency
b. May occur when the patient is awake or asleep, but the
patient never gains consciousness between attacks
c. Most uncommon, but most life-threatening

A

grand mal

126
Q

Laboratory/Diagnostics

1: **Seizure assessment includes:
a. Presence of aura, onset, spread, type of movement, ____ parts involved, pupil changes, and reactivity, duration, loss/level of consciousness, incontinence, behavioral and neurological changes after cessation of seizure activity

A

body

127
Q
  1. ____: The most importer test in determining seizure classification
A

EEG

128
Q
  1. CT of the head: Indicated for all ___-onset seizures
A

new

129
Q
  1. _____ management is supportive as most seizures are self-limiting
A

Initial

130
Q

Seizure:

2. Maintain ____ ____, protect the patient from injuries, administer oxygen if needed

A

open airway

131
Q

Seizure:

3. Do not force _____ airways or objects between teeth

A

artificial

132
Q

Seizure:

4. ________ anticonvulsants are used to stop convulsive seizures rapidly

A

Parenteral

133
Q

Seizure medications:

5. Benzodiazepines: D_______ (Valium) 5-10 mg IV or

A

Diazepam

134
Q

Seizure medications:

6. L_________ (Ativan) 2-4 mg IV at 1-2 mg/minute

A

Lorazepam

135
Q

Seizure medications:
7. P______ (Dilantin): Loading dose 20 mg/kg @
50 mg/min continuous infusion

A

Phenytoin

136
Q

Seizure medications:

8. F________(Cerebyx): Prodrug of Dilantin

A

Fosphenytoin

137
Q

Seizure medications:

9. P_______ (Luminal): Administered if phenytoin is unresponsive

A

Phenobarbital

138
Q

Seizure medications:

10. B______ coma or general anesthesia with neuromuscular blockade

A

Barbiturate

139
Q

Subsequent Seizure Prevention

  1. Maintenance doses of long-acting anticonvulsants:
    a. C________ (Tegretol)
A

Carbamazepine

140
Q

Subsequent Seizure Prevention

  1. Maintenance doses of long-acting anticonvulsants:
    b. P_____ (Dilantin)
A

Phenytoin

141
Q

Subsequent Seizure Prevention

  1. Maintenance doses of long-acting anticonvulsants:
    c. ________ (Luminal)
A

Phenobarbital

142
Q

Subsequent Seizure Prevention

  1. Maintenance doses of long-acting anticonvulsants:
    d. ____ ____ (Depakene)
A

Valproic acid

143
Q

Subsequent Seizure Prevention

  1. Maintenance doses of long-acting anticonvulsants:
    e. _______ (Mysoline)
A

Primidone

144
Q

Subsequent Seizure Prevention

  1. Maintenance doses of long-acting anticonvulsants:
    f. _______ (Klonopin).
A

Clonazepam

145
Q

Subsequent Seizure Prevention

  1. Maintenance doses of long-acting anticonvulsants:
  2. Dosages should be ______
A

titrated

146
Q

Subsequent Seizure Prevention

  1. Maintenance doses of long-acting anticonvulsants:
  2. Discontinuance should be tapered and never abruptly _________
A

withdrawn

147
Q

Additional antiepileptic drugs

a. _______ (Neurontin)

A

Gabapentin

148
Q

Additional antiepileptic drugs

b. _________ (Vimpat)

A

Lacosamide

149
Q

Additional antiepileptic drugs

c. ________ (Lamictal)

A

Lamotrigine

150
Q

Additional antiepileptic drugs

d. ________ (Keppra)

A

Levetiracetam

151
Q

Additional antiepileptic drugs

e. _________ (Trileptal)

A

Oxcarbazepine

152
Q

Additional antiepileptic drugs

f. _______ (Lyrica)

A

Pregabalin

153
Q

Additional antiepileptic drugs

g. ________ (Banzel)

A

Rufinamide

154
Q

Additional antiepileptic drugs

h. ______ (Gabitril)

A

Tiagabine

155
Q

Additional antiepileptic drugs

Dosages should be _______

A

titrated

156
Q

Additional antiepileptic drugs

Discontinuance should be tapered and never abruptly __________

A

withdrawn

157
Q

_____ _______

A degenerative disorder as a result of insufficient amounts of dopamine in the body

A

Parkinson’s Disease

158
Q

Parkinson’s Disease
Causes/Incidence
1. Occurs in all _____ groups

A

ethnic

159
Q

Parkinson’s Disease
Causes/Incidence
2. Approximately equal _____ distribution

A

gender

160
Q

Parkinson’s Disease
Causes/Incidence
3. Onset usually between ____ and ___ years of age

A

45 and 65

161
Q

Parkinson’s Disease
Causes/Incidence
4. Most commonly is _______

A

idiopathic

162
Q

Parkinson’s Disease
Signs/Symptoms:
Tremor: Slow, most conspicuous at rest; may be enhanced by ______

A

stress

163
Q

Parkinson’s Disease
Signs/Symptoms:
B__________

A

Bradykinesia

164
Q

Parkinson’s Disease
Signs/Symptoms:
Wooden _______

A

facies

165
Q

Parkinson’s Disease
Signs/Symptoms:
Impaired ________

A

swallowing

166
Q

Parkinson’s Disease
Signs/Symptoms:
______ may be observed

A

Drooling

167
Q

Parkinson’s Disease
Signs/Symptoms:
Decreased b_____

A

blinking

168
Q

Parkinson’s Disease
Signs/Symptoms:
________ sign: repetitive tapping over the bridge of the nose produces a sustained blink response (glabellar reflex)

A

Myerson’s

169
Q

Parkinson’s Disease
Laboratory/Diagnostics
1. ______ specific to Parkinsonism Management

A

None

170
Q

Anticholinergics are helpful in alleviating tremor and rigidity
a. __________ (Cogentin)

A

Benztropine

171
Q

Anticholinergics are helpful in alleviating tremor and rigidity
b. ________ (Artane)

A

Trihexyphenidyl

172
Q

________ (Eldepryl) or L-deprenyl; controversial but conserves amounts of dopamine

A

Selegiline

173
Q

Parkinson’s Disease
Management:
1. Increasing available dopamine
a. Carbidopa-Levodopa (_____)

A

Sinemet

174
Q

Parkinson’s Disease
Management:
1. Increasing available dopamine
b. _________ (Symmetrel)

A

Amantadine

175
Q

Parkinson’s Disease
Management:
1. Increasing available dopamine
c. Tolcapone (_____)

A

Tasmar

176
Q

Parkinson’s Disease
Management:
1. Increasing available dopamine
d. _________ (Mirapex)

A

Pramipexole

177
Q

Parkinson’s Disease
Management:
1. Increasing available dopamine
e. Ropinirole hydrochlide (____)

A

Requip

178
Q

Parkinson’s Disease
Management
2. Anticholinergic helpful in alleviating tremor and rigidity
a. Benztropine (______)

A

Cogentin

179
Q

Parkinson’s Disease
Management
2. Anticholinergic helpful in alleviating tremor and rigidity
b. _________ (Artane)

A

Trihexyphenidyl

180
Q

Parkinson’s Disease
Management:
__________ (Eldepryl) or L- deprenyl; controversial but conserves amounts of dopamine

A

Selegiline

181
Q

_____ ______

  1. An autoimmune disorder resulting in the reduction of the number of acetylcholine receptor sites at the neuromuscular junction
  2. Weakness is typically worse, after exercise and better after rest
  3. Variable clinical course with remissions and exacerbations
A

Myasthenia Gravis

182
Q

Incidence of Myasthenia Gravis is:

1. Affects __ to ___ million people in the United States/year

A

2 to 5

183
Q

Incidence of Myasthenia Gravis is:

2. Predominant age: __ to ___ years but may occur at any age

A

20 to 40

184
Q

Incidence of Myasthenia Gravis is:

3. Incidence peaks in the 3rd decade for females; in the ____ and ___ decades for males

A

5th and 6th

185
Q

Incidence of Myasthenia Gravis is:

4. Occurs more commonly in ______

A

women

186
Q

AKA blepharoptosis or drooping upper eyelid is commonly seen in Myasthenia Gravis another name for this is what?

A

Ptosis

187
Q

This means double vision?

A

Diplopia

188
Q

____ occurs when the muscles you use for speech are weak or you have difficulty controlling them. ____ often causes slurred or slow speech that can be difficult to understand.

A

Dysarthria

189
Q

_____ medical term for swallowing difficulties

A

Dysphagia

190
Q

Myasthenia Gravis signs and symptoms:

  1. Ptosis
  2. Diplopia
  3. Dysarthria
  4. Dysphagia
  5. Extremity ______
  6. Fatigue
  7. Respiratory difficulty
  8. Sensory modalities and DTRs are normal
A

weakness

191
Q

Laboratory/ diagnostics for Myasthenia Gravis include:

1. Antibodies to _______ receptors (AChR-ab) are found in the serum in ____% of patients

A

acetylcholine

85%

192
Q

Laboratory/ diagnostics for Myasthenia Gravis include:
2. ____________ (Tensilon) test may be used to differentiate a myasthenic vs.
cholinergic crisis

A

Edrophonium

193
Q

Management of Myasthenia Gravis:

1. No specific protocol: ________ referral

A

Neurology

194
Q

Management of Myasthenia Gravis:
2. Anticholinesterase drugs block the hydrolysis of acetylcholine and are used for symptomatic improvement [(e.g., ____ _____ (Prostigmin)]

A

pyridostigmine bromide

195
Q

Management of Myasthenia Gravis:

3. I__________

A

Immunosuppressives

196
Q

Management of Myasthenia Gravis:

4. P___________

A

Plasmapheresis

197
Q

Management of Myasthenia Gravis:

5. _______ support may be needed during a crisis

A

Ventilator

198
Q

_____ ______

  1. An autoimmune disease marked by numbness, weakness, loss of muscle coordination, mad problems with vision, sleep and bladder control
  2. The body’s immune system attacks a key substance that serves as a nerve insulator and helps in the transmission of nerve signals.
  3. Variable clinical course with remissions and exacerbations
A

Multiple Sclerosis

199
Q

Incidence of M.S:

1. The greatest incidence is in young adults: Usually between _____ and ____ years of age.

A

20 and 50

200
Q

Multiple Sclerosis

More common in persons of _____ ____ descent, living in temperate zones

A

Western European

201
Q

Multiple Sclerosis:

  1. Weakness, numbness, _______ or unsteadiness in a limb: may progress to all limbs
  2. Spastic paraparesis
  3. Diplopia
  4. Disequilibrium
  5. Urinary urgency or hesitancy
  6. Optic atrophy
  7. Nystagmus
A

tingling

202
Q

Laboratory/ Diagnostics of M.S.:

  1. Definitive diagnosis can never be based solely on laboratory findings
  2. Mild lymphocytosis common
  3. Slightly elevated protein in CSF
  4. Elevated CSF _____
  5. MRI of the brain
A

IgG

203
Q

Multiple Sclerosis:

  1. ____ ______ to prevent progression of the disease; neurology referral
  2. Recovery from acute relapses hastened by steroids, but extent/recovery not improved
  3. Antispasmodics
  4. Interferon therapy
  5. Immunosuppressive therapy
  6. Plasmapheresis
A

No treatment

204
Q

_____ ____

Characterized by a facial paresis, frequently resolving completely without treatment

A

Bell’s Palsy

205
Q

Causes/Incidence of Bell’s Palsy:

1. _______ reaction involving file facial nerve

A

Inflammatory

206
Q

Causes/Incidence of Bell’s Palsy:

2. Idiopathic cause; relationship to reactivation of ____ _____ has been suggested

A

herpes simplex

207
Q

Signs/Symptoms Bell’s Palsy:

1. Abrupt onset of ____ paresis

A

facial

208
Q

Signs/Symptoms Bell’s Palsy:

2. Pain about the _____ may accompany the weakness

A

eye

209
Q

Signs/Symptoms Bell’s Palsy:

  1. Face feels stiff and pulled to one side; unable to move forehead
    a. ______ restriction of eye closure
    b. Difficulty with eating and fine facial movements
    c. Maybe a disturbance of taste
A

Ipsilateral

210
Q

Laboratory/Diagnostics Bell’s Palsy:

1. ______

A

None

211
Q

Management Bell’s Palsy:
1. ________ 60 mg divided in 4 to 5 doses daily and
tapered over 7 to 10 days

A

Prednisone

212
Q

Management Bell’s Palsy:
2. ______ [when facial palsy caused by varicella-zoster
infection (Ramsey Hunt syndrome)]

A

Acyclovir

213
Q

Management Bell’s Palsy:

4. ______ referral as needed

A

Neurology

214
Q

Management Bell’s Palsy:
3. ________ eye drops and patch at night if unable to
close

A

Lubricating

215
Q

___ _____

Nerve disorder that causes a stabbing or electric shock-like pain in parts of the face

A

Trigeminal Neuralgia

216
Q

Causes Trigeminal Neuralgia:

1. ____ _____

A

Multiple sclerosis

217
Q

Causes Trigeminal Neuralgia:

2. Pressure on the _________ nerve from a swollen blood vessel or tumor

A

trigeminal

218
Q

Trigeminal Neuralgia:
Signs/Symptoms:
1. Very painful, sharp ______ that last a few seconds or minutes, can become constant

A

spasms

219
Q

Trigeminal Neuralgia:
Signs/Symptoms:
2. Pain is usually localized on ____ side of the face

A

one

220
Q

Laboratory/Diagnostics Trigeminal Neuralgia:

  1. Neurological examination
  2. ____
  3. Trigeminal reflex testing
A

MRI

221
Q

Management Trigeminal Neuralgia:

  1. Anti-seizure drugs
  2. Muscle ________
  3. Tricyclic antidepressants
A

relaxants

222
Q 
Gerontology Considerations
Nervous System
1. Physiologic changes
   a. Decrease the number of \_\_\_\_\_ and 
       neurotransmitters
A

neurons

223
Q 
Gerontology Considerations
Nervous System
1. Physiologic changes
   b. Modifications in cerebral\_\_\_\_\_\_, glial support 
       cells, synapses
A

dendrites

224
Q

Gerontology Considerations
Nervous System
1. Physiologic changes
c. ___________ thermoregulation

A

Compromised

225
Q

Gerontology Considerations
d. Peripheral nervous system
aa. Decreased ______ responses
•

A

baroreflex

226
Q

Gerontology Considerations
d. Peripheral nervous system
bb. Decreased ____ ______ responsiveness,
decreased receptors •

A

beta-adrenergic

227
Q

Gerontology Considerations
d. Peripheral nervous system
cc. Decreased signal ______
•

A

transduction

228
Q

Gerontology Considerations
d. Peripheral nervous system
dd. Decreased ______ parasympathetic
responses •

A

muscarinic

229
Q

Gerontology Considerations

d. Peripheral nervous system
ee. Preserved _____ responses

A

alpha

230
Q

Gerontology Considerations
e. Central nervous system
• aa. Decreased _______ receptors

A

dopamine

231
Q

Gerontology Considerations
e. Central nervous system
• bb. Increased ______ responses

A

alpha

232
Q

Gerontology Considerations
e. Central nervous system
• cc. Increased ______ parasympathetic responses

A

muscarinic

233
Q

Gerontology Considerations

f. Decreased sense of ______

A

touch

234
Q

Gerontology Considerations

g. Increase in _____ tolerance

A

pain

235
Q

Gerontology Considerations
Possible findings/results
a. impairments:
• aa. Diminished general muscle ______

A

strength

236
Q

Gerontology Considerations
Possible findings/results
a. impairments:
• bb. Diminished deep-tendon ______

A

reflexes

237
Q

Gerontology Considerations
Possible findings/results
a. impairments:
• cc. _____ nerve conduction velocity

A

Slower

238
Q

Gerontology Considerations
Possible findings/results
b. Slowed _____ skills

A

motor

239
Q

Gerontology Considerations
Possible findings/results
c. Deficits in _____ and coordination

A

balance

240
Q

Gerontology Considerations
Possible findings/results
d. Decreased _______ sensitivity

A

temperature

241
Q

Gerontology Considerations
Possible findings/results
e. Blunted or absent _____ response

A

fever

242
Q 
Gerontology Considerations
Possible findings/results
f. Slowed speed of cognitive processing
•   aa. Some cognitive decline is \_\_\_\_\_ but not 
             universal.
A

common

243
Q

Gerontology Considerations
f. Slowed speed of cognitive processing
• bb. Most memory functions are _____ for normal
life

A

adequate

244
Q

Gerontology Considerations
g. Increased risk of:
• aa. _____ disorders

A

Sleep

245
Q

Gerontology Considerations
g. Increased risk of:
• bb. ______ / mental status

A

Delirium

246
Q

Gerontology Considerations
g. Increased risk of:
• cc. Neuro_____ diseases

A

Neurodegenerative

247
Q

Gerontology Considerations
g. Increased risk of:
• dd. ___/ common injury in elderly

A

Falls

248
Q

Gerontology Considerations
g. Increased risk of:
• ee. Inability to carry out physical normal activities of
____ ____

A

daily living

Primary (44 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions