Neuro Pharm Drills

Question 1

Which 3 anti-epileptics inhibit sodium channels?

Answer 1

• Phenytoin
• Carbamezapine
• Lamotrigine

Question 2

Which anti-epileptic works directly on thalamic T-type calcium channels?

Answer 2

Ethosuximide

Question 3

Name the two anti-epileptics that inhibit sodium and increase GABA?

Answer 3

• valproic acid
• topiramate

Question 4

Which anti-epileptic works directly on alpha 2 delta calcium channels?

Answer 4

Gabapentin

Question 5

Which anti-epileptic irreversibly inhibits GABA transaminases, and therefore increases GABA?

Answer 5

Vigabatrin

Question 6

Name the 3 anti-epileptics that can cause neural tube defects?

Answer 6

• phenytoin
• valproic acid
• carbamazepine

Question 7

What anti-epileptic is safe in pregnancy?

Answer 7

lamotrigine

Question 8

Name the 4 anti-epileptics that can cause Stevens Johnsons Syndrome.

Answer 8

• Lamotrigine
• Ethosuximide
• Phenytoin
• Carbamezapine

Question 9

What two drugs can be used for migraine prophylaxis?

Answer 9

• topiramate
  SE: mental dulling (can’t find the words)
• propanolol

Question 10

What drug is first line in treating trigeminal neuralgia?

Answer 10

Carbamazepine
- Na channel blocker

Question 11

What anti-epileptic can cause pseudolymphoma?

Answer 11

phenytoin

Question 12

What anti-epileptic has a high risk of pancreatitis?

Answer 12

valproic acid

Question 13

What drug is the first line treatment for absence seizures?

Answer 13

Ethosuximide

Question 14

Name the 3 drugs that can cause DRESS syndrome.

Answer 14

• Phenytoin
• Carbamazepine
• Vancomycin

Question 15

What is the initial treatment to stop a seizure?

Answer 15

BENZOS
(lorazepam, diazepam)

Question 16

What do you need to monitor in patients taking carbamazepine?

Answer 16

CBC
- can cause agranulocytosis and SIADH

Question 17

What drugs are contraindicated in acute intermittent porphyria?

Answer 17

barbiturates
(due to ALA synthetase effects - precipitates attacks)

Question 18

What are the short acting benzos?

Answer 18

ATOM

Alprazolam
Triazolam
Oxazepam
Midazolam (SE: anterograde amnesia)

Question 19

What are the long acting benzos?

Answer 19

• diazepam
• chlordiazepoxide

Question 20

What is the intermediate acting benzo?

Answer 20

Lorazepam

Question 21

What drug is used to treat acute alcoholic hallucinations?

Answer 21

lorazepam

Question 22

What drug can be used to treat diazepam toxicity?

Answer 22

flumazenil

Question 23

MOA of Benzos

Answer 23

Increase frequency of Cl- channels in the GABA receptor

Question 24

MOA of Barbs

Answer 24

Increase duration of Cl- channels in the GABA receptor

Question 25

What drug is used to treat spasticity in MS and ALS patients?

Answer 25

Baclofen (GABA B agonist)

Question 26

What drug is an orexin receptor antagonist?

Answer 26

Savorexant - used to treat insomnia

Question 27

Name a Melatonin 1 and 2 agonist

Answer 27

Ramelteon - treats insomnia in older people

Question 28

What drug increases survival in ALS patients?

Answer 28

Riluzole (decreases glutamate toxicity)

Question 29

What drug can get rid of an active cluster headache?

Answer 29

sumatriptan - 5HT1b1d agonist - constricts blood vessels Don't give to those with prinzmetal angina or those on SSRIS

Question 30

What drug is used for prophylaxis of cluster headaches?

Answer 30

Verapamil

Question 31

What drug is used for migraine prophylaxis?

Answer 31

- propanolol (beta-blockers) - topiramate

Question 32

Name 3 acetylcholinesterase inhibitors that are used to treat Alzheimers.

Answer 32

- donezapil - rivastigmine - galantamine

Question 33

What drug inhibits the breakdown of dopamine in the brain; MOA-B inhibitor? *Parkinson's Treatment

Answer 33

Selegiline

Question 34

What drugs inhibit breakdown of dopamine in the brain; COMT inhibitors? *Parkinson's Treatment

Answer 34

- Entocapone - Tolcapone blocks the conversion of dopamine to 3-methoxytryamine

Question 35

What drugs are used to reduce tremor and treat rigidity in Parkinson's patients?

Answer 35

- Benztropine - Trihexyphenidyl (both are antimuscarinics)

Question 36

Drug of choice for a neonatal seizure?

Answer 36

Phenobarbital

Question 37

What test do you need to order for valproic acid?

Answer 37

Liver Function Tests

Question 38

Which benzodiazepines are safe for the the liver?

Answer 38

LOT - lorazepam - oxazepam - temazepam

Question 39

What drug causes Livedo Reticularis?

Answer 39

Amantadine

Question 40

Reversal for Zaleplon overdose?

Answer 40

Flumazenil

Question 41

What drug works on the GABAbz-1?

Answer 41

- Zolpidem - Zaleplon

Question 42

What drugs cause Malignant Hyperthermia?

Answer 42

- inhaled anesthetics (-flurane) - succinylcholine

Question 43

How do you treat Malignant hyperthermia?

Answer 43

dantrolene *can also be used to treat neuroleptic malignant syndrome

Question 44

MOA of dantrolene

Answer 44

inhibits the release of Ca2+ through the ryanodine receptors

Question 45

What drugs can you use to treat Serotonin Syndrome?

Answer 45

- Benzos (lorazepam) - Cyproheptadine

Question 46

What syndrome causes lead pipe rigidity and hypotonia?

Answer 46

- Malignant Hyperthermia - Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome

Question 47

What syndrome causes myoclonus and hyperreflexia?

Answer 47

Serotonin Syndrome

Question 48

What can you give to a patient needing a dental procedure if they are allergic to lidocaine?

Answer 48

- benzocaine (ester) - cocaine (ester)

Question 49

How do inhaled anesthetics affect - BP, RR, CBF?

Answer 49

Decrease BP and RR Increase CBF

Question 50

MOA of Propofol

Answer 50

GABA- A Agonist

Question 51

MOA of Ketamine

Answer 51

NMDA antagonist *ketamine is derived from PCP*

Question 52

MOA of Etomidate

Answer 52

GABA-A agonist - cardioprotective

Question 53

SE of Midazolam

Answer 53

anterograde amnesia

Question 54

MOA of Thiopental

Answer 54

Barbiturate SE: severe hypotension and respiratory depression

Question 55

MOA of Succinylcholine

Answer 55

cholinergic agonist at the neuromuscular junction

Question 56

What electrolyte imbalance can succinylcholine cause?

Answer 56

- hyperkalemia - hypercalcemia

Question 57

MOA of Rocuronium/Tubocurarine

Answer 57

cholinergic antagonist at the neuromuscular junction

Question 58

SE of Opioids

Answer 58

- constipation - sphincter of Oddi spasms - myosis - respiratory depression

Question 59

Treatment for Acute Closed Angle Glaucoma

Answer 59

- direct muscarinic agonist (pilocarpine and carbachol)

Question 60

What drug do you want to AVOID in acute closed angle glaucoma?

Answer 60

Atropine

Question 61

MOA of Timolol

Answer 61

- relaxation of the ciliary muscle - decreases aqueous humor synthesis

Question 62

What is Latanoprost used to treat? + SE

Answer 62

- treats glaucoma SE: eyelash growth; darkening of iris

Question 63

MOA of Capsaicin

Answer 63

decreases Substance P *topical ointment*

Question 64

What drugs increase the risk for cataracts?

Answer 64

glucocorticoids

Question 65

What are the two main causes of otitis externa?

Answer 65

- Pseudomonas - Staph aureus *also knows as swimmers ear*

Question 66

How do you treat otitis externa?

Answer 66

fluroquinolones (ciprofloxacin)

Question 67

What is the main cause of otitis media?

Answer 67

Strep pneumo

Question 68

How do you treat otitis media?

Answer 68

macrolide (azithromycin)

Question 69

What are the 2 main drugs to treat Glioblastoma Multiforme?

Answer 69

carmustine and lomustine

Question 70

Treatment for Idiopathic Intracranial Hypertension

Answer 70

Acetozolamide (carbonic anhydrase inhibitor)