Dermatological Disorders and comminicable disease Flashcards
1
Q
Dry, red, no blisters, involves epidermis only
A
First degree burn
2
Q
Moist, blisters, extends beyond the epidermis
A
Second degree (partial thickness) burn
3
Q
Dry, leathery, black, pearly, waxy; extends from epidermis to dermis to underlying tissues, fat, muscle and or bone
A
Third-degree (full thickness)
4
Q
By age 0 years the front and back of the head is ___%
A
10%
5
Q
By age 0 years the front and back thigh is ___%
A
3%
6
Q
By age 0 years the front and back leg ___%
A
2%
7
Q
By age 1 years the front and back of the head is ___%
A
9%
8
Q
By age 1 years the front and back of the thigh is ___%
A
3%
9
Q
By age 1 years the front and back of the leg is ___%
A
3%
10
Q
By age 5 years the front and back of the head is ___%
A
7%
11
Q
By age 5 years the front and back of the thigh is ___%
A
4%
12
Q
By age 5 years the front and back of the leg is ___%
A
3%
13
Q
By age 10 years the front and back of the head is ___%
A
6%
14
Q
By age 10 years the front and back of the thigh is ___%
A
5%
15
Q
By age 10 years the front and back of the leg is ___%
A
3%
16
Q
Assess ABCs for Burn. Will require prophylactic ____ if
a) Singed nares or eyebrows
b) Evaluate nares/ mouth for soot mucous
A
intubation
17
Q
Drench the burn thoroughly with _____ (not iced) water to prevent further damage and remove all burned clothing.
A
cool
18
Q
____ not cover with lotion, toothpaste, butter, etc
A
Do
19
Q
If burned area is limited, immerse the site in cold water for ___ minutes tor reduce pain. Then, apply a clean wrap.
A
30
20
Q
If the area of the burn is ____ after it has been doused with cool water, apply clean wraps about the burned area ( or the whole patient) to prevent systemic heat loss and hypothermia.
A
large
21
Q
______ is a particular risk in young children.
A
Hypothermia
22
Q
The first ____ hours following the injury are critical; transport a patient with severe burns to a hospital as soon as possible.
A
six
23
Q
The systematic approach to the evaluation of skin disorders concerns identifying the _______, configuration, and distribution.
A
morphology
24
Q
A flat discoloration
A
Macule
25
An elevated, firm lesion >1 cm
Nodule
26
A flat discoloration that looks as though it is a collective of multiple, tiny pigment changes; maybe some style surface change
Patch
27
A firm, elevated lump
Tumor
28
A small (< 1 cm), elevated, firm skin lesion
Papule
29
A lesion raised above the surface and extending a bit below the epidermis; many times an allergic reaction (either contact or systemic)
Wheal
30
A scaly, elevated lesion; the classic lesion of psoriasis
Plaque
31
A small ( <1 cm) pus-filled lesion
Pustule
32
A small ( < 1 cm) lesion fille with serous fluid
Vesicle
33
A pus-filled lesion > 1 cm
Abscess
34
Serous fluid-filled vesicle > 1 cm
Bulla
35
Large, raised lesions filled with serous fluid, blood, and pus
Cyst
36
______ lesion: first appearing
Primary lesion
37
_____ lesions: follows primary lesions
Secondary lesions
38
Lesion: Individual or distinct lesions that remain separate
Solitary or discrete
39
Lesion: Scratch, streak, line, or stripe
Linear
40
Lesion: cluster
Grouped
41
Lesion: Circular, beginning in the center and spreading to the periphery
Annular
42
Lesion: Lesion that runs together
Confluent
43
Lesion: Annular lesions merge
Polycyclic
44
Where on the body the lesions appear
1) face
2) _____
3) upper extremities
4) groin
5) dermatomal
6) feet
7) axilla
trunk
45
A polymorphic skin disorder characterized by comedones, papules, pustules, and cysts
Acne
46
The Cause of this include:
a) The cause is unknown but appears to be activated bay androgens and genetically predisposed individuals
b) Can be exacerbated steroids and anticonvulsants
c) Food has not been demonstrated to be a contributing factor
d) Acne is more common and severe in males.
Acne
47
______, papules, pustules nodules and / or cysts on the face and / or upper trunk
Comedones
48
_______:
Open:
Closed:
Comedones
49
_____; Opening in the skin capped with a blackened mass of skin debris
Open
50
_______; Obstructed opening which may rupture, cuaseing low-grade local infalmmatory reaction
Closed
51
In women may be exacerbated just prior to menses
Acne
52
Laboratory/diagnostics for acne include?
None indicated, except to identify causative organism in atypical folliculitis
53
Management of Acne:
a) Avoidance of topical, oil-based products
b) use of ______, mild soaps, cleansers, and moisturizers
Oil-free
54
Treatment:
a) In ____ acne, topical treatment with ____ ____(2.5 to 10%)
i) If not responsible, _____ acid (0.025% to 0.1%) cream or gel pregnancy category C
ii) Tretinoin is inactivated by UV light oxidized by benzoyl peroxide. (should only be applied at night and not used concomitantly with benzoyl peroxide)
b) Salicyclic acid preparations (Neutrogena 2% wash)
c) Topical antibiotics: Erythromycin and clindamycin lotions or pads
mild acne
a) benzoyl peroxide
i) retinoic
55
Treatment:
_____ acne ( or severe pustular acne) requires systemic antibiotics along with typical treatments
a) ______ 100 mg twice daily
b) Erythromycin: 1 gram in 2 to 3 dibided dosese
c) Minocyccline: 50 to 100 mg twice daily
Moderate
| a) Doxycycline
56
_____ acne that does not respond to above should be referred to dermatology
Severe
57
There are a variety of ____ infections that are distinguished by the causal species of fungi and the location they manifest
Fungal
58
Fungal organisms ________ (80%) or Micorsporum cause the dermatolphyte infections
Trichophyton
59
Pharmacologic management centers on ______ and preventions of transmission
anti-fungal
60
Maybe asymptomatic with fungal infection
(Tinea Capitus)
61
Some forms present with the present with severe itching with fungal infection
Tinea Cruris and Tinea Pedis
62
Erythematous rings with fungal infection
Tinea corporis
63
Solitary areas of hypopigmentation or hyperpigmentation with fungal infection
Tinea Versicolor
64
Laboratory/Diagnostics:
| 1. "_____ and ____ " hyphae microscopically when treated with KOH
Spaghetti and meatballs
65
The primary treatment of fungal infection is?
Griseofulvin 20 mg/kg/day * 6 weeks
66
Tinea capitus: Primary management is ____ 20mg/kg/day times six weeks
Griseofulvin 20 mg/kg/day
67
Tinea Corporis: Use of typical antifungals is usually adequate ( _____ 2%, ______ 2%)
Miconazole 2%, Ketoconazole 2%
68
Tinea cruris: Any topical antifungal noted above; _____ cream curative in more than 80% of cases when used twice a day x seven days; ______ foe severe cases
terbinafine
| Griseofulvin
69
Tinea manuum and pedis: In macerated stage use, ___ _____ solution to soak for 20 minutes twice a day, apply topical antifungals as described in the dry, scaly stage; ouse oral therapy in severe cases
aluminum subacetate
70
Tinea versicolor: ____ _____ shampoo for five to 15 minutes daily x seven days; 200 mg itraconazole (Sporanox) every day by mouth (alternative)
Selenium sulfide
71
Acute, contagious disease caused by herpes virus, transmitted by direct contact with lesions or airborne
Varicella-Zoster Virus (Chickenpox)
72
1) Infected individuals are contagious for ____ hours before outbreak and until lesions have crusted over
2) Most common in ages ___ to 10 years
1) 48 hours
| 2) five
73
Signs and symptoms of this include
1) Erythematous macules
2) papules develop over macules
3) vesicles erupt: Usually distributes initially on the trunk, then scalp and face
4) Intense pruritus
5) Low-grade fever
6) Generalized lymphadenopathy
Varicella Zoster Virus
74
Lab/Diagnostics for Varicella-Zoster Virus include?
None, typically a clinical diagnoses
75
Management of Varicella-Zoster Virus include?
1)
2)
1. Supportive treatment for pruritus
a) Calamine/ Caladryl lotion
b) antihistamine
c) acetaminophen for fever
2. Oral acyclovir 20 mg/kg five times a day; give in the first
24 hours, this can reduce the magnitude and/or
duration of symptoms; also from the
immunocompromised
76
A common, benign viral skin infection; frequently these lesions disappear on their own in a few weeks to a few months and are not easily treated
Molluscum Contagiosum
77
1) Diagnostic criteria include ____, the presence of ver
small, firm, pink to fleshcolored discreet papules, which
become umbilicated papules with s cheesy core
2) The child who is sexually active or abused can have
grouped lesions in the genital area
3) Children with eczema or immunosuppression can have severe infections
Molluscum Contagiosum
78
Signs:
1) Lesions present on the face, axillary, antecubital fossa,
trunk, crural fascia, and extremities are most commonly
noted
2) Itching at the site of infection
Molluscum Contagiosum
79
Lab/Diagnostics:
1) Clinical presentation
2) History of exposure to _____ contagiosum
Molluscum Contagiosum
80
Molluscum Contagiosum management ____ _____ if left alone
resolves spontaneously
81
Mechanical removal of the ____ core prevents spread and autoinoculation
central
82
Pharmacological agents for Molluscum Contagiosum
a) _____ 0.025% gel or 0.1% cream at bedtime
b) Salicylic acid daily at HS
c) Liquid nitrogen applied for two to three seconds
d) _____ acid peel 25% to 50% applied by dropper to the center of the lesion, followed by alcohol repeated every two weeks
e) Silver nitrate, iodine 7 to 9%, or phenol 1% applied for two to three seconds
f) Cantharidin 0.7% applied to individual lesions and covered with clear tape; blistering withing 24 hours and possible clearing without scarring should be avoided on facial lesions
a) Tretinoin
| d) Trichloroacetic acid
83
Prevent scratching and touching lesions to stop from spreading _____ ______
Molluscum Contagiosum
84
Molluscum Contagiosum :
| ______ resolution may occur after six to nine months in some immunocompetent patients
Spontaneous
85
Molluscum Contagiosum:
| If a patient has extensive lesions or the diagnosis is unclear, refer to a ________
dermatologist
86
A chronic skin condition characterized by intense itching along with a typical pattern of distribution with periods of remission and exacerbation
Atopic Dermatitis (Eczema)
87
In Eczema particular sensitive to ____ humidity and often worsens in the winter when the air is dry
low
88
Also helpful is a personal or family history of ___, allergic rhinitis, atopic dermatitis, elevated serum IgE levels, and a tendency from skin infections with Eczema.
asthma
89
Signs and symptoms of ______:
1. Intense pruritus along the face, neck, trunk, wrist, hands, antecubital and popliteal folds
2. Dry scaly skin
a) acute flare-ups may show red, shiny, thickened
patches.
b) Inflamed and/or scabbed lesions with diffuse
erythema and scaling
c) Dry, leathery, and lichenified skin
Eczema
90
Lab/ diagnostics:
| 1) ________ test (RAST) or skin test may suggest dust mite allergy (food allergy uncommon)
Radioallergosorbent test
91
Atopic Dermatitis (Eczema) serum ____ may be elevated
IgE
92
In Atopic Dermatitis (Eczema) _______ may be present
Eosinophilia
93
In this dry skin management (hallmark treatment): Moisturing lotion immediately after bathing; must blot dry
Eczema
94
Topical steroids applied two to four times daily and rubbed in well; begin with hydrocortisone or other steroids (_________ cream 0.05%, Desonide, triamcinolone 0.1%)
Fluocinonide cream
95
Adverse effects of ________: bladder dysfunciont, hyperglycemia, etc.
hydrocortisone
96
Eczema: Systemic steroids only in extremely severe cases: _______ 40 mg daily, taper over five to seven days
Prednisone
97
Eczema:
In acute weeping:
a) Use saline or ____ subacetate solution
b) Colloidal oatmeal baths (e.g. Aveeno)
aluminum
98
An acute or chronic dermatitis that results from direct skin contact with chemical or allergens
Allergic Contact Dermatitis
99
Signs and symptoms of Allergic Contact Dermatitis :
a) Redness, pruritus, scabbing
b) Tiny vesicles and weepy, encrusted lesions in the acute phase
c) Scaling, erythema and thickened skin (______) in chronic phase
d) The location will suggest a case
e) Affected area hot and swollen
f) History of exposure to the offending agents
lichenification
100
Laboratory/diagnostic tests for Allergic Contact Dermatitis include?
None indicated
101
Management of Allergic Contact Dermatitis
1) Depends on severity; compressed locally, avoid scrubbing with soap and water
2) High potency topical steroids locally
3) If severe and systemic: _______ start at 60 mg daily and tapering over 14 days
Prednisone
102
Common skin irritation of the genital-perianal region
Irritant (Diaper) Dermatitis
103
1) The most common type of diaper rash, typically due to exposure to chemical irritants and prolonged contact with urine and/or feces
2) Occurs at some time in 95% of infants; peaks in nine to 12 months
Irritant (Diaper) Dermatitis
104
Signs and symptoms of irritant (diaper) dermatitis include:
1) Fiery red rash
2) _____, vesicles, crusts, ulcerations
3) infant may be irritable
papules
105
Laboratory/ diagnostics for irritant (diaper) dermatitis include?
none indicated
106
Management of Irritant (Diaper) Dermatitis:
1) In mild cases, barrier emollients
2) When erythema /papules presents, 1% ________
3) Use Burrow's (Domeboro) compresses for severe erythema and vesicles
4) Secondary bacterial infection may need topical antibiotics
5) The secondary fungus may nee topical antifungal
6) Educate parents about preventive measures
7) Allow diaper area to air several times daily.
2) hydrocortisone
107
A common benign hyperproliferative inflammatory skin disorder (acute or chronic) based on genetic predisposition (affecting approximately three to five percent of the population)
Psoriasis
108
Psoriasis:
| 1) The _____ turn over time is reduced for 14 days to two days
Epidermal
109
Psoriasis:
| 2) Normal maturation of the skin cells can't take place, and _______ is faulty
keratinization
110
Psoriasis:
| 3) The epidemics are thickened, and immature nucleated cells are seen on the ____ layer
horny
111
Psoriasis:
| 4) Maybe ________ medicated
immunologically
112
Signs and symptoms of Psoriasis:
| 1) Often ______ ; itching may occur
asymptomatic
113
Signs and symptoms of Psoriasis:
| 2) Lesions are red, sharply defined plaques will _____ scales.
silvery
114
Signs and symptoms of Psoriasis:
| 3) _____, elbows, knees, palms, soles, and nails are common sites
Scalp
115
Signs and symptoms of Psoriasis:
| 4) Fine ____ of the nails is strongly suggestive of psoriasis, as is the separation of the nail plate from the bed
pitting
116
Signs and symptoms of Psoriasis:
| 5) The pink or red line in the _____ fold
intergluteal
117
Signs and symptoms of Psoriasis:
| 6) _______ sign: Droplets of blood when scales are removed
Auspitz's
118
Laboratory/ diagnostics for Psoriasis is?
None indicated
119
Management of Psoriasis is:
a) _______ for scalp
b) Tar/ salicylic acid shampoo
c) Medium potency topical steroid oil
d) Topical steroids for the skin
e) Topical steroids twice a day for two to three weeks;
resume with _______ (Dovonex), a synthetic Vitamin B3
derivative
Betamethasone dipropionate 0.05% (Diprolene AF)
Triamcinolone acetonide 0.5% ( Aristocort)
f) UVB light and coat tar expousre if more than 30% of the body surface is involved
g) Moisturizers
a) Topical
| e) calcipotriene
120
A mild, acute inflammatory disorder; usually self- limited, last three to eight weeks
Pityriasis Rosea
121
1) If the cause is unknown, the current theory is that it is viral in origin.
2) More common in the spring and fall seasons, and patients frequently report a recent upper respiratory infection (URI)
3) More common in females than males
Pityriasis Rosea
122
Signs/ symptoms Pityriasis Rosea:
1) may be asymptomatic
2) Initial lesion ( two to 10 cm) known as "herald patch"
a) Usually macular, oval, and fawn-colored with a crinkled appearance and collarette scale
3) Pruritic rash in a ___ ____ ___( usually mild) may be found on the trunk proximal extremities within one to two weeks
Christmas tree pattern
123
Laboratory/ Diagnostics for Pityriasis Rosea;
1) Serology test for _______ should be performed
a) if the rash does not ich
b) Palmar surfaces, genitalia, or mucous membranes
c) If a few typically perfect lesions are not present
syphilis
124
Management of Pityriasis Rosea is:
a) none usually required
b) If pruritic:
1) _______
2) Oral antihistamines [ e.g. loratidine (Lariting,
fexofenadine (Allegra), cetirizine (Zyrtec)]
3) Topical antipruritic (Sarna lotion, Prax lotion, ich-x gel,
Cetaphil with menthol 0.25% and phenol 0.25%)
4) Oral erythromycin (two-week course) is effective in the
majority of patients.
1) Atarax
125
A bacterial infection of the skin typically caused by gram-positive strep or staph (Staph aureus) organisms
Impetigo
126
1) Involves the face predominately but can occur anywhere on the body
2) Occurs most often in the summer
3) Highly contagious and autoinoculable
Impetigo
127
Signs/ symptoms of impetigo:
a) signs of ___________
b) Pain, swelling, and warmth
c) regional lymphadenopathy
d) classic honey- crusting lesions
a) inflammation
128
Laboratory/ diagnostics of Impetigo:
a) None indicated, clinical diagnosis
b) ______ would confirm causative organism if desired
Culture
129
Management of Impetigo includes:
a) Systemic treatment should be directed at the offending organism
b) Use topical antimicrobial for minor infections like
(Bacitracin, Bactroban)
c) Based on the organism: Use the oral beta-lactamase resistant antibiotics when oral route preferred
1) _________, cephalexin, erythromycin, clindamycin
2) Severe Cellulitis: IV antibiotics (nafcillin, vancomycin, doxycycline)
c) Abstain from school and other community events until 48 hours of treatment
d) Apply Burrow's (Domeboro) solution to clear lesions
1) Dicloxacillin
130
Highly contagious skin infestation caused by a parasitic mite that burrows into stratum corneum
Scabies
131
Incubation for four to ____ weeks for scabies
six
132
Scabies is spread through the _____ or indirect contact with personal items
direct
133
Signs and symptoms of Scabies:
a) Intense ____
b) irritability in infants
c) Linear or curved burrows
d) Infant: Red-brown vesiculopapular lesions on head, neck, palms, or soles
e) Older children: red papules on skin folds, umbilicus, or abdomen
f) May see regional adenopathy
itching
134
Laboratory/ diagnostics:
1) Skin ________ show mites, ova, and/ or feces
2) None typically necessary
scraping
135
Management of Scabies include:
a) _______ (Nix) 5% rinse ( 1st treatment- leave on for 8 to 14 hours), repeat in one week, or
b) Ivermectin ( not to be used if the mother is pregnant, lactating or for children under 15 kg)
c) The rash may persist for one week.
d) Wash all washable items
e) Store non-washable items or one week
f) Antihistamines for pruritus
Permethrin
136
Thin, white roundworms that live in the colon and rectum of humans; occurs most commonly among school-aged children and younger; spread by the fecal-oral route
Pinworms
137
Signs and symptoms of pinworms:
| Itching in the ______ area
perianal
138
Laboratory/ diagnosis": Pinworms
| " ___ ____" press the clear tape to the skin around the anus, place on the slide and look at under a microscope
Tape test
139
Management of Pinworms include:
a) symptomatic treatment
b) __________ to eradicate infection
Anthelmintics
140
A spirochetal disease, the most common vector-borne disease in the United States
Lyme Disease
141
Lyme Disease:
1) Most cases occur in the ________, Upper Midwest, and Pacific Coast
2) Mice and deer ticks are the major animal reservoirs, but birds may also be a source
Northeast
142
Stage 1 of Lyme disease includes what?
1) Erythema migrans: a flat or slightly raised red lesion that expands over several days but has central clearing; commonly appears in areas of tight clothing
2) Fifty percent of patient shave flu-like symptoms
143
Stage 2 of Lyme disease includes what?
1) Headache, stiff joints
2) Migratory pains
3) Some pains may have cardiac symptoms (dysrhythmias, heart block)
4) Aseptic meningitis
5) Bells palsy
6) Peripheral neuropathy
144
Stage 3 of Lyme disease includes what?
1) joint and periarticular pain
2) Subacute encephalopathy
3) Acrodermatitis chronicum atrophicans: Bluish red discoloration of the distal extremities
145
Laboratory/ diagnostics of Lyme disease?
1) Detection of antibody to ____ _____ via ELSIA screening
2) Western blot assay is confirmatory
3) ____ _____ may be cultured from skin aspirate
4) Elevated ____
5) Diagnostic criteria
a) Exposure to tick habitat within the last ____ days
with:
i) Erythema migrans or:
ii) One late manifestation and:
iii) Laboratory confirmation
1) B. burgdorferi
3) B. burgdorferi
a) 30
146
Management of Lyme disease
1) Infection confined to the skin
a) Underage seven: ______ or cefuroxime axetil
b) Over age seve: ________
2) Referral for stage two or three disease
a) Amoxicillin
| b) Doxycycline
147
Types of Measles are:
1) Rubeola
2) ________
3) Erythema infectiosum
4) Roseola Infantum
2) Rubella
148
This is known as Ordinary Measles, Red Measles
Rubeola
149
Rubeola can occur at what age?
any age
150
Pathogen for Rubeola is bacterial or viral?
virus
151
Signs and symptoms of Rubeola are?
a) Fever
b) _____ _____
c) Cough
d) Red eyes
e) Koplik's spot
f) Spreading skin rash
b) Runny nose
152
______ 3- day measles?
Rubella
153
Rubella occurs at what age?
Any age
154
Rubella is acquired by bacterial or viral?
virus
155
Signs and symptoms of Rubella include:
a) _______ maculopapular rash
b) Starts on the face, spreads to extremities, trunk
c) Gone in 72 hours
Erythematous
156
This form of Measles is Teratogenicity?
Rubella
157
This is also called the Fifth disease?
Erythema Infectiosum
158
Erythema infectiosum occurs at what age?
5 to 14 years
159
This pathogen Human Parvovirus B19 is associated with what form of measles?
Erythema Infectiosum
160
Signs and symptoms of Erythema Infectiosum:
a) '_____ _____' appearance
b) Lacy reticular exanthema
c) Face then arms, legs, trunk and dorsum of hands/ feet
' Slapped cheek'
161
Special considerations of erythema Infectiosum:
a) _____ aplastic crisis
b) not contagious after fever breaks
a) Fetal
162
Roseola Infactum AKA?
Sixth Disease
163
Roseola Infantum occurs at what age?
6 months to 2 years
164
Pathogens for Roseola Infantum AKA?
Herpesvirus 6
165
Signs and symptoms of Roseola Infantum
a) URI symptoms
b) ____ pink, flat to raised bumps
c) Trunk then extremities
d) High fever, abrupt and when a rash develops
Small
166
Ordinary measles, an acute, highly- contagious viral disease; can be complicated by ear infections, pneumonia, encephalitis ( that can convulsions, mental retardation, and even death), the sudden onset of low blood platelet levels with severe bleeding ( acute thrombocytopenic purpura), or a chronic brain disease that occurs months to often years after an attack of measles ( subacute sclerosing panencephalitis)
Rubeola
167
Signs and symptoms of Rubeola are:
a) Fever
b) Runny nose
c) ______
d) red eyes
e) Kiplik's spots
f) spreading skin rash
c) cough
168
Small, white, granular spots surrounded by red rings found inside the moth, particularly on the inside of the cheek ( the buccal mucosa) opposite the first and second upper molars
Koplik's spots
169
Rubeola management comfort measures for pain and ______
dehydration
170
An acute, contagious viral disease caused by an RNA virus known for its teratogenicity
Rubella
171
Signs and symptoms of Rubella is
a) History of _______ immunization
b) The fine erythematous maculopapular rash begins on the face, spreads to extremities and trunk; gone within ___ hours ( three- day measles)
c) Associated malaise
d) Joint pain
e) Postauricular and suboccipital lymphadenopathy
a) inadequate
| b) 72 hours
172
Laboratory/ diagnostics of Rubella are?
A variety of assays available
173
Management of Rubella is?
1) Supportive with ________ for fever
2) Educate regarding danger to pregnant women
1) Acetaminophen
174
Fifth disease AKA?
Erythema Infectiosum
175
A contagious exanthematous disease caused by human parvovirus B19?
Erythema infectiosum ( Fifth disease)
176
Info about Erythema Infectiosum (Fifth Disease)
1) Occurs most often in the spring in children aged five to 14
2) Transmitted via respiratory droplets and infected blood
3) Incubate ___ to ___days
4) Not contagious after fever breaks; may return to school
4 to 14
177
Signs/ symptoms of Erythema Infectiosum ( Fifth Disease)
1) Sudden onset " _____ ____" appearance: Lacy reticular exanthema
2) Spreads to upper arms, legs, trunk, and dorsum of the hands/ feet
3) The rash can last up to 40 days; an average of 1.5 weeks
4) Can cause the fetal aplastic crisis; arthralgias
"Slapped cheek"
178
Laboratory/ diagnostics for Erythema Infectiosum ( Fifth disease):
a) _____ B19
b) IgM
c) IgG
Parvovirus B19
179
A mild, contagious illness caused by human herpesvirus 6 (HHV-6) with no viable treatment
1) Most common in children between the ages of fo six months and two years
2) Rare after four years of age
Roseola Infantum (Sixth Disease)
180
Signs and symptoms of Roseola Infantum (Sixth Disease)
1) ________ illness
2) High fever for up to eight days with an abrupt end
3) Possible seizures associated with fever
4) Rash of small, pink, flat, or slightly raised bumps on the trunk, then the extremities
Roseola Infantum (Sixth Disease)
181
A highly contagious viral illness resulting in ulceration and inflammation of the soft palate (herpangina) and papulovesicular exanthem on the hands and feet
Coxsackie Virus (Hand- Foot- and- Mouth- Disease)
182
This form of measles
a) affects children under 10 years of age
b) Resolves spontaneously in less than a week
Coxsackie Virus (Hand- Foot- and- Mouth- Disease)
183
Signs and symptoms of Coxsackie Virus include:
a) Fever
b) ________
c) Malaise
d) Vomiting
e) drooling
f) Papulovesicular rash
Malaise
184
Laboratory/ diagnostics for Coxsackie Virus (Hand-foot- and- Mouth- Disease): ______ indicated
None indicated
185
Management of Coxsackie Virus (Hand- Foot- and- Mouth- Disease):
a) ___________
b) Topical applications for comfort
a) Acetaminophen
