Cardio Review Flashcards

1
Q

Name the Murmur
- Wide Fixed S2

A

Atrial Septal Defect

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2
Q

Name the Murmur
- Continuous Machine-LIke

A

Patent Ductus Arteriosis

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3
Q

Name the Murmur
- Harsh Holosystolic

A

Ventricular Septal Defect

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4
Q

Name the Murmurs
- Systolic

A

MR. ASS
- Mitral Regurg
- Tricuspid Regurg.
- Aortic Stenosis
- Pulm. Stenosis

*also, VSD, ASD, and HOCM

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5
Q

Name the Murmurs
- Diastolic

A
  • Mitral Stenosis
  • Tricuspid Stenosis
  • Aortic Regurg.
  • Pulm Regurg.
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6
Q

Name the Murmur
- head bobbing

A

Aortic Regurg.

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7
Q

What valve closes during the first heart sound?

A

Mitral Valve
(tricuspid also closes)
- isovolumetric contraction
GOAL IN INCREASE LV PRESSURE

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8
Q

What valve closes during the second heart sound?

A

Aortic Valve
(pulm. valve also closes)
- isovolumetric relaxation begins
DECREASE PRESSURE IN VENTRICLES

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9
Q

Hand Grip INCREASES intensity of what murmurs?

A
  • Mitral Regurg.
  • Aortic Regurg.
  • VSD

increases afterload

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10
Q

Hand Grip DECREASES intensity of what murmurs?

A
  • HOCM

increases afterload

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11
Q

Valsalva/Standing up INCREASES intensity of what murmurs?

A

HOCM

increases preload

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12
Q

Valsalva/Standing up DECREASES intensity of what murmurs?

A

All except HOCM

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13
Q

Name the Heart Issue:
- pericardial friction rub

A

pericarditis

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14
Q

Name the Heart Issue:
- pericardial knock

A

constrictive pericarditis

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15
Q

Name the Heart Issue:
- palpable heave at apex

A

Left Ventricular Hypertrophy

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16
Q

Name the Heart Issue:
- left parasternal lift

A

Right Ventricular Hypertrophy

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17
Q

What does this embryonic structure give rise to?
- Truncus Arteriosus

A
  • ascending aorta
  • pulmonary trunk
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18
Q

What does this embryonic structure give rise to?
- Primitive Atrium

A
  • trabeculated part of left and right atria
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19
Q

What does this embryonic structure give rise to?
- left horn of sinus venosus

A
  • coronary sinus
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20
Q

Heart Defect In…
- Turner’s Syndrome

A
  • Bicuspid Aortic Valve
    (coarctation of aorta)
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21
Q

Heart Defect In…
- Marfan’s Syndrome

A
  • Cystic Medial degeneration of the aorta
  • Aortic regurg.
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22
Q

Heart Defect In…
- Infant of a diabetic mother

A
  • transposition of great vessels
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23
Q

Heart Defect In…
- 22q11 Deletion (DiGeorge)

A
  • Truncus arteriosus
  • Tetralogy of Fallot
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24
Q

Heart Defect In…
- Down Syndrome

A
  • ASD, VSD
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25
Heart Defect In... - Congenital Rubella
- Septal Defects - PDA - Pulm. Artery Stenosis
26
What is a plaque in a blood vessel wall?
atheroma
27
What is a plaque that has lipid-laden histocytes on/near the eyelids?
xanthomas
28
MOA of HMG-Coa Reducatase Inhibitors
inhibits cholestrol precursor (mevalonate) *statins*
29
MOA of Niacin
- activates hormone sensitive lipase - reduces VLDL synthesis
30
MOA of Bile Acid Resins
- blocks intestinal bile reabsorption
31
MOA of Ezetimibe
- blocks brush border cholesterol absorption
32
SE of Niacin
- facial flushing
33
Name the class of drug: - norepinephrine - phenylephrine
alpha 1 agonist
34
Name the class of drug: - clonidine
alpha 2 agonist
35
Name the class of drug: - norepinephrine - isoproterenol - dobutamine
beta 1 agonist
36
Name the class of drug: - isoproterenol - albuterol
beta 2 agonist
37
Name the class of drug: - ACH - nicotine - carbachol
nicotinic cholinergic agonist
38
Name the class of drug: - ACH - muscarine
muscarininc cholinergic agonist
39
Name the class of drug: - phenoxybenzamine (irreversible) - phentolamine - prazosin
alpha 1 antagonist
40
Name the class of drug: - propanolol - metoprolol
beta 1 antagonist
41
Name the class of drug: - propanolol - butaxamine
beta 2 antagonist
42
Name the class of drug: - atropine
muscarinic cholinergic antagonist
43
Name 4 HTN drugs that are safe to use in pregnancy.
- hydralazine - labetalol - nifedipine - methyldopa
44
What type of patients are B-Blockers contraindicated in?
- COPD (bronchospasms) - Diabetics (blocks hypoglycemia) - hyperkalemic pts. (increases K+)
45
What type of patients are ACE-inhibitors contraindicated in?
pregnancy
46
First step in reperfusion injury mechanism.
- oxygen free radical generation (by endothelial cells)
47
Histology 4-12 Hours after MI
- wavy fibers
48
Histology 28-48 Hours after MI
- neutrophilic infiltrate - coag. necrosis
49
Histology 3-10 Days after MI
- MACROPHAGES
50
Histology 2 Weeks after MI
- granulation by macrophages
51
C/I for Labetalol
Bradycardia
52
Short acting drug for HTN emergency
Nitroprusside
53
SE of Nitroprusside
Cyanide Poisoning
54
Best drug to treat HTN and BPH
- Prazosin
55
Best drug to treat HTN and Osteoporosis
- Hydrochlorothiazide
56
Best drug to treat HTN and Recurrent Ca Stones
Thiazides
57
Best drug for HTN and DM
- ACE inhibitors - ARBS
58
Arrows: ACE Inhibitors Renin, AT I, AT II, Bradykinin, Aldosterone, K+
Increase - Renin - AT I - Bradykinin - K+ Decrease - AT II - Aldo
59
Arrows: ARBS Renin, AT I, AT II, Bradykinin, Aldosterone, K+
Increase - Renin - AT I - AT II - K+ Decrease - Aldo - Bradykinin
60
MOA of milrinone
PDE-3 Inhibitor
61
SE of Statins
- muscle pains/cramps
62
DOC for decreasing HDL
Niacin
63
MOA of nicotinic acid
- increases HDL - activates hormone sensitive lipase
64
What type of murmur can rheumatic fever cause?
Mitral Stenosis
65
Low Voltage QRS
cardiac tamponade
66
How to treat rheumatic fever?
PCN
67
Shifting Sinusoidal Waveforms
- Torsades *treatment: magnesium*
68
Supraventricular Tachycardia in a 15 y/o
Wolff-Parkinson White Syndrome
69
Treatment for Cyanide Poisoning
- Vitamin B12 - Sodium Thiosulfate
70
DOC for a pt with Hypertension and Asthma
- Calcium Channel Blockers - ARBS
71
DOC for a pt with Hypertension and Raynauds
Calcium Channel Blockers
72
Name the diabetic agents that are cardioprotective
- SGLT-2 inhibitors (flozins) - GLP-1 analogs (glutides)
73
SE of Digoxin
- yellowing of vision - nausea - vomitting
74
Acute Management of MI
M - morphine O - oxygen N - nitroglycerin A - aspirin B - beta-blocker
75
Treatment for propanolol overdose
- atropine - saline - glucagon
76
SE of Quinidine
- Tinnitus/Vertigo - Prolonged QT
77
SE of ibutilide/dofetilide
Prolonged QT
78
What Beta Blocker increases QT interval?
Sotalol (Class III anti-arrhythmic)
79
SE of Fibrates (i.e. gemfibrozil)
- myopathy/myalgias - gallstones
80
SE of Statins (i.e. atorvastatin)
- myopathy - hepatotoxicity
81
A pt is started on a new medication to tx his hypertension 2 months ago, now he comes in complaining of occasional dizziness, flushing, & persistent swelling of his feet for the past week. Exam shows 3+ pitting edema. What drug is he taking?
Amlodipine (Ca channel blockers)
82
Treatment for Wolff-Parkinson White Syndrome
Procainamide
83
Name the CYP 450 Dependent Meds
WEPT-D - Warfarin - Estrogen (OCPs) - Phenytoin - Theophylline - Digoxin
84
Which lipid lowering agent increases triglycerides on labs?
Bile acid resins
85
MOA of Digoxin
- Directly inhibits Na/K ATPase
86
Treatment for Stanford Type B Aortic Dissection
Esmolol
87
What type of valvular disease is seen in EDS (Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome)?
Mitral regurg/MVP (chordae tendinae rupture
88
Embryologic derivative of cardinal veins
Superior Vena Cava
89
Snowman (Figure 8) appearance is associated with what heart defect?
TAPVR - Total Anomalous Pulmonary Venous Return
90
What supplies the SA and AV nodes of the heart?
SA/AV nodal branch off Right Coronary Artery
91
What antiarrythymics modify Phase 0?
Class 1A antiarrhythimics
92
Heart has a plop sound - what disease?
Atrial myxoma
93
Delta Wave?
Wolff-Parkinson White Syndrome
94
What is the name of the reentrant pathway?
Bundle of Kent
95
Lithium causes what heart defect....
Ebstein's Anomaly (atrialization of the ventricle)
96
Sawtooth P waves on EKG
atrial flutter Treatment: anticoagulant
97
Pseudo-right bundle branch block - AD in Asian Males
Brugada Syndrome
98
Dizziness + Syncope; Bradycardia with a Pause
Sick Sinus Syndrome *location: degeneration of SA node*
99
Vegetations on BOTH sides of the valve
Libbman-Sacks Endocarditis (SLE)
100
Most common cardiac tumor in adults
METASTISIS
101
benign, gelatinous mass (GAGS) in heart
Myxoma (produces IL-6)
102
Breathe In; BP drops (> 10 mm Hg)
Pulsus Paradoxus
103
TTN gene
Dilated Cardiomyopathy
104
"dropped beat" P wave --> Absent QRS
Mobitz Type II
105
- P waves keep getting longer - drop QRS
Mobitz Type I
106
P waves and QRS don't align but 30 seconds later, they align and never see it again; How do you treat?
Pacemaker!!