Renal Flashcards

1
Q

Where in the kidney is glucose, bicarb, AA and metabolites reabsorbed?

A

PCT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What does the MeSonephros become?

A

CRUMS
(urinary system OUT of kidney)
- collecting duct
- renal pelvis
- ureters
-major/minor calyces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What does the MeTanephros become?

A

“Renal Parenchyma” or “Kidney Proper”
- glomerulus
- PCT
- Loop of Henle
- DCT
- Collecting Tubule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What structure can connect the umbilicus and the bladder; sometimes has discharge leaking from it in children?

A

patent urachus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What structure is due to a failure to close the distal part of the urachus; leads to periumbilical tenderness and purulent discharge?

A

urachal sinus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Formula and Indicators for TBW

A

TBW= ICF + ECF

Indicators: D2O

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Formula and Indicators for ECF

A

ECF = plasma + interstitial fluid

Indicators: Mannitol and Inulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What type of channels does ADH act on?

A

aquaporin channels in the collecting duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

MOA of ADH

A
  • Increase H2O reabsorption in CT
  • Decrease Urine Volume
  • Increase Urine Specific Gravity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is Angiotensin II’s affect on GFR?

A

increases GFR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

MOA of aldosterone

A

Acts on the Na+/K+ pumps in the DCT
- Increases Na+ absorption (water follows)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Describe what happens in SIADH (urine vs. plasma)

A
  • too much ADH
  • very concentrated urine
  • dilute plasma (hyponatremia)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Describe what happens in Aldosterone deficiency (urine vs. plasma)

A
  • no aldosterone; hyponatremia
  • lots of urine with Na+ following
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the affect of B-blockers and Digoxin on Potassium?

A

Increased K+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the affect of B-agonists on K+?

A

Decreased K+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Hyper_____ can cause muscle cramps or rhabdomyolysis.

A

Hyperkalemia (if K+ too high)

*also can cause muscle weakness if K+ too low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

_____ in the urine, can bind to Ca2+ and help to decrease the risk for calcium kidney stones.

A

Citrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Formula for Renal Clearance

A

Concentration = [Urine Osm x Urine Flow Rate] / Plasma Osm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Name the indicator used for GFR

A

Inulin or Creatinine clearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Constriction of Afferent Arteriole does what to GFR?

A
  • decreased GFR

due to activation of renal sympathetic nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What affect does ANP have on GFR?

A
  • increased GFR
  • DECREASES
    Renin, AT II, Aldo, NaCL, and ADH
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Describe the Changes in RPF, GFR and FF

  • NSAIDS
A

Increases Prostaglandins Dilate the Afferent Arteriole
- Increase RPF
- Increase GFR
- FF remains Constant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Describe the Changes in RPF, GFR and FF

  • ACE Inhibitor
A

Angiotensin II Constricts the Efferent Arteriole
- Decrease RPF
- Increase GFR
- Increase FF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Describe the Changes in RPF, GFR and FF

Afferent Arteriole Constriction

A
  • Decrease RPF
  • Decrease GFR
  • FF remains constant
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Formula for Filtration Fraction
GFR/RPF
26
Name the 6 types of Nephrotic Syndrome
MMFANS - Minimal Change Dz - Membranous - Focal Segmental Glomerular Nephropathy - Amyloidosis - Nodular Sclerosing (Diabetes) - SLE (Lupus!)
27
What are the 4 main characteristics of Nephrotic Syndrome?
PALE - Proteinuria > 3.5 - Albuminuria - Lipidemia - Edema
28
Name the 5 types of Nephritic Syndrome.
PRIMA - Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis - Rapidly Progressive Glomerulonephritis - IgA Nephropathy - Membranoproliferative Glomerulonephropathy - Alports
29
What are the 4 main characteristics of Nephritic Syndrome?
HOAR - Hypertension - Oliguria - Azotemia - RBC cast
30
Does Nephrotic Syndrome have blood in the urine (hematuria)?
NO
31
Waxy Cast in Urine?
End Stage Kidney Disease
32
Granular Cast/Muddy Brown Cast in Urine?
ATN
33
Fatty Cast in Urine?
Nephrotic Syndrome
34
RBC Cast in Urine?
Nephritic Syndrome
35
WBC Cast in Urine?
Pyelonephritis
36
Name the Disease. (+ Nephritic vs. Nephrotic) Lumpy bumpy Mimics SLE Type 4 Type III Hypersensitivity Look for Periorbital Edema!
Nephritis Post Streptococcal Glomerulonephritis
37
Name the Disease. (+ Nephritic vs. Nephrotic) - NO immunofluorescence - + c-ANCA - involves Upper [sinus] and Lower Respiratory
Nephritic Wegner’s - Rapidly Progressive Glomerulonephritis
38
Name the Disease. (+ Nephritic vs. Nephrotic) (Type II Hypersensitivity) Lower Respiratory Anti-glomerular BM antibodies (Type IV collagen)
Nephritic Goodpasture’s Syndrome - Rapidly Progressive Glomerulonephritis
39
Name the Disease. (+ Nephritic vs. Nephrotic) HS Purpura Berger’s - Mesangial
Nephritic IgA nephropathy
40
Name the Disease. (+ Nephritic vs. Nephrotic) S/S: Facial Swelling Tram-Track Appearance on immunofluorescence Subendothelial deposits (Type 1)
Nephritic Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
41
Name the Disease. (+ Nephritic vs. Nephrotic) Involves Basement Membrane (Type IV collagen) S/S: blindness, deafness Hint: “basket weave appearance”
Nephritic Alports!
42
Name the Disease. (+ Nephritic vs. Nephrotic) Podocyte Effacement/Foot process Infection/Immune Issues can cause this.
Nephrotic Minimal Change Disease *treat with prednisone*
43
Name the Disease. (+ Nephritic vs. Nephrotic) Anti-Phospholipase A2 Mimics SLE Type 5 Spike and Dome Appearance
Nephrotic Membranous...
44
Name the Disease. (+ Nephritic vs. Nephrotic) - IV drug use, HIV, Sickle Cell - Most common in AA and Hispanics
Nephrotic Focal Segmental Glomerulonephritis
45
Name the Disease. (+ Nephritic vs. Nephrotic) Multiple Myeloma, Sarcoidosis, TB Bence Jones Proteins Apple Green Birefringence
Nephrotic Amyloidosis
46
Name the Disease. (+ Nephritic vs. Nephrotic) BM thickening Kimmelstein Wilson Nodules (wire loop)
Nephrotic Nodular Sclerosing (Diabetes)
47
Name the Vasculitis - most common form of childhood vasculitis - Skin Rash (palpable purpura) - Follows Upper Respiratory Infections
Henoch-Schonlein Purpura
48
Name the Vasculitis - Heavy Smokers - Intermittent Claudication
Buerger's Disease (thromboangiitis obliterans)
49
Name the Vasculitis - Fever > 5 days - Conjunctivitis (red eyes) - Strawberry Tongue
Kawasaki Disease *causes acute necrotizing vasculitis of small/medium vessels*
50
Name the Vasculitis - necrotizing immune complex inflammation - seen in Hep. B patients
Polyarteritis Nodosa *treat with corticosteroids*
51
Name the Vasculitis + p-ANCA - granulomatous vasculitis with eosinophilia
Churg-Strauss Syndrome
52
53
If BUN/Cr ratio is > 15, what type of azotemia is it?
PRERENAL - anything under 15 is either intrarenal or post renal
54
What are the 4 causes of ischemia ATN?
MESH - major surgery - extensive blood loss - severe burns - hemorrhage
55
What is the main cause of toxic ATN?
NSAIDS
56
Primary treatment for Cystitis (UTI)?
TMP-SMX (Bactrim)
57
What are the 4 drugs that can cause Drug Induced Interstitial Nephritis?
PCNS - Penicillin - Cephalosporins - NSAIDS - Sulfonamides
58
What bacteria is the most common cause of a UTI?
E. coli
59
Name the Kidney Disorder - acute severe colicky flank pain - hematuria - Dx: CT scan
Nephrolithiasis (kidney stone)
60
Name the Kidney Disorder - dilation of the renal calyces
Hydronephrosis Tx: treat the obstruction causing the back up of flow
61
What drug can be used to treat calcium kidney stones?
Hydroclorothiazide
62
Kidney stone: hexagonal shape
Cysteine stone
63
Kidney stone: Coffin lid appearance
Struvite stone
64
Kidney Stone: - rhomboid shape - radiolucent
Uric Acid Kidney Stones
65
What are the 4 AA that can cause Cysteine Kidney Stones?
COLA - cysteine - ornithine - lysine - arginine
66
Name the Incontinence - Laugh/cough and pee comes out - Due to increased abnormal pressure - Treatment: Pessary Kegel exercise
Stress Incontinence
67
Name the Incontinence - Urge that you have to go at random times - Treatment: Timed Voiding (timer) Antimuscarinic
Urge Incontinence
68
Name the Incontinence - Cause: inability for nerves to empty the bladder - Diabetics can get this!! - Treatment: Catheterization to empty the bladder
Overflow Incontinence
69
What are the various causes of High Anion Gap Metabolic Acidosis?
MUDPILES Methanol, Uremia, Diabetic ketoacidosis, Propylene glycol, Isoniazid/Iron Lactic acidosis, Ethylene glycol, Salicylates (aspirin)
70
What are the various causes of Normal Anion Gap Metabolic Acidosis?
HARDASS hyperalimentation, Addison's disease, renal tubular acidosis, diarrhea, acetazolamide, spironolactone, saline infusion.
71
Metabolic Acidosis vs. Metabolic Alkalosis - Vomitting
Hypokalemic Hypochloremic Metabolic Alkalosis
72
Name the Urinary Incontinence Type and its Etiology. - S/S: leakage with coughing, sneezing, lifting
Stress - due to decreases urethral sphincter tone
73
Name the Urinary Incontinence Type and its Etiology. - S/S: Overwhelming urge to urinate
Urge Incontinence - Detrusor Muscle Overactivity
74
Name the Urinary Incontinence Type and its Etiology. - S/S: incomplete emptying and persistent involuntary dribbling
Overflow Incontinence - impaired detrusor muscle contractility - bladder outlet obstruction