Revel krossaprófin Flashcards

1
Q

Georgia had started a small catering company three years ago. After gaining popularity and growing her clientele, Georgia was able to expand the company and hire 12 people. However, this expansion meant that the conceptual and technical tasks that Georgia used to do earlier, such as deciding the target market and cooking the food, were now delegated to the team, with Georgia focusing on interpersonal and management tasks such as supervision. Which of the following does this scenario best illustrate?
A.
Management is independent of the context in which it occurs.
B.
Management is a distinct role.
C.
Management is independent of the external environment.
D.
Management is a universal human activity.

A

B. Management is a distinct role.

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2
Q

Kevin, a manager in an international company, recently moved to a new apartment and decided to paint the walls of the living room. He got the paint and the brushes, set his goal to paint one wall a day, monitored his progress and analysed the results after finishing all the walls. Meanwhile, in his office, he handled a project in a similar way. In both cases, he took responsibility for the purpose of the work. Which of the following does this scenario most likely illustrate?
A.
Management is a distinct role.
B.
Management is independent of the context in which it occurs.
C.
Management is independent of the external environment.
D.
Management is a universal human activity.

A

D. Management is a universal human activity.

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3
Q

When Denver, a retired army officer, observed children begging for food in his neighbourhood, he decided to open a food stall that would provide these kids and other underprivileged people with free food and water. He gradually expanded this enterprise and was able to set up over 55 stalls in different areas of the city. Throughout this, Denver was less concerned with making money and more concerned with serving the poor. Which of the following concepts is best illustrated in this scenario?
A.
Sustainability.
B.
Social entrepreneurship.
C.
Networking.
D.
Corporate governance.

A

B. Social entrepreneurship.

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4
Q

Which of the following is created when resources are transformed into goods or services that are worth more than the sum of the original cost of the resources and the cost of the transformation?
A competency.
B.
Context.
C.
Value.
D.
A theory.

A

c. Value.

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5
Q

Which of the following terms refers to the skills and abilities that a company uses to deploy resources effectively, such as work processes and systems?
A.
Values.
B.
Contexts.
C.
Competencies.
D.
Tasks.

A

C. Competencies.

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6
Q

Mirage, an apparel company, has undertaken several eco-friendly practices to protect the environment. It has stopped using silk, polyester and leather to manufacture its products and has set an objective to manufacture all its products using organic cotton by the year 2020. The management has also started waste segregation in the cafeteria, with plastic waste being recycled into clothes that are then donated to the poor.
A.
Scientific management.
B.
Bureaucracy.
C.
Corporate governance.
D.
Sustainability.

A

D. Sustainability.

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7
Q

Which of the following is a way in which managers can add value to resources?

A.

Using one method of management consistently and uniformly across all contexts.

B.

Focusing on the macro-environment rather than on the micro-environment of the organisation.

C.

Transforming resources into goods or services by completing specific tasks and processes within a context.

D.

Using clear thinking rather than critical thinking to make decisions.

A

C. Transforming resources into goods or services by completing specific tasks and processes within a context.

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8
Q

Oliver, a junior executive at an investment firm, has to prepare a presentation for a potential client by Thursday. He also has to write a report analysing market trends and share it with his manager by Friday.
A.

Processes.

B.

Competencies.

C.

Tasks.

D.

Contexts.

A

C. Tasks.

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9
Q

Patricia joins a start-up and is surprised to see an easy-going company culture. Unlike her pervious company, which had a hierarchical structure and curbed initiative and creativity, her new company has a flat structure that provides an environment that fosters creativity and innovation and encourages participation. In this scenario, which of the following terms can be used to refer to the setting in which Patricia works?
A.
Context.
B.
Competency.
C.
Process.
D.
Content.

A

A. Context.

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10
Q

Enrique has invested a large part of his savings in an advertising start-up. As a result, he is concerned with the business decisions taken by the managers of the company as they will directly impact the value of the company’s stock and the dividends that he will receive at the end of the financial year. Which of the following statements is true of Enrique in this scenario?
A.
He is a contingent worker.
B.
He is an expatriate.
C.
He is a corporate citizen.
D.
He is a stakeholder

A

D. He is a stakeholder

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11
Q

Who among the following individuals is performing the management task of leading?
A.
Lisa, the HR manager of a start-up, who develops policies for human resource management.
B.
Denver, the content manager of a company, who is allocating resources to different projects.
C.
Fiona, the marketing manager of a start-up, who is monitoring the progress of her project.
D.
George, the sales manager of a company, who motivates his team to meet the weekly sales target.

A

D.
George, the sales manager of a company, who motivates his team to meet the weekly sales target.

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12
Q

Samantha, the content manager of a company, is allocating her team members to current projects and evaluating the need to hire more people based on the requirements of the projects that are yet to come in. She is considering whether the people in her team can handle additional projects to avoid increasing the fixed costs of the company. Which of the following management tasks is Samantha performing in the given scenario?

A.
Planning.
B.
Controlling.
C.
Leading.
D.
Benchmarking

A

A. Planning.

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13
Q

Which of the following is true of Henry Mintzberg’s observations in his study of managerial work?
A.
Managerial work in large organisations has much more informal communication than in small, growth-oriented businesses.
B.
Managerial work in small, growth-oriented businesses has more brevity and fragmentation than in large organisations.
C.
Every manager’s job includes 10 management roles, with their relative importance depending on the type of enterprise, the manager’s position in the organisational hierarchy and the manager’s personal preferences.

A

Every manager’s job includes 10 management roles, with their relative importance depending on the type of enterprise, the manager’s position in the organisational hierarchy and the manager’s personal preferences.

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14
Q

In the context of Mintzberg’s 10 management roles, which of the following scenarios depicts a manager who performed a decisional role?
A.
Cathy, the operations manager of a company that manufactures frozen foods, took corrective action when the company received negative publicity after worms were found in some of its products.
B.
Diana, the administrative manager of a construction company, collected and reviewed the tender applications for a housing project.
C.
Mira, the human resource manager of a company, forwarded information regarding a new piece of employment legislation to all employees of the company.
D.
Jennifer, the operations manager of a company, addressed the employees of the company in a monthly meeting and presented the ‘Employee of the Quarter’ award to an employee.

A

A. Cathy, the operations manager of a company that manufactures frozen foods, took corrective action when the company received negative publicity after worms were found in some of its products.

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15
Q

Which of the following terms refers to behaviours that aim to develop, maintain and use informal relationships with internal and external contacts that may help work-related activities?

A.
Networking.
B.
Benchmarking.
C.
Corporate governance.
D.
Social entrepreneurship.

A

A. Networking

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16
Q

Within a week of joining a new company, Fatima realises that the company has an authoritative culture that stifles creativity and discourages employee participation. As a result, even her manager is autocratic and gives little or no autonomy to his team members. Which of the following dimensions of context does this scenario exemplify?
A.
The macro-environment.
B.
The micro-environment.
C.
The external context.
D.
The internal context.

A

D.
The internal context.

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17
Q

Who among the following is working with an element of the external context?
A.
Rebecca, who is training her employees in interpersonal skills.
B.
Anand, who is developing a comprehensive work-from-home policy for his employees.
C.
Rohan, who is preparing an organisational chart for his two-year-old start-up.
D.
Annie, who is lobbying state legislators to reduce the property tax levied on private businesses.

A

D.
Annie, who is lobbying state legislators to reduce the property tax levied on private businesses.

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18
Q

The specifics of management tasks differ in each context. Which of the following is most likely to be a planning task in a competitive environment?
A.
Lobbying government officials to prevent an environmental law from passing.
B.
Ensuring that the human resource management system has an updated record of employee performance and skills.
C.
Sending employees to work in foreign subsidiaries to create awareness about ethnic differences.
D.
Introducing a line of low-cost products to discourage a potential competitor from entering the market.

A

D.
Introducing a line of low-cost products to discourage a potential competitor from entering the market.

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19
Q

Which of the following is a process that involves identifying the assumptions behind ideas, relating them to their context and observing the context for changes, imagining alternative ways of doing things and recognising the limitations of knowledge and practice?
A.
Networking.
B.
Corporate governance.
C.
Clear thinking.
D.
Social entrepreneurship.

A

C.
Clear thinking.

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20
Q

Tina, the marketing manager of a food manufacturing company, and Peter, the operations manager of the company, are discussing sustainable ways of product packaging. When Tina proposes using paper boxes rather than plastic boxes for packaging perishables, Peter considers the impact of adopting this strategy on the sales and the fixed costs of the company. He also considers the impact of several contextual factors, such as the eco-friendly practices that have been adopted by rival firms and the inclination of customers to avoid plastics in favour of paper, on the decision to adopt this strategy. Which of the following concepts does this scenario best exemplify?
A.
The ABC model.
B.
PESTEL analysis.
C.
Corporate governance.
D.
The rational goal model.

A

A.
The ABC model.

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21
Q

Identify a characteristic of clear thinkers.
A.
They are curious and explore realistic alternative ways of achieving goals.
B.
They believe that the success of a method is independent of the context in which it is used.
C.
They are risk-takers who base their decisions on intuitive thinking rather than critical thinking.
D.
They focus on facts and ignore the assumptions behind a proposal or an idea.

A

A.
They are curious and explore realistic alternative ways of achieving goals.

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22
Q

Which of the following terms represents a complex phenomenon by recognising major elements and the relationships among those elements?

A competency.

B.

A system.

C.

A theory.

D.

A process.

A

A theory.

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23
Q

While deciding how to allocate resources to different projects, Simone, the manager of the content team in a publishing company, had to persuade the manager of the graphics team to lend her two resources to ensure that her projects were completed on time. In this scenario, which of the following is true of Simone?

A.

She engaged in the process of influencing and motivating while completing the task of organising.

B.

She engaged in the process of scanning the general environment while completing the task of controlling.

C.

She engaged in the process of analysing the micro-environment to complete the task of planning.

D.

She engaged in the process of delegation to complete the task of monitoring.

A

A.

She engaged in the process of influencing and motivating while completing the task of organising.

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24
Q

In the context of the competing values framework, who among the following is most likely to use the open systems model?

A.

Caleb, a first-line manager in a car assembly plant, who wants to maximise his team members’ productivity.

B.

Jennifer, the head of the graphics department in a publishing company, who wants to expand her department and change some of the work processes to increase efficiency.

C.

Heena, a manager in a technology firm, who wants to enhance the skills of her team members and develop their potential.

D.

Brandon, an HR manager of an organisation, who wants to establish rules and regulations to ensure uniform procedures and bring stability to the organisation

A

B.

Jennifer, the head of the graphics department in a publishing company, who wants to expand her department and change some of the work processes to increase efficiency.

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25
Q

Amanda, a manager, is using the rational goal model to maximise the output of her team. In the context of the competing values framework, which of the following is she likely to focus on to achieve her goal?

A.

Commitment, morale, participation and openness.

B.

Innovation, adaptation, growth and resource acquisition.

C.

Documentation, information management, stability and control.

D.

Direction, clarity of objectives, productivity and accomplishment.

A

D. Direction, clarity of objectives, productivity and accomplishment.

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26
Q

In the context of the rational goal model, identify a principle of scientific management.

A.

Selecting the best people to do a job by evaluating their physical and mental qualities.

B.

Ensuring decentralisation of planning and control to increase the autonomy of workers.

C.

Providing intrinsic rewards rather than extrinsic rewards to motivate workers.

D.

Shifting the responsibility for planning and organising from managers to workers.

A

A.

Selecting the best people to do a job by evaluating their physical and mental qualities.

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27
Q

A transnational organisation that provides financial services to global firms wants to balance the need to know what customers want with the need to create a system to meet those requirements efficiently and consistently. Which of the following strategies is most likely to help the organisation achieve this balance?

A.

Shifting the responsibility for organising tasks and resources from managers to employees.

B.

Cross-training employees to eliminate the division of labour and ensuring that all employees are equipped to handle all tasks.

C.

Establishing systematic work procedures with precise specifications that are followed in all branches of the organisation,

D.

Decentralising the tasks of planning and controlling to provide autonomy to all employees.

A

C . Establishing systematic work procedures with precise specifications that are followed in all branches of the organisation,

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28
Q

Which of the following companies uses the rational goal model?

A.

A company that fosters a high-involvement employee relationship, employing a large proportion of permanent employees

B.

A company in which the process engineering department develops detailed and clear specifications for processes

C.

A company that uses systems and procedures that enable the decentralised control of individual operations

D.

A company in which each employee performs a wide variety of tasks and switches between different job roles

A

B.

A company in which the process engineering department develops detailed and clear specifications for processes

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29
Q

Which of the following organisations most likely uses the internal process model?

A.

An information technology company with a flat organisational structure that encourages employee engagement in decision-making.

B.

An e-learning organisation where performance appraisals are based on objective measures of performance that limit favouritism.

C.

A global firm that has different codes of ethics for top managers, first-line and middle managers and employees.

D.

A multinational firm where regional managers have complete control of finance, recruitment and planning.

A

B.

An e-learning organisation where performance appraisals are based on objective measures of performance that limit favouritism.

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30
Q

Identify a way in which the internal process model and the rational goal model complement each other.

A.

Both consider the impact of human factors on productivity.

B.

Both emphasise teamwork and employee participation in decision-making.

C.

Both focus on the organisation rather than on the individual worker.

D.

Both focus on an organisation’s ability to innovate and adapt to change.

A

C.

Both focus on the organisation rather than on the individual worker.

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31
Q

Which of the following was a result of the Hawthorne studies?

A.

They revealed that employees work better if managers are interested in their well-being and supervise them with compassion.

B.

They revealed that organisations with a bureaucratic structure are more likely to succeed than organisations with a flat structure.

C.

They revealed that the social factors at work are insignificant compared with the technical aspects of work.

D.

They revealed that competition is the most important factor in the effective management of human resources.

A

A.

They revealed that employees work better if managers are interested in their well-being and supervise them with compassion.

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32
Q

According to Mayo (1949), which of the following was found to be true of work output based on relay-assembly test room experiments?

A.

An increase in output was related to changes in the social situation.

B.

An increase in output was related to physical changes in the environment.

C.

As light in the work setting rose, output rose significantly.

D.

The length of breaks did not have any effect on output.

A

A.

An increase in output was related to changes in the social situation.

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33
Q

Who among the following managers is most likely to be using the human relations approach to management?

A.

Fiona, who focuses on increasing productivity and thereby focuses on the technical aspects of work.

B.

Rebecca, who makes decisions on her own and expects her team members to follow them without questions.

C.

Andrew, who encourages employee participation, collaboration and teamwork among his team members.

D.

Timothy, who establishes rules and regulations to control his team members and ensure uniform procedures and operations.

A

C.

Andrew, who encourages employee participation, collaboration and teamwork among his team members.

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34
Q

Anna, a contingency theorist, is having a discussion with Dave, a senior manager in an organisation, about ways to improve the performance of his organisation. Which of the following is Anna most likely to suggest? 

A.

The performance of an organisation is best when all functions within the organisation work in a stable, predictable way; managers in Dave’s organisation can achieve this stability by using the open systems model.

B.

The performance of an organisation is best when all functions within the organisation are continuously evolving; managers in Dave’s organisation can promote innovation and evolution by using the internal process model.

C.

The performance of an organisation depends on having a structure that is appropriate to its environment; managers in Dave’s organisation should be aware of all four models in the competing values framework to enhance performance.

D.

The performance of an organisation is dependent on the entire organisation consistently following one of the four models in the competing values framework; managers in Dave’s organisation should restrict themselves to using one model in all contexts.

A

C.

The performance of an organisation depends on having a structure that is appropriate to its environment; managers in Dave’s organisation should be aware of all four models in the competing values framework to enhance performance.

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35
Q

Samantha is a manager who is using the open systems model. Which of the following is she most likely to focus on?

A.

Clarifying goals, providing direction and maximising productivity.

B.

Establishing rules, maintaining authority and resolving conflicts.

C.

Innovation, creative problem-solving and acquiring and retaining support from customers.

D.

Establishing systematic work processes, encouraging collaboration and promoting cohesion.

A

C. Innovation, creative problem-solving and acquiring and retaining support from customers.

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36
Q

Which of the following should managers in an open system environment do?

A.

They should emphasise stability and continuity by repeatedly stressing the importance of adhering to rules and regulations.

B.

They should build a power base that enables them to influence others to support the changes brought about by them.

C.

They should be aware that all the subsystems within an organisation are independent of each other and a change in one will not impact the others.

D.

They should focus extensively on the macro-environment rather than the micro-environment of their organisation to have a competitive advantage over rival firms.

A

B.

They should build a power base that enables them to influence others to support the changes brought about by them.

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37
Q

GraphiX, an advertising firm, has a flat organisational structure with decentralised authority and a culture that encourages creativity. Which of the following environmental forces does this scenario represent?

A.

GraphiX’s micro-environment.

B.

GraphiX’s macro-environment.

C.

GraphiX’s external environment.

D.

GraphiX’s internal environment.

A

D. GraphiX’s internal environment.

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38
Q

The Haven is a company that provides landscaping services to businesses and homes. Which of the following is likely to be part of the company’s micro-environment?

A.

A training programme by the employee development team of The Haven to train all employees of the company in how to use a new design tool.

B.

A new company that provides customised garden architecture and installation services to commercial spaces.

C.

A real estate company that holds shares of The Haven and provides capital for the company’s strategic plans.

D.

A new piece of legislation that requires all private companies with foreign investors to pay an additional tax on their revenue.

A

B.

A new company that provides customised garden architecture and installation services to commercial spaces.

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39
Q

Which of the following is likely to be part of a company’s general environment?

A.

The business processes of the company.

B.

Laws governing wages and overtime pay.

C.

Rival firms providing similar products to those provided by the company.

D.

The structure and culture of the company.

A

B. Laws governing wages and overtime pay.

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40
Q

Which of the following is a reason interest in organisational culture has grown?

A.

Because culture is part of an organisation’s competitive environment

B.

Because academics believe that culture influences behaviour

C.

Because culture is independent of beliefs and values

D.

Because cultures develop before common values can be formed

A

B. Because academics believe that culture influences behaviour

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41
Q

On her first day at Anagram Inc., Fiona observes that the office is designed in such a manner that employees sit in cubicles and managers occupy closed cabins. She further notices that all employees are dressed formally and address their managers as ‘sir’ or ‘ma’am’. Which of the following is a level of culture that Fiona observes in this scenario?

A.

Artefacts.

B.

Intellectual assets.

C.

Values.

D.

Core business principles.

A

A. Artefacts

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42
Q

Aman has joined the creative team of a marketing company as a graphic designer. After working with the team for a few weeks, he realises that a discussion with copywriters is essential to developing creative advertisements that meet client requirements. He aims to follow this practice for future projects. Which of the following levels of culture does this scenario best illustrate?

A.

Technology and courses.

B.

Artefacts.

C.

Beliefs and values.

D.

Intellectual assets

A

C.

Beliefs and values.

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43
Q

XPro, a multinational information technology organisation, is led and driven by the ideals of its CEO, who is the dominant central figure holding authority. All organisational decisions are taken by the CEO rather than being based on the consensus of employees. By contrast, Mirage, a painters’ organisation, is centred on the needs of its members rather than specific organisational objectives. It focuses on serving its employees better. In the context of Handy’s cultural types, which of the following is most likely true of XPro and Mirage?

A.

XPro has a person culture, whereas Mirage has a task culture.

B.

XPro has a role culture, whereas Mirage has a task culture.

C.

XPro has a power culture, whereas Mirage has a person culture.

D.

XPro has a role culture, whereas Mirage has a power culture.

A

C.

XPro has a power culture, whereas Mirage has a person culture.

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44
Q

While taking the annual employee engagement survey, Amanda, a sales executive in a retail company, checks the ‘Disagree’ box corresponding to the following statements: ‘I have clarity on the values and beliefs of the organisation’ and ‘I have clarity on the objectives of the organisation’. Her responses are based on the belief that the values and the objectives of the company constantly keep changing, which makes it difficult for her to understand the behaviour expected of her. In the context of Martin’s perspectives on culture, which of the following is most likely to represent Amanda’s perspective on her organisation’s culture?

A.

Integration.

B.

Differentiation.

C.

Fragmentation.

D.

Unification.

A

C.

Fragmentation.

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45
Q

Which of the following is a way in which the culture of an organisation affects its performance?

A.

By creating the macro-environment that contributes to and affects the success of the organisation.

B.

By creating the external context within which the managers and employees in the organisation need to work.

C.

By identifying artefacts such as beliefs and values that are not visible but help to create a positive first impression on the new employees in the organisation.

D.

By communicating the values of the founders of the organisation to its employees and maintaining them through shared experiences.

A

D.

By communicating the values of the founders of the organisation to its employees and maintaining them through shared experiences.

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46
Q

Which of the following is likely to be considered international management?

A.

Being a member of a team of seven individuals from different states of a country.

B.

Managing a team of contingent workers for a national company.

C.

Working as an expatriate manager in a foreign subsidiary of a company.

D.

Managing a local company that adopts international trends in product development.

A

C.

Working as an expatriate manager in a foreign subsidiary of a company.

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47
Q

SNP Motors, an automobile manufacturing company based in Germany, has decided to set up a manufacturing plant in China as part of its expansion strategy. The company plans to build the facility by the end of 2020 and start operations soon after. The company will retain all profits of the new facility and have complete control over the technology and expertise used in the facility. Which of the following forms of conducting international business does this scenario exemplify?

A.

Business process outsourcing.

B.

Franchising.

C.

Licensing.

D.

Foreign direct investment.

A

D.

Foreign direct investment.

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48
Q

Identify one difference between franchising and licensing.

A.

In a franchise agreement, the franchisor retains control over the profits and management of the franchisee, whereas in a licence agreement, the licensor retains control over the expertise and technology used by the licensee.

B.

Licensing requires the licensee to make a royalty payment to the licensor, whereas franchising does not require the franchisee to pay any fee to the franchisor.

C.

In a franchise agreement, the franchisor imposes strict conditions on quality, customer service and work procedures, whereas in a license agreement, the licensor does not.

D.

Licensing is an expansion strategy used by service businesses, whereas franchising is an expansion strategy used by businesses that produce and sell goods.

A

C.

In a franchise agreement, the franchisor imposes strict conditions on quality, customer service and work procedures, whereas in a license agreement, the licensor does not.

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49
Q

Which of the following theories states that a country can increase its economic wealth by specialising in the production of goods that it can produce more efficiently than other countries and then trading those goods?

A.

The general systems theory.

B.

The theory of absolute advantage.

C.

Agency theory.

D.

Porter’s five forces theory.

A

B.

The theory of absolute advantage.

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50
Q

Identify one reason why a country’s political factors would matter to a potential investor.

A.

Political factors such as distribution of wealth and currency stability are determined by the ruling government.

B.

Political factors shape an investor’s risk of losing assets, earning power or managerial control due to the actions of host governments or political events.

C.

Political factors such as exchange rates and telecommunications are determined by the ruling government.

D.

Political factors affect political stability and internationalisation of markets as suggested by the theory of absolute advantage.

A

B.

Political factors shape an investor’s risk of losing assets, earning power or managerial control due to the actions of host governments or political events.

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51
Q

ASN Technologies, a software company based in the country Liasia, is planning to expand by purchasing Terrabits Inc., a software company in the country Saintande. After extensive research, ASN Technologies’ management discovers that government attitudes towards foreign direct investment are unfavourable in Saintande, as is the attitude of the country’s population towards foreign companies and staff. The management also discovers that power supply in the areas surrounding Terrabits is unstable and company taxation rates are very high. As a result, the management decides to shelve the idea of purchasing Terrabits. Which of the following is a technological factor that affected the company’s decision?

A.

The corporate tax rate for private companies

B.

The instability of power supply in the areas surrounding Terrabits.

C.

Attitudes towards foreign companies and staff

D.

Attitudes towards foreign direct investment

A

B.

The instability of power supply in the areas surrounding Terrabits.

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52
Q

Which of the following terms did Hofstede and Hofstede describe as the collective programming of the mind that differentiates one category or group of individuals from others?

A.

Culture.

B.

Sustainability.

C.

Corporate governance.

D.

Globalisation.

A

A. Culture

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53
Q

Anagram Inc., a software development firm, has a hierarchical structure and authoritarian culture. Employees are expected to obey their supervisors and managers and address them as ‘sir’ or ‘ma’am’. The employees of the company accept this inequality and consider it part of the natural order. In this context, which of the following statements is most likely to be true?

A.

Anagram Inc. is based in a country that scores high on individualism.

B.

Anagram Inc. is based in a country that has a low-context culture.

C.

Anagram Inc. is based in a country that scores high on power distance.

A

C.

Anagram Inc. is based in a country that scores high on power distance.

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54
Q

Sara lives in a country in which social gender roles overlap and both men and women are supposed to be tender, modest and concerned about the quality of life. By contrast, Megan lives in a country in which men and women have distinct gender roles. Men are supposed to be breadwinners, and women are supposed to be homemakers. In this context, which of the following statements is most likely to be true?

A.

Sara lives in a country that scores high on power distance, whereas Megan lives in a country that scores low on power distance.

B.

Sara lives in a country with a high-context culture, whereas Megan lives in a country with a low-context culture.

C.

Sara lives in a feminine country, whereas Megan lives in a masculine country.

D.

Sara lives in a country with high long-term orientation, whereas Megan lives in a country with high short-term orientation.

A

C.

Sara lives in a feminine country, whereas Megan lives in a masculine country.

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55
Q

According to Hofstede’s comparison of national cultures, who among the following individuals most likely lives in a country that scores high on long-term orientation?

A.

Kyle, who lives in Canada and seeks the immediate gratification of his needs.

B.

Alena, who lives in Hong Kong and abides by the values of perseverance and thrift.

C.

Derek, who lives in Australia and focuses on fulfilling his social obligations.

D.

Rebecca, who lives in New Zealand and is particular about her image in her social circle.

A

B.

Alena, who lives in Hong Kong and abides by the values of perseverance and thrift.

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56
Q

Which of the following best exemplifies corporate malpractice?

A.

A company laying off an employee for bad conduct and performance

B.

A company hiring only experienced candidates and refusing to hire new graduates

C.

A company outsourcing the production of its goods to a company that employs children

D.

A company acquiring another company that recently filed for bankruptcy

A

C.

A company outsourcing the production of its goods to a company that employs children

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57
Q

Which of the following is a difference between philanthropy and enlightened self-interest? 

A.

Unlike philanthropy, enlightened self-interest involves a desire to give back to society as a form of gratitude.

B.

Philanthropy involves an experience of the intrinsic pleasure of giving, whereas enlightened self-interest involves giving as a form of insurance.

C.

Unlike philanthropy, enlightened self-interest enhances a company’s status and reputation.

D.

Philanthropy involves investing in something with a long-term return, whereas enlightened self-interest provides immediate gratification.

A

B.

Philanthropy involves an experience of the intrinsic pleasure of giving, whereas enlightened self-interest involves giving as a form of insurance.

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58
Q

Which of the following is an example of corporate responsibility in terms of product and service impacts?

A.

Supporting pension schemes

B.

Dealing fairly with producers and suppliers

C.

Promoting diversity

D.

Using clear and accurate labels

A

D.

Using clear and accurate labels

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59
Q

Which of the following statements is true of the ethical decision-making model?

A.

It predicts that personal characteristics of individuals such as work group norms play a bigger role in ethical decision-making than do contextual factors such as ego strength.

B.

It states that an employee’s response to an ethical dilemma is based solely on contextual factors.

C.

It predicts that an employee’s response to an ethical dilemma depends on individual characteristics and organisational policies.

D.

It states that people with an external locus of control are more likely to make ethical decisions than people with an internal locus of control.

A

C.

It predicts that an employee’s response to an ethical dilemma depends on individual characteristics and organisational policies.

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60
Q

Rubin, a junior employee in an investment company, recently became aware that a senior executive has embezzled millions from the company. He is now torn between reporting this information to an HR manager and keeping it to himself. In the context of the ethical decision-making model, which of the following is an individual factor that is likely to affect Rubin’s decision?

A.

The extent to which Rubin can follow his convictions and resist impulses.

B.

The beliefs of Rubin’s team members about ethical and unethical behaviours.

C.

The penalties established by the management for misconduct.

D.

The policy of the management on whistleblowing.

A

A.

The extent to which Rubin can follow his convictions and resist impulses.

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61
Q

Ryan, a national of the country Vietrele, is currently a manager in a company based in the country Jakavia. He needs to get some documents authorised by a government official in Jakavia and is surprised when the official asks for a bribe. Despite knowing that bribery is wrong, Ryan is aware that the culture and local norms of Jakavia need to be considered when making the decision of whether or not to pay the bribe. Which of the following concepts does this scenario best exemplify?

A.

Social entrepreneurship.

B.

Corporate responsibility.

C.

Ethical relativism.

D.

Enlightened self-interest.

A

C.

Ethical relativism.

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62
Q

Rangan (2015) believes that there are three ways in which corporate responsibility can support business strategy. Which of the following is one these ways?

A.

Engaging in enlightened self-interest, which involves social welfare activities that are not intended to produce a profit or to benefit a business directly or indirectly.

B.

Emphasising that managers view their role in economic and financial terms.

C.

Promoting ethnocentrism, which is a culture in which people value and respect the traditions and beliefs of those who belong to other cultures.

D.

Redesigning business processes to make efficient use of resources and produce less waste.

A

D.

Redesigning business processes to make efficient use of resources and produce less waste.

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63
Q

Porter and Kramer (2011) believe people tend to perceive that business is the cause of most social and environmental problems, which threatens the legitimacy of businesses in people’s eyes. According to them, which of the following is part of the problem?

A.

Managers tend to use broad measures of long-term success.

B.

Businesses allow local clusters to form.

C.

Many managers think of their roles in economic terms.

D.

Businesses constantly rethink their markets and products.

A

C.

Many managers think of their roles in economic terms.

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64
Q

Porter and Kramer (2011) believe that business is widely perceived as the cause of most social and environmental problems and that this begins to threaten the legitimacy of businesses in the eyes of many citizens. Which of the following ways do Porter and Kramer advocate for companies to perform well?

A.

Accentuating the need for managers to view their role in strictly financial and economic terms.

B.

Focusing on the internal and competitive environments rather than on the general environment. 

C.

Focusing on the micro-environment rather than on the macro-environment.

D.

Focusing on creating economic value in a way that also creates value for the society by attending to its needs.

A

D.

Focusing on creating economic value in a way that also creates value for the society by attending to its needs.

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65
Q

Robert Eccles and his colleagues compared high-sustainability companies with low-sustainability companies. Which of the following is true of their findings?

A.

High-sustainability companies were less likely to outperform low-sustainability companies in the stock market as well as in accounting performance.

B.

High-sustainability companies were more likely than low-sustainability companies to assign responsibility for sustainability to all board committees rather than to a specific committee.

C.

High-sustainability companies were less likely than low-sustainability companies to assess and divulge information related to customers, employees and suppliers.

D.

High-sustainability companies were more likely than low-sustainability companies to set up a stakeholder management process that is comprehensive and engaging.

A

D.

High-sustainability companies were more likely than low-sustainability companies to set up a stakeholder management process that is comprehensive and engaging.

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66
Q

Stoian and Gilman (2017) defined five corporate responsibility (CR) practices and asked how, when combined with a firm’s strategy, they affected firm growth. Which of the following did they find after a quantitative study of 211 UK-based SMEs?

A.

CR activities that focused on environmental issues such as recycling supported firm growth.

B.

CR activities that focused on employees enhanced the growth of firms, except in firms with a differentiation strategy.

C.

CR activities that focused on human rights issues such as non-discrimination supported firm growth.

D.

CR activities that focused on the community increased the growth of firms, especially in firms with a cost leadership strategy.

A

D.

CR activities that focused on the community increased the growth of firms, especially in firms with a cost leadership strategy.

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67
Q

Jones et al. (2014) show that organisations that are active in their community and have pro-environment policies are substantially more enticing to a potential employee than are organisations without them. Three mechanisms supported this link. Identify one of these mechanisms. 

A.

The potential employee’s anticipation of a masculine culture in the organisation.

B.

The potential employee’s perception of a close fit between his or her values and the organisation’s values.

C.

The potential employee’s expectation that the organisation has an ethnocentric culture.

D.

The potential employee’s expectation that the organisation has high power distance.

A

B.

The potential employee’s perception of a close fit between his or her values and the organisation’s values.

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68
Q

In the context of the generic elements involved in making a decision, which of the following is the final step?

A.

Defining success criteria based on the desired end-goal

B.

Organising and formulating the agenda

C.

Observing to see if everything is moving as planned

D.

Taking the lead and putting the plan to action

A

C.

Observing to see if everything is moving as planned

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69
Q

Which of the following is at the centre of an organisation’s decision-making process and continuously informs choices at each step in the process?

A.

Setting objectives and success criteria related to the resolution of an issue

B.

Collecting data on tasks, processes and contexts related to an issue

C.

Acting or leading to implement a decision to resolve an issue

D.

Observing the effects of a decision that has been implemented to resolve an issue

A

B.

Collecting data on tasks, processes and contexts related to an issue

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70
Q

Saran, a manager, adopts the ‘idea discovery process’ to set realistic and acceptable objectives and success criteria to resolve an organisational issue. Which of the following statements is most likely true in this context?

A.

Saran is likely to disregard the presence of forces that may hinder him from implementing a decision to resolve the issue.

B.

Saran is likely to devote time to understand the claims related to the issue by interacting with stakeholders to evaluate the strength of their views.

C.

Saran is likely to restrict his search for information within the initial claim that ‘an issue has arisen that requires a decision’.

D.

Saran is likely to set unsuccessful objectives because according to Paul Nutt, the ‘idea discovery process’ usually leads to failure.

A

B.

Saran is likely to devote time to understand the claims related to the issue by interacting with stakeholders to evaluate the strength of their views.

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71
Q

Identify a true statement about programmed, or structured, decisions.

A.

They address familiar problems, and information about such problems is easy to define and obtain.

B.

They address novel or unusual issues that require unique solutions.

C.

They arise rarely, and people are unaware of the methods to deal with such decisions.

D.

They are typically based on unclear or vague information.

A

A.

They address familiar problems, and information about such problems is easy to define and obtain.

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72
Q

Which of the following statements accurately differentiates between a procedure and a policy?

A.

A procedure specifies what a person can or cannot do in a given scenario, while a policy is a series of interconnected steps to address a structured problem.

B.

A procedure is a sequence of interconnected steps to address a structured problem, while a policy is a guideline that establishes some general principles for decision-making.

C.

A procedure is a guideline that establishes some general principles for decision-making, while a policy sets out what a person can or cannot do in a given scenario.

D.

A procedure is a measure against which the results of a decision can be evaluated, while a policy is a series of interconnected steps to address a structured problem.

A

B.

A procedure is a sequence of interconnected steps to address a structured problem, while a policy is a guideline that establishes some general principles for decision-making.

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73
Q

Which of the following is an example of a non-programmed decision?

A.

Making a decision on how to approach a novel (unusual) crisis situation 

B.

Making a decision while formulating the annual budget

C.

Making a decision on employees’ performance ratings

D.

Making a decision on managing and stocking inventory

A

A.

Making a decision on how to approach a novel (unusual) crisis situation 

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74
Q

Identify a true statement about certainty in the context of a decision.

A.

Certainty describes a situation in which decision makers can vaguely estimate the likelihood of the alternative outcomes using statistical methods.

B.

Certainty describes a situation in which decision makers are unclear about their goals, which makes the alternative ways of achieving the goals equally fluid.

C.

Certainty is when decision makers have little information about which course of action is most likely to succeed in helping them achieve their goals.

D.

Certainty is when all the information that decision makers need is available to them.

A

D.

Certainty is when all the information that decision makers need is available to them.

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75
Q

Which of the following scenarios most likely exemplifies the concept of ambiguity in the context of decision-making?

A.

A sales manager divides his team into four groups and asks each group to complete a project. However, he does not specify the goals of the project and gives vague instructions to his team members.

B.

A company launching a new product knows that it wants to improve its sales by 20% in the next two years. However, the company is not sure of achieving its objective because it cannot predict the likelihood of events that may impact the product’s success.

C.

An entrepreneur starting a catering business knows what she wants to achieve but is unsure if her new venture will succeed because she cannot predict future events that may impact her business.

D.

A company assesses the background of a job applicant with the help of the details provided by the applicant in the job application form. As a result, the company is able to estimate the degree of the applicant’s person–environment fit in the company.

A

A.

A sales manager divides his team into four groups and asks each group to complete a project. However, he does not specify the goals of the project and gives vague instructions to his team members.

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76
Q

Fiona, an entrepreneur, starts a software development company and wants to attain at least 5% of market share within the next two years. She has a few plans about how to achieve her goal but does not have enough information about them to decide the best plan. Moreover, she cannot predict other factors such as competitors’ actions that may affect the growth of her company in the market. In the context of decision-making, which of the following concepts does this scenario most likely exemplify?

A.

Ambiguity

B.

Uncertainty

C.

Satisficing

D.

Dependency

A

B.

Uncertainty

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77
Q

Which of the following statements is true of the rational model of decision-making?

A.

It describes the ways in which people make decisions in uncertain and ambiguous situations.

B.

It analyses the ways in which people make decisions when they disagree over goals and how to pursue them.

C.

It is based on the assumption that people make consistent choices in order to maximise economic value within specified constraints.

D.

It reflects the perspective that a company consists of groups with different interests, goals and values.

A

C.

It is based on the assumption that people make consistent choices in order to maximise economic value within specified constraints.

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78
Q

Which of the following models of decision-making is based on the concepts of bounded rationality and satisficing?

A.

The negotiated model

B.

The adaptive model

C.

The judgmental model

D.

The rational model

A

C.

The judgmental model

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79
Q

Identify a true statement about the negotiated model of decision-making.

A.

It states that an organisation acts as a political system that establishes the relative power of individuals and functions.

B.

It states that decisions are made when four independent streams of activities meet, usually by chance.

C.

It focuses on explaining the ways in which people make decisions in situations where the goal is clear.

D.

It is based on the assumption that decision makers make consistent choices to maximise economic value within specified constraints.

A

A.

It states that an organisation acts as a political system that establishes the relative power of individuals and functions.

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80
Q

Which of the following terms refers to mental shortcuts or simple rules that simplify the process of decision-making?

A.

Heuristics

B.

Operational plans

C.

Activity plans

D.

Competences

A

A.

Heuristics

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81
Q

Syed, a human resources manager in an investment company, has to decide whether or not to revise the company’s employee recruitment process. The existing recruitment process has been in use for the last eight years, and Syed believes that the process is effective. However, research shows that the existing process has been mostly ineffective and has resulted in high turnover. However, Syed ignores this evidence and decides not to revise the process based on his belief. Which of the following concepts related to decision-making does this scenario most likely exemplify?

A.

Prior hypothesis bias

B.

Emotional attachment

C.

The illusion of control

D.

Representativeness bias

A

A.

Prior hypothesis bias

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82
Q

A company had launched a product line a year ago, and the product line was very successful. The managers of the company plan to launch a similar product line in the next few weeks. Their decision is based on the assumption that the new product line will lead to high profits because it is similar to previous year’s successful product line. They ignore information related to current market conditions, customer needs and the products of rival companies. Which of the following concepts related to decision-making does this scenario most likely exemplify?

A.

Representativeness bias

B.

Emotional attachment

C.

Prior hypothesis bias

D.

The illusion of control

A

A.

Representativeness bias

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83
Q

Chae-won, a project manager in a company, is allocating people and resources to various tasks within a new project. She is also in the process of setting deadlines for these tasks. In the context of the five generic elements in planning, which of the following elements does this scenario exemplify?

A.

Acting

B.

Organising

C.

Monitoring

D.

Controlling

A

B.

Organising

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84
Q

Identify the element in planning that connects all the other elements throughout the repetitive cycle of planning.

A.

Gathering and disseminating information

B.

Controlling and monitoring progress

C.

Setting objectives and the scope of work

D.

Organising people and resources

A

A.

Gathering and disseminating information

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85
Q

Identify a true statement about planning:

A.

Informal, unwritten plans are likely to work only in situations that involve a large number of people.

B.

Setting objectives is the central element of planning that links all the other elements together. 

C.

Developing a plan involves following a linear process that begins with organising.

D.

The processes involved in developing and implementing a plan shape its quality.

A

D.

The processes involved in developing and implementing a plan shape its quality.

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86
Q

A large apparel manufacturing company recently published its plan to switch to eco-friendly resources for producing its goods and double its sales by 2025. The company aims to achieve these goals by adopting sustainable ways of production, restructuring its supply chain, using global suppliers, investing in marketing and purchasing and/or investing in companies that provide eco-friendly resources and clean energy. Which of the following types of plans does this scenario exemplify?

A.

A business plan

B.

An activity plan

C.

A strategic plan

D.

An operational plan

A

C.

A strategic plan

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87
Q

Grasshoppers, a publishing company, is structured in such a manner that it has five functional departments—marketing, editorial, sales, finance and human resources. When Amir, the head of the marketing department, requires financial resources from the management for a new marketing campaign, he prepares a comprehensive plan stating the objectives of the campaign, the ways in which the department will achieve those objectives and the criteria against which the results of the campaign will be evaluated. The aim of his plan is to convince senior management to provide him with the necessary capital. Which of the following plans does Amir create in this scenario?

A.

An activity plan

B.

A business plan

C.

A strategic plan

D.

An operational plan

A

D.

An operational plan

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88
Q

Kevin’s team recently received a math project, and his manager assigned specific tasks to each team member. When Kevin was assigned the task of creating algorithms for the math problems created by his colleague, Kevin created a plan specifying what he needed to do and how he will go about completing his part of the project to ensure timely completion of the entire project. Which of the following plans did Kevin create in this scenario? 

A.

An activity plan

B.

An operational plan

C.

A business plan

D.

A strategic plan

A

A.

An activity plan

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89
Q

Which of the following is a method of summarising a company’s strengths and limitations relative to external opportunities and threats?

A.

A sensitivity analysis

B.

A SWOT analysis

C.

Porter’s Five Forces analysis

D.

PESTEL analysis

A

B.

A SWOT analysis

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90
Q

In the context of planning, which of the following statements is true of people who are affected by optimism bias and strategic misrepresentation?

A.

When formulating a plan, they tend to focus solely on the constituents of their plan.

B.

When formulating a plan, they tend to underestimate the benefits involved.

C.

When formulating a plan, they tend to take an outside view rather than an inside view.

D.

When formulating a plan, they tend to overestimate the costs involved.

A

A.

When formulating a plan, they tend to focus solely on the constituents of their plan.

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91
Q

Ruben, the head of the product development department of a mobile phone manufacturing firm, has developed a plan for the creation of a low-cost smartphone with high-end specifications. According to his plan, the new smartphone will gain around 15% of market share within nine months of its launch and increase the firm’s revenue by 25%. Lin, the operations manager of the firm, tests this assumption by calculating the effect on returns if the new product manages to gain only 5% or 10% of market share or surpasses expectations and gains 20% of market share. Which of the following statements is most likely true in this context? 

A.

Lin conducts a SWOT analysis.

B.

Lin conducts a sensitivity analysis.

C.

Lin shows prior hypothesis bias.

D.

Lin shows optimism bias.

A

B.

Lin conducts a sensitivity analysis.

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92
Q

Which of the following statements is true of the importance of goals in successful planning and decision-making?

A.

Setting goals allows planners to establish a single important measure to indicate the success or failure of their plans

B.

Setting goals is the only generic element in planning that links all the other elements in and informs choices throughout the planning process. 

C.

Goals allow planners to estimate the financial outcomes of their plans, which is of utmost importance because quantitative goals are essentially more useful than qualitative ones.

D.

Goals provide the point of reference for other decisions related to a plan, and they establish the standards against which to measure outcomes.

A

D.

Goals provide the point of reference for other decisions related to a plan, and they establish the standards against which to measure outcomes.

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93
Q

A software management company plans to expand and increase its market share by setting up a new office. This organisational objective is transformed into specific objectives for various functional departments, such as human resources, finance and operations. Managers of these departments develop various plans specifying the tasks their departments need to accomplish to achieve the overall organisational objective. The members of these departments then develop activity plans defining their tasks and objectives, which will enable the company to meet the objective of expansion and increased market share. Which of the following concepts does this scenario most likely exemplify?

A.

Performing a SWOT analysis

B.

Performing a sensitivity analysis

C.

Developing a hierarchy of goals

D.

Developing a decision tree

A

C.

Developing a hierarchy of goals

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94
Q

If Alice, the sales manager of a magazine publishing company, is using the SMART criteria for setting goals for a plan to increase the sales of the magazine, which of the following goals is she most likely to set?

A.

Increase subscriptions of the magazine by 25%.

B.

Increase sales by the next quarter.

C.

Increase subscriptions of the magazine by 8% a year over the next two years. 

D.

Increase sales by creating a positive working environment.

A

C.

Increase subscriptions of the magazine by 8% a year over the next two years. 

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95
Q

Which of the following scenarios describes a project manager engaged in the organising aspect of planning?

A.

Kevin, a project manager, is in discussion with a new client about a prospective project that will fetch Kevin’s company an estimated revenue of £150 million.

B.

Hiba, a project manager, has specified the tasks involved in a new project, assigned these tasks to specific team members and set deadlines for them.

C.

Lionel, a project manager, monitors the progress of a large project on a daily basis to ensure its timely completion.

D.

Shayla, a project manager, has received a new project and is understanding its scope of work before setting the objectives of the project.

A

B.

Hiba, a project manager, has specified the tasks involved in a new project, assigned these tasks to specific team members and set deadlines for them.

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96
Q

When an automobile manufacturing company decided to replace its existing assembly unit with a new unit that was time-efficient and used the latest technology, the planners focused too much on the finance and technology aspect of the company’s internal environment and failed to focus on how the change will affect the company’s structure, people and business processes. As a result, the implementation of the plan was marred by uncertainty and ambiguity regarding the people responsible for the different tasks. In the context of this scenario, identify the aspect of planning that the company most likely failed to perform satisfactorily.

A.

Controlling and monitoring progress to eliminate optimism bias

B.

Systematically specifying the tasks that needed to be accomplished

C.

Performing sensitivity and SWOT analyses

D.

Setting objectives

A

B.

Systematically specifying the tasks that needed to be accomplished

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97
Q

Managers in large companies take considerable time to communicate the objectives of and the tasks involved in a plan to everyone who will be affected by the plan. Which of the following is a reason why managers invest so much time?

A.

To ensure coordination of activities throughout the company both in practice and on paper

B.

To ensure that people have time to transform qualitative organisational goals into quantitative goals as quantitative goals are inherently more useful than qualitative ones

C.

To ensure that people who do not agree with or accept parts of the plan are excluded from the implementation process to avoid conflicts

D.

To ensure that all affected employees have time to conduct a sensitivity analysis to understand external threats and opportunities

A

A.

To ensure coordination of activities throughout the company both in practice and on paper

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98
Q

Miller et al. (2004) studied the long-term outcomes of several strategic plans after they were implemented. Which of the following was one of the factors that was found to influence the success of a plan?

A.

Presence of an ethnocentric work environment

B.

Managers’ experience of the issue

C.

Manager’s use of satisficing in all contexts

D.

Optimism bias among managers

A

B.

Managers’ experience of the issue

99
Q

Identify the term that refers to the degree to which managers are able to specify goals, tasks and resource requirements of a plan appropriately, leading to its acceptance by those affected by the plan.

A.

Social entrepreneurship

B.

Organisational readiness

C.

Corporate governance

D.

Corporate responsibility

A

Organisational readiness

100
Q

A regional advertising company wanted to expand into a new area. Because this was a novel situation for the company and the manager of the company had no direct experience related to expansion strategies and planning, he was unable to create a specific plan to achieve the goal. However, people in the company were very receptive to the new challenge and implemented the necessary tasks with little formal planning. Which of the following statements does this scenario most likely exemplify?

A.

The activities of planning are a necessary part of the approach to success, but they are not sufficient in themselves.

B.

Activity plans are significantly more important than strategic plans.

C.

Companies can fulfil their plans even if they eliminate the stages of setting objectives and allocating people and resources to tasks.

D.

Quantitative goals are fundamentally more useful than qualitative goals.

A

A.

The activities of planning are a necessary part of the approach to success, but they are not sufficient in themselves.

101
Q

Which of the following terms refers to the increasing integration of internationally dispersed economic activities that results in homogenised markets across the world?
A.
Sustainability.
B.
Bureaucracy.
C.
Globalisation.
D.
Social entrepreneurship.

A

C.
Globalisation.

102
Q

Which of the following is a distinctive strategic issue that is likely to affect large multi-national corporations (MNCs)?

A.

The need to balance ideology with interests of funding sources

B.

The allocation of resources between units

C.

The need for rapid innovation

D.

The lack of capital 

A

B.

The allocation of resources between units

103
Q

Weston Oneness is a non-profit organisation for children. A strategic issue that managers at Weston Oneness face while developing strategies is maintaining a balance between the objectives of the organisation and the interests of its funding sources. On the other hand, Learners Limited is a multinational organisation that owns a chain of schools. While developing strategies, the managers of Learners Limited are required to consider ways to structure and control activities across various branches of the school and allocate resources where necessary. Both Weston Oneness and Learners Limited want to attract and retain capable workers but face different issues because of their different internal and competitive environments. Which of the following statements does this scenario best exemplify?

A.

An organisation’s context influences the issues that strategy developers face.

B.

An organisation’s strategy is developed and managed in a sequential rather than an iterative manner.

C.

Strategy is similar to processes in that it is something that people do.

D.

Strategy is similar to tasks in that it is something that organisations have.

A

A.

An organisation’s context influences the issues that strategy developers face.

104
Q

A manufacturing firm had been using a cost leadership strategy for the past 10 years. This meant that the firm mass produced its standard products at a minimal cost per unit. However, an idea for a new product led the senior management to question the existing strategy, redefine it and support it with suitable resources. This eventually led the firm to adopt a cost-focused strategy. Which of the following statements does this scenario best exemplify?

A.

Strategy is similar to processes in that it is something that people do.

B.

Strategy is similar to tasks in that it is something that organisations have.

C.

Strategies are managed using a scientific and rational rather than an incremental process.

D.

Strategies are managed in a sequential rather than an iterative manner.

A

B.

Strategy is similar to tasks in that it is something that organisations have.

105
Q

Maura, a manager, follows a systematic, formal approach to develop organisational strategies. She identifies the organisation’s goals, performs a SWOT analysis to understand the organisation’s strengths, weaknesses, opportunities and threats, formulates a strategy, implements it and evaluates the results. Maura assumes that people respond logically to events and facts. Which of the following views of strategy does Maura adopt in this scenario?

A.

The intuitive view of strategy

B.

The judgmental view of strategy

C.

The rational view of strategy

D.

The adaptive view of strategy

A

C.

The rational view of strategy

106
Q

Diane is the head of the research and development team of a multinational company. She often faces unstructured strategic choices related to new technologies. This makes it difficult for her to develop clear goals and, as a result, evaluate her options. Therefore, even though she pays attention to the limited computational data that is available, she makes decisions based on intuition. Which of the following views of strategy does Diane most likely use in this scenario?

A.

The objective view of strategy

B.

The rational view of strategy

C.

The judgmental view of strategy

D.

The planning view of strategy

A

C.

The judgmental view of strategy

107
Q

Identify a statement that is most likely to be true about the adaptive view of strategy.

A.

It reflects the idea that planning cannot give managers complete foresight.

B.

It is best used when managers face strategic choices that are structured.

C.

It requires managers to rely on analysis and not on judgment and intuition while formulating a strategy.

D.

It assumes that people respond logically to information.

A

A.

It reflects the idea that planning cannot give managers complete foresight.

108
Q

In the context of the study of Healey et al. (2015), which of the following is the single most significant influence on outcomes of strategy workshops?

A.

The broadness and flexibility of the workshop goals

B.

The extent to which the workshop goals are clarified and communicated

C.

The ability of the managers in the workshops to focus on their daily management activities

D.

The method of analysis used to formulate the workshop goals

A

B.

The extent to which the workshop goals are clarified and communicated

109
Q

Identify the most important feature of the strategy loop.

A.

The implication that the five steps of the strategy loop occur in a sequential rather than in an iterative manner

B.

The fact that the strategy loop reflects the rational view of strategy rather than the adaptive view

C.

The connotation that managers integrate and use new information as it becomes available

D.

The fact that the strategy loop reflects the planning view of strategy rather than the adaptive view

A

C.

The connotation that managers integrate and use new information as it becomes available

110
Q

Hart, a senior manager in a thermal power producing company, wants to gather information related to new developments in a rival company. He calls his contact in that company and tactfully obtains the required information. Which of the following scanning modes does Hart use in this scenario?

A.

Impersonal and external

B.

Personal and internal

C.

Impersonal and internal

D.

Personal and external

A

D.

Personal and external

111
Q

Finch & Co. is a tobacco company that holds monopoly in the cigarette market. However, the management of Finch & Co. is worried that a recent launch of e-cigarettes will take away part of its market share because e-cigarettes can be an alternative to cigarettes and deter customers from purchasing the latter. Which of the following Porter’s forces does this scenario best exemplify?

A.

The threat of substitutes

B.

The bargaining power of customers

C.

The threat of entry

D.

The bargaining power of suppliers

A

A.

The threat of substitutes

112
Q

The PESTEL framework enables a company to identify certain factors that may affect its strategy. Which of the following factors does this framework focus on?

A.

Factors in a company’s internal environment

B.

Factors in a company’s micro-environment

C.

Factors in a company’s competitive environment

D.

Factors in a company’s general environment

A

D.
Factors in a company’s general environment

113
Q

Which of the following terms refers to unstructured information about business activities gathered from sources such as social media that give insights into people’s perceptions about a new brand or product?

A.

Economies of scale

B.

Big data

C.

Cultural intelligence

D.

Data lineage

A

B.
Big data

114
Q

Identify a difference between relational and unique resources.

A.

Unlike relational resources, unique resources can be obtained by interacting with influential customers.

B.

Relational resources are resources that are available to a company from its interaction with its environment, whereas unique resources are those that are vital to the competitive advantage of a company.

C.

Unlike unique resources, relational resources help a company define its strategic capabilities.

D.

Relational resources are physical resources such as land, people, money and equipment, whereas unique resources are abstract resources such as company reputation and relationships with clients.

A

B.

Relational resources are resources that are available to a company from its interaction with its environment, whereas unique resources are those that are vital to the competitive advantage of a company.

115
Q

Which of the following concepts divides an organisation into the discrete activities it performs at each stage of its manufacturing or service process to identify sources of competitive advantage for the organisation and improve upon them?

A.

A value chain

B.

Corporate governance

C.

Market segmentation

D.

A marketing mix

A

A.

A value chain

116
Q

Which of the following tools most likely helps a manager identify potential opportunities for his or her organisation by understanding the organisation’s internal capabilities and limitations and changes in its external environment?

A.

SWOT analysis

B.

A marketing mix

C.

The PESTEL framework

D.

Value chain analysis

A

A.

SWOT analysis

117
Q

Which of the following companies is most likely focusing on achieving economies of scale?

A.

A company that shifts from manufacturing a large variety of products in small quantities to manufacturing some standard products in large quantities

B.

A customer-centric company that competes on excellent customer service rather than cost

C.

A client-centric company that customises its products based on the requirements of each client

D.

A company that provides new and unique products that cannot be found in the products offered by other companies in the market

A

A.

A company that shifts from manufacturing a large variety of products in small quantities to manufacturing some standard products in large quantities

118
Q

A gadget manufacturing company is constantly innovating and developing new technologies. As a result, it is able to manufacture products with matchless features, thereby enabling its customers to have a unique experience. This has earned the company an exclusive place in the market, setting it apart from its competitors. Which of the following strategies does this scenario best exemplify?

A.

A niche strategy

B.

A focus strategy

C.

A cost leadership strategy

D.

A differentiation strategy

A

D.

A differentiation strategy

119
Q

An investment firm offers insurance and banking services exclusively to older people, specifically to those aged over 60. Which of the following strategies does the firm most likely use?

A.

An offshore strategy

B.

A differentiation strategy

C.

A focus strategy

D.

A cost leadership strategy

A

C.

A focus strategy

120
Q

Identify a true statement about mergers and acquisitions.

A.

They allow a company to rapidly enter a new market or product area.

B.

They most frequently succeed, providing companies with a quick way to grow and add value.

C.

They are the least risky form of business expansion.

D.

They enable a company to give other businesses the right to use its brand name in return for a fee.

A

A.

They allow a company to rapidly enter a new market or product area.

121
Q

A domestic construction company wants to expand its business by entering into a joint venture with a foreign hardware company. Which of the following is a business advisor of the construction company most likely to suggest to the management?

A.

The company should refrain from entering into a joint venture as it will give the other company complete control over the former’s management.

B.

A joint venture is a good idea as it will give the company complete control over the profits of the other company.

C.

The company should refrain from entering into a joint venture as it is the riskiest form of business expansion.

D.

A joint venture is a good idea as it will enable the company to learn about new markets.

A

D.

A joint venture is a good idea as it will enable the company to learn about new markets.

122
Q

Which of the following is a form of joint venture?

A.

Entering into a licensing agreement with another firm

B.

Establishing a wholly owned subsidiary

C.

Merging with another firm

D.

Acquiring another firm

A

A.

Entering into a licensing agreement with another firm

123
Q

Which of the following is a common mistake in strategy formulation and implementation?

A.

Assuming that developing and framing a strategy will lead to seamless execution

B.

Adopting the rational view of strategy for strategic choices that are structured

C.

Assuming that strategy creation occurs iteratively rather than sequentially

D.

Adopting the judgmental view of strategy for strategic choices that are unstructured

A

A.

Assuming that developing and framing a strategy will lead to seamless execution

124
Q

A study by Arnaud et al. (2016) revealed how the manager of one branch of a French bank modified a strategy proposed by HQ and designed three sets of local texts to suit local needs. Which of the following texts created by the manager identified the ‘where and who’ aspect of implementing HQ’s strategy?

A.

The economic text

B.

The timing text

C.

The geosocial text

D.

The operating text

A

C.

The geosocial text

125
Q

Which of the following is a way in which a company can evaluate the results of a new strategy?

A.

By analysing its macro-environment, which includes its competitors, suppliers and customers

B.

By analysing its general environment, which includes its culture, business processes, finance and people

C.

By examining the financial aspects of its performance, such as operating costs and revenues

D.

By examining its triple bottom line performance, which comprises performance at the political, economic and cultural levels

A

C.

By examining the financial aspects of its performance, such as operating costs and revenues

126
Q

Which of the following is a consequence of the growing diversity of products?

A.

Decreased demand on centralised structures 

B.

The inability of multi-divisional structures to thrive 

C.

Strategy becoming independent of structure even as conditions change 

D.

The centre’s inability to handle some issues without local knowledge 

A

D.

The centre’s inability to handle some issues without local knowledge 

127
Q

According to Andrews and Boyne (2012), how does restructuring affect performance?

A.

Restructuring affects organisational performance but not the performance of individual employees.

B.

The effect of restructuring on performance is dependent on the market but not on organisational strategy.

C.

The effect of restructuring on performance decreases with centralisation.

D.

Restructuring causes short-term disruptions in performance.

A

D.

Restructuring causes short-term disruptions in performance.

128
Q

According to the prediction of commentators such as Ashkenas et al. (2002), which of the following is true of post-bureaucratic organisations?

A.

They would slow down the decision-making process.

B.

They would perform a wide range of activities.

C.

They would be able to work more closely with other firms.

D.

They would have taller hierarchies.

A

C.

They would be able to work more closely with other firms.

129
Q

Which of the following comprises procedures, guidelines or documents that delineate how the activities of an organisation are divided and coordinated?

A.

The formal structure 

B.

A data dictionary 

C.

A data warehouse

D.

The balanced scorecard 

A

A.

The formal structure 

130
Q

Denver is a manager at Vladwerk Ltd., a large technology service provider. He is responsible for allocating budgets and implementing the company’s policies. He also monitors the performance of his department and ensures that organisational targets are met. In the context of the levels of authority and responsibility, which of the following levels of hierarchy is Denver part of?

A.

The corporate level

B.

The operating level

C.

The divisional level

D.

The executive level

A

C.

The divisional level

131
Q

At Windowol Ltd., the top-level managers make most of the organisational decisions. Divisional managers are merely responsible for ensuring that lower-level managers carry out the decisions made at higher levels of authority. In the context of vertical hierarchy, which of the following structures does Windowol Ltd. most likely have?

A.

A matrix structure 

B.

A decentralised structure

C.

A flat structure 

D.

A centralised structure 

A

D.

A centralised structure 

132
Q

In the context of specialisation, which of the following is an advantage of a functional structure?

A.

It increases employees’ awareness about the industry and promotes external relations. 

B.

It helps employees’ professional development by helping them form clearer career paths.

C.

It supports employees’ wider interests and improves their promotion prospects.

D.

It minimises organisational conflict and helps employees form different perspectives of organisational goals.

A

B.

It helps employees’ professional development by helping them form clearer career paths.

133
Q

Axonwiz Ltd. is a manufacturer of electronic devices. The company structures its organisation around different products it offers and has departments such as gaming consoles, television sets, cameras and mobile phones. Employees belong to any one of these departments and specialise in specific roles within their respective departments. In the context of specialisation, which of the following organisational structures does Axonwiz Ltd. most likely have?

A.

A tall structure

B.

A functional structure 

C.

A centralised structure 

D.

A divisional structure

A

D.

A divisional structure

134
Q

In the context of specialisation, which of the following is true of a matrix structure?

A.

In the matrix structure, staff report to two managers and usually work in teams.

B.

In the matrix structure, staff focus on customers rather than products.

C.

The matrix structure is based on a functional rather than a divisional approach.

D.

The matrix structure is characterised by a sense of ownership among staff.

A

A.

In the matrix structure, staff report to two managers and usually work in teams.

135
Q

Westantic is a company that manufactures and sells electronic goods. The company has no physical stores but has a fully functional website and mobile application for customers to purchase its products online. The company has staff to handle most of its functions but relies on another company to deliver its products to customers. The delivery firm fulfils all of Westantic’s delivery requirements. Which of the following statements is true in this scenario?

A.

The delivery firm is a subsidiary of Westantic.

B.

Westantic has outsourced its delivery function.

C.

Westantic has centralised its delivery function.

D.

The delivery firm is a franchisor of Westantic.

A

B.

Westantic has outsourced its delivery function.

136
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of collaborative networks?

A.

They are characterised by a focus on facilitating growth sustainability.

B.

They support pooled collaboration among members but discourage direct collaboration.

C.

They are common in low-technology rather than high-technology sectors.

D.

They are characterised by a hierarchical relationship between stakeholders.

A

A.

They are characterised by a focus on facilitating growth sustainability.

137
Q

Which of the following is a disadvantage of outsourcing?

A.

A company’s value chain falls apart as a result of extensive centralisation.

B.

A company’s costs increase drastically, or the costs of outsourcing outweigh net savings.

C.

A company loses its decision-making authority.

D.

A company becomes dependent on another company to work to its required standard.

A

D.

A company becomes dependent on another company to work to its required standard.

138
Q

Emilia works in a publishing company and has some concerns about the company’s inflexible work timings. She hesitates to discuss this with her managers as she believes that they will view her concerns in a negative light. In the context of hierarchies in an organisation, which of the following is Emilia most likely experiencing?

A.

Focused differentiation

B.

Job enlargement

C.

Reintermediation

D.

Evaluation apprehension

A

D.

Evaluation apprehension

139
Q

According to Borry et al. (2018), which of the following increased the chances of rules being followed in public organisations?

A.

The rules were informal and flexible but consistently applied.

B.

The rules were enforced by an administration with a tall hierarchy.

C.

The rules were written and consistently applied.

D.

The rules were enforced by a centralised administration.

A

C.

The rules were written and consistently applied.

140
Q

According to Homberg et al. (2008), which of the following firms is likely to have the best performance?

A.

Ahampro Ltd. uses a tall structure rather than a flat structure to ensure that the employees in the sales and marketing teams can effectively communicate and voice their concerns.

B.

Wisbane Ltd. has separate sales and marketing teams that plan projects together and work together to complete them effectively.

C.

Blingarro Ltd. uses information systems rather than direct contact to ensure coordination between the sales and marketing teams in complex situations. 

D.

Trincomall Ltd. uses a structure in which the sales and marketing staff work under the same team with minimal functional rotation to ensure high job specialisation.

A

B.

Wisbane Ltd. has separate sales and marketing teams that plan projects together and work together to complete them effectively.

141
Q

Identify a difference between organisations that have mechanistic structures and those that have organic structures.

A.

Organisations with mechanistic structures define tasks clearly and delegate them, whereas those with organic structures define tasks broadly and flexibly

B.

Unlike organisations with mechanistic structures, organisations with organic structures encourage central decision making to ensure that tasks are carried out as planned.

C.

Organisations with mechanistic structures largely use horizontal communication, whereas those with organic structures have a clear vertical hierarchy.

D.

Unlike organisations with organic structures, organisations with mechanistic structures encourage work environments in which the division of work is fluid.

A

A.

Organisations with mechanistic structures define tasks clearly and delegate them, whereas those with organic structures define tasks broadly and flexibly

142
Q

In the context of contingency management, which of the following is true of successful organisations?

A.

They encourage communication by using tall rather than flat structures.

B.

They maintain a good fit between contextual and structural factors.

C.

They use organic structures to ensure a high degree of task specialisation.

D.

They use centralised decision making to ensure organisational flexibility.

A

B.

They maintain a good fit between contextual and structural factors.

143
Q

Identify a true statement about contingency theory.

A.

It always accounts for the degree of structural choice managers have in making organisational decisions.

B.

It posits that technological factors are more crucial than contextual factors in determining an organisation’s structure.

C.

It holds that environmental factors determine an organisation’s required structure.

D.

It supports using a nondeterministic approach in formulating an organisation’s strategy and structure.

A

C.

It holds that environmental factors determine an organisation’s required structure.

144
Q

Because of changes in the business world, some observers have proposed that issues pertaining to managing people should be given a higher profile. Which of the following is one of the factors that Guest (1987) attributed this proposition to?

A.

An emphasis on price over flexibility

B.

More employees joining trade unions

C.

The economic failure of countries such as Japan in the 1980s

D.

The emergence of globally integrated markets

A

D.

The emergence of globally integrated markets

145
Q

Identify the four areas covered by human resource management (HRM).

A.

Portfolio management, human resource coordination, capital budgeting and customer management

B.

Acceptance testing, employee engagement, human resource planning and job enlargement

C.

Employee influence, work systems, human resource flow and reward management

D.

Employee engagement, cross-functional training, job specialisation and information systems

A

C.

Employee influence, work systems, human resource flow and reward management

146
Q

Technofrax Ltd. is a large technology service provider. The company implemented some new practices last year, as a result of which the number of employees who quit this year reduced significantly compared to previous years. In the context of High Performance Work Systems (HPWS), which of the following is true of Technofrax Ltd.?

A.

The company implemented affirmative action practices.

B.

The company centralised its human resource function.

C.

The company increased its human capital.

D.

The company minimised its voluntary turnover.

A

D.

The company minimised its voluntary turnover.

147
Q

In the context of the four roles that HRM practitioners perform, which of the following tasks is performed by a change agent?

A.

Aligning HR plans and strategies with business strategy

B.

Designing and delivering HR processes effectively

C.

Addressing the concerns and needs of individual employees

D.

Identifying new behaviours to help sustain competitiveness

A

D.

Identifying new behaviours to help sustain competitiveness

148
Q

Clara, a HR manager in a public relations firm, is responsible for recruiting employees for various departments in the organisation. She focuses on effectively fulfilling the company’s staffing needs and making pay-related decisions. According to Dave Ulrich’s HR roles framework, which of the following human resource roles does Clara focus on performing in this scenario?

A.

Administrative expert

B.

Employee champion

C.

Change agent

D.

Strategic partner

A

A.

Administrative expert

149
Q

Truss and Gill (2009) show how HR managers build the resources they need to do their job by combining structural arrangements with good working relationships. In this context, which of the following is a structural arrangement?

A.

Sharing positive experiences with line managers

B.

Providing opportunities to meet with colleagues

C.

Ensuring HR staff understand organisational needs

D.

Ensuring line managers have good contacts with HR practitioners

A

B.

Providing opportunities to meet with colleagues

150
Q

Planners use different models to identify their staff requirements to fulfil demands. Which of the following do these models typically start with to identify the demand for services?

A.

Internal processes or agile management

B.

Organisational strategy or demographic changes

C.

Resource availability and human capital

D.

Production bandwidth and organisational hierarchy

A

B.

Organisational strategy or demographic changes

151
Q

The uncertainty of the social and economic environment makes long-term forecasting difficult. Which of the following is an alternative to demand forecasting?

A.

Outsourcing the supply function

B.

Increasing the flexibility of supply

C.

Moving from divisional to a functional structure

D.

Centralising the organisational functions

A

B.

Increasing the flexibility of supply

152
Q

Identify a true statement about long-term forecasting:

A.

It is the most reliable form of demand forecasting.

B.

It tends to be more accurate than short-term forecasting.

C.

It is used for tactical business decisions rather than for strategic decisions.

D.

It must take into account the uncertainty of the social environment.

A

D.

It must take into account the uncertainty of the social environment.

153
Q

Identify a true statement about job analysis:

A.

Job analysis identifies the main constituents of a role, including skills and level of responsibility.

B.

Job analysis involves focusing on a specific job skill or area of expertise.

C.

Job analysis involves integrating processes or functions within an organisation.

D.

Job analysis is specific to how the employees of an organisation feel about their jobs and about the organisation.

A

A.

Job analysis identifies the main constituents of a role, including skills and level of responsibility.

154
Q

Which of the following includes the dimensions on which the elements of jobs are rated?

A.

Flexible benefits, time rate, skill-based pay and payment by results

B.

Extent of use, frequency, importance and amount of time involved

C.

Context recognition, assumption analysis, limitation analysis and formulation of alternatives

D.

Job title, job purpose, key result areas and working relationships

A

B.

Extent of use, frequency, importance and amount of time involved

155
Q

Technifive is a game development firm. It only hires employees with a wide range of skills and varied knowledge in the area of game development. The company also looks for flexible employees who are open to working on a range of tasks in the organisation. In the context of human resource management, which of the following is most likely true of Technifive?

A.

The company uses job specialisation to increase employee flexibility.

B.

The decisions made by the company’s management are centralised.

C.

The company focuses on employees’ competencies.

D.

The practices followed by the company are characteristic of functional structures.

A

C.

The company focuses on employees’ competencies.

156
Q

Amer, an HR executive at Jenowera Ltd., interviews many candidates to the post of a product engineer in the company. He hires Farheen to the post as he believes she is a perfect fit for the role. Eight months into the job, Farheen’s managers report that her performance has been consistently poor and that she has made no improvement despite being provided feedback. In the context of the selection process, which of the following errors or biases is most likely to have affected Amer’s decision making in this scenario?

A.

A false positive error

B.

The projection bias

C.

A false negative error

D.

The hindsight bias

A

A.

A false positive error

157
Q

Which of the following is an advantage of personality tests in the hiring process?

A.

Their results are unlikely to vary with changing circumstances.

B.

Their results provide qualitative rather than quantitative data.

C.

They can easily be used and interpreted by all employees.

D.

They minimise the effect of subjective perceptions.

A

D.

They minimise the effect of subjective perceptions.

158
Q

In the context of evaluating job candidates’ abilities, which of the following is true of assessment centres?

A.

They have higher validity than interviews.

B.

They are less systematic and standardised than interviews.

C.

They are less accurate than interviews.

D.

They use fewer assessors than interviews.

A

A.

They have higher validity than interviews.

159
Q

Identify a way in which reward management systems in organisations are changing.

A.

Organisations are shifting away from an emphasis on non-pay reward systems.

B.

Organisations are shifting from individual performance systems to collectively bargained pay.

C.

Organisations are introducing flexible and variable pay components.

D.

Organisations are linking pay systems directly to employee performance rather than to business strategy.

A

C.

Organisations are introducing flexible and variable pay components.

160
Q

Jantanya Ltd. provides life assurance and medical benefits to all its employees. It provides such benefits to its employees to ensure that their goals are aligned with the organisation’s objectives. In the context of reward management systems, which of the following types of rewards is Jantanya Ltd. using in this scenario?

A.

Monetary rewards

B.

Intangible rewards

C.

Non-pay rewards

D.

Intrinsic rewards

A

C.

Non-pay rewards

161
Q

Which of the following statements is true of performance-related pay?

A.

It has been proven to universally increase organisational performance.

B.

It is independent of context and is not affected by variable factors such as work complexity.

C.

It tends to break the link between performance appraisal and organisational reward.

D.

It is unlikely to work in organisations where there is no trust between employees and managers.

A

D.

It is unlikely to work in organisations where there is no trust between employees and managers.

162
Q

Which of the following is the central theme of diversity management?

A.

Valuing everyone as individuals

B.

Ensuring the preferential treatment of disadvantaged groups

C.

Using affirmative action programs to uplift people

D.

Adhering to legislated norms of accepting differences

A

A.

Valuing everyone as individuals

163
Q

According to Carstens and De Kock (2017), diversity management competence may affect firm performance directly or through its effect on three intermediate variables. In this context, identify the three intermediate variables that affect firm performance.

A.

Affirmative action, reward management and reintermediation

B.

An inclusive climate, advancement opportunities and power distribution

C.

Power distribution, reintermediation and portfolio analysis

D.

An inclusive climate, reward management and portfolio analysis

A

B.

An inclusive climate, advancement opportunities and power distribution

164
Q

In the context of the diversity management competencies developed by Carstens and De Kock (2017), which of the following is involved in leading diversity?

A.

Investing in schemes that establish equal employment opportunity

B.

Balancing workforce transformation needs with operational business realities

C.

Capitalising on the skills, perspectives and abilities of employees to create a competitive advantage

D.

Ensuring bottom-line financial performance using workforce diversity

A

A.

Investing in schemes that establish equal employment opportunity

165
Q

Which of the following tactics was used by Sir Alex Ferguson to influence others and manage Manchester United successfully?

A.

Adjusting his strategies based on the type of crisis being faced by the club

B.

Gathering information exclusively from formal sources such as the club’s board, rather than from informal sources such as fans

C.

Cultivating and developing his relationships with the club’s board, sponsors, players and fans

D.

Resolving every problem that people brought to him, even if it could be handled by others

A

C.

Cultivating and developing his relationships with the club’s board, sponsors, players and fans

166
Q

Identify a difference between managers and leaders.

A.

Unlike leaders, managers depend on their ability to influence others to put in effort for a task to be successful.

B.

The primary function of managers is to bring order and stability, whereas the primary function of leaders is to create change through innovation.

C.

Managers can only influence people who are below them in the organisational hierarchy, whereas leaders can influence people below them, people at the same level as them and those formally above them.

D.

Unlike managers, leaders perform the tasks of planning, organising and controlling.

A

B.

The primary function of managers is to bring order and stability, whereas the primary function of leaders is to create change through innovation.

167
Q

Otis, a manager, wants his team to work over the weekend to complete a priority project that will bring in large revenue for the company. Considering that the company is going through a financial crisis, Otis tries to influence his team to agree to his request. Otis is surprised when his team easily agrees to the request and tells him that they, too, think it is the right thing to do. In the context of Kelman’s outcomes of influence attempts, which of the following outcomes does this scenario best exemplify?

A.

Resistance

B.

Internalisation

C.

Compliance

D.

Identification

A

B.

Internalisation

168
Q

Why was it important to synthesise traits into the big five?

A.

To identify the five traits—openness, extraversion, neuroticism, agreeableness and autocracy—that are commonly found in public figures

B.

To find convincing links between the traits of individuals and their performance

C.

To develop a continuum of leader behaviour

D.

To examine how the work of an individual modified the individual’s personality traits

A

B.

To find convincing links between the traits of individuals and their performance

169
Q

Judge and Zapata (2015) performed a study that revealed that context exerts general effects on the degree to which personality predicts job performance. Based on the results of this study, identify the individual for whom the general effects are likely to be the strongest.

A.

Adah, who performs repetitive tasks at work

B.

Dee, who has an autocratic manager

C.

Rohan, who performs specific tasks in a highly structured organisation

D.

Shaun, who has high discretion over how he works and can influence decisions

A

D.

Shaun, who has high discretion over how he works and can influence decisions

170
Q

In the context of the specific effects of a situation on the degree to which personality predicts job performance as revealed by Judge and Zapata (2015), which of the following statements is most likely to be true?

A.

Explorers are likely to perform well in jobs requiring innovation.

B.

Preservers are likely to perform well in jobs requiring creativity.

C.

Challengers are likely to perform well in work that requires team effort.

D.

Adapters are likely to perform well in work of a competitive nature.

A

A.

Explorers are likely to perform well in jobs requiring innovation.

171
Q

Robert Tannenbaum and Warren Schmidt (1973) advised that a manager’s choice of leadership style should reflect three variables. Which of the following is one of these variables?

A.

The board of directors’ tolerance of ambiguity and knowledge of the problem

B.

The customers’ need for independence and expectations of involvement

C.

Supervisory discretion, which includes the values and preferences of the manager’s supervisors

D.

The situation, which includes organisational norms, size and location of workgroups and effectiveness of teamwork

A

D.

The situation, which includes organisational norms, size and location of workgroups and effectiveness of teamwork

172
Q

Wasim, a project manager at a software development firm, has received a new project from a client. As Wasim and his team have not worked on a similar project before, there is ambiguity and uncertainty among the team members. As a result, Wasim takes charge of the project by listing his expectations, showing team members how to perform specific tasks, asking them to follow rules and procedures and scheduling and coordinating their work. Which of the following leadership styles has Wasim adopted in this scenario?

A.

A supportive style

B.

A directive style

C.

A participative style

D.

An achievement-oriented style

A

B.

A directive style

173
Q

Who among the following is a participative leader?

A.

Siobhan, a manager who makes autocratic decisions to make her subordinates comply with and work towards her objectives

B.

Georgie, a manager who closely monitors his subordinates and asks them to follow specific rules and procedures

C.

Ron, a manager who expects his subordinates to follow his orders without question

D.

Aashna, a manager who takes her subordinates’ opinions into account while making a decision

A

D.

Aashna, a manager who takes her subordinates’ opinions into account while making a decision

174
Q

Sebastian, the founder and CEO of a technology firm, is renowned among his employees for his belief in the use of technology for the betterment of people and the society. He believes that creativity and innovation are essential for the development of eco-friendly technologies. His employees relate to his beliefs and ideas and, as a result, agree to his various requests because they identify with them. Which of the following types of personal power does Sebastian have in this scenario?

A.

Coercive power

B.

Reward power

C.

Referent power

D.

Expertise power

A

C.

Referent power

175
Q

Which of the following scenarios exemplifies the use of a positional source of coercive power?

A.

Faye, a manager, promises to give her team members a bonus if they work over the weekend to complete a project.

B.

Kevin, an executive at a healthcare facility, has the authority to create and enforce organisational policies and rules.

C.

Carlos, a manager, threatens to terminate a female subordinate if she reports to the management that Carlos was embezzling company funds.

D.

Jemimah, a senior executive at a research firm, has the authority to access information of various departments within the firm.

A

C.

Carlos, a manager, threatens to terminate a female subordinate if she reports to the management that Carlos was embezzling company funds.

176
Q

In which of the following cases is power most likely to be effective?

A.

When the person exerting power draws from personal sources of coercive power in all situations, irrespective of the context and the target of the influence attempt

B.

When the target of the influence attempt views the power source as legitimate and acceptable

C.

When the person exerting power is characterised as having the reactive position in the neuroticism cluster rather than the resilient position

D.

When the target of the influence attempt is a challenger rather than an adapter

A

B.

When the target of the influence attempt views the power source as legitimate and acceptable

177
Q

Identify a true statement about the results of the study by Yukl and Tracey (1992) that examined the influence tactics that managers are most likely to use with different target groups.

A.

Managers are most likely to use exchange, personal appeal and legitimating tactics when influencing colleagues.

B.

Managers are most likely to use rational persuasion when trying to influence subordinates.

C.

Managers are most likely to use inspirational appeal, pressure and consultation when trying to influence their boss.

D.

Managers are most likely to use pressure and informal coalitions when influencing customers.

A

A.

Managers are most likely to use exchange, personal appeal and legitimating tactics when influencing colleagues.

178
Q

Lechner and Floyd conducted a study in 2012 on the use of influence tactics by staff to build support for strategic initiatives such as new product development. Identify a result of the study.

A.

Staff trying to build support for strategic initiatives exclusively used pressure tactics.

B.

Staff trying to build support for strategic initiatives combined exchange and ingratiation.

C.

Staff trying to build support for strategic initiatives combined consultation and inspirational appeal.

D.

Staff trying to build support for strategic initiatives combined rational justification, formal authority and informal coalitions.

A

D.

Staff trying to build support for strategic initiatives combined rational justification, formal authority and informal coalitions.

179
Q

According to Lechner and Floyd (2012), which of the following influence tactics had the biggest impact on the success of projects?

A.

Informal coalitions, except in projects that were exploratory in nature

B.

Ingratiation, supplemented on occasion by consultation and inspirational appeal

C.

Pressure, especially when the targets of influence attempts were superiors

D.

Rational justification, supplemented on occasion by formal authority

A

D.

Rational justification, supplemented on occasion by formal authority

180
Q

Grassroots is a local liberal political group comprising people who share the beliefs of individual freedom, equality, diversity and democracy. The members of this group aim to promote liberalism in the society through peaceful marches and meetings. Which of the following types of networks does Grassroots exemplify?

A.

An ideological network

B.

A people-oriented network

C.

A privileged-power network

D.

A strategic network

A

A.

An ideological network

181
Q

Akeno is a general manager at an investment organisation. If he works outside the organisation to make a sale, gain access to a neighbouring country’s market or to set up a joint venture with a foreign organisation, which of the following networks is he likely to rely on the most?

A.

An official network of all general managers of the organisation

B.

A people-oriented network of his closest friends

C.

An informal network of valuable resources

D.

A formal network of the board of directors of the organisation

A

C.

An informal network of valuable resources

182
Q

In the context of Sparrowe and Liden (2005), identify a true statement about informal networks.

A.

Informal networks are critical in gaining access to valuable information, resources and opportunities in traditional hierarchical structures, but they are insignificant in flat organisational structures.

B.

Individuals who hold peripheral positions in informal advice networks enjoy greater influence than those in central positions.

C.

Informal networks are becoming more important as a means of influencing as traditional hierarchical structures give way to flatter and more flexible organisational forms.

D.

Individuals who hold central positions in informal advice networks receive less favourable performance ratings than those in peripheral positions.

A

C.

Informal networks are becoming more important as a means of influencing as traditional hierarchical structures give way to flatter and more flexible organisational forms.

183
Q

Which of the following scenarios best exemplifies organisational citizenship behaviour (OCB)?

A.

Sara, a project manager, always invites inputs from her entire team for every major decision she makes.

B.

Jennifer, a marketing assistant, always completes the work assigned to her on time.

C.

Leon, a training manager, ensures that every employee completes training successfully before starting work.

D.

Abed, a data analyst, always finds time to listen to his colleagues when they are stressed because of work.

A

D.

Abed, a data analyst, always finds time to listen to his colleagues when they are stressed because of work.

184
Q

Who among the following managers most likely agrees with Theory X?

A.

Shu-hua, who believes that people are primarily driven by money

B.

Nikita, who believes that people enjoy responsibilities

C.

Aaron, who believes that people want to make a better life for themselves

D.

Fergal, who believes that people are naturally creative

A

A.

Shu-hua, who believes that people are primarily driven by money

185
Q

Who amongst the following employees of a restaurant is most likely to stay motivated because of the opportunities to learn new things on the job?

A.

Tim, a high school dropout, who is employed as a server but also often bartends, takes inventory or manages the cash register

B.

Rhonda, an experienced event manager who is employed as the catering manager and also acts as a proxy for the customer service manager

C.

Ruby, a culinary graduate who is employed as the pastry chef and enjoys the autonomy to experiment with desserts and other baked goods

D.

Raul, a person with many years of experience in the wine industry, who is employed as the wine steward and gets to pick wines for the restaurant

A

A.

Tim, a high school dropout, who is employed as a server but also often bartends, takes inventory or manages the cash register

186
Q

Which of the following is true of the psychological contract between an employee and an organisation?

A.

It cannot be modified even if contexts or individual circumstances change.

B.

It cannot be breached once the employee and the organisation sign the legal contract.

C.

It is a detailed, clearly written document that includes all the expectations of the organisation from the employee.

D.

It includes an implicit understanding of the expectations and commitments between the employee and the organisation.

A

D.

It includes an implicit understanding of the expectations and commitments between the employee and the organisation.

187
Q

In the context of the psychological contract, which of the following is true of perceived organisational support (POS)?

A.

It changes the components of the psychological contract to the extent that none of the parties involved can be satisfied.

B.

It has no bearing on the psychological contract.

C.

It lessens the impact of the breach of the psychological contract.

D.

It includes the measures taken by employers to influence employees’ beliefs about the organisation.

A

C.

It lessens the impact of the breach of the psychological contract.

188
Q

Jayden has been working in the field of marketing for more than fifteen years. He has been with his current organisation for almost eight years. According to the findings of Low et al. (2016), which of the following is most likely to be his expectation from his company in return for his contributions?

A.

To be assigned interesting work

B.

To be recognised and promoted

C.

To be encouraged to take initiative

D.

To be groomed by an experienced mentor

A

B.

To be recognised and promoted

189
Q

Which of the following actions by the management of a company exemplifies a behaviour modification technique?

A.

Clearly stating what is expected from employees and providing them the means to accomplish their tasks

B.

Giving incentives to employees every time they meet their productivity targets

C.

Ensuring that the pay and other rewards are equivalent to the work done by the employees

D.

Creating a friendly and positive environment in the workplace to keep the employees satisfied

A

B.

Giving incentives to employees every time they meet their productivity targets

190
Q

Alderfer (1972) believed that existence needs affect motivation. On which of the following theories was Alderfer’s theory of motivation based?

A.

Locke and Latham’s Theory

B.

Adams’s theory

C.

Maslow’s theory

D.

Vroom’s theory

A

C.

Maslow’s theory

191
Q

Which of the following is a difference between behaviour modification theories and content theories?

A.

Behaviour modification theories focus on the use of reinforcement, whereas content theories focus on the needs of people.

B.

Behaviour modification theories focus on internal rewards, whereas content theories focus on external rewards.

C.

Behaviour modification theories focus on the perception of fairness, whereas content theories focus on actual fairness.

D.

Behaviour modification theories focus on modifying job characteristics, whereas content theories focus on improving context satisfaction.

A

B.

Behaviour modification theories focus on internal rewards, whereas content theories focus on external rewards.

192
Q

Ramona is the sales manager for a household appliances company. Her sales team’s performance was below average in the past quarter. She wants to motivate her team and has announced a performance-linked incentive. According to expectancy theory, which of the following should Ramona do to motivate her team?

A.

She should set broad rather than specific goals.

B.

She should let her team know that only a few employees will receive an incentive because the goal is difficult to achieve.

C.

She should avoid disclosing the details behind the grading system to ensure confidentiality.

D.

She should ensure that the goal is attainable with hard work.

A

D.

She should ensure that the goal is attainable with hard work.

193
Q

She should ensure that the goal is attainable with hard work.

Paragraph locked by Vilborg Ólafía Jóhannsdóttir - HI
According to equity theory, who among the following managers is most likely to keep his employees motivated?

A.

Mustafa, who uses his discretion and expertise to informally decide how much incentive each employee should receive

B.

Aleja, who pays employees according to their credentials but actively discourages them from discussing their compensation with each other

C.

Stella, who ensures that all her employees in the same grade get the same compensation irrespective of the work they do

D.

Ali, who ensures that all his employees feel that their compensation is proportionate to the job they do

A

D.

Ali, who ensures that all his employees feel that their compensation is proportionate to the job they do

194
Q

Declan, a computer store manager, meets his sales team at the end of every quarter and gives them a performance feedback. Although Declan keeps the sales targets high, he consults his team members to ensure that the targets are achievable and not unrealistic. He also prefers to clearly state the minimum number of computers each employee needs to sell to ensure that all employees know what is expected of them. Which of the following process theories of motivation does the given scenario best exemplify?

A.

Equity theory

B.

Goal-setting theory

C.

Reinforcement theory

D.

Two-factor theory

A

B.

Goal-setting theory

195
Q

Meera recently joined a marketing company as the HR manager. She wants to communicate a new policy to all the managers in her company. In which of the following scenarios is her communication likely to be most effective?

A.

She sends individual emails to all the managers explaining only the parts relevant to them.

B.

She calls all the managers for a face-to-face meeting to explain the new policy to them.

C.

She sends out a common email to all the managers explaining the policy in detail.

D.

She sets up a conference call with all the managers to explain the new policy.

A

B.

She calls all the managers for a face-to-face meeting to explain the new policy to them.

196
Q

Which of the following is the primary objective of communication?

A.

To ensure that a message has been broadcasted in a way that all involved parties have heard it

B.

To share information in a way that all involved parties have the same understanding

C.

To ensure that a message is captivating enough to engage the interest and attention of all involved parties

D.

To share information in a way that all involved parties have enough information to arrive at their unique conclusions

A

B.

To share information in a way that all involved parties have the same understanding

197
Q

The marketing department of a clothing store conducts a survey about customers’ satisfaction with the variety of styles available in the store. Which of the following aspects of the business is likely to benefit the most if the department communicates the survey results to the production and design team?

A.

Product quality

B.

Product innovation

C.

Product cost

D.

Product delivery

A

B.

Product innovation

198
Q

Will, a line manager, is delivering a presentation to his team members on ways to improve the productivity of his department. Which of the following should he do to ensure that his message is accurately encoded?

A.

Include details other than the essential information to ensure that the team members are fully engaged

B.

Avoid repeating important points to ensure that the team members pay attention the first time

C.

Organise the message into smaller points and present them one after the other

D.

Use ample symbols and gestures to ensure that the presentation is interesting

A

C.

Organise the message into smaller points and present them one after the other

199
Q

What are the three criteria that determine the quality of information?

A.

Information richness, noise and feedback

B.

Attention, encoding accuracy and decoding accuracy

C.

Use of gesture, use of symbols and relevance

D.

Accuracy, timeliness and relevance 

A

D.

Accuracy, timeliness and relevance 

200
Q

Mohan is reading a book while the news is playing on the television in the background. The moment there is a mention of import duty in the news, Mohan becomes alert and focuses on the news. Which of the following aspects of communication does the given scenario exemplify?

A.

Feedback

B.

Encoding

C.

Information overload

D.

Selective attention

A

D.

Selective attention

201
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of a communication channel that is high in information richness?

A.

It relies on one-way feedback from the receiver.

B.

It focuses on handling a single cue to communicate the message from the sender to the receiver.

C.

It avoids creating a personal focus and ensures that messages are general and accessible to a wide variety of receivers.

D.

It promotes a shared understanding between the sender and the receiver.

A

D.

It promotes a shared understanding between the sender and the receiver.

202
Q

According to the findings of He et al. (2017), which of the following is the most pervasive reason people prefer face-to-face communication over other communication methods?

A.

Face-to-face communication helps focus on a single cue at a time, thereby reducing any distractions.

B.

Face-to-face communication increases the social distance, or the span of people one can address.

C.

Face-to-face communication allows people to rehearse their message to ensure that the message is conveyed as intended.

D.

Face-to-face communication makes it easier for people to asses who is likely to be cooperative.

A

D.

Face-to-face communication makes it easier for people to asses who is likely to be cooperative.

203
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of the grapevine?

A.

It is an effective alternative communication channel for formal communication.

B.

It is likely to disseminate opinions rather than concrete information.

C.

It is used to pass quantitative rather than qualitative information.

D.

It is usually used to put an end to conjecture and speculation.

A

B.

It is likely to disseminate opinions rather than concrete information.

204
Q

When composing a message, which of the following should a sender do in order to ensure that the message is clearly understood by the receiver?

A.

Provide examples to illustrate the main content of the message

B.

Use idioms to make the message interesting and memorable

C.

Use the medium with which the sender is most comfortable

D.

Include a detailed and elaborate subject line

A

A.

Provide examples to illustrate the main content of the message

205
Q

Which of the following scenarios exemplifies a practice that is important for an effective presentation?

A.

José begins his training sessions by asking the trainees how much they already know about the topic he is about to present.

B.

Dimitri prepares for his presentation the night before he has to present so that the content is still new in his mind.

C.

Meili focuses on the main content of the presentation rather than using examples to avoid diffusing the impact of the message.

D.

Fatima uses jargon in her presentations to ensure professionalism and increase her credibility.

A

A.

José begins his training sessions by asking the trainees how much they already know about the topic he is about to present

206
Q

Who among the following project managers exhibits the ‘silo’ mentality in communication?

A.

Asif updates any changes in the project deadline on the company-wide intranet but does not think he needs to inform everyone individually.

B.

Lee sends an email to all the relevant department heads when there is an update in any of his projects.

C.

Maria informs her manager and team members about a recent process change but neglects to inform other departments.

D.

Preeti encourages horizontal communication rather than vertical communication among her team members.

A

C.

Maria informs her manager and team members about a recent process change but neglects to inform other departments.

207
Q

Saran, a sales manager, has a team that includes five sales executives. He closely supervises his team’s work. Which of the following types of team is described in the given scenario?

A.

An informal team

B.

A self-managing team

C.

A horizontal team

D.

A vertical team

A

D.

A vertical team

208
Q

Identify a true statement about work-related informal groups.

A.

They include vertical teams that consist of a manager and his or her subordinates.

B.

They are formed when people in an organisation exchange information and ideas.

C.

They are significant because they shape an organisation’s basic structure.

D.

They are created by management to perform specific tasks to help meet organisational goals.

A

B.

They are formed when people in an organisation exchange information and ideas.

209
Q

Which of the following can be most likely called a team based on Katzenbach and Smith’s (1993) definition of team?

A.

People who have gathered to watch a street play

B.

Two programmers and two software testers who work together to develop a software and jointly decide on a common approach to accomplish their objective

C.

People who have bought tickets to attend the same concert

D.

A group of 14 architects who work mainly on their own to create various building designs but take breaks together and share ideas and tips with each other

A

B.

Two programmers and two software testers who work together to develop a software and jointly decide on a common approach to accomplish their objective

210
Q

According to Katzenbach and Smith’s (1993) definition, which of the following is a characteristic of a team?

A.

It has members who have different skills that are relevant to the goal of the team.

B.

It has members with different purposes rather than a common purpose.

C.

It has members who hold their leader primarily accountable for their approach to work.

D.

It has a minimum of 15 members to increase efficiency and productivity.

A

A.

It has members who have different skills that are relevant to the goal of the team.

211
Q

Rasha, Yan, Syed and Salma are members of a HR team that is considered the most effective team in their organisation. Based on Meredith Belbin’s team roles, Rasha is identified as a resource investigator, Yan as a shaper, Syed as an implementor and Salma as a teamworker. In the context of this scenario, which of the following statements is most likely to be true?

A.

Yan is creative, imaginative and unconventional.

B.

Rasha is outgoing, expressive and sociable.

C.

Syed is meticulous, conscientious and anxious.

D.

Salma is mature, self-assured and good at delegating.

A

B.

Rasha is outgoing, expressive and sociable.

212
Q

A newly formed technical writing team of an organisation has four members. The team is assigned with the task of user manual creation for a new product. Based on Meredith Belbin’s team roles, two team members are identified as resource investigators and two as plants. Which of the following statements is most likely true about this team?

A.

The resource investigators are likely to listen to the plants’ ideas.

B.

The plants are likely to turn the resource investigators’ ideas into action.

C.

The team is likely to be effective as it has a balanced mix of preferred team roles.

D.

The team is likely to be ineffective as it is highly imbalanced.

A

D.

The team is likely to be ineffective as it is highly imbalanced.

213
Q

Identify a true statement about team effectiveness according to Meredith Belbin (1981).

A.

A team should have four members—two resource investigators and two plants—to be effective.

B.

It is more important for a team to have level-headed individuals rather than individuals who counterbalance each other.

C.

All teams should have nine people, each with a different preferred team role.

D.

A team should have members with unique attributes that fulfil a need.

A

D.

A team should have members with unique attributes that fulfil a need

214
Q

A start-up hires Sasha, Merlin, Dev, Peter and Lia. The management asks them to make a new product development team with Sasha as the manager. They call for a meeting in which they introduce themselves and give suggestions about what their team should do. Which of the following stages of team development does the given scenario illustrate?

A.

The norming stage

B.

The forming stage

C.

The performing stage

D.

The storming stage

A

B.

The forming stage

215
Q

Identify a true statement about the norming stage of team development.

A.

The manager of a team selects team members on the basis of their expertise.

B.

A team does its job in accordance with the specified standards and achieves its objectives.

C.

Team members begin to make accommodations for mutual differences and work on ways to work together.

D.

The team members reflect on their performance after the team has completed its task and has been dissolved.

A

C.

Team members begin to make accommodations for mutual differences and work on ways to work together.

216
Q

Six employees of a start-up work together as a team to design a software program. After three months, the team members realise that they are unable to achieve the goal because of some external factors and the team disbands. Which of the following stages of team development is illustrated in this scenario?

A.

The performing stage

B.

The adjourning stage

C.

The storming stage

D.

The norming stage

A

B.

The adjourning stage

217
Q

Which of the following team meetings in the norming stage of team development is most likely to be ineffective?

A.

A team meeting that records and circulates decisions within 24 hours

B.

A team meeting that has a start and finish time

C.

A team meeting that is fixed at short notice

D.

A team meeting that follows a schedule of times for each item

A

C.

A team meeting that is fixed at short notice

218
Q

Laura is the HR manager of an organisation. During a brainstorming session with her team members, she notices that Martin, one of her team members, expands a suggestion given by another team member and develops it into a more concrete idea. Which of the following categories of communication within a group is most likely demonstrated by Martin?

A.

Seeking information

B.

Building

C.

Proposing

D.

Disagreeing

A

B.

Building

219
Q

Which of the following actions constitutes observing a team during task performance?

A.

Participating in the task performed by the team

B.

Primarily focusing on the content of the task

C.

Paying attention to how the team works

D.

Building or extending an idea given by one of the team members

A

C.

Paying attention to how the team works

220
Q

Misha, a Human Resources (HR) manager, wants to study and analyse the changes in her company that have occurred because of the new HR policies introduced in the past year. According to Kurt Lewin, which of the following should she use as the basic unit for her study?

A.

Individual employees

B.

The environment in which the company operates

C.

The company as a whole

D.

Social groups within the company

A

D.

Social groups within the company

221
Q

In the context of change analysis according to Kurt Lewin, which of the following best describes the term ‘force field’?

A.

The four components of the SWOT analysis

B.

The economy and threats and opportunities

C.

Various marketing strategies employed by a company

D.

Social groups, their interrelations and their principles

A

D.

Social groups, their interrelations and their principles

222
Q

Assim wants to change the supply chain management software of his company. The current software is slow and has limited options. He wants to upgrade to a new software that is faster, more flexible and has more options. However, some of his staff members are reluctant to switch to the new software. In the context of change analysis by Kurt Lewin, which of the following in the given scenario is considered a restraining force?

A.

Competitors using the new software

B.

Familiarity with the old software

C.

The flexibility of the new software

D.

The slow speed of the old software

A

B.

Familiarity with the old software

223
Q

According to the study conducted by Andrew Pettigrew (1987), which of the following should managers do to facilitate a strategic change?

A.

Ensure that the stakeholders perceive the performance gap as insignificant.

B.

Keep the external changes from affecting the internal contexts.

C.

Ensure that the current skills of the employees remain relevant rather than expecting employees to develop new skills after the implementation of the change.

D.

Change the structural context in which strategy changes are taking place.

A

D.

Change the structural context in which strategy changes are taking place.

224
Q

In the context of internal factors, which of the following must exist for a change to occur in an organisation?

A.

New policies must be enforced by the management.

B.

Enough employees must believe that a performance gap exists.

C.

At least one member of each team must be in favour of the change.

D.

There must be unanimous acceptance of the change by all the employees.

A

B.

Enough employees must believe that a performance gap exists.

225
Q

Kai, the managing director of a company, wants to change part of the company’s workflow to make it more efficient. According to the research findings of Pettigrew et al. (1992), which of the following contextual factors is most likely to be a receptive context in the given scenario?

A.

A supportive organisational culture

B.

Happy and content employees

C.

Kai not getting actively involved in the change process

D.

A robust existing work process

A

A.

A supportive organisational culture

226
Q

Tiago has to write an assignment paper on the current resource management practices. To complete his project in time and in an organized manner, he breaks down the process into consecutive steps and decides timelines for each step. The steps include planning, making the project outline, conducting research, conducting survey, analysing the data, writing and proofreading. He also realizes that the timelines for some of the steps overlap. In the context of theories of change, which of the following approaches does Tiago use in the given scenario?

A.

The political approach

B.

The participative approach

C.

The adaptive approach

D.

The rational approach

A

D.

The rational approach

227
Q

Brianna wants to change the layout of her clothing store. She is concerned that her staff members may not be enthusiastic about the additional work involved. She calls everyone for a meeting to discuss the need for a change in the layout to make the store more attractive to customers. She invites ideas from all the team members and asks them to come up with a list of changes that they think will work. In the context of theories of change, which of the following approaches does Brianna use in the given scenario?

A.

The negotiated approach

B.

The adaptive approach

C.

The participative approach

D.

The rational approach

A

C.

The participative approach

228
Q

Takeshi, the CEO of a company, wants to implement new rules for annual funding of the Operations Management (OM) department, the Human Resources (HR) department, and the Information Technology (IT) department. While the OM manager supports the new rules, the HR manager and the IT manager are unhappy and resist the change as it reduces their respective departments’ annual budget. Takeshi individually meets both and discusses the ways in which they can use the new rules to their departments’ advantage. In the context of theories of change, which of the following approaches does Takeshi use in the given scenario?

A.

The participative approach

B.

The political approach

C.

The rational approach

D.

The adaptive approach

A

B.

The political approach

229
Q

Renée is an avid baker. She and her wife, Petra, decide to try out a dessert catering business. As they are not sure how successful the business will be, they do not want to invest heavily. They prefer to start small with local cafés, depending mostly on word of mouth for more business. While they have a basic growth plan in place, they decide to adjust and develop their plan depending on the actual business they can generate. As the demand increases, they plan to invest more in advertising and hire additional staff for deliveries. In the context of theories of change, which of the following approaches does the given scenario exemplify?

A.

The rational approach

B.

The political approach

C.

The adaptive approach

D.

The participative approach

A

C.

The adaptive approach

230
Q

Paul, the owner of a packaging company, wants to change the roster of the staff to increase the workplace efficiency. According to the theory proposed by Ackermann and Eden (2011), which of the following is the recommended course for Paul in the given scenario?

A.

He should present his proposal differently to the staff members who will be most affected than to those who will be least affected by the change.

B.

He should limit the discussion of his proposal to the employees who will be most affected by the change and ignore the rest of the employees.

C.

He should present his proposal at the same time to all the employees, outlining how the change will improve the overall workplace efficiency and ask for their inputs.

D.

He should go ahead and make the change without discussing the proposal with any of the employees.

A

A.

He should present his proposal differently to the staff members who will be most affected than to those who will be least affected by the change.

231
Q

Which of the following is most likely to be an outcome of spending time gauging the potential reactions of major stakeholders before implementing a change?

A.

Discovery of possible supporters

B.

Alienation of minor stakeholders

C.

Increase in problems in the implementation of the change

D.

Make the change more beneficial for everyone

A

A.

Discovery of possible supporters

232
Q

Which of the following should a manager do when leading a change in an organisation?

A.

Officially announce punitive action against employees who resist the change

B.

Ensure that the change is most favourable to the most critical groups

C.

Ensure that the change is favourable for everyone who is affected by the change.

D.

Identify major stakeholders who can influence others and gather their support

A

D.

Identify major stakeholders who can influence others and gather their support

233
Q

Identify the term that refers to the generic activity of setting performance targets and standards, measuring actual performance, comparing actual performance with the standards and acting to correct deviations or modify standards.

A.

Control process

B.

Corporate governance

C.

Transformation process

D.

Co-creation

A

A.

Control process

234
Q

In the context of the control process, which of the following is an advantage of using written reports as a source of information for measuring performance?

A.

They offer unfiltered information.

B.

They facilitate rapid feedback. 

C.

They allow for verbal and non-verbal feedback.

D.

They are comprehensive.

A

D.

They are comprehensive.

235
Q

Maria is the head of the product department at Rotanev Technologies Ltd. As part of designing control systems for the department, she is setting performance targets for her team members. Which of the following should Maria keep in mind when setting targets?

A.

Standards of performance will affect achievement.

B.

Well-defined levels of performance ensure quality.

C.

All measures of performance ae unique to specific areas of responsibility.

D.

All aspects of performance are quantifiable.

A

A.

Standards of performance will affect achievement.

236
Q

Zain is the director of operations at Veritate Communications, a media company. He makes decisions that affect all divisions of the company. He holds tight control over employees and requires them to adhere to a detailed set of rules in all situations. Which of the following concepts is illustrated in this scenario? 

A.

Decentralisation

B.

Mechanistic control

C.

Delegation

D.

Organic control

A

B.

Mechanistic control

237
Q

Vera works as a manager in a company that manufactures electronic devices. She adopts an organic approach to controlling the workplace behaviour of her subordinates. In the context of strategic approaches to control, which of the following is true of Vera?

A.

She favours top-down authority.

B.

She emphasises conformity.

C.

She encourages learning and creativity.

D.

She adheres to written job descriptions.

A

C.

She encourages learning and creativity.

238
Q

In the context of contingency factors that affect the choice of control systems, identify the situation in which a mechanistic control strategy is most appropriate.

A.

When the importance of innovation is high

B.

When the employee turnover is low

C.

When employee expertise is high

D.

When the competitive strategy is based on cost leadership

A

D.

When the competitive strategy is based on cost leadership

239
Q

In the context of various tactics of control, which of the following is true of rules and procedures?

A.

They refer to an approach in which control emerges from the physical technology.

B.

They necessitate unit heads to personally inspect and report on progress.

C.

They help alert senior people to significant deviations.

D.

They are based on periodical goals that managers and staff agree.

A

C.

They help alert senior people to significant deviations.

240
Q

In the context of various tactics of control, which of the following approaches is partly based on goal-setting theory?

A.

Human resource management control

B.

Management by objectives

C.

Direct supervision

D.

Control through machinery

A

B.

Management by objectives

241
Q

Andre is a call centre executive. At work, he is required to follow a script that specifies the questions to ask customers, the way in which he should respond to questions from customers and the way in which he should close conversations with customers. In the context of tactics for control, which of the following is illustrated in this scenario?

A.

Control through machinery

B.

Organisational structure

C.

Management by objectives

D.

Human resource management control

A

A.

Control through machinery

242
Q

In the context of performance measurement, identify a true statement about an input measure.

A.

It is an element of a resource that is measured as it is put into the transformation process.

B.

It refers to quantifying the efficiency and effectiveness of an action.

C.

It is a measurement taken during an operational process that provides data on how the process is performing.

D.

It refers to a measurement taken after an operational process is complete.

A

A.

It is an element of a resource that is measured as it is put into the transformation process.

243
Q

In the context of performance measurement, identify an example of an output measure.

A.

The skill of the workers

B.

Health and safety

C.

The speed of a machine

D.

Labour costs

A

D.

Labour costs

244
Q

In the context of performance measurement, which of the following terms refers to a measure of the inputs required for each unit of output?

A.

Heuristics

B.

Effectiveness

C.

Valence

D.

Efficiency

A

D.

Efficiency