Issues, trends, and Health Policy Part IV/ Professional Responsibility Flashcards

1
Q

Scope of Practice

1. Based on legal allowances in each _____, according to and delineated by individual State Nurse Practice Acts

A

State

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Scope of Practice
3. Key elements of the NP role include the integration of care across the acute illness continuum with collaboration and coordination of care, research-based clinical practice, clinical leadership, family assessment, and _______ planning.

A

discharge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Scope of Practice

2. Provides guidelines for nursing practice; varies from _____ to _____

A

state to state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Standards of Advanced Practice

Both generic and specific specialty standards _____.

A

exist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Standards of Advanced Practice
Delineated by the American Nurses Association (1996)
as ______ statements by which to measure of
practice, service, or education

A

authoritative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

State Practice Acts
States also vary in specific practice requirements, such
as _______

A

certification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

State Practice Acts
Authorize Boards of Nursing in each state to _____
statutory authority for licensure of registered nurses

A

establish

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

State Practice Acts
Authority includes use of title, ________ for scope
of practice including prescriptive authority, and
disciplinary grounds

A

authorization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Prescriptive Authority
While the Drug Enforcement Agency (DEA) has ruled
that nurses in advanced practice may _____
registration numbers, state practice acts dictate the
level of prescriptive authority allowed.

A

obtain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Prescriptive Authority
The ability and extent of the NP’s ability to prescribe
medications to patients is dependent on ___ nurse
practice acts.

A

state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Credentials
Encompass required education, licensure and
________ to practice as a nurse practitioner

A

certification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Credentials

Establish minimal _____ of acceptable performance

A

levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. Credentialing is necessary to:
    a. Ensure that ____ health care is provided by
    qualified individuals
A

safe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. Credentialing is necessary to:
    b. ____ with federal and state laws relating to
    advanced practice nursing
A

Comply

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Credentials

4. Acknowledges the ____ of practice of the NP

A

scope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Credentials

5. Mandates ________

A

accountability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Credentials

6. Enforces professional standards for ______

A

practice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

_________
Establishes that a person is qualified to perform in a
particular professional role

A

Licensure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Licensure
Licensure is granted as defined by rules and
regulations set forth by a governmental regulatory
_____ (i.e., state.board of nursing)

A

body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Certification
2. Certification is granted by nongovernmental agencies
such as the _____, AANP, PNCB, NCC.

A

ANCC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Certification
1. Establishes that a person has met certain standards in a particular profession which signify ____ of specialized knowledge and skills

A

mastery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Admitting Privileges to Hospitals

1. Non-physician providers were granted the possibility of hospital staff membership in ____ by the Joint Commission.

A

1983

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

_____ and _______

1. Process by which a nurse practitioner is granted permission to practice in an inpatient setting

A

Credentialing and Privileging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Credentialing and Privileging
2. Credentialing with hospital privileges is granted by a Hospital ____ _____ comprised of physicians who hold privileges at the given hospital where the NP has made request

A

Credentialing Committee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Credentialing and Privileging
3. Privileges may be granted in ____ or full; stipulations regarding the allowance of future privileges may be made by the Credentialing Committee (e.g., number of additional supervised hours required before a certain privilege is granted)

A

part

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

____ _____ _____
1. Results when the caregiver-patient relationship is terminated without making reasonable arrangements with an appropriate person so that care by others can be continued

A

Patient Medical Abandonment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Patient Medical Abandonment
2. Determination of patient abandonment may depend on many factors including:
a. Whether the practitioner _____the patient
assignment (which formally created a practitioner-
patient relationship)

A

accepted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Patient Medical Abandonment
2. Determination of patient abandonment may depend on many factors including:
b. Whether the practitioner provided _______
notice before terminating the practitioner-patient
relationship

A

reasonable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Patient Medical Abandonment
2. Determination of patient abandonment may depend on many factors including:
c. Whether reasonable ________ could have
been made to continue patient care when the
adequate notification was given

A

arrangements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Patient Medical Abandonment
3. In most cases, the following do not constitute patient abandonment:
a. An NP refuses to _____ responsibility for a patient
assignment when the NP has given reasonable
notice to the proper authority that the NP lacks
competence to carry out the assignment

A

accept

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Patient Medical Abandonment
3. In most cases, the following do not constitute patient abandonment:
b. An NP refuses an assignment of a _____ shift or
additional hours beyond the posted work schedule
when proper notification has been given
• i) When “proper notification has been given”
potentially becomes a problematic and
sometimes, arguable phrase in difference of
opinion.

A

double

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Risk Management

  1. A systematic effort to reduce risk begins with a formal, written risk management plan that includes:
    a. The organization’s _______
A

goals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Risk Management
1. A systematic effort to reduce risk begins with a formal, written risk management plan that includes:
b. Delineation of the program’s ______, components
and methods

A

scope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Risk Management
1. A systematic effort to reduce risk begins with a formal, written risk management plan that includes:
c. Delegating _______- for implementation and
enforcement

A

responsibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Risk Management

  1. A systematic effort to reduce risk begins with a formal, written risk management plan that includes:
    d. Demonstrating ______ by the board
A

commitment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Risk Management
1. A systematic effort to reduce risk begins with a formal, written risk management plan that includes:
e. Articulates guarantees of _________ and
immunity from retaliation for those who report
sensitive information

A

confidentiality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Risk Management

2. ____ ____: The most common method of documentation

A

Incident reports

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Risk Management

  1. Policies regarding incident reports should address:
    a. Persons _______ to complete a report
A

authorized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Risk Management

  1. Policies regarding incident reports should address:
    b. Persons ______ for review of a report
A

responsible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Risk Management:

  1. Policies regarding incident reports should address:
    c. Immediate actions needed to minimize the _____ of the report’s event
A

effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Risk Management:

  1. Policies regarding incident reports should address:
    d. Persons responsible the _____-____
A

follow-up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Risk Management:

  1. Policies regarding incident reports should address:
    e. A plan for ______ the aftermath of the report’s event
A

monitoring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Risk Management:

  1. Policies regarding incident reports should address:
    f. Security and ______ of completed incident report forms
A

storage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q
  1. ____ ______: Important form for identifying problems before developing into actual incidents or claims; important to track and analyze just like incident reports
A

Satisfaction surveys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q
  1. Satisfaction surveys:

b. Employee and/or ______ satisfaction surveys

A

practitioner

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q
  1. Satisfaction surveys:

a. ______ satisfaction surveys

A

Patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q
  1. Complaints:

c. Persons responsible for monitoring ______resolution of the complaint

A

follow-up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q
  1. Complaints:

b. Persons responsible for ______ to the complaint

A

responding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q
  1. Complaints:

a. ______ notified after receiving a complaint

A

Persons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q
  1. ________: A key source of potential risk management information. A risk management plan should delineate tracking, analyzing and managing complaints by clearly identifying:
A

Complaints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q
  1. Action taking initiatives:

a. _______: Proactive risk awareness and safety programs in place

A

Prevention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q
  1. Action taking initiatives:

b. ________: Post-incident remediation to minimize the impact and prevent future occullences

A

Correction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q
  1. Action taking initiatives:
    b. Correction: Post-incident remediation to minimize the impact and prevent future occullences
    i) Corrective steps must be monitored and ______
A

audited

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q
  1. Action taking initiatives:

c. ________: Essential for legal defense; thorough medical records and institutional policies

A

Documentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q
  1. Action taking initiatives:

d. ________: M-services of all staff at orientation and annually, at a minimum

A

Education

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q
  1. Action taking initiatives:
    e. _____ ______: Encouraging departments and managers to work together for the common goal of improved patient and staff safety
A

Departmental coordination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Medical Futility
1. Refers to interventions that are unlikely to produce may significant benefit for the patient; “Does the intervention have any reasonable _____ of helping this patient?”

A

prospect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Medical Futility
2. Two kinds of medical futility are often distinguished:
a.____ _____: Where the likelihood that an
intervention will benefit the patient is extremely
poor, and

A

Quantitative futility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Medical Futility
2. Two kinds of medical futility are often distinguished:
b. _____ _____: Where the quality of benefit an
intervention will produce is extremely poor.

A

Qualitative futility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Informed Consent and Obtaining Informed Consent
1. ______ (Decisional Capability): A state in which a patient is able to make personal decisions about his/her care
a. Implies the ability to understand, reason,
differentiate good and bad and communicate

A

Competence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q
  1. Competence (Decisional Capability):
    a. Implies the ability to _______, reason,
    differentiate good and bad and communicate
A

understand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Informed Consent and Obtaining Informed Consent
2.___ _____: A state indicating that a patient has received adequate instruction or information regarding aspects of care to make a prudent, personal choice regarding such treatment

A

Informed Consent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q
  1. Informed Consent:

a. Includes discussing all of the benefits and ___ with a patient in order to make a truly informed decision

A

risks

64
Q
  1. Informed Consent:

b. Generally, _____ is assumed if the patient’s condition is life-threatening

A

consent

65
Q
  1. Right to ____ ____: Patients must be advised at the time of their admission to a federally funded institution such as a hospital, nursing home, hospice, HMO, etc. that they have a fight to refuse care (Danforth Amenchnent, 1991)
    a. Care that may be refused includes any, some, or all,
    as long as the patient has decisional capability
    (competence)
A

Refuse Care

66
Q
  1. Right to Refuse Care:
    a. Care that may be refused includes any, some, or
    ___, as long as the patient has decisional capability
    (competence)
A

all

67
Q

_____: The study of moral conduct and behavior which serves to govern conduct, thereby protecting the rights of an individual

A

Ethics

68
Q

__________: The duty to do no harm

A

Nonmaleficence

69
Q

__________: The fight act is the one that produces the greatest good for the greatest number

A

Utilitarianism

70
Q

______: The duty to be fair

A

Justice

71
Q

________: The duty to prevent harm and promote good

A

Beneficence

72
Q

_______: The duty to be faithful

A

Fidelity

73
Q

________: The duty to be truthful

A

Veracity

74
Q

_________: The duty to respect an individual’s thoughts and actions

A

Autonomy

75
Q

Examples of reasons for ______ a patient from practice include: Abuse from the patient, refusal to pay for services, or patients’ persistent non-adherence to recommended care.

A

discharging

76
Q

An NP cannot withdraw from caring for a patient without ________.

A

notification

77
Q
  1. Steps for discharging a patient from a practice:
    a. Send a certified _____ with rerun receipt requested;
    copy for the chart
A

letter

78
Q
  1. Steps for discharging a patient from a practice:
    b. The content of letter should be general versus
    specific.
    • i) The NP’s practice should have established
    policies that all patients consent to in ____
    such as recommended care, including
    timeframes for canceling appointments or
    rescheduling and payment of services.
A

writing

79
Q
  1. Steps for discharging a patient from a practice:
    b. The content of letter should be general versus
    specific.
    • ii) These may serve as the foundation for the
    _______ of healthcare.
A

termination

80
Q
  1. Steps for discharging a patient from a practice:
    c. Provide general healthcare coverage for the first 15-
    30 ____ post-termination deadline
A

days

81
Q
  1. Steps for discharging a patient from a practice:
    d. Obtain release of _______ to provide copies of all
    needed records for the subsequent care provider.
A

information

82
Q
  1. Obligations in closing a practice due to relocation, retirement or other changes:
    a. Give the patient adequate _____ to find another
    provider
A

time

83
Q
  1. Obligations in closing a practice due to relocation, retirement or other changes:
    b. Keep all files for a minimum of ____ years. Follow
    state laws regarding storage requirements.
A

five

84
Q
  1. Obligations in closing a practice due to relocation, retirement or other changes:
    c. To avoid complaints of patient abandonment,
    provide timely notification and names of other
    _______ and resources for future care
A

providers

85
Q
  1. The role of the NP developed in the early 1960s as a

result of physician shortages in the area of ______.

A

pediatrics

86
Q
  1. The first NP program was a pediatric NP program,
    begun in 1964, by Dr. ___ ___ and Dr. Henry Silver
    at the University of Colorado Health Sciences Center
A

Loretta Ford

87
Q
  1. Growth of NP programs soon ensued with distribution
    of NPs in various practice settings with an emphasis on
    anabulatory and _____ care.
A

outpatient

88
Q
  1. The historical service of NPs in primary care resulted in
    part from the availability of federal funding for
    _______ and primary care NP education.
A

preventative

89
Q
  1. Movement of NPs expanded to the inpatient setting as
    a result of managed care, hospital restructuring and
    decreases in medical ______ programs.
A

residency

90
Q
  1. Four distinct roles for the nurse practitioner include expert:
    a. Clinician
    c. Educator
    b. Consultant/collaborator
    d. _______
A

Researcher

91
Q

Major Steps in the Research Process

  1. Formulating the research problem
  2. Reviewing related literature
  3. Formulating the ______
  4. Selecting the research design
  5. Identifying the population to be studied
  6. Specifying methods of data collection
  7. Designing the study
  8. Conducting the study
  9. Analyzing the data
  10. Interpreting the results
  11. Communicating the findings
A

hypotheses

92
Q

___________: A “no experiment” design; usually includes taro broad categories of research, descriptive and ex post facto/correlational research

A

Nonexperimental

93
Q

Nonexperimental:

a. ____ _____: Aims to describe situations, experiences, and phenomena as they exist

A

Descriptive research

94
Q

Nonexperimental:
b. ___ ____ ____ or correlational research: Examines relationships among variables c.
Other possibilities

A

Ex post facto

95
Q

____ _____: Study that examines a population with a very similar attribute (e.g., asthma)but differ in one specific variable (e.g., age); designed to find relationships between variables at a specific point in time; “surveys”

A

Cross sectional

96
Q

_______: Research study that compares a particular outcome (such as lung cancer) in groups of individuals who are alike in many ways but differ by a certain characteristic (e.g., female nurses who smoke compared with those who do not smoke)

A

Cohort

97
Q

__________: Study that involves taking multiple measures of a group/population over an extended period olftime to find relationships between variables

A

Longitudinal

98
Q

____________: Includes experimental manipulation of variables utilizing randomization and a control group to test the effects of an intervention or experiment

A

Experimental

99
Q

a. ___ _____ research involves manipulation of variables but lacks a comparison group or randomization.

A

Quasi-experimental

100
Q

_________: Includes case studies, open-ended questions, field studies, participant observation and ethnoaphic studies, where observations and interview techniques are used to explore phenomena through detailed descriptions of people, events, situations, or observed behavior.

A

Qualitative

101
Q

Qualitative:

a. Researcher _____ is a potential problem

A

bias

102
Q

Qualitative:

b. _____ into question the generalizability of the findings

A

Calls

103
Q

Qualitative:

c. Produces very _____ data through no other means of research

A

rich

104
Q
  1. ______ _______: An interval, with limits at either end, with a specified probability of including the parameter being estimated
A

Confidence interval

105
Q
  1. Confidence interval:
    a. A small confidence interval implies a very ______
    range of values
A

precise

106
Q
  1. Confidence interval:
    b. Example: Confidence interval = 2.8-3.2 –>
    terminally ill bone cancer patients in the final
    stage of illness have between 2.8 and 3.2
    episodes of nausea every ____ hours
A

24

107
Q
  1. ___ ______: Indicates the average amount of deviation of values from the mean
A

Standard deviation

108
Q
  1. Standard deviation:
    a. ____% of the sample falls within one SD of the
    mean
A

68%

109
Q
  1. Standard deviation:
    b. ____% of the sample falls within two SDs of the
    mean
A

95%

110
Q
  1. ___ ___ ______: The probability level of which the results of statistical analyses are judged to indicate a statistically significant difference between groups
A

Level of significance

111
Q
  1. Level of significance:

a. The probability of false _______ of the null hypothesis in a statistical test

A

rejection

112
Q
  1. Level of significance:

b. Example: p < .05 –> the experimental and control groups are considered to be significantly ______

A

different

113
Q
  1. _____ ______: A measure of the interdependence of two random variables that ranges in value from -1 to +1
A

Perfect correlation

114
Q
  1. Perfect correlation:

a. -1 indicates a perfect ______ correlation

A

negative

115
Q
  1. Perfect correlation:

b. 0 indicates an ______ of correlation

A

absence

116
Q
  1. Perfect correlation:

c. +1 indicates a perfect ______ correlation

A

positive

117
Q

5.___ ____: Statistical test to evaluate the differences in means between two groups

A

t-test

118
Q
  1. ______ : The consistency of a measurement, or the degree to which an instrument measures the same way over time with the same subjects
A

Reliability

119
Q
  1. Reliability:

a. Reflects the estimated _______ of a measurement

A

repeatability

120
Q
  1. Reliability:

b. A measure is considered reliable if a person’s score on the same test given twice is ______

A

similar.

121
Q
  1. Reliability:
    c. Reliability is estimated in two ways:
    • a) ____/____: The more conservative method to
    estimate reliability
    i) One should get the same score on exam 1 as
    one does on exam 2.
A

Test/retest

122
Q
  1. Reliability:
    c. Reliability is estimated in two ways:
    • b) _____ ________: Estimates reliability by
    grouping questions in a questionnaire that
    measure the same concept
    i) Example: One could write two sets of three
    questions that measure the same concept
    (say knowledge of lipid panels) and after
    collecting the responses, run a correlation
    between those two groups of three questions
    to determine if the instrument is reliably
    measuring that concept
A

Internal consistency

123
Q
  1. Reliability:
    d. Cronbach’s ____ is a common way of computing correlation values among the questions on instruments. As with a correlation coefficient, the closer it is to one (optimal > .70), the higher the reliability estimate of the instrument.
A

alpha

124
Q
  1. Reliability:
    e. The major difference between test/retest and internal consistency estimates of reliability is that test/retest involves two administrations of the measurement instrument, whereas the internal consistency method involves only ______.
A

one

125
Q
  1. ______: The degree to which a variable measures what it is intended to measure.
A

Validity

126
Q

________
1. The legal responsibility that a nurse practitioner has for actions that fail to meet the standard of care, resulting in actual or potential harm to a patient

A

Liability

127
Q

Liability

2. Standards of care are used as criteria to measure whether ______ has occurred.

A

negligence

128
Q

________

1. Failure of an individual to do what a reasonable person would do, resulting in injury to the patient

A

Negligence

129
Q

__________
1. Failure of a professional to render services with the degree of care, diligence, and precaution that another member of the same profession under similar circumstances would render to prevent injury to someone else

A

Malpractice

130
Q

Malpractice

  1. May involve:
    a. Professional ______
    b. Unreasonable lack of skill
    c. Illegal/immoral conduct
    d. Other allegations resulting in harm to a patient
A

misconduct

131
Q
  1. Malpractice insurance ____ ____ cover an advanced practice nurse (APN) from charges of practicing medicine without a license if the APN is practicing outside the legal scope of practicefor that State.
A

does not

132
Q

______

1. An intentional act by one person that creates an apprehension in another of an imminent harmful or offensive contact

A

Assault

133
Q

Assault

a. An assault is carried out by a _____ of bodily harm coupled with an apparent, present ability to cause the harm.
b. Examples: Shaking a fist in file air in the direction of another person, making the motion to inject someone against his will, etc.

A

threat

134
Q

Assault
b. Examples: Shaking a ____ in file air in the direction of another person, making the motion to inject someone against his will, etc.

A

fist

135
Q

_________:
1. An illegal, willful, angry, violent, or negligent striking of a person, his clothes, or anything with which he is in contact

A

Battery

136
Q
  1. One can commit _______ on an unconscious person, but not assault.
A

battery

137
Q

___________

1. A communication that causes someone to suffer a damaged reputation

A

Defamation

138
Q

Defamation

a. _______: Defaming, distributed written material

A

Libel

139
Q

Defamation

b. _______: Spoken defamation (spoken to other than the defamed party)

A

Slander

140
Q

_____ ______
1. In most states, there is a duty to commit someone who is in danger of hurting himself or others as a result of mental illness (e.g., patients who attempt suicide).

A

Involuntary Commitment

141
Q

Involuntary Commitment

2. A nurse practitioner is potentially liable if a patient is ________ while in danger of hurting himself or others.

A

discharged

142
Q

Use of Restraints

1. It is legal to forcefully restrain someone to prevent a patient from ______ himself or others.

A

harming

143
Q

Use of Restraints

2. The NP must document the exact _____/______ for why restraints are being ordered.

A

reason/rational

144
Q

Use of Restraints
3. An NP may be liable if excessive restraints are employed, the _____ ____ for using restraints is not documented, or safety checks of the restraints are not charted.

A

exact reason

145
Q

____ _____ _____
1. Protect health care providers from law suits who aid at the scene of an accident and render reasonable, emergency care, within the NP’s scope of practice.

A

Good Samaritan Statutes

146
Q

________:

True positives; the degree to which those who have a disease screen/test positive

A

Sensitivity

147
Q

_______:

True negatives; the degree to which those who do not have a disease screen/test

A

Specificity

148
Q

______: The frequency with which a disease or disorder appears in a particular population or area at a given time; the rate in which new cases occur during a specific time period: Example: 20 cases of botulism per 500,000 people were reported in Alaska during 2010

A

Incidence

149
Q

__________: The proportion of a population that is affected by a disease or disorder at a particular time; Example: the prevalence of lupus in women living in Illinois during 2010 was < 1%

A

Prevalence

150
Q

___ ____: Includes rehabilitation and restoration of health
• i) Examples: Cardiac rehabilitation following an MI,
physical therapy following an MVC, etc.

A

Tertiary Prevention

151
Q

____ _____: Focuses on early identification and treatment of existing problems
• i) Examples include: Pap’smear screening, prostate
cancer screening, cholesterol screening, etc.

A

Secondary Prevention

152
Q

_____ _____: Includes measures to promote health prior to the onset of any recognizable problems
i) Examples: healthy diet, exercise, avoiding tobacco,
wearing seat belts, inanunizations/vaccinations,
safety initiatives, etc.

A

Primary Prevention

153
Q

Culturally and Linguistically Appropriate Services (CLAS)
1. Ultimately, the aim of the standards is to contribute to the _____ of racial and ethnic health disparities and to improve the health of all Americans.

A

elimination

154
Q

There are 14 CLAS standards. The following standards guide all providers, including NPs, in their direct care roles.
–> Standard ___: Healthcare organizations must provide to patients/consumers in their preferred language both verbal offers and written notices informing them of their fights to receive language assistance services.

A

6

155
Q

There are 14 CLAS standards. The following standards guide all providers, including NPs, in their direct care roles.
–> Standard ___: Healthcare organizations must assure the competence of language assistance provided to limited English proficient patients/consumers by interpreters and bilingnal staff. Family and friends should not be used to provide interpretation services (except upon request by the patient/consumer).

A

7

156
Q

There are 14 CLAS standards. The following standards guide all providers, including NPs, in their direct care roles.
• –> Standard ____: Healthcare organizations must offer and provide language assistance services, including bilingual staff and interpreter services, at no cost to each patient/consumer with limited English proficiency at all points of contact, in a timely manner during all hours of operation.

A

5