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Sgt Study > Quiz #5 > Flashcards

Quiz #5 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. A person who claims, and is a confirmed a diplomatic consular officer, is exempt from arrest or detention. (100.67, 8-4)
    a. True
    b. False
    c. True, except from misdemeanor or felony arrest warrants.
    d. True, except from Felony warrants.
A
  1. d
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2
Q
  1. Vehicles owned by subjects with full immunity may not be searched, stored or impounded without the owner’s permission. (100.67, 8-9)
    a. True, unless the vehicle is reported stolen.
    b. False
A
  1. a
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3
Q
  1. Can officers, as a matter of routine, conduct field checks for warrants on a regular basis? (100.69, 1.11)
    a. No
    b. Yes
A
  1. a
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4
Q
  1. The mere statement, from a victim, of abuse or threat of abuse is sufficient justification to seek an Emergency Protective Order (EPO). (100,69, 3-3)
    a. True
    b. False
A
  1. a
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5
Q
  1. In response to a domestic violence arrest, officers shall take all efforts to determine what? (100.69, 3-7)
    a. First aggressor
    b. Dual aggressor
    c. Dominant aggressor
    d. No aggressor
A
  1. c
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6
Q
  1. Should an officer make an arrest for a misdemeanor violation of a domestic violence protective or restraining order of any jurisdiction, if it did not occur in the officer’s presence? (100.69, 3-8)
    a. No
    b. Yes
A
  1. b
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7
Q
  1. Supervisors (including managers) shall receive the initial 2 hours of sexual harassment prevention training within ___________ of their promotion and every
    _______ years thereafter.
    A 30 day/ 5 years
    B. 60 days / 1 year
    C. 3 months /1 year
    D. 6 months/ 2 years
A
  1. D
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8
Q
  1. In order for conduct to be determined to have created an intimidating, hostile, or offensive work environment based on sexual harassment, the following three criteria must exist except:

A The behavior in question must be of a sexual nature.
B. The behavior must be unwelcome.
C. There must be a nexus to the department
D. The behavior must be severe or pervasive enough to create a hostile, intimidating, or offensive work environment.

A
  1. C
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9
Q
  1. A third party who is present and is indirectly subjected to sexual behavior, such as seeing inappropriate touching or sexual items, or hearing jokes of a sexual nature directed towards another employee, _______ lodge a complaint of sexual harassment based on hostile. environment.

A. Shall
B. Should
C. May

A
  1. C
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10
Q
  1. Supervisors and managers shall have employees initial and sign a CHP 237A, Sexual Harassment Prevention and Discrimination Policy Admonition, during the employee’s or after any training on these policies.

A. Transfer
B. Monthly Evaluation
C. Annual review
D. Promotion

A
  1. C
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11
Q
  1. A person who is an alcoholic is an individual with a disability under the law.

A. True
B. False

A
  1. A
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12
Q
  1. An applicant or employee who tests positive for an illegal drug ________ immediately enter a drug rehabilitation program and seek to avoid the possibility of discipline or termination by claiming they are in rehabilitation and are no longer using drugs illegally.

A. Shall
B. Should
C. Can not
D. May

A
  1. C
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13
Q
  1. All EEO counselors shall make at least ___, 20-minute, informal presentations, annually at training forums within their respective Division, which are designed to provide an overview of the EEO counselor program, discuss the functions of EEO counselors, and raise awareness of EEO topics in general, such as reasonable accommodation, sexual harassment, and age discrimination.

A. 2
B. 1
C. 3
D. 5

A
  1. A
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14
Q
  1. AII EEO counselors shall attend recertification training at least __ every 24 months.

A. Once
B. Twice
C. Three times

A
  1. A
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15
Q
  1. The EEO investigator _____ make a final decision about the merits of the complaint.

A. Shall
B. Shall not
C. May
D. Should

A
  1. B
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16
Q
  1. Formal Complaint Level I, If an informal complaint is not resolved to the satisfaction of the complainant, a formal complaint may be filed no later than __calendar days after the event or circumstances occasioning the complaint, or within calendar days of the decision rendered in the informal complaint procedure, whichever is later.

A. 7 / 14
B. 21 / 7
C. 5 / 10

A
  1. B
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17
Q
  1. The _________ is a dispute resolution process by which an employee’s chosen CAHP Representative acts on behalf of the employee to formally resolve adverse written findings of a citizens’ complaint investigation or any adverse comments on performance documents (i.e. CHP 100 forms, Memorandums of Direction, Correction or Findings, Censurable Incident Reports, etc.).·

A. Grievance
B. Complaint
C. Informal Dispute Resolution (IDR)

A
  1. C
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18
Q
  1. Officers assigned to special duty/administrative assignments. where the office hours are Monday thru Friday 0800 - 1700 hours, the Department ___ assign an additional half hour lunch period, in addition to the scheduled one-half hour per day lunch period without incurring overtime.

A. Shall
B. May
C. Should

A
  1. B
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19
Q
  1. Employees shall receive, while functioning in a field training capacity (FTO) for a full shift, a differential of 7% of the daily rate of base pay for every day in which the employee meets the requirements set forth in this section while training new employees’ or retraining existing employees and acting as a Certified Motorcycle Training Officer during a Category II training period of newly assigned motorcycle riders.

A. True
B. False

A
  1. A
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20
Q
  1. Employees shall qualify for a swing shift pay differential of $1.00 per hour when
    ___ or more hours of the regularly scheduled work shift fall between 1800 and
    0100 hours. Employees shall qualify for a graveyard shift differential of $1.50 per hour when _ or more hours of the regularly scheduled work shift fall between 2300 and 0600 hours.
    A. Four/ four
    B. Six/ Six
    C. Two/Two
    D. One/ One
A
  1. A
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21
Q
  1. Employees who are assigned to perform the duties of an OIC for ___ hours or more during a shift shall receive a differential of __ of the daily rate of base pay.
    A. Four/ 2.5%
    B. Five/ 3%
    C. Six/ 5%
    D. Six / 7%
A
  1. D
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22
Q
  1. Any employee who desires not to be considered as an OIC may submit a memorandum to his or her commander expressing this desire. Management Will honor the employee’s request not to perform OIC duties until such time the memorandum is withdrawn.
    A. True
    B. False
A
  1. A
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23
Q
  1. Text messaging, email and other forms of electronic communications are considered business calls and may be used as a means of communication with employees during off duty hours when a response is required.
    A. True
    B. False
A
  1. B
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24
Q
  1. When CTO time off is ordered, the employee shall be provided reasonable advance notice _______ and not be ordered to take such time off in less than
    shift increments; An employee’s balance shall not be reduced by more than _____ hours per month or more than what is necessary to keep the employees’ balance below 480 hours.

A. at least 5 days / 48
B. at least twenty-four hours / 24
C. one week/ 12 hours

A
  1. B
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25
Q
  1. When an additional trip to the work location is required, the employee will be compensated, up to a maximum of ______ each way, for travel time.
    A. One hour
    B. one and one-half hours
    C. one-half
A
  1. B
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26
Q
  1. If overtime continues beyond the four-hour call-back time the additional time shall be credited in limits _________.
    A. one-quarter hour
    B. one-half hour
    C. 1O minutes
A
  1. A
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27
Q
  1. Normally, per Cal-HR, all Departmental employees, including immediate family members, may be allowed to work together as coworkers or partners in an operational environment. (10.3, 2-6)
    a. True
    b. False
A
  1. a
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28
Q
  1. Per CHP policy, related employees, one being a commander, can work in the same command together. (10.3, 2-7)
    a. True
    b. False
A
  1. b
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29
Q
  1. Can an employee, whom is a supervisor, directly supervise a related employee on the same shift? (10.3, 2-1)
    a. No
    b. Yes
A
  1. a
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30
Q
  1. The assignment of related employees in direct or indirect supervisor/subordinate relationships will require the commander to request approval through whom?
    a. Commissioner
    b. Appropriate Assistant Commissioner
    c. Division Chief
    d. Commander
A
  1. b
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31
Q
  1. Vacant positions shall be advertised for a minimum of ____ calendar days. (10.3,2-11)

A. 30
B. 10
C. 15
D. 45

A
  1. B
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32
Q
  1. How long are vacant position advertisements valid from the posted date? (10.3, 2-11)

a. 180 days
b. 90 days
c. 45 days
d. 25 days

A
  1. a
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33
Q
  1. A non-uniform applicant who discloses illegal drug use or illegal use of prescribed drugs within a _______ period of submitting an employment application shall be disqualified from employment consideration. (10.3, 2-21)

a. One year
b. Five year
c. Four year
d. Two year

A
  1. d
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34
Q
  1. For non-uniform sensitive position classifications in addition to the abovecriteria (question 11), any illegal use of hard drugs such as heroin, cocaine, or methamphetamines, within a ________ period of submitting an employment application should be viewed as a significant concern in assessing an applicant’s suitability for hire. (10.3, 2 21)

a. One year
b. Five year
c. Four year
d. Two year

A
  1. b
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35
Q
  1. When hiring a non-uniformed employee, when is the only time you may ask an applicant about an arrest? (10.3, 2-24)

a. When the arrest(s) have been dismissed
b. When the arrest(s) has been pied out
c. When the arrest(s) resulted in a conviction
d. When it is a false arrest

A
  1. c
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36
Q
  1. Will a finger print inquiry be required when A CHP employee currently in a non­sensitive classification receives an appointment to a sensitive classification (not within the PSD series)? (10.3, 2-24)

a. Yes
b. No

A
  1. b
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37
Q
  1. What is the retention period for non-uniformed hiring documents and associated paperwork? (10.3, 2-39)

a. Two years
b. Five years
c. Three years
d. One year

A
  1. b
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38
Q
  1. Employees who have been unavailable for a cancellation notification shall contact their office within ________ of the scheduled court appearance between 0800 and 1700 hours Monday through Friday, excluding legal holidays.

A. 12 Hours
B. 24 Hours
C. 48 Hours
D. 72 Hours

A
  1. B
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39
Q
  1. If an employee is notified after the end of their last scheduled shift that the court appearance has been cancelled, compensation shall be approved.

A. True
B. False

A
  1. A
40
Q
  1. If an employee reports to the office, court, or hearing room in response to a . subpoena or other official process, without having learned of the cancellation or postponement, and they have not confirmed the appearance as required, CTO can still be approved.

A. True
B. False

A
  1. B
41
Q
  1. Unless they have received prior notice, supervisors ______ refuse to accept subpoenas for subordinates on the day of the designated appearance, except in those cases when ________ deems the attendance to be critical, and they have reason to believe the employee can be contacted.

A. Should / Lieutenant
B. Should / Area Commander
C. Shall / Area Commander
D. Shall / Division Commander

A
  1. D
42
Q
    1. Ride-alongs shall be informed that should they witness any type of incidents, they may be subpoenaed to testify in court as a witness.

A. True
B. False

A
  1. A
43
Q
  1. A sworn peace officer Ride-along request from an allied law enforcement agency does not need to be reviewed by the Area Commander or their designee.
    A. True
    B. False
A
  1. B
44
Q
  1. Departmental approval is required for a uniformed member of the CHP who requests to ride-along unarmed with an allied law enforcement agency while off duty.

A. True
B. False

A
  1. B
45
Q
  1. A ride-along shall not be allowed until approval is obtained from the respective
    _________. GO 100.42
    A. Sergeant
    B. Lieutenant
    C. Area Commander / Designee
    D. Division Commander I Designee
A
  1. C
46
Q
  1. A CHP uniform will not be worn during off duty ride-alongs with allied law enforcement agencies.

A. True
B. False

A
  1. A
47
Q
  1. While in immediate personal possession of a loaded, operable firearm, including in the passenger area of a motor vehicle, it is a ___ to possess any substance containing a cocaine base.

A. Misdemeanor (citable only unless other condition exists for arrest)
B. Misdemeanor (arrest-able)
C. Felony

A
  1. C
48
Q
  1. Section 23152(d) eve makes it a misdemeanor to drive a commercial motor vehicle, as defined in Section 15210 cvc, with a BAC of _____ percent or
    greater.

A. 0.01
B. 0.02
C. 0.03
D. 0.04
E. 0.06

A
  1. D
49
Q
  1. Section 23152(e) cvc makes it a misdemeanor to drive a vehicle with a BAC of _____ percent or greater when a passenger for hire is a passenger in the vehicle at the time of the offense (e,g., ride share driver with passenger).
    A. 0.01
    B. 0.04
    C. 0.05
    D. 0.08
A
  1. B
50
Q
  1. Area commanders _____ coordinate with their focal court(s), district attorney(s), and booking facility(ies) to determine which procedure(s) outlined in the following paragraphs will be utilized for release of a hospitalized arrestee from custody. Areas also establish applicable standard operating procedures (SOP) which address local procedures and guidelines for release-of-a-hospitalized-arrestee from custody.A. Should/ Shall
    B. Should / Should
    C. Shall/ Shouid
    D. Shall/ Shall
A
  1. D
51
Q
  1. For a Misdemeanor DUI arrest: Upon the concurrence of a supervisor, release the arrestee pursuant to Section 849(b)(4) PC and issue a CHP 103, Certificate of Release from Custody. The Officer shall provide the arrestee with a copy of the CHP 103 and file the original with the CHP 202 After arrest and release, the officer shall complete an arrest report detailing the arrest and release and request a complaint to be filed through the local district/city attorney. Releasing ·an individual pursuant to Section 849(b)(4) PC does not preclude the later filing of a criminal complaint
    nor does it prevent officers from subsequently arresting the individual . when they are released from the hospital.

A. True
B. False

A
  1. A
52
Q
  1. For a Felony DUI arrest: Upon the concurrence of a supervisor, release the arrestee pursuant to Section 849(b)(4) PC and issue a CHP 103, Certificate of Release from Custody. The Officer shall provide the arrestee with a copy of the CHP 103 and file the original with the CHP 202 After arrest and release, the officer shall complete an arrest report detailing the arrest and release and request a complaint to be filed through the local district/city attorney. Releasing ·an individual pursuant to Section 849(b)(4) PC does not preclude the later filing of a criminal complaint
    nor does it prevent officers from subsequently arresting the individual . when they are released from the hospital.

A. True
B. False

A
  1. A
53
Q
  1. Who is responsible for adopting a Cite and Release Program for misdemeanor DUI arrestees?

A. Commander
B. Division Commander
C. Court Liaison Officer or equivalent

A
  1. A
54
Q
  1. Who is responsible for submitting a request for participation and proposed written
    guidelines and procedures for instituting a misdemeanor DUI Cite and Release Program to Division for review to ACF.

A. Commander
B. Division Commander
C. Assistant Commissioner Field
D. Commissioner

A
  1. A
55
Q
  1. Pertaining to commercial vehicle driven, and driving under the influence of alcohol laws, if the driver is placed put-of-service, it ________ make the vehicle unavailable for 24 hours. •A. Does
    B. Does not
A
  1. B
56
Q
  1. AII field certification sites should be staffed with a minimum of ___ DRE instructor(s).

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3

A
  1. B
57
Q
  1. Requests to create Resident Posts are usually initiated by ______________.

A. Division Commanders
B. Area Commanders
C. Department of Transportation, Analytics Unit

A
  1. B
58
Q
  1. Requests to create Resident Posts may also be initiated by field Division Chiefs.

A. True
B. False

A
  1. A
59
Q
  1. An employee desiring reassignment to a resident post within an Area will submit such request to the Area commander by memorandum. The CHP 220, Request for Uniformed Transfer, will not be used for reassignment within an Area.
    A. True
    B. False
A
  1. A
60
Q
  1. __________ shall establish procedures to
    ensure Resident Post personnel are available for calls.

A. Sergeants / Shift Supervisors
B. Lieutenants
C. Area Commanders
D. Division Commanders

A
  1. C
61
Q
  1. The California Highway Patrol maintains Resident Posts throughout the state.

A. 19
B. 26
C. 34
D. 42

A
  1. C
62
Q
  1. The Death Valley and _________ Resident Posts provide state-owned housing as a condition of employment.

A. Mountain Pass
B. Nick Sucks Basin
C. Blythe Pass
D. Snake River

A
  1. A
63
Q
  1. Employees that reside in state-owned housing shall pay rent through _________.

A. Ca!ATERS
B. Leave Credits
C. Payroll Deduction
D. CAHP Credit·Union

A
  1. C
64
Q
  1. Evidence Tape Seals. All tape seals shall have the following written so the markings are on both the evidence tape and the packaging except:

A. Booking officer’s initials
B. ID Number
C. Date·
D. Evidence number

A
  1. D
65
Q
  1. If an investigation results in the seizure of a large quantity of cannabis or other cannabis products for criminal offenses, and an Area is unable to adequately store the amount seized due to insufficient secured space within their evidence room, the Area shall make arrangements with __________ for storage of the seized items.

A. DOJ
B. Allied agencies
C. Adjoining CHP Area offices
D. CHP HQ

A
  1. C
66
Q
  1. Ammunition located in a magazine should ________ when forensic testing
    of the firearm is needed.

A. Remain in the magazine
B. Be removed from the magazine and placed in a separate container.
C. Only the top round will be removed from the magazine

A
  1. A
67
Q
  1. If a pistol is seized at a scene and will require any type of forensic testing and a
    gun box is not available, the pistol should be placed in a _____________ for
    transport back to the office for proper packaging.

A. Plastic evidence bag
B. Clean manila envelope
c. Bag made of fabric
D. In your patrol bag

A
  1. B
68
Q
  1. A copy of chapter 5 of the Evidence Manual (PACKAGING OF EVIDENCE/PROPERTY FOR BOOKING) _____ be printed and placed in a binder at each Area’s packaging station for immediate reference.

A. May
B. Should
C. Shall

A
  1. C
69
Q
  1. Should the blue evidence tape be used, the serial number _____ be noted for that item in the evidence management software.

A. Shall
B. Should
C. May

A
  1. A
70
Q
  1. Submitted items that do not meet the requirements set forth in this manual should be refused by the evidence officer and returned to the booking officer for correction. When an item needs to be returned, the booking officer and __________ shall be sent an e-mail with clear instructions on how to remedy any deficiencies. Area commands are responsible for creating SOP to ensure the integrity of the chain of possession and the security of the item is maintained during this phase.

A. Their Commander
B. Their Supervisor
C. The back up evidence officer

A
  1. B
71
Q
  1. There are occasions when packages need to be opened to examine, copy, or
    test an item. No package shall be opened in order to verify contents during any audit, inventory, or command inspection. If during an audit, inventory, or
    command inspection a package is suspected of being tampered with, the _________ shall be notified immediately. Do not open to verify its contents without the Area commander’s approval.

A. Immediate supervisor
B. Area commander
C. OIG
D. OIA

A
  1. B
72
Q
  1. For Cannabis-Infused Edibles, the Department’s opinion is these items shall not be booked into evidence rooms for the same reasons as food and perishables. These items should be photographed and well documented. Areas shall ensure their SOP addresses coordination with their local lab for immediate drop-off of items if testing is needed.

A. True
B. False

A
  1. A
73
Q
  1. Drugs with a street value of ___ or greater (Areas may utilize departmental personnel assigned to local Area drug task forces for clarification on drug street values) shall not be stored in a temporary evidence locker (including pass­ through cabinets). They shall be secured inside the evidence room immediately. after packaging.

A. $1000.00
B. $500.00
C. $10,000.00
D. $5000.00

A
  1. C
74
Q
  1. AII firearms shall be sealed and submitted in an appropriately sized gun box; one firearm per box.

A. True
B. False

A
  1. B
75
Q
  1. It is at the ___________ discretion to determine a threshold amount of money the Area will maintain in its safe within the evidence room.

A. Division commander’s
B. Area commander’s
C. Commissioner’s
D. AC Field Commissioner’s

A
  1. B
76
Q
  1. Upon approval, money booked as evidence shall be forwarded to FMS on a CHP 230, Transmittal Record. This money shall be placed into an __________.

A. Area’s budgetary account
B. Department’s account
C. DGS account
D. interest-bearing account

A
  1. D
77
Q
  1. The CHP 36 serves six purposes except?

A. Record
B. Receipt
C. Notice
D. Collection
E. Declaration
F. Affidavit
G. Report

A
  1. D
78
Q
  1. If a property officer is unable to locate (UTL) any property or evidence, a
    supervisor shall be notified immediately. Follow up to supervisory notification should be done in the form of an ________. Additionally, the property officer shall maintain a UTL file. The paperwork, consisting of a memo, a copy of the original CHP 36, and any other supporting paperwork, for the missing item shall be placed in this file.

A. Memo
B. CHP216
C. Email
D. Phone call

A
  1. C
79
Q
  1. The Area commander shall have discretion to close out (UTL) items of little or no value, providing the file has been maintained for a minimum of ___ calendar days from the day the item was documented as missing and no criminal charges are associated with that item.
    A. 30
    B. 90
    C. 60
    D. 15
A
  1. C
80
Q
  1. DRIVING UNDER THE INFLUENCE COST RECOVERY PROGRAM
    Government Code Sections 53150 through 53158 establish a driver’s maximum liability of _______ for the reimbursement of public agency response costs related to incidents caused by a driver who is under the influence of an alcoholic beverage and/or drug.

A. $5,000
B. $6,000
C. $10,000
D. $12,000

A
  1. D
81
Q
  1. DRIVING UNDER THE INFLUENCE COST RECOVERY PROGRAM
    Include time expended for incident investigation, vehicle storage, or in-custody activity by officers-in-charge, sergeants, lieutenants, or captains. Do not include their supervision time for these activities. 11.1, 20-6

A. True
B. False

A
  1. A
82
Q
  1. X Number - An informal means of obtaining one-time, short-term, occasional, or annual (single state fiscal year) services under $5,000 from any ______ within one state fiscal year. No service provider may be issued multiple X Numbers in one fiscal year that exceeds $4,999.99 for the performance of the same service. type. 11.1,22-13

A. Source
B. Small business
C. Veteran owned business
D. contracted

A
  1. A
83
Q
  1. Commands are to conduct (at its own expense) a California Department of Justice (DOJ), Bureau of Criminal identification fingerprint check, Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) fingerprint check, and California Department of Motor Vehicles (DMV) driver license check on all contractors and their personnel who provide unrestricted and/or unsupervised maintenance or service to CHP on a regular basis or for more than ____ days. 11.1, 22-27
    A. 30
    B. 60
    C. 90
    D. 120
A
  1. C
84
Q
  1. Obtaining Quotes - The requestor is responsible for obtaining the necessary price quote(s) for the required service(s). When the required service(s) are less than $5,000, the requestor shall seek California certified small business (SB), microbusiness (MB), or disabled veteran business enterprise (DVBE) vendors first. If the requestor is unable to obtain _____ price quotes from California certified SBs, MBs, or DVBEs, the requestor is required to obtain a minimum of ______ price quotes from either SB, DVBE, or noncertified businesses. This process may be done by telephone, fax, or e-mail. 11.1, 23-6

A. Two/three
B. Three/five
C. Two/two.
D. Three/five

A
  1. A
85
Q
  1. In the event of an emergency, only one price quote is required. 11.1, 23-7

A. True
B. False

A
  1. A
86
Q
  1. The commander shall decide the overall classification of each complaint, based upon the most serious allegation made during any stage of the investigation and the overall. circumstances of the complaint. The three classifications of citizens’ complaints are:

A) Cat I, Cat II, Cat Ill
B) Traffic, Use of Force, Arrest
C) Cat I, Cat 11, Other
D).Use of Force, Discrimination, EEO

A
  1. C
87
Q
  1. A complaint allegation will have one of five findings. List all in order of severity:

A) Sustained, Unintentional, Unknown, Agency Specific, Exonerated
B) Founded, Founded Unintentional, Unidentifiable, Departmental, Frivolous
C) Sustained, Unintentional Act; Inconclusive, Area Specific, Rescinded
D) Sustained, Unintentional Error, Undetermined/No Finding, Departmental,· Exonerated

A
  1. D
88
Q
  1. All complainants shall be acknowledged by correspondence within ______ business days of the Department’s notification of the complaint. As an exception, interim correspondence is not required, if the complainant originally contacted the Department in person ,and the requisite information normally contained in an interim letter was provided at that time.

A) 2
B) 5
C) 10
D) 21

A
  1. B
89
Q
  1. The commander is responsible for ensuring all investigations are completed in a timely manner. The normal suspense period for complaints received at the command, or forwarded from BIA, is _ days. The suspense period for legislative complaints is days.

A) 60/30
B) 30/60
C) 45/30
D) 90/60

A
  1. A
90
Q
  1. When a commander is notified that a Board of Control claim has been filed which alleges employee misconduct not previously investigated by the Department, then a citizens’ complaint investigation, as defined in this manual, ___________.

A) May be initiated
B) Should be initiated
C) Shall be initiated

A
  1. C
91
Q
  1. If the identity of the involved employee is unknown to the complainant or witnesses, investigators Should consider utilizing the commands ________ to facilitate identification.

A) Photographic Roster
B) Photo Lineup
C) Individual Photo
D) Group Photo

A
  1. A
92
Q
  1. During the course of a routine interview in which the employee does not have representation, information surfaces which indicates the employee may be faced with adverse action, the interview be suspended and the employee ______ be informed of his/her right to representation.

A) ·May/Should
B) Shall/Shall
C) May/Shall
D) Should/Shall

A
  1. D
93
Q
  1. When it appears adverse action may be warranted, ask the complainant or witness if he/she will testify at a _______________ and incorporate their response into the· investigation narrative.

A) Department of Labor Hearing
B) State Personnel Board Hearing
C) Employment Development Department Hearing
D) Adverse Action Statement Hearing

A
  1. B
94
Q
  1. Should the facts of an investigation indicate that a request for Adverse Action against an employee will be sought, the complaint investigation ______ be completed in it’s entirety, as described in this manual. Once this has been accomplished, the investigation will then become an exhibit in the ______ Adverse Action Package.

A) Shall/separate
B) Should/alternate
C) Shall/corresponding
D) May/related·

A
  1. A
95
Q
  1. If the complainant is not known, enter _________ if the complainant is known; yet requests their identity be kept confidential from the employee, enter __________.

A) Anonymous/Confidential
B) Unknown/Doe
C) Undetermined/Secret
D) Civilian/Discreet

A
  1. A

Sgt Study (46 decks)

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