Neuro Pharm Drills Flashcards

1
Q

Which 3 anti-epileptics inhibit sodium channels?

A
  • Phenytoin
  • Carbamezapine
  • Lamotrigine
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2
Q

Which anti-epileptic works directly on thalamic T-type calcium channels?

A

Ethosuximide

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3
Q

Name the two anti-epileptics that inhibit sodium and increase GABA?

A
  • valproic acid
  • topiramate
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4
Q

Which anti-epileptic works directly on alpha 2 delta calcium channels?

A

Gabapentin

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5
Q

Which anti-epileptic irreversibly inhibits GABA transaminases, and therefore increases GABA?

A

Vigabatrin

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6
Q

Name the 3 anti-epileptics that can cause neural tube defects?

A
  • phenytoin
  • valproic acid
  • carbamazepine
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7
Q

What anti-epileptic is safe in pregnancy?

A

lamotrigine

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8
Q

Name the 4 anti-epileptics that can cause Stevens Johnsons Syndrome.

A
  • Lamotrigine
  • Ethosuximide
  • Phenytoin
  • Carbamezapine
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9
Q

What two drugs can be used for migraine prophylaxis?

A
  • topiramate
    SE: mental dulling (can’t find the words)
  • propanolol
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10
Q

What drug is first line in treating trigeminal neuralgia?

A

Carbamazepine
- Na channel blocker

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11
Q

What anti-epileptic can cause pseudolymphoma?

A

phenytoin

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12
Q

What anti-epileptic has a high risk of pancreatitis?

A

valproic acid

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13
Q

What drug is the first line treatment for absence seizures?

A

Ethosuximide

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14
Q

Name the 3 drugs that can cause DRESS syndrome.

A
  • Phenytoin
  • Carbamazepine
  • Vancomycin
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15
Q

What is the initial treatment to stop a seizure?

A

BENZOS
(lorazepam, diazepam)

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16
Q

What do you need to monitor in patients taking carbamazepine?

A

CBC
- can cause agranulocytosis and SIADH

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17
Q

What drugs are contraindicated in acute intermittent porphyria?

A

barbiturates
(due to ALA synthetase effects - precipitates attacks)

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18
Q

What are the short acting benzos?

A

ATOM

Alprazolam
Triazolam
Oxazepam
Midazolam (SE: anterograde amnesia)

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19
Q

What are the long acting benzos?

A
  • diazepam
  • chlordiazepoxide
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20
Q

What is the intermediate acting benzo?

A

Lorazepam

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21
Q

What drug is used to treat acute alcoholic hallucinations?

A

lorazepam

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22
Q

What drug can be used to treat diazepam toxicity?

A

flumazenil

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23
Q

MOA of Benzos

A

Increase frequency of Cl- channels in the GABA receptor

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24
Q

MOA of Barbs

A

Increase duration of Cl- channels in the GABA receptor

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25
Q

What drug is used to treat spasticity in MS and ALS patients?

A

Baclofen (GABA B agonist)

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26
Q

What drug is an orexin receptor antagonist?

A

Savorexant
- used to treat insomnia

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27
Q

Name a Melatonin 1 and 2 agonist

A

Ramelteon
- treats insomnia in older people

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28
Q

What drug increases survival in ALS patients?

A

Riluzole

(decreases glutamate toxicity)

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29
Q

What drug can get rid of an active cluster headache?

A

sumatriptan
- 5HT1b1d agonist
- constricts blood vessels

Don’t give to those with prinzmetal angina or those on SSRIS

30
Q

What drug is used for prophylaxis of cluster headaches?

A

Verapamil

31
Q

What drug is used for migraine prophylaxis?

A
  • propanolol (beta-blockers)
  • topiramate
32
Q

Name 3 acetylcholinesterase inhibitors that are used to treat Alzheimers.

A
  • donezapil
  • rivastigmine
  • galantamine
33
Q

What drug inhibits the breakdown of dopamine in the brain; MOA-B inhibitor?
*Parkinson’s Treatment

A

Selegiline

34
Q

What drugs inhibit breakdown of dopamine in the brain; COMT inhibitors?
*Parkinson’s Treatment

A
  • Entocapone
  • Tolcapone

blocks the conversion of dopamine to 3-methoxytryamine

35
Q

What drugs are used to reduce tremor and treat rigidity in Parkinson’s patients?

A
  • Benztropine
  • Trihexyphenidyl
    (both are antimuscarinics)
36
Q

Drug of choice for a neonatal seizure?

A

Phenobarbital

37
Q

What test do you need to order for valproic acid?

A

Liver Function Tests

38
Q

Which benzodiazepines are safe for the the liver?

A

LOT
- lorazepam
- oxazepam
- temazepam

39
Q

What drug causes Livedo Reticularis?

A

Amantadine

40
Q

Reversal for Zaleplon overdose?

A

Flumazenil

41
Q

What drug works on the GABAbz-1?

A
  • Zolpidem
  • Zaleplon
42
Q

What drugs cause Malignant Hyperthermia?

A
  • inhaled anesthetics (-flurane)
  • succinylcholine
43
Q

How do you treat Malignant hyperthermia?

A

dantrolene

*can also be used to treat neuroleptic malignant syndrome

44
Q

MOA of dantrolene

A

inhibits the release of Ca2+ through the ryanodine receptors

45
Q

What drugs can you use to treat Serotonin Syndrome?

A
  • Benzos (lorazepam)
  • Cyproheptadine
46
Q

What syndrome causes lead pipe rigidity and hypotonia?

A
  • Malignant Hyperthermia
  • Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
47
Q

What syndrome causes myoclonus and hyperreflexia?

A

Serotonin Syndrome

48
Q

What can you give to a patient needing a dental procedure if they are allergic to lidocaine?

A
  • benzocaine (ester)
  • cocaine (ester)
49
Q

How do inhaled anesthetics affect - BP, RR, CBF?

A

Decrease BP and RR
Increase CBF

50
Q

MOA of Propofol

A

GABA- A Agonist

51
Q

MOA of Ketamine

A

NMDA antagonist
ketamine is derived from PCP

52
Q

MOA of Etomidate

A

GABA-A agonist

  • cardioprotective
53
Q

SE of Midazolam

A

anterograde amnesia

54
Q

MOA of Thiopental

A

Barbiturate

SE: severe hypotension and respiratory depression

55
Q

MOA of Succinylcholine

A

cholinergic agonist at the neuromuscular junction

56
Q

What electrolyte imbalance can succinylcholine cause?

A
  • hyperkalemia
  • hypercalcemia
57
Q

MOA of Rocuronium/Tubocurarine

A

cholinergic antagonist at the neuromuscular junction

58
Q

SE of Opioids

A
  • constipation
  • sphincter of Oddi spasms
  • myosis
  • respiratory depression
59
Q

Treatment for Acute Closed Angle Glaucoma

A
  • direct muscarinic agonist (pilocarpine and carbachol)
60
Q

What drug do you want to AVOID in acute closed angle glaucoma?

A

Atropine

61
Q

MOA of Timolol

A
  • relaxation of the ciliary muscle
  • decreases aqueous humor synthesis
62
Q

What is Latanoprost used to treat? + SE

A
  • treats glaucoma

SE: eyelash growth; darkening of iris

63
Q

MOA of Capsaicin

A

decreases Substance P

topical ointment

64
Q

What drugs increase the risk for cataracts?

A

glucocorticoids

65
Q

What are the two main causes of otitis externa?

A
  • Pseudomonas
  • Staph aureus
    also knows as swimmers ear
66
Q

How do you treat otitis externa?

A

fluroquinolones (ciprofloxacin)

67
Q

What is the main cause of otitis media?

A

Strep pneumo

68
Q

How do you treat otitis media?

A

macrolide (azithromycin)

69
Q

What are the 2 main drugs to treat Glioblastoma Multiforme?

A

carmustine and lomustine

70
Q

Treatment for Idiopathic Intracranial Hypertension

A

Acetozolamide (carbonic anhydrase inhibitor)