Diagnosis and Management of Neurologic Disorders Flashcards
Olfactory is what cranial nerve?
CN 1
Olfactory is associated with what type of nerve?
Sensory
The optic nerve is cranial what?
CN 2
The optic nerve is for what?
vision
The optic nerve is what type of nerve?
Sensory
Oculomotor is what CN?
CN 3
Oculomotor is what type of nerve?
Motor
Oculomotor is used most with ____, opening ____, pupillary constriction
EOMs, eyelids
The trochlear nerve is what CN ___?
CN 4
Trochlear nerve major function is?
Down and inward eye movement
The trochlear nerve is what type of nerve?
Motor
The trigeminal nerve is what CN?
CN 5
The major function of the trigeminal nerve is?
Muscles of mastication, the sensation of face, scalp, cornea, mucus membranes and nose
The trigeminal nerve is what type?
both
The abducens nerve major function is?
Lateral eye movement
The abducens nerve is number what?
six
The abducens nerve is what type?
motor
The facial nerve is number what?
seven
The major function of the facial nerve?
Move face, close mouth, and eyes, taste (anterior 2/3), saliva and tear secretion
The type of facial nerve is?
both
The acoustic is what nerve number?
8
The major function of acoustic nerve is?
Hearing and equilibrium
The type of acoustic nerve is?
sensory
The glossopharyngeal is what nerve?
9
The glossopharyngeal function is what?
Phonation (one-third), gag reflex, carotid reflex swallowing, taste (posterior)
The glossopharyngeal nerve is what type of nerve?
both
The vagus nerve is number?
ten
The function of the vagus nerve is what?
Talking, swallowing, general sensation for the carotid body, carotid reflex
The vagus nerve is what type?
both
The spinal accessory nerve is what number?
11
The major function of the spinal accessory nerve is what?
movement of the trapezius and sternomastoid muscles (shrug shoulders)
The spinal accessory nerve is what type of nerve?
motor
The hypoglossal nerve is what CN?
12
The hypoglossal nerve major function is?
move the tongue
The hypoglossal nerve is what type?
motor
Components of Headache Evaluation
Chronology is the _____ important history item
most
Components of Headache Evaluation
Location, duration, and quality should be _____
evaluated
Components of Headache Evaluation
Associated activity: ____, sleep, tension, relaxation
Exertion
Components of Headache Evaluation
Timing of the ______ cycle
menstrual
Components of Headache Evaluation
Presence of _____ symptoms
associated
Components of Headache Evaluation
6. Presence of “_____”
triggers
Signs/Symptoms
- Vise-like or tight in quality
- Usually generalized
- Maybe most intense about the neck or back of the head 4. No associated focal neurological symptoms
- Usually last for several hours
Tension Headaches Most common type of headache (90% of all headaches)
_____ Headaches Most common type of headache (90% of all headaches)
Tension
Laboratory/Diagnostics
1. _____specific for tension headache
None
Management tension headache:
- Over the counter analgesics
- _______
Relaxation
Migraine headaches are divided into two categories: _____ Migraine (migraine with aura) and
Classic
Migraine headaches are divided into two categories: \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ migraine (migraine without aura).
common
Migraine:
They have been related to dilation and excessive pulsation of branches of the external ____ artery
carotid
Migraine:
Typically lasts ___ to __ hours following the trigeminal nerve pathway.
2 to 72 hours
Causes/Incidence Migraine:
Onset usually in _______ or early adult years
adolescence
Causes/Incidence Migraine:
Often there is a _____ history
family
Causes/Incidence Migraine:
_____ more often affected than males
Females
Causes/Incidence Migraine:
A variety of “triggers” are associated with migraine: Emotional or physical _____, lack or excess sleep, missed meals, specific foods, alcoholic beverages, menstruation, use of oral contraceptives
stress
Causes/Incidence Migraine:
____ containing foods
Nitrate
Causes/Incidence Migraine:
Changes in _____
weather
Symptoms Migraine:
1. Unilateral, lateralized throbbing headache that occurs _______
episodically
Symptoms Migraine:
2. May be dull or _______
throbbing
Symptoms Migraine:
3. Build _____ and last for several hours or longer
gradually
Symptoms Migraine:
4. Focal neurologic _______ may precede or accompany migraines
disturbances
Symptoms Migraine:
5. Visual disturbances occur commonly: Field defects, luminous visual _________ (i.e., stars, sparks or zigzag of lights)
hallucinations
Symptoms Migraine:
6. Aphasia, ________, tingling, clumsiness, or weakness may occur
numbness
Symptoms Migraine:
7. Nausea and ________
vomiting
Symptoms Migraine:
8. Photophobia and _________
phonophobia
Physical Exam Findings migraine:
1. Many times are normal although may see neuro _____as described above
deficits
Physical Exam Findings migraine:
2. Appears ____
ill
Physical Exam Findings migraine:
3. Careful neuro exam for focal deficits or findings supportive of ______
tumor
In patients with new migraine headaches, a variety of _________ studies must be done to rule out organic causes of the symptoms
baseline
Migraine/ Laboratory/Diagnostics
1. Blood chemistries, basic metabolic panel (BMP)
2. CBC
3. VDRL
4. ESR
5. \_\_\_\_ scan of the head
6. Other studies as indicated by the history and physical
examCT
Management Migraine:
1. Avoidance of ____ factors very important
trigger
Management Migraine:
2. Relaxation/stress ____ techniques
management
Management Migraine: \_\_\_\_\_\_ daily therapy if attacks occur more than 2 to 3 times per month, i.e., a. Amitriptyline (Elavil) b. Divalproex (Depakote) c. Propranolol (Inderal) d. Imipramine (Tofranil) e. Clonidine (Catapres) f. Verapamil (Calan) g. Topiramate (Topamax) h. Gabapentin (Neuromin) i. Methysergide (Sansert) j. Magnesium *This is not an all-inclusive list
Prophylactic
Management Migraine:
a. _______ (Elavil)
Amitriptyline
Management Migraine:
b. Divalproex (_______)
Depakote
Management Migraine:
c. ______ (Inderal)
Propranolol
Management Migraine:
d. Imipramine (_____)
Tofranil
Management Migraine:
e. Clonidine (_____)
Catapres
Management Migraine:
f. Verapamil (_____)
Calan
Management Migraine:
g. ______ (Topamax)
Topiramate
Management Migraine:
h. _______ (Neuromin)
Gabapentin
Management Migraine:
i. Methysergide (______)
Sansert
Management Migraine:
j. this is an electrolyte
Magnesium
Management of Acute Attack with Migraine:
1. ______ in a dark, quiet room
Rest
Management of Acute Attack with Migraine:
2. Simple analgesic (____) taken right away may provide some relief
ASA
Management of Acute Attack with Migraine:
3. Sumatriptan (Imitrex) ___ mg SQ at the onset, may repeat in 1 hour (total of 3 times per day)
6 mg
Management of Acute Attack with Migraine:
4. Sumatriptan (Imitrex) __ mg orally at the onset of headache
25 mg
Very painful syndromes, mostly affecting middle-aged men
Cluster Headaches
Causes/Incidence of Cluster Headaches:
1. Often ___ family history of headache or migraine
no
Causes/Incidence of Cluster Headaches:
2. Maybe precipitated by _____ ingestion
alcohol
Causes/Incidence of Cluster Headaches:
3. Characterized by severe, unilateral, _____ pain occurring daily for several weeks
periorbital
Causes/Incidence of Cluster Headaches:
4. Usually occur at ______t, awakening the client from sleep
night
Causes/Incidence of Cluster Headaches:
5. Usually last less than ___ hours, pain-free months or weeks between attacks
2
Causes/Incidence of Cluster Headaches:
6. ______ nasal congestion, rhinorrhea, and eye redness may occur
Ipsilateral
Physical Exam Findings/ Cluster Headaches:
1. The usual exam is _____; may see eye redness and rhinorrhea
normal
Management/ Cluster Headaches:
1. Treatment of individual attacks with oral drugs usually ________
unsatisfactory
Management/ Cluster Headaches:
2. Sumatriptan (Imitrex) 6 mg SQ maybe _______
effective
Management/ Cluster Headaches:
3. Inhalation of ____ 02 may help
100%
Management/ Cluster Headaches:
4. Ergotamine tartrate aerosol inhalation (____) may be effective
Ergostat
Periods of acute cerebral insufficiency lasting less than 24 hours without any residual deficits
Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA)
Causes/General Concepts of TIA:
1. ______ due to atherosclerosis, thrombus, arterial occlusion, embolus, intracerebral hemorrhage or
Ischemia
Causes/General Concepts of TIA:
2. _______ events (atrial fibrillation, acute MI, endocarditis, valve disease)
Cardio-embolic
Causes/General Concepts of TIA:
3. TIA is indicative of an impending _____
stroke
Causes/General Concepts of TIA:
4. Approximately 1/3 of patients with TIA will experience cerebral infarction within _____ years.
five
Signs/Symptoms TIA:
1.Altered vision: Ipsilateral monocular blindness (___ _____)
amaurosis fugax
Signs/Symptoms TIA:
2. Altered speech: Transient _____
aphasia
Signs/Symptoms TIA:
3. Motor impairment: Paresthesias of the ______ arm, leg, or face
contralateral
Signs/Symptoms TIA:
4. ______ deficits
Sensory
Signs/Symptoms TIA:
5. Cognitive and behavioral _________
abnormalities
Signs/Symptoms TIA:
6. D_______
Dysphagia
Signs/Symptoms TIA:
7. V_____
Vertigo
Signs/Symptoms TIA:
8. N______
Nystagmus
TIA Classifications
1. _________: As a result of inadequate blood flow from vertebral arteries
Vertebrobasilar
TIA Vertebrobasilar Classifications
a. Sign/ symptoms: Vertigo, ataxia, ______, visual field deficits, weakness, confusion, etc.
dizziness
TIA Classifications:
- _____ : Due to carotid stenosis
a. Presentations include: Aphasia, dysarthria, altered LOC, weakness, numbness
Carotid
Laboratory/Diagnostics: TIA
1. ____ is best for distinguishing between ischemia, hemorrhage, and tumor
CT
Laboratory/Diagnostics: TIA
2. ____ is superior to CT in detecting ischemic infarcts
MRI
Laboratory/Diagnostics: TIA
3. E_____________
Echocardiogram
Laboratory/Diagnostics: TIA
4. _______ doppler/ultrasound
Carotid
Laboratory/Diagnostics: TIA
5. C_______ angiography
Cerebral
Seizure:
2. Generalized:
a. Absence (____ ____): Sudden arrest of motor
activity with a blank stare
petite mal
___ ____ is commonly discovered in children/adolescents; begin and end suddenly
Petite mal
This is another general seizure that isn’t petite mal?
Tonic-clonic (grand mal)
May have aura
Tonic-clonic (grand mal)
Begins with tonic contractions (repetitive involuntary contractions of muscle), loss of consciousness, then clonic contractions (maintained involuntary contraction of the muscle)
Usually lasts 2-5 minutes
Incontinence may occur
Followed by a postictal period
Tonic-clonic (grand mal)
Status Epilepticus: Series of ___ ___ seizures of > 10 minutes duration
grand mal
Series of ___ ___ seizures of > 10 minutes duration
a. Medical emergency
b. May occur when the patient is awake or asleep, but the
patient never gains consciousness between attacks
c. Most uncommon, but most life-threatening
grand mal
Laboratory/Diagnostics
1: **Seizure assessment includes:
a. Presence of aura, onset, spread, type of movement, ____ parts involved, pupil changes, and reactivity, duration, loss/level of consciousness, incontinence, behavioral and neurological changes after cessation of seizure activity
body
- ____: The most importer test in determining seizure classification
EEG
- CT of the head: Indicated for all ___-onset seizures
new
- _____ management is supportive as most seizures are self-limiting
Initial
Seizure:
2. Maintain ____ ____, protect the patient from injuries, administer oxygen if needed
open airway
Seizure:
3. Do not force _____ airways or objects between teeth
artificial
Seizure:
4. ________ anticonvulsants are used to stop convulsive seizures rapidly
Parenteral
Seizure medications:
5. Benzodiazepines: D_______ (Valium) 5-10 mg IV or
Diazepam
Seizure medications:
6. L_________ (Ativan) 2-4 mg IV at 1-2 mg/minute
Lorazepam
Seizure medications:
7. P______ (Dilantin): Loading dose 20 mg/kg @
50 mg/min continuous infusion
Phenytoin
Seizure medications:
8. F________(Cerebyx): Prodrug of Dilantin
Fosphenytoin
Seizure medications:
9. P_______ (Luminal): Administered if phenytoin is unresponsive
Phenobarbital
Seizure medications:
10. B______ coma or general anesthesia with neuromuscular blockade
Barbiturate
Subsequent Seizure Prevention
- Maintenance doses of long-acting anticonvulsants:
a. C________ (Tegretol)
Carbamazepine
Subsequent Seizure Prevention
- Maintenance doses of long-acting anticonvulsants:
b. P_____ (Dilantin)
Phenytoin
Subsequent Seizure Prevention
- Maintenance doses of long-acting anticonvulsants:
c. ________ (Luminal)
Phenobarbital
Subsequent Seizure Prevention
- Maintenance doses of long-acting anticonvulsants:
d. ____ ____ (Depakene)
Valproic acid
Subsequent Seizure Prevention
- Maintenance doses of long-acting anticonvulsants:
e. _______ (Mysoline)
Primidone
Subsequent Seizure Prevention
- Maintenance doses of long-acting anticonvulsants:
f. _______ (Klonopin).
Clonazepam
Subsequent Seizure Prevention
- Maintenance doses of long-acting anticonvulsants:
- Dosages should be ______
titrated
Subsequent Seizure Prevention
- Maintenance doses of long-acting anticonvulsants:
- Discontinuance should be tapered and never abruptly _________
withdrawn
Additional antiepileptic drugs
a. _______ (Neurontin)
Gabapentin
Additional antiepileptic drugs
b. _________ (Vimpat)
Lacosamide
Additional antiepileptic drugs
c. ________ (Lamictal)
Lamotrigine
Additional antiepileptic drugs
d. ________ (Keppra)
Levetiracetam
Additional antiepileptic drugs
e. _________ (Trileptal)
Oxcarbazepine
Additional antiepileptic drugs
f. _______ (Lyrica)
Pregabalin
Additional antiepileptic drugs
g. ________ (Banzel)
Rufinamide
Additional antiepileptic drugs
h. ______ (Gabitril)
Tiagabine
Additional antiepileptic drugs
Dosages should be _______
titrated
Additional antiepileptic drugs
Discontinuance should be tapered and never abruptly __________
withdrawn
_____ _______
A degenerative disorder as a result of insufficient amounts of dopamine in the body
Parkinson’s Disease
Parkinson’s Disease
Causes/Incidence
1. Occurs in all _____ groups
ethnic
Parkinson’s Disease
Causes/Incidence
2. Approximately equal _____ distribution
gender
Parkinson’s Disease
Causes/Incidence
3. Onset usually between ____ and ___ years of age
45 and 65
Parkinson’s Disease
Causes/Incidence
4. Most commonly is _______
idiopathic
Parkinson’s Disease
Signs/Symptoms:
Tremor: Slow, most conspicuous at rest; may be enhanced by ______
stress
Parkinson’s Disease
Signs/Symptoms:
B__________
Bradykinesia
Parkinson’s Disease
Signs/Symptoms:
Wooden _______
facies
Parkinson’s Disease
Signs/Symptoms:
Impaired ________
swallowing
Parkinson’s Disease
Signs/Symptoms:
______ may be observed
Drooling
Parkinson’s Disease
Signs/Symptoms:
Decreased b_____
blinking
Parkinson’s Disease
Signs/Symptoms:
________ sign: repetitive tapping over the bridge of the nose produces a sustained blink response (glabellar reflex)
Myerson’s
Parkinson’s Disease
Laboratory/Diagnostics
1. ______ specific to Parkinsonism Management
None
Anticholinergics are helpful in alleviating tremor and rigidity
a. __________ (Cogentin)
Benztropine
Anticholinergics are helpful in alleviating tremor and rigidity
b. ________ (Artane)
Trihexyphenidyl
________ (Eldepryl) or L-deprenyl; controversial but conserves amounts of dopamine
Selegiline
Parkinson’s Disease
Management:
1. Increasing available dopamine
a. Carbidopa-Levodopa (_____)
Sinemet
Parkinson’s Disease
Management:
1. Increasing available dopamine
b. _________ (Symmetrel)
Amantadine
Parkinson’s Disease
Management:
1. Increasing available dopamine
c. Tolcapone (_____)
Tasmar
Parkinson’s Disease
Management:
1. Increasing available dopamine
d. _________ (Mirapex)
Pramipexole
Parkinson’s Disease
Management:
1. Increasing available dopamine
e. Ropinirole hydrochlide (____)
Requip
Parkinson’s Disease
Management
2. Anticholinergic helpful in alleviating tremor and rigidity
a. Benztropine (______)
Cogentin
Parkinson’s Disease
Management
2. Anticholinergic helpful in alleviating tremor and rigidity
b. _________ (Artane)
Trihexyphenidyl
Parkinson’s Disease
Management:
__________ (Eldepryl) or L- deprenyl; controversial but conserves amounts of dopamine
Selegiline
_____ ______
- An autoimmune disorder resulting in the reduction of the number of acetylcholine receptor sites at the neuromuscular junction
- Weakness is typically worse, after exercise and better after rest
- Variable clinical course with remissions and exacerbations
Myasthenia Gravis
Incidence of Myasthenia Gravis is:
1. Affects __ to ___ million people in the United States/year
2 to 5
Incidence of Myasthenia Gravis is:
2. Predominant age: __ to ___ years but may occur at any age
20 to 40
Incidence of Myasthenia Gravis is:
3. Incidence peaks in the 3rd decade for females; in the ____ and ___ decades for males
5th and 6th
Incidence of Myasthenia Gravis is:
4. Occurs more commonly in ______
women
AKA blepharoptosis or drooping upper eyelid is commonly seen in Myasthenia Gravis another name for this is what?
Ptosis
This means double vision?
Diplopia
____ occurs when the muscles you use for speech are weak or you have difficulty controlling them. ____ often causes slurred or slow speech that can be difficult to understand.
Dysarthria
_____ medical term for swallowing difficulties
Dysphagia
Myasthenia Gravis signs and symptoms:
- Ptosis
- Diplopia
- Dysarthria
- Dysphagia
- Extremity ______
- Fatigue
- Respiratory difficulty
- Sensory modalities and DTRs are normal
weakness
Laboratory/ diagnostics for Myasthenia Gravis include:
1. Antibodies to _______ receptors (AChR-ab) are found in the serum in ____% of patients
acetylcholine
85%
Laboratory/ diagnostics for Myasthenia Gravis include:
2. ____________ (Tensilon) test may be used to differentiate a myasthenic vs.
cholinergic crisis
Edrophonium
Management of Myasthenia Gravis:
1. No specific protocol: ________ referral
Neurology
Management of Myasthenia Gravis:
2. Anticholinesterase drugs block the hydrolysis of acetylcholine and are used for symptomatic improvement [(e.g., ____ _____ (Prostigmin)]
pyridostigmine bromide
Management of Myasthenia Gravis:
3. I__________
Immunosuppressives
Management of Myasthenia Gravis:
4. P___________
Plasmapheresis
Management of Myasthenia Gravis:
5. _______ support may be needed during a crisis
Ventilator
_____ ______
- An autoimmune disease marked by numbness, weakness, loss of muscle coordination, mad problems with vision, sleep and bladder control
- The body’s immune system attacks a key substance that serves as a nerve insulator and helps in the transmission of nerve signals.
- Variable clinical course with remissions and exacerbations
Multiple Sclerosis
Incidence of M.S:
1. The greatest incidence is in young adults: Usually between _____ and ____ years of age.
20 and 50
Multiple Sclerosis
More common in persons of _____ ____ descent, living in temperate zones
Western European
Multiple Sclerosis:
- Weakness, numbness, _______ or unsteadiness in a limb: may progress to all limbs
- Spastic paraparesis
- Diplopia
- Disequilibrium
- Urinary urgency or hesitancy
- Optic atrophy
- Nystagmus
tingling
Laboratory/ Diagnostics of M.S.:
- Definitive diagnosis can never be based solely on laboratory findings
- Mild lymphocytosis common
- Slightly elevated protein in CSF
- Elevated CSF _____
- MRI of the brain
IgG
Multiple Sclerosis:
- ____ ______ to prevent progression of the disease; neurology referral
- Recovery from acute relapses hastened by steroids, but extent/recovery not improved
- Antispasmodics
- Interferon therapy
- Immunosuppressive therapy
- Plasmapheresis
No treatment
_____ ____
Characterized by a facial paresis, frequently resolving completely without treatment
Bell’s Palsy
Causes/Incidence of Bell’s Palsy:
1. _______ reaction involving file facial nerve
Inflammatory
Causes/Incidence of Bell’s Palsy:
2. Idiopathic cause; relationship to reactivation of ____ _____ has been suggested
herpes simplex
Signs/Symptoms Bell’s Palsy:
1. Abrupt onset of ____ paresis
facial
Signs/Symptoms Bell’s Palsy:
2. Pain about the _____ may accompany the weakness
eye
Signs/Symptoms Bell’s Palsy:
- Face feels stiff and pulled to one side; unable to move forehead
a. ______ restriction of eye closure
b. Difficulty with eating and fine facial movements
c. Maybe a disturbance of taste
Ipsilateral
Laboratory/Diagnostics Bell’s Palsy:
1. ______
None
Management Bell’s Palsy:
1. ________ 60 mg divided in 4 to 5 doses daily and
tapered over 7 to 10 days
Prednisone
Management Bell’s Palsy:
2. ______ [when facial palsy caused by varicella-zoster
infection (Ramsey Hunt syndrome)]
Acyclovir
Management Bell’s Palsy:
4. ______ referral as needed
Neurology
Management Bell’s Palsy:
3. ________ eye drops and patch at night if unable to
close
Lubricating
___ _____
Nerve disorder that causes a stabbing or electric shock-like pain in parts of the face
Trigeminal Neuralgia
Causes Trigeminal Neuralgia:
1. ____ _____
Multiple sclerosis
Causes Trigeminal Neuralgia:
2. Pressure on the _________ nerve from a swollen blood vessel or tumor
trigeminal
Trigeminal Neuralgia:
Signs/Symptoms:
1. Very painful, sharp ______ that last a few seconds or minutes, can become constant
spasms
Trigeminal Neuralgia:
Signs/Symptoms:
2. Pain is usually localized on ____ side of the face
one
Laboratory/Diagnostics Trigeminal Neuralgia:
- Neurological examination
- ____
- Trigeminal reflex testing
MRI
Management Trigeminal Neuralgia:
- Anti-seizure drugs
- Muscle ________
- Tricyclic antidepressants
relaxants
Gerontology Considerations
Nervous System
1. Physiologic changes
a. Decrease the number of \_\_\_\_\_ and
neurotransmittersneurons
Gerontology Considerations
Nervous System
1. Physiologic changes
b. Modifications in cerebral\_\_\_\_\_\_, glial support
cells, synapsesdendrites
Gerontology Considerations
Nervous System
1. Physiologic changes
c. ___________ thermoregulation
Compromised
Gerontology Considerations
d. Peripheral nervous system
aa. Decreased ______ responses
baroreflex
Gerontology Considerations
d. Peripheral nervous system
bb. Decreased ____ ______ responsiveness,
decreased receptors
beta-adrenergic
Gerontology Considerations
d. Peripheral nervous system
cc. Decreased signal ______
transduction
Gerontology Considerations
d. Peripheral nervous system
dd. Decreased ______ parasympathetic
responses
muscarinic
Gerontology Considerations
d. Peripheral nervous system
ee. Preserved _____ responses
alpha
Gerontology Considerations
e. Central nervous system
aa. Decreased _______ receptors
dopamine
Gerontology Considerations
e. Central nervous system
bb. Increased ______ responses
alpha
Gerontology Considerations
e. Central nervous system
cc. Increased ______ parasympathetic responses
muscarinic
Gerontology Considerations
f. Decreased sense of ______
touch
Gerontology Considerations
g. Increase in _____ tolerance
pain
Gerontology Considerations
Possible findings/results
a. impairments:
aa. Diminished general muscle ______
strength
Gerontology Considerations
Possible findings/results
a. impairments:
bb. Diminished deep-tendon ______
reflexes
Gerontology Considerations
Possible findings/results
a. impairments:
cc. _____ nerve conduction velocity
Slower
Gerontology Considerations
Possible findings/results
b. Slowed _____ skills
motor
Gerontology Considerations
Possible findings/results
c. Deficits in _____ and coordination
balance
Gerontology Considerations
Possible findings/results
d. Decreased _______ sensitivity
temperature
Gerontology Considerations
Possible findings/results
e. Blunted or absent _____ response
fever
Gerontology Considerations
Possible findings/results
f. Slowed speed of cognitive processing
aa. Some cognitive decline is \_\_\_\_\_ but not
universal.common
Gerontology Considerations
f. Slowed speed of cognitive processing
bb. Most memory functions are _____ for normal
life
adequate
Gerontology Considerations
g. Increased risk of:
aa. _____ disorders
Sleep
Gerontology Considerations
g. Increased risk of:
bb. ______ / mental status
Delirium
Gerontology Considerations
g. Increased risk of:
cc. Neuro_____ diseases
Neurodegenerative
Gerontology Considerations
g. Increased risk of:
dd. ___/ common injury in elderly
Falls
Gerontology Considerations
g. Increased risk of:
ee. Inability to carry out physical normal activities of
____ ____
daily living
