Diagnosis and Management of Integumentary Disorders Flashcards

1
Q

The lesion that develops on previously unaltered skin

A

Primary Skin Lesions

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2
Q

The lesion that either changes impression over time or occurs when a primary lesion is scratched it may become infected, etc.

A

Secondary skin Lesion

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3
Q

________

1) A circumscribed flat area of skin
2) Different in color and texture form its surrounding tissue
3) < 1 cm in size
4) Examples: Ephelides (freckles), petechiae, flat nevi (moles)

A

Macule

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4
Q

___________

  1. A large macule
  2. > 1 cm in diameter
  3. Examples: Mongolian spot, cafe’ au lait spot
A

Patch

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5
Q

_______

  1. Small, solid, elevated lesion
  2. < 1 cm in diameter
  3. Example: Ant bite, elevated nevus (mole), verruca (wart)
A

Papule

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6
Q

______

1) Elevation of skin
2) > 1 cm in diameter
3) Example: Psoriasis lesion

A

Plaque

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7
Q

______

1) A visible accumulation of purulent fluid under the skin
2) < 1 cm in diameter
3) Examples: Acne and impetigo

A

Pustule

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8
Q

_______

1) A circumscribed elevation of the skin
2) Contains serous fluid
3) < 1 cm in diameter
4) Examples: Herpes simplex, Varicella (chickenpox), herpes zoster (shingles)

A

Vesicle

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9
Q

_______

1) A solid mass of skin
2) Observed as an elevation or can be palpated
3) > 1 cm in diameter
4) Often extends into the dermis (deeper)
5) Examples: Xanthoma and fibroma

A

Nodule

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10
Q

_______

1) “Blister”
2) Circumscribed elevation containing fluid
3) > 1 cm in diameter
4) Extends only into the epidermis
5) Example: Burns, superficial blister, contact dermatitis

A

Bulla

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11
Q

________

1) Elevated white or pink compressible papule or plaque
2) A red, axon mediated flat often surrounds it
3) Commonly associated with allergic reactions
4) Examples: PPD test and mosquito bites

A

Wheal

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12
Q

_________

1) Any closed cavity or sac
2) Contains fluid or semisolid material
3) Normal or abnormal epithelium
4) Example: Sebaceous ____

A

Cyst

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13
Q

___________

1) A localized collection of purulent fluid in a cavity formed by disintegration or necrosis of tissues
2) > 1 cm in size

A

Abscess

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14
Q

__________

1) “Mass”
2) > few cetimeters in diameter
3) FIrm or soft
4) Benign or malignant

A

Tumor

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15
Q

Rash configuration:

1. _________: Circular, begins in the center and spreads to periphery

A

Annular

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16
Q
  1. _______: Lesions run together
A

Confluent

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17
Q
  1. ______: Lesion cluster
A

Grouped

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18
Q
  1. _____: Twisted, coiled, spiral, snake-like
A

Gyrate

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19
Q
  1. _____: Scratch, streak, line, stripe
A

Linear

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20
Q
  1. _______: Annular lesions merge
A

Polycyclic

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21
Q
  1. ____________: Individual and disticnt lesions that remain separate
A

Solitary or discrete

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22
Q
  1. _______: Resembles iris of eye; lesions with concentric rings of color
A

Target (iris)

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23
Q
  1. ________: Linerar arrangment along a nerve route
A

Zosteriform

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24
Q

The most common of all skin disorders

A

acne

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25
Q

_______________: Openings capped with a blackened skin debris

A

Open comedones (“blackheads”)

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26
Q

______________: Obstructed opeing of skin

A

Closed comedones (“whiteheads”)

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27
Q

Signs and symptoms of acne:

1) Pustules and papules (pimples, zits), typically on the face and upper torso
2) __________ (blackheads whiteheads)
3) ______
4) Nodules
5) Scarring

A

2) Comedones

3) Cysts

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28
Q

Laboratory/ Diagnostics of Acne:

1) ______ specifically indicated for diagnosis

A

None

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29
Q

Management: Of Acne
1) Non- pharmacologic therapies
a) Wash several times daily with mild soap
b) Avoid topical oil-based products
c) Use oil-free cleansers and moisturizers
2) Pharmacologic agents
(a) Comedolytic agents: Similar effects after
90 days; creams are less irritating than
gels
ii) ___ ____: Bacteriocidal
iii) ____ _____ (Neutrogena 2% wash):
Keratolytic; reduces comedones
formation
iv) Azelaic acid (Azelex): Bactericidal and
reduced comedones formation
v) _____ (Retin - A)
a) Increased risk of sunburn;
pregnancy category C
vi) Adapalene (Differin): Less skin
irritation than Tretinoin; pregnancy
category C
vii) Tazarotene (Tazorac): Expensive;
pregnancy category X

A

ii) Benzoyl peroxide
iii) Salicyclic acid
v) Tretinoin

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30
Q

Management: Of Acne
(b) Combination agents: Comedolytics + antibiotics
i) Benzoyl peroxide + _______
(Benzamycin): Requires refrigeration
ii) Benzoyl peroxide gel + ________
(BenzaClin)
iii) Benzoyl peroxide + drying agents:
Sulfacetamide sulfur (Novacet or
Sulfacet)

A

i) Erythromycin

ii) Clindamycin

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31
Q
Management: Of Acne 
(c) Topical antibiotics
      i) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_: Most frequent used 
         topically antibiotic for acne
      ii) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_: Second most frequently 
        used
      iii) Tetracycline: Not commonly used
      iv) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_: Used frequently for 
           rosacea
A

i) Clindamycin
ii) Erythromycin
iv) Metronidazole

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32
Q

Management: Of Acne
(d) Oral antibiotics
i) ________: Most widely prescribed;
contraindicated in pregnancy and
children < 9 years of age
ii) Erythromycin
iii) ________
iv) Doxycycline
v)
vi) Isotretinoin (Accutane): For severe,
unresponsive acne; always obtain
informed consent

A

i) Tetracycline
iii) Minocycline
v) Clindamycin

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33
Q
Management: Of Acne
(e) Oral contraceptives
    i) \_\_\_\_\_\_ therapy is most effective
    ii) Ortho Tri-Cyclen and Estrostep 
    iii) May cause brownish blotches or  
        melasma 
        (hyperpigmentation) on the skin 
    iv) Contraindicated in pregnancy: Two forms 
        of birth controlled needed
A

i) Combination

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34
Q
Management: Of Acne
(f) Other therapies
   i) Periodic intralesional triamcinolone 
      (\_\_\_\_\_\_) injection 
  ii) Refer for dermabrasion
A

i) Kenalog

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35
Q

____________:

  1. Inflammation of the hair follicle
  2. Most commonly, staphylococci
A

Folliculitis

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36
Q

_________

  1. “Boil”
  2. Localized infection originating in the hair follicle
  3. Caused by Staphylococcus aureus
A

Furuncle

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37
Q

_______

  1. Much larger than a furuncle
  2. Maybe necrotizing
  3. Usually Staphylococcus aureus
A

Carbuncle

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38
Q

Most common causes in outpatient/ bacterial infections:

1) ____ ____ (Gp A Strep): usual cause
2) S. aureus: Less common
3) Other Strep. (Gp. B, C, G): Rare

A

1) Strep. pyogenes

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39
Q

The most common cause of inpatient/ bacterial infections:

1) Gram-negative organisms
a) E. coli
b) ___________
c) Pseudomonas
d) Enterobacter

A

1) b) Klebsiella

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40
Q

The most common cause of inpatient/ bacterial infections:

2) S. aureus
a) ______
b) CA- MRSA

A

a) MRSA

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41
Q

The most common cause of inpatient/ bacterial infections:

3) _____

A

3) Strep

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42
Q
CA-MRSA:
1) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (\_\_\_\_\_%)
2) Doxy/ minocycline (\_\_\_\_\_%)
3) Clindamycin (\_\_\_%)
4) In the area of very low CA- MRSA 
    prevalence:
      a) Dicloxacillin or \_\_\_\_\_ (Keflex)
A

1) 95 to 100
2) 90 to 95
3) 85 to 95
4) a) cephalexin

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43
Q

Group A Strep:

1) _____-_____ + beta-lactam [ PCN, Amoxicillin, 1st Generation Cephalosporin (Keflex)] or
2) Doxy/minocycline + Beta lactam [PDN, Amoxicliin, 1st Generation Cephalosporin (Keflex)]
3. Clindamycin

A

1) Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole

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44
Q

_______

1) Usually caused by streptococcus
2) Rapid progression of an erythematous, warm, indurated area

A

Erysipelas

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45
Q

Hidradenitis suppurativa

  1. ____ _____ infection commonly in the groin or axilla
  2. Abscess formation is common
A
  1. Staph aureus
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46
Q

_______

  1. Infection of the skin classically caused by Staph aureus
  2. The primary lesion is a thin-walled vesicle that breaks easily
  3. The honey-colored crust at the edge
  4. Commonly, satellite lesions can appear and spread to remote area of the skin
A

Impetigo

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47
Q

_______

1. Staphylococci around the nail fold

A

Paronychia

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48
Q

Signs of inflammation/ bacterial infection:

a) Regional lymphadenopathy
b) ______
c) Redness
d) Pustules
e) Pain
f) _____
g) Vesicle
h) Purulent drainage

A

b) Swelling

f) Warmth

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49
Q

In systemic infections:

a) ______
b) malaise
c) _______
d) Anorexia

A

a) Fever

c) chills

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50
Q

Laboratory/ diagnostics: bacterial infection

1) _____ ______
2) Culture

A
  1. None indicated
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51
Q

Management:
1) Incision and drainage, as warranted
2) Systemic treatment should be directed at the offering organism
3) Minor infections: Consider topical antimicrobials [Bacitracin, Bactroban (Mupirocin), etc.]
a) First-generation cephalosporin (e.g.
_______) or
b) Penicillinase- resistant penicillin (e.g.
dicloxacillin)
c) Alternative: Clindamycin or amoxicillin-
clavulanate

A

3) a) cephalexin

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52
Q

A collection of blood in the space between the nail bed and fingernail; bleeding from the rich vascular nail bed results in increased pressure under the nail and can cause significant discomfort and intense pain

A

Fingernail Hematomas (Subungual Hematoma)

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53
Q

_____ _____ are common nail bed injuries caused by blunt or sharp trauma to the fingers or toes

A

Subungual hematomas

54
Q

Management of Subungual hematomas:

1) ______: drilling a hole through the nail into the hematoma to release the pressure
a) Generally accomplished by using a heated instrument (e.g., small drill, needle, laser. or surgical blade) to pass through the nail into the blood clot

A

1) Trephination

55
Q

Description:

Inflammation of the superficial tissues of the penile heard caused by Canida Albicans

A

Candida Balanitis

56
Q

Management for Candida Balanitis:

1) Miconazole
2) ________
3) Steroids
4) Fluconazole

A

2) Clotrimazole

57
Q

Irritation of the fold of skin, commonly occurring in warm, moist body areas

A

Candida Intertrigo

58
Q

Management of Candida Intertrigo:

1) Drying agents such as tale or cornstarch
2) Topical antifungals (e.g. ______ (Loprox)
3) Oral antifungals [e.g. fluconazole (Diflucan) or itraconazole (Sporanox)]

A

2) ciclopirox

59
Q

Dermatophyte infection of the scalp, commonly caused by Trichophyton (80%) or Microsporum genera

A

Tinea Capitus

60
Q

Dermatophyte infection caused by genera Trichophyton or Microsporum

A

Tinea Corporis (ringworm)

61
Q

Treatment for Tinea Corporis:

1) Topical antifungals (e.g. __________, clotrimazole, naftifine, econazole)
2) Severe cases: Systemic therapy (ketoconazole, etc.)

A

1) Miconazole

62
Q

Description:
1) Dermatophyte infection of the groin caused by the genera of Trichophyton, Epidermophyton, and Microsporum. Most common caused: T. rubrum and E. Fluccosum

A

Tinea Cruris (jock itch)

63
Q

Dermatophyte infection of the foot caused by T. Rubrum, T. mentagrophytes (less commonly by E. floccosum)

A

Tinea Pedis (Athletes Foot)

64
Q

Dermatophyte infection of the hand/palm caused by T. Rubrum, T. mentagrophytes (less commonly by E. floccosum)

A

Tinea Manuum (hand/ palm)

65
Q

Management of Tinea Pedis and Tinea Manuum:

a) _______ or clotrimazole (pedis)
b) Aluminum subacetate sole. soaks (manuum)

A

a) Miconazole

66
Q

Persistent fungal infection affecting the toenails and fingernails caused by dermatophytes

A

Tinea unguium (onychomycosis)

67
Q

Treatment of Tinea Unguium (onychomycosis)

A

Oral antifungals (e.g. itraconazole, terbinafine)

68
Q

Fungal infection of the skin caused by the yeast. Pityrosporumorbiculare (Malassezia furfur)

A

Tinea Versicolor (hypo/ hyperpigmentation macules on limbs

69
Q

Acute vesicular eruption due to infection with the varicella-zoster virus; may be life-threatening in immunocompromised adults

A

Herpes Zoster (Shingles)

70
Q

Signs/ symptoms of Herpes Zoster:

a) Pain along with a dermatomal distribution, usually on the trunk
b) Grouped vesicle eruption of ______ and exudate along the dermatomo=al pathway
c) Regional lymphadenopathy may be present

A

b) erythema

71
Q

Management of Herpes Zoster (Shingles):

  1. Treatment options include
    a) _________
    b) Famciclovir
    c) Valacyclovir
  2. If suspected ocular involvement, immediate referral to an ophthalmologist
  3. Postherpetic neuralgia: Gabapentin (Neurontin); pregabalin (Lyrica)
  4. Zostavax
A

1) a) Acyclovir

72
Q

____ ____

  1. Small patches occurring on sun-exposed parts of the body
  2. Premalignant (1: 1,000) lesions progress to squamous cell carcinoma
  3. Asymptomatic; small patches; may be tender
  4. Rough, flesh-colored, pink or hyperpigmented
A

Actinic Keratosis

73
Q

Actinic Keratosis is treated with?

A

Liquid Nitrogen

74
Q

_____ ______ _____

1) Arise out of actinic keratosis
2) Firm, irregular papule or nodule
3) Develop over a few months; 3 to 7% metastasize
4. Prolonged, sun-exposed areas in fair skin people
5. Keratotic, scaly bleeding

A

Squamous Cell Carcinoma

75
Q

Treatment of Squamous Cell Carcinoma:

1) _____ and surgical excision (Mohs)

A

1) Biopsy

76
Q

_____ _____

1) Benign, not painful lesions
2) Beige, brown or black plaque
3) “ Stuck on” appearance
4) Three to 20 mm in diameter

A

Seborrheic Keratoses

77
Q

Treatment of Seborrheic Keratoses is:

1) _____ or liquid nitrogen

A

1) none

78
Q

____ _____ ______

1) The most common skin cancer
2) Slow growing lesion (1 to 2 cm after years)
3) Waxy, “pearly” appearance (maybe shiny red)
4) Central depression or rolled edge
5) May have telangiectatic vessels

A

Basal Cell Carcinoma

79
Q

Treatment Basal Cell Carcinoma:

_____/_____ biopsy and surgical excision

A

Shave/punch

80
Q

Malignant Melanoma:

  1. Mortality rate highest of all skin cancers
  2. Median age at diagnosis: ____
  3. May metastasize to any organ
A

2) 40

81
Q

Treatment of Malignant Melanoma:

a) ______and surgical excision

A

Biopsy

82
Q

_____ (_____ _____)
1. A chronic skin condition characterized by intense pruritus
2. Acute flare-ups!
a. Red, shiny or thickened patches
b. Inflamed/scabbed lesions with
erythema/scaling
c. Dry, leathery lichenification

A

Eczema (Atopic Dermatitis)

83
Q

Treatment Eczema (Atopic Dermatitis):
Topical ________ rubbed in well (e.g.,
Clorbetrasol cream/ lotion)

A

steroids

84
Q

Allergic Contact Dermatitis:

  1. Topical steroids
  2. Do not scrub with soap and water
  3. ______ taper if severe
A
  1. Prednisone
85
Q

_____ ______ _____

  1. An acute or chronic condition characterized by inflammation at the site of contact with chemical allergens
    a. Redness, pruritus, scabbing, etc.
    b. Sharp, defined borders
A

Allergic Contact Dermatitis

86
Q

______

  1. Benign hyperproliferative inflammation of the skin that can be acute or chronic
  2. HIV: It may present as the first sign of HIV infection (explosive onset)
  3. Itching, red, precisely defined plaques with silvery scales
  4. Fine pitting of the nails
  5. Auspitz sign: Droplets of blood when scales removed
A

Psoriasis

87
Q

Psoriasis Treatment:

  1. Topicals for the scalp (____/salicylic acid
    shampoo)
  2. Topical steroids (betamethasone)
  3. UVB light exposure
A
  1. tar
88
Q

______ ______

  1. Mild, acute inflammatory disorder
  2. More common in females (50% > males) during spring and fall
  3. Pruritic rash found on the trunk and proximal extremities
  4. Initial lesion 2 to 10 cm: “Herald patch”
  5. Generalized rash presents within 1 to 2 weeks
  6. Lesions follow a Christmas tree pattern (follows cleavage lines on the trunk)
  7. An eruption lasts 4 to 8 weeks
A

Pityriasis Rosea

89
Q

Pityriasis Rosea

7. An eruption lasts ___ to ___ weeks

A

4 to 8

90
Q

Pityriasis Rosea

7. An eruption lasts ___ to ___ weeks

A

4 to 8

91
Q

Laboratory/Diagnostics for Pityriasis Rosea:
Serologic-test for syphilis should be performed if:
1. _____ are not itching
2. Lesions are present on palmar or plantar
surfaces
3. Lesions are few and perfect

A
  1. Lesions
92
Q

Treatment Pityriasis Rosea:

  1. Oral __________
  2. Topical antipruritic
  3. Cool compresses
  4. Topical steroids
  5. UVB light
  6. Oral erythromycin
A
  1. antihistamines
93
Q

_________
Yellow plaques as a result of fat build-up under the skin, usually near the inner canthus; hyperlipidemia is the underlying cause

A

Xanthelasma

94
Q
Xanthelasma Causes/Incidence
1. More common in \_\_\_\_\_ (32%, vs. 17.4%)
2. Peak age-onset: 40 to 50 years
3. Uncontrolled diabetes is a common    
    cause of secondary hyperlipidemia
A
  1. women
95
Q

Signs/Symptoms of __________

  1. Soft yellowish lesions that form plaques •
  2. Usually located on the medial side of the upper eyelids
  3. Generally, these lesions do not affect the function of the eyelids, but ptosis has been known to occur
A

Xanthelasma

96
Q

Treatment for Xanthelasma:

1) Surgical
2) Argon and carbon dioxide laser ablation
3) Chemical cauterization
4) Electro-desiccation
5) Cryotherapy

A

1) excision

97
Q

Treatment for Xanthelasma:

1) Surgical ________
2) Argon and carbon dioxide laser ablation
3) Chemical cauterization
4) Electro-desiccation
5) Cryotherapy

A

1) Surgical excision

98
Q

____ _____

  1. Most common vector-borne disease in the U.S.
  2. Spread by the bite of infected black-legged ticks (or deer ticks, Ixodes scapularis)
  3. Takes 24 to 48 hours for a tick to feed and transmit the infecting organism, Borrelia burgdorferi, to the host
A

Lyme Disease

99
Q

Signs and symptoms of ________ ________:

  1. Distinctive’’ bull’s eye,” macular or popular rash (50% of cases)
  2. Erythema migrans- expanding red lesion with central clearing
  3. Flu-like symptoms (50% of cases)
A

Lyme Disease

100
Q

Laboratory/Diagnostics: Lymes Disease

  1. ____ testing: initial test
  2. Western blot: confirmatory
A
  1. ELISA testing
101
Q

Treatment/Management: Lymes Disease

  1. Doxycycline
  2. ________
  3. Others
  4. Refer
A
  1. Amoxicillin
102
Q

____ ____ ____ ___ (___):

  1. Lethal bacterial infection
  2. Transmitted by tick bites Takes 24 hours for Rickettsiae (R. rickettsii) to be transmitted to the host
A

Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever (RMSF)

103
Q

Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever (RMSF):

  1. Maculopapular rash
  2. ____ ____(35 to 60%)
  3. Abdominal pain
  4. Joint pain
  5. Flu-like symptoms
A
  1. Petechial rash
104
Q

Laboratory/Diagnostics: Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever (RMSF)

  1. _____ _____ _____ (____)
  2. Immunohistochemical(IHC) staining
  3. Indirect immunofluorescence assay (IFA) with R. rickettsii antigen
A
  1. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
105
Q

Treatment for Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever (RMSF):

  1. _______
  2. Refer
A
  1. Doxycycline
106
Q

____ _____:

Infectious disease unique to humans, caused by virus variants; localizes in blood vessels of the skin, mouth, and throat

A

Small Pox

107
Q

____ _____:
Signs/Symptoms
1. Sudden onset of flu-like signs and symptoms
(e.g., fever, headache, fatigue, back pain,
vomiting, and diarrhea, etc.)
2. Smallpox rash appears as fiat, red
spots/lesions
3. Within 2 days, lesions turn into small blisters
filled with clear fluid and later with pus
4. The distribution of lesions is a hallmark of
smallpox; the primary way of diagnosing the
disease:
a. First lesions on the oral mucosa/palate, face
or forearms
b. Centrifugal distribution with the greatest
the concentration of lesions on the face and
distal extremities
c. On any one part of the body, all the lesions
are in the same stage of development
d. Scabs lead to deep, pitted scars
5. Pain can be excruciating

A

Small Pox

108
Q

Treatment: _________
1. ______ vaccine before the infection
2. No cure for smallpox once infected
3. Supportive therapy and antibiotics to treat
secondary bacterial infections
4. Isolation of infected persons to prevent
spreading to others

A

Smallpox

109
Q

________
1. Acute disease caused by the bacterium
Bacillus anthracis (often referred to as
“spores” for short, but are not fungal spores)
2. Anthrax spores can be produced in vitro and
used as a biological weapon
3. The disease is mostly lethal; affects both
humans and animals
4. Spores are transported by clothing, shoes,
body of dead animals that died of anthrax

A

Anthrax

110
Q

Anthrax
Signs/Symptoms
1. Cutaneous (most common, ___% of cases)
a. Occurs on exposed areas on the arms and hands, followed by face and neck
b. Pruritic papule leading to ulcer surround by vesicles
c. Develops into black necrotic central eschar with edema
d. After 1 to 2 weeks, eschar dries, loosens, separates, leaving a permanent scar
e. Regional lymphadenopathy

  1. Inhalation (= ___% of cases) follows deposition of spore-beating particles into alveolar spaces, the clinical presentation shows a biphasic pattern:
    a. Prodromal phase: Non-specific flu-like
    symptoms of fever, dyspnea, malaise,
    myalgia
    b. Fulminant phase: Fever, diaphoresis and
    septic shock
A
  1. 95%

2. 5%

111
Q

Laboratory/Diagnostics for Anthrax:

1. _____ _____ of specimen Treatment

A

Gram Stain

112
Q

Treatment for Anthrax:

  1. A vaccine exists for those at risk (e.g., military, others)
  2. Antibiotics:
    a. Penicillin
    b. __________
    c. Doxycycline
    d. Others
  3. Report to the Health Department
A

b. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)

113
Q

Signs/Symptoms:

Flesh-colored papule with a rough surface

A

Common Warts (verruca vulgaris)

114
Q

Management: Common Warts

1) ___ _____
2) Liquid nitrogen
3) Electrocautery

A

1) Salicylic acid

115
Q

Signs/ symptoms:

1) Finger-like appearance with various projections

A

Filiform Warts (digitate)

116
Q

Management of FIliform Warts:

1) Tretinoin cream
2) Liquid nitrogen
3) _________

A

Electrocautery

117
Q

Signs/ Symptoms:

1) Pink or light yellow

A

Flat Warts

118
Q

Management of Flat Warts:

1) _____ cream
2) Liquid nitrogen
3) Electrocautery

A

1) Tretinoin cream

119
Q

Signs/ Symptoms: Plantar Warts

1) _____ surface, slightly raised, may be painful

A

Roughened

120
Q

Management: Plantar Warts

1) ____ _____ (Occlusal- HP or Mediplast)
2) Compound W Freeze Off
3) Blunt dissection
4) Laser therapy

A

1) Salicylic acid

121
Q

Signs and symptoms:

Pale pink with several projections and a broad vase (cauliflower)

A

Genital Warts

122
Q

Management of genital warts:

a) 20% podophyllin resin (Pododerm)
b) ______ (Condylox)
c) Cryosurgery
d) Trichloracetic acid (TCA) or bichloracetic acid (BCA)

A

b) Podofilox

123
Q

Hypersensitivity reaction to a particular allergen; symptoms can vary greatly in intensity

A

Allergic reactions

124
Q

Treatment of allergic reaction include:

a) Withdraw any medication that is causing the reaction
b) Antipruirutic agent- ________

A

b) antihistamine

125
Q

Precipitated by any circumstance that dries a person’s skin

A

Senile Pruritus

126
Q

Treatment of Senile pruritus:

a) ____ oils, moisturizing lotions, and massage are beneficial
b) Antihistamines and topical steroids may be prescribed for relief

A

a) Bath

127
Q

Tissue damage resulting from exposure to cold

A

Frost Bite

128
Q
Treatment for Frost Bite:
a) Assess for hypothermia
b) Soak in the water at \_\_\_\_ degrees 
    Fahrenheit
c) Treat for pain
A

b) 100

129
Q

Insect bites and stings that cause toxic reactions that range from local and mild to life-threatening

A

Insect stings and bites

130
Q

Treatment of insect stings and bites:

a) remove ______
b) Topical or intralesional corticosteroids
c) topical anesthetics

A

a) stinger