Issues, Trends, and Health Policy Part 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Instructing patients in how to successfully manage their own conditions

A

Mentoring/ coaching

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Instructing patient s with asthma on how to manage exacerbations this is a form of _____/ _____

A

Mentoring/ coaching

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Instructing patients with diabetes mellitus on how to control blood glucose via diet and exercise form of _____/_____

A

Mentoring/ coaching

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Instructing patient through examples of health care processes in action this is ____ ____

A

role modeling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

______ ______ may be done through NP instructing patient in healthy behavior or through role modeling examples in other patients

A

Role modeling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Principles of Instruction include:

a) Mentoring/ coaching
b) Role modeling
c) __________

A

Counseling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Instructing patients in how to reponsibly mangage medications, conditions, and courses of treatment

A

Counseling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The degree to which health care professionals have the capacity to obtain, process, and understand basic health care information and servisces nessarey to make aprrorpirate health care decisions

A

Health Literacy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

____ ____: considered to be the single best predictor of one’e health status

A

Health literacy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Average adult in America reads at an _____- grade level

A

eighth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Medical/ health information literature should be written at no higher of a grade level than ___ to ___ grade.

A

6th to 8th

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Legislative and Regulatory Processes:

1) Accreditation guidelines
a) Often laid out by the ____ _____

A

Joint commision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Joint Commission also lays out ___ _____ ____ Goals and area of concern for health care profssionals in accredited instiutions

A

Natioanl Patient safety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

_____ ___ _____
a) Rules laid out by the institution that may provide further qualifications and restrictions on the rule of healthcare staff (e.g. the duties responsibility, and privilegess of AGACNPs)

A

Institutional by laws

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How consumers use health care resources and services

A

Resource Utilization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How patients interact with health care providers

A

Resource Utilization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Special concerns in acute care

a) length of stay
b) Top reasons for hsopitalization
c) Preventable hoospitalization
d) Long- term care
e) Emergency room and primary care clinic utilizations

A

Resource Utilization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Tem of multiple helath care professionals across various disciplnes, assembles to deal with emergency situations

A

Multidisciplinary Response Team (MRTs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

___ ____ ___: deals with rapid deteriations in health, such as respiratory distress or caridac arrest

a) Physician/ AGACNP
b) Nurse
c) Respiratory therapist
d) Others per institutional protocol

A

Rapid Response Team

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

____ ______: a mass casualty event wihich MRTs frequently train to intervene

a) Pandemic
b) Terrorist attack/ mass shooting
c) Natural disaster
d) Large chemical exposures
e) Large fires/ explosions

A

Institutional disaster

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Utilizing healthcare technology and databases to optimize course of treatment

A

Integrating Health Information Technology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

___ _____ ___ (__): Integrated database that allow NPs real time access to paitnet health information

A

Electronic Medical Record (EMR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

_____ ______ (___): Using EMR technology to

a) Improve quality, efficiency, and safety
b) Reduce healthcare disparities
c) Engage patient’s and family members in course of care
d) Improve care coordination
e) Maintain privacy and safety of patient health information

A

Meaningful Use (MU)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

____ _____ _____ is a management process of monitoring, evaluating, continuously reviewing, and improving both the quality of health care deliver and the health status of target populations

A

Quality Improvment (QI) Principles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

_____ and _____ _____ for Nurses (QSEN) Initiative
a) An initiative aimed at providing future nurses with the knowledge, skills, and attitude necessary to ensure continuous improvement in quality and safely of their respective healthcare systems

A

Quality and Safety Education

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Quality and Safety Education for Nurses Initiative

b) Identifies, funds, and promotes education across six key competencies
i) Pateint- centered care
ii) Teamwork and collaboration
iii) Evidence- based practice (EBP)
iv) _____
iiv) Safety
iiiv) Informatics

A

QI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Evaluating Safety Initiatives

a) Uses multi cause variable systems such as ____ cause analysis

A

root

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Evaluating Safety Initiatives

b) Effective systems of evaluation should answer the following questions:
i) Are we providing _____ care?
ii) How safe was this care in the past?
iii) How safe will we be in the future?
iv) Can our process and health system reliably deliver safer care?
iiv) How can we be sure that we are getting better?

A

safe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Standardizing Assessment Tools

a) General
i) Patient _____ Questionnaire
aa) Used in primary care to screen for behavioral health systoms
bb) Assesses symptoms of depression, anxiety, trauma, and alcohol use

A

Stress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Depression
• Patient _____ _____ (PHQ-9)
1) Most common screening tool for depression
2) Patient self-ranks 9 signs and symptoms over the last 2 weeks on a scale of 0 to 3, with 3 indicating nearly every day.

A

Health Questionnaire

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

PHQ-9

____ to ___ = Moderately severe depression

A

15 to 19

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

PHQ-9

____ to ___ = Minimal depression

A

1 to 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

PHQ-9

____ to ___ = Moderate depression

A

10 to 14

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

PHQ-9

___ to ___ = Mild depression

A

5 to 9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

PHQ-9

____ to ___ = Severe depression

A

20 to 27

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Anxiety Disorders
Generalized ____ ____-7 (GAD-7)
1) Self-administered screening tool that identifies whether a complete assessment for anxiety is indicated

A

Anxiety Disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Anxiety Disorders
Generalized Anxiety Disorder-7 (GAD-7)
2) Patient ranks ___ signs and symptoms over the last 2 weeks on a scale of 0 to 3, with 3 indicating nearly every day

A

7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Anxiety Disorders
Generalized Anxiety Disorder-7 (GAD-7)
b. ____ to ___ = Moderate anxiety

A

10 to 14

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Anxiety Disorders
Generalized Anxiety Disorder-7 (GAD-7)
a. ___ to ___ = Mild anxiety

A

5 to 9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Anxiety Disorders
Generalized Anxiety Disorder-7 (GAD-7)
c. ___ to ___ = Severe anxiety

A

15 to 21

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Anxiety Disorders
Generalized Anxiety Disorder-7 (GAD-7)
d. A total score > ____ indicates a probable diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder

A

10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Drug and Alcohol Use
•
CAGE-AID
1) Self-report questionnaire designed to quickly assess whether an alcohol or drug assessment is needed
2) Answering “yes” to two or more questions warrants a complete assessment
a. C: Have you ever felt that you ought to ___ ___ on
your drinking or drug use?

A

cut down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Drug and Alcohol Use
•
CAGE-AID
1) Self-report questionnaire designed to quickly assess whether an alcohol or drug assessment is needed
2) Answering “yes” to two or more questions warrants a complete assessment
b. A: Have people _____ you by criticizing your
drinking or drug use?

A

annoyed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Drug and Alcohol Use
•
CAGE-AID
1) Self-report questionnaire designed to quickly assess whether an alcohol or drug assessment is needed
2) Answering “yes” to two or more questions warrants a complete assessment
c. G: Have you ever felt bad or ____ about your drinking
or drug use?

A

guilty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Drug and Alcohol Use
•
CAGE-AID
1) Self-report questionnaire designed to quickly assess whether an alcohol or drug assessment is needed
2) Answering “yes” to two or more questions warrants a complete assessment
d. E: Have you ___ had a drink or used drugs first thing
in the morning to steady your nerves or to get rid
of a hangover? (e.g., eye opener)

A

ever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Pain
a. ____ _____FACES Pain Rating Scale
i) Self-assessment tool
• ii) Patient rates pain by choosing among six faces,
ranging in expression from smiling to crying

A

Wong-Baker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Pain
b. ____ _____ Scale
• i) Assesses conscious state of a patient

A

Ramsay Sedation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Pain
b. Ramsay Sedation Scale
• i) Assesses conscious state of a patient
• ii) If awake:
Ramsey ___: responsive to commands only

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Pain
b. Ramsay Sedation Scale
• i) Assesses conscious state of a patient
• ii) If awake:
Ramsey ___: anxious, agitated, restless

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Pain
b. Ramsay Sedation Scale
• i) Assesses conscious state of a patient
• ii) If awake:
Ramsey ___: cooperative, oriented, tranquil

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

If asleep:

Ramsey ___: No response to light glabellar tap or loud auditory stimulus

A

6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

If asleep:

Ramsey ___: Sluggish respnse to light glabellar tap or loud auditory stimulus

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

If asleep:

Ramsey ___: response to light glavellar tap or loud auditory stimulus

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Brief Pain Inventory (BPI) short form

i) Assesses severity of pain and impact of pain on ______functions by asking patient to fill out survey
ii) Through self- report or interview, patient rates severity of pain and impact of pin on dilay function, as well as location of pain, pind medication, and amount of pain relief

A

daily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Brief Pain Inventory (BPI) short form
ii) Through self- report or interview, patient rates _____ of pain and impact of pain on daily function, as well as location of pain, pain medication, and amount of pain relief

A

severity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Richmand Agitation Sedation Scale (RASS)

a) A ___-point scale to assess levels of anxiety, agitation, and sedation

A

10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Richmand Agitation Sedation Scale (RASS)
a) A 10-point scale to assess levels of anxiety, agitation, and sedation
b) Scoring based on observable behavior in the following categories
___ combative

A

+4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Richmand Agitation Sedation Scale (RASS)
a) A 10-point scale to assess levels of anxiety, agitation, and sedation
b) Scoring based on observable behavior in the following categories
___ agitated

A

+2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Richmand Agitation Sedation Scale (RASS)
a) A 10-point scale to assess levels of anxiety, agitation, and sedation
b) Scoring based on observable behavior in the following categories
___ very agitated

A

+3

60
Q

Richmand Agitation Sedation Scale (RASS)
a) A 10-point scale to assess levels of anxiety, agitation, and sedation
b) Scoring based on observable behavior in the following categories
___ unarousable

A

-5

61
Q

Richmand Agitation Sedation Scale (RASS)
a) A 10-point scale to assess levels of anxiety, agitation, and sedation
b) Scoring based on observable behavior in the following categories
___ moderate sedation

A

-3

62
Q

Richmand Agitation Sedation Scale (RASS)
a) A 10-point scale to assess levels of anxiety, agitation, and sedation
b) Scoring based on observable behavior in the following categories
____ deep sedation

A

-4

63
Q

Richmand Agitation Sedation Scale (RASS)
a) A 10-point scale to assess levels of anxiety, agitation, and sedation
b) Scoring based on observable behavior in the following categories
___ restless

A

+1

64
Q

Richmand Agitation Sedation Scale (RASS)
a) A 10-point scale to assess levels of anxiety, agitation, and sedation
b) Scoring based on observable behavior in the following categories
___ alert and calm

A

0

65
Q

Richmand Agitation Sedation Scale (RASS)
a) A 10-point scale to assess levels of anxiety, agitation, and sedation
b) Scoring based on observable behavior in the following categories
___ light sedation

A

-2

66
Q

Richmand Agitation Sedation Scale (RASS)
a) A 10-point scale to assess levels of anxiety, agitation, and sedation
b) Scoring based on observable behavior in the following categories
____ drowsy

A

-1

67
Q

Sedtion Agitation Scale (SAS)

___ (Unarousable): Minimal or no response to noxious stimuli, does not communicate or follow commands

A

1

68
Q

Sedtion Agitation Scale (SAS)

___ (Very Agitated): requiring restraint and frequency verbal reminding of limits, biting NP

A

6

69
Q

Sedtion Agitation Scale (SAS)

___ (Agitated): anxious or physically agitated, calms to verbal instructions

A

5

70
Q

Sedtion Agitation Scale (SAS)

___ (Calm and Cooperative): calm, easily arousable, follows commands

A

4

71
Q

Sedtion Agitation Scale (SAS)

___ (Sedated): difficult to arouse to physical stimuli but does not communicate or follow commands, may move spontaneously

A

3

72
Q

Sedtion Agitation Scale (SAS)

___ (Very Sedated): arouses to physical stimuli but does not communicate or follow commands, may move spontaneously

A

2

73
Q

Sedtion Agitation Scale (SAS)
___ (Dangerous Agitation): Pulling at ET tube, trying to remove catheters, climbing over bedrail, striking at staff, thrashing side-to-side

A

7

74
Q

Dementia mad Delirium
a. ____ ____State Examination (MMSE)–see
Neurological Disorders chapter

A

Mini-Mental

75
Q

Dementia mad Delirium

b. _____drawing test

A

Clock

76
Q

Dementia mad Delirium

b. Clock drawing test
• 1. Used to assess for cognitive ________

A

impairment

77
Q

Dementia mad Delirium
b. Clock drawing test
• 2. Patient is asked to draw numbers in the circle to
make the circle look like the face of a clock and
then draw the hands of the clock to read “___ after
11”

A

10

78
Q

Dementia mad Delirium
a. Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE)–see
Neurological Disorders chapter
b. Clock drawing test
• 3. The clock is scored 1 to 6, with a score > ___
representing cognitive deficit

A

3

79
Q

Depression
a. Geriatric Depression Scale
• 3. Consists of 15 yes/no questions; a score > ___
suggests depression

A

5

80
Q

Depression
a. Geriatric Depression Scale
2. Can be used on cognitively intact individuals and
those with mild to moderate cognitive _______

A

impairments

81
Q

Depression
a. Geriatric Depression Scale
• 1. Self-report questionnaire used to screen for
_______ in older adults •

A

depression

82
Q
  1. Gait and Immobility/Fall Risk
    a. Get-up and Go Test
    i) Short test that measures a patient’s risk of ____
A

falling

83
Q
  1. Gait and Immobility/Fall Risk
    a. Get-up and Go Test
    ii) Patient is asked to rise from the _____, stand still
    momentarily, walk a short distance, turn around,
    walk back to the chair, turn around, and then sit
    down in the chair
A

chair

84
Q

Gait and Immobility/Fall Risk:

iii) Patient’s performance is rated 1 to 5, with a score > ___ indicating a risk of falling

A

3

85
Q

Gait and Immobility/Fall Risk:
iii) Patient’s performance is rated 1 to 5, with a score > 3
indicating a risk of falling
___ = Normal

A

1

86
Q

Gait and Immobility/Fall Risk:
iii) Patient’s performance is rated 1 to 5, with a score > 3
indicating a risk of falling
___ = Severely abnormal

A

5

87
Q

Gait and Immobility/Fall Risk:
iii) Patient’s performance is rated 1 to 5, with a score > 3
indicating a risk of falling
___ = Mildly abnormal

A

3

88
Q

Gait and Immobility/Fall Risk:
iii) Patient’s performance is rated 1 to 5, with a score > 3
indicating a risk of falling
___ = Moderately abnormal

A

4

89
Q

Gait and Immobility/Fall Risk:
iii) Patient’s performance is rated 1 to 5, with a score > 3
indicating a risk of falling
___ = Very slightly normal

A

2

90
Q

Pain Assessment in Advanced Dementia Scale
• a) Tool used to measure pain in older patients with
dementia •
b) Five behaviors of the patient are observed:
breathing, negative vocalization, facial expression,
___ ____, and consolability

A

body language

91
Q

Pain Assessment in Advanced Dementia Scale
• c) Each behavior is scored on a scale of 0 to 2, with 0
indicating no pain.
___ to ___ = Moderate pain

A

4 to 6

92
Q

Pain Assessment in Advanced Dementia Scale
• c) Each behavior is scored on a scale of 0 to 2, with 0
indicating no pain.
___ to ___= Mild pain

A

1 to 3

93
Q

Pain Assessment in Advanced Dementia Scale
• c) Each behavior is scored on a scale of 0 to 2, with 0
indicating no pain.
___ to __ = Severe pain

A

7 to 10

94
Q

_____ ______ _____ (___)
a. Equipment and supplies ordered by a healthcare
provider for everyday or extended use

A

Durable Medical Equipment (DME)

95
Q

Durable Medical Equipment (DME)
b. What makes medical equipment DME?
• i) ______ (long-lasting)

A

Durable

96
Q

Durable Medical Equipment (DME)
b. What makes medical equipment DME?
• ii) Used for a ______ reason

A

medical

97
Q

Durable Medical Equipment (DME)
b. What makes medical equipment DME?
• iii) Not usually useful to someone who is not ___ or
injured

A

sick

98
Q

Durable Medical Equipment (DME)
b. What makes medical equipment DME?
• iv) Used in ______

A

home

99
Q

Durable Medical Equipment (DME)
b. What makes medical equipment DME?
• iiv) Has an expected lifetime of at least ___ years

A

3

100
Q

Durable Medical Equipment (DME)
c. Examples of Medicare-covered DME •
i) ____ (air-fluidized and hospital)
• ii) Sleep apnea and CPAP devices
• iii) Canes
• iv) Crutches
• v) Manual wheelchairs, power mobility devices
• vi) Walkers
• vii) Traction equipment•
viii) Patient lifts
• ix) Commode chairs
x) Continuous passive motion machine
xi) Nebulizers and nebulizer medications
xii) Oxygen equipment and accessories
xiii) Suction pumps
xiv) Blood glucose monitors and test strips
xv) Infusion pumps and supplies

A

Beds

101
Q

____ _____

a. Devices whose primary purpose is to maintain or improve an individual’s functioning and independence

A

Assistive Devices

102
Q
Assistive Devices
a.    Devices whose primary purpose is to maintain or improve an individual's functioning and independence
b.    Examples:
•      i) Wheelchairs
•     ii) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
       iii) Hearing aids
A

Prostheses

103
Q
Alternative/Complementary Therapies
1. \_\_\_\_\_\_ and \_\_\_\_\_\_ \_\_\_\_\_\_ (\_\_)
     a. Term that refers to treatments that are used along 
            with, or in place of, conventional medicine
     b. Focus is on the whole person
     c. Includes physical, emotional, mental, and spiritual 
            health
    d. Examples:
      i) Natural products 
           1) Herbs 
           2) Vitamins and minerals 
           3) Probiotics • 
     ii) Mind and body practices
           1) Yoga 
           2) Chiropractic and osteopathic manipulation
           3) Meditation 
           4) Massage therapy 
           5) Acupuncture
           6) Relaxation techniques
           7) Tai chi
           8) Qi gong
           9) Healing touch
           10) Hypnotherapy 
           11) Movement therapies 
           12) Music 
           13) Light therapy
    iii) Ayurvedic medicine •
    iv) Traditional Chinese medicine
     v) Homeopathy •
     vi) Naturopathy
A

Complementary and Alternative Medicine (CAM)

104
Q

__________ Medicine
a) Bringing conventional and complementary
approaches together in a coordinated way
b) Examples
i) Chronic pain: incorporating mindfulness meditation
with pain management programs
ii) Symptom management acupuncture and deitation
to help mange symptoms and side effects of cancer
treatment

A

Integrative

105
Q

a. AGACNP’s Role in Tests and Procedures

• i) Facilitate the scheduling of ______

A

tests

106
Q

a. AGACNP’s Role in Tests and Procedures

• ii) ______ the patient on the test

A

Educate

107
Q

a. AGACNP’s Role in Tests and Procedures
• iii) Perform or _____ with procedures
•

A

assist

108
Q

a. AGACNP’s Role in Tests and Procedures
• iv) _____patients for adverse reactions to
procedures

A

Assess

109
Q

a. AGACNP’s Role in Tests and Procedures
• v) Preparing the Patient
1) Ensure patient _______ procedure

A

understands

110
Q

a. AGACNP’s Role in Tests and Procedures
• v) Preparing the Patient
2) Verify patient _______ with any pre-
procedural requirements

A

complied

111
Q

a. AGACNP’s Role in Tests and Procedures
3) _______ any friends or family who
accompanied patient as to the length of
procedure

A

Notify

112
Q

AGACNP’s Role in Tests and Procedures
During the Procedure
1) Evaluate the patient’s _____ level

A

anxiety

113
Q

AGACNP’s Role in Tests and Procedures
During the Procedure
2) Help patient _____ (e.g., deep breathing, imagery)

A

relax

114
Q

AGACNP’s Role in Tests and Procedures
During the Procedure
3) Evaluate patient’s level of _____ and comfort

A

safety

115
Q

AGACNP’s Role in Tests and Procedures
After the Procedure
1) Help restore patient’s pre-diagnostic level of _______

A

functioning

116
Q

AGACNP’s Role in Tests and Procedures
After the Procedure
2) Monitor patient for signs of _______ distress and
bleeding

A

respiratory

117
Q

AGACNP’s Role in Tests and Procedures
After the Procedure
3) Discharge patient with ______ instructions

A

written

118
Q

lnformatics and Technologies

  1. Goals of Technology in Nursing
    a. ______ the tasks performed
A

Capture

119
Q

lnformatics and Technologies
1. Goals of Technology in Nursing
b. ______ scope of practice and evidence-based
practice

A

Enhance

120
Q

lnformatics and Technologies

  1. Goals of Technology in Nursing
    c. Make practice ______-driven
A

knowledge

121
Q
  1. _____ ___________
    a. Specialty that integrates nursing science, computer science, and information science to manage and communicate data, information knowledge, and wisdom in nursing
A

Nursing Informatics

122
Q
  1. Nursing Informatics
    b. Through the use of information _______, information processes, and information technology, nursing informatics supports consumers, patients, and other providers in their decision-making in all roles and settings
A

structures

123
Q
  1. Key nursing informatics organizations
    a. Healthcare Information and ______ Systems
    Society(HIMSS)
A

Management

124
Q
  1. Key nursing informatics organizations

b. AmericanNursing ______ Association (ANIA)

A

Informatics

125
Q
  1. Key nursing informatics organizations

c. American Medical _____ Association (AMIA)

A

Informatics

126
Q
  1. Key nursing informatics organizations

d. _____ for Nursing Informatics

A

Alliance

127
Q

Nursing informatics roles

a) Practice
b) _______
c) Government
d) Industry

A

Education

128
Q
  1. Informatics Competencies
    a. Beginning nurse
    • I) Computer literacy
    1) Healthcare database and ________
    applications
    2) Presentation software
A

spreadsheet

129
Q
  1. Informatics Competencies
    a. Beginning nurse
    II) Information management
    1) Locate clinical data
    2) Perfom a ________ retrievals using Internet
    and librarybased resources
    3) Evaluate clinical data
A

bibliographic

130
Q
  1. Informatics Competencies
    a. Beginning nurse
    • III) Know how to use nursing-specific software
    • IV) Ability to use patient care ________ (e.g.,
    monitors, pumps, medication dispensing)
A

technologies

131
Q
  1. Informatics Competencies
    b. Experienced nurse
    • A) Skilled in information management and computer
    technology related to specific areas of practice
    1) Make _________ based on trends of data
    2) Collaborate with informatics nurses in
    development of nursing systems
A

judgments

132
Q
  1. Informatics Competencies
    c. Informatics nurse specialist
    • 1) Advanced informatics preparation
    • 2) Assists practicing nurse in meeting information
    needs
    • 3) Possesses ____ for conducting informatics
    research along with theory development
A

skills

133
Q
  1. _________ • •
    a) Definition: comparison and measurement of a healthcare organization s services against other national healthcare organizations
A

Benchmarking

134
Q

Advanced Practice Ownership
b. Benefits
• I) Helps leaders ______ how their organization
compares with similar organizations
• II) Allows for the sharing of best practices and
evidence- based practice clinical research outcomes

A

understand

135
Q

Advanced Practice Ownership

c. Four core principles
•   I) Maintaining quality
•  II) Improving customer \_\_\_\_\_\_\_
• III) Improving patient safety
•IV) Continuous improvement
A

satisfaction

136
Q

Advanced Practice Ownership

d. Examples of benchmarks
• I) All patients who enter the hospital have a
______ reconciliation completed upon admission
• II) Hospital readmission rates for acute-care hospitals

A

medication

137
Q
Advanced Practice Ownership: 
e. Meeting benchmarks
    I) Management team must support goal
   II) Compliance must be \_\_\_\_\_\_\_
  III) Organization must allocate time and resources to 
       implementation
A

measured

138
Q

_____ ____
a) Definition: the process by which practicing registered nurses systematically access, monitor, and make judgments about the quality of nursing care provided by peers as measured against professional standards of practice (American Nurses Association)

A

Peer Review:

139
Q

Peer Review:

b) Stimulates professionalism through increased ___________ and promotes self-regulation of the practice
c) A formalized, systematic peer-review nursing practice is required for Magnet recognition

A

accountability

140
Q

d) Practice principles

• I) A peer is someone of the _____rank

A

same

141
Q

d) Practice principles

• II) Peer review is ______-focused

A

practice

142
Q

d) Practice principles
• III) Feedback is timely, routine, and a _______
expectation

A

continuous

143
Q

d) Practice principles
• IV) Peer review fosters a ______ learning culture of
patient safety and best practices

A

continuous

144
Q

d) Practice principles

• V) Feedback is _____ anonymous

A

not

145
Q

d) Practice principlee
• VI) Feedback incorporates the nurse’s
______ stage

A

developmental