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Sgt Study > 50.5 Civil Disturbance > Flashcards

50.5 Civil Disturbance Flashcards

1
Q

If a request for mutual aid is made by an allied agency for
Mobile Field Force is made, what is the minimum number of
uniformed personnel and general purpose patrol vehicles?

A

52 CHP uniformed personnel in 14 general
purpose patrol vehicles.

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2
Q

How often are all uniformed employees required to display
knowledge of all tactical formations?

A

Annually.

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3
Q

Definition: Intentional and unlawful opposition to a lawful order
of a peace officer during arrest situations but involves no
physical resistance.

A

Passive Resistance Protester

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4
Q

Definition: Intentional and unlawful opposition to a lawful order
of a peace officer during arrest situations but involves no
physical resistance.

A

Active Resistance Protester

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5
Q

Use of Force shall be documented on a .

A

CHP 216

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6
Q

If dealing with Passive Resistance Protesters, what posistion
should your Baton Posistion be?

A

Secured in ring or held in the low ready posistion.

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7
Q

How many Sergeant(s)/ Officers usually make up a squad?

A

1 Sergeant and 11 Officers

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8
Q

When nessasary how many officers shall be used to
carry an arresteer?

A

Three officers.

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9
Q

When is the use of a wooden dowel authorized?

A

Only during unlawful demonstrations.
Only by personnel who have received departmental training.
Only when autorized by the incident commander.

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10
Q

What needs to be done before utilizing pain compliance through
control holds to disentangle demonstrators?

A

A lawful order to disperse and a use of force warning shall be given prior to utilizing pain compliance through control holds to
disentangle demonstrators.

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11
Q

According to the National Incident Management System (NIMS), and
the California Standardized Emergency Management System (SEMS), a
request for mutual aid by an allied agency for Mobile Field Force is defined
as a minimum of ____CHP uniformed personnel, to be dispatched in ____
general purpose patrol vehicles, unless otherwise specified in writing by
the requesting agency.

A

52 / 14

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12
Q

A public gathering requiring law enforcement
response and utilization of crowd management, intervention, and control strategies.
In addition to lawful assemblies, these crowd control incidents may include unlawful
assemblies, riots, and other forms of civil disturbance

A

Crowd control Incidents

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13
Q

Intentional and unlawful opposition to a lawful
order of a peace officer during arrest situations but involves no physical resistance

A

Passive Resistance Protesters

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14
Q

Intentional and unlawful opposition to a lawful
order of a peace officer in a physical manner (e.g., bracing, tensed muscles,
interlocked arms, running away)

A

Active Resistance Protesters

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15
Q

Aggressive or combative behavior which
attempts or threatens to assault an officer or another

A

Assaultive Resistance Protesters

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16
Q

the CHP will normally respond to what types of civil unrest/disobedience incidents

A

Incident which affects state or co hwys where the Dept has primary invest authority
Incident which affects state prop where the Dept has primary invest authority
Official request for mutual aid assistance made by an allied agency

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17
Q

What are Passive Resistance Protesters

A

Intentional and unlawful opposition to a lawful order of a peace officer during arrest situations but involves no physical resistance

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18
Q

What are Active Resistance Protesters

A

Intentional and unlawful opposition to a lawful order of a peace officer in a physical manner (e.g., bracing, tensed muscles, interlocked arms, running away).

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19
Q

What are Assaultive Resistance Protesters

A

Aggressive or combative behavior which attempts or threatens to assault an officer or another

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20
Q

Name the basic element of a tactical unit, and composition

A

Squad. Squad leader (preferably a Sgt), 11 Ofcrs, 4 cars

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21
Q

What is the purpose of the Arrest squad

A

Primary responsibility to make arrests and perform rescue tactics

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22
Q

When can the wooden dowel be used

A

When authorized by incident commander and only by personnel who have been trained in its use

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23
Q

What is the standard baton condition

A

The long extended position

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24
Q

A request for mutual aid by an allied agency for Mobile Field Force is defined as:

A

a minimum of 52 CHP uniformed personnel, to be dispatched in 14 general purpose patrol vehicles

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25
Q

Uniformed employees are required to show knowledge of tactical formations how often

A

Annually

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26
Q

The Department will normally respond to what types of civil disturbances?

A
  1. If they affect state or county highways
    1. At the official request for mutual aid by an allied agency
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27
Q

Can Department personnel be under the command of another agency at a civil disturbance?

A

No

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28
Q

Can an allied agency determine use of force rules or rules of engagement at an incident if they are the IC?

A

NO. We always follow our own policies

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29
Q

How often are the policies of this HPM and chapter two, Operational Guidelines and Modes, to be reviewed by all uniformed employees?

A

Once a quarter

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30
Q

Who determines the “operational mode” of engagement?

A

Individual employees

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31
Q

How many operational modes are there (name them)?

A
  1. Visible presence mode
    1. Non-aggressive contact mode
    2. Assertive contact mode
    3. Forcible contact mode
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32
Q

What is the primary weapon used in squad formations?

A

The PR-24

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33
Q

What kind of posturing is there in the visible presence mode?

A

None, no defensive or offensive posturing

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34
Q

Do all modes require employees to be in formation?

A

NO, visible presence mode does not REQUIRE being in formation

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35
Q

In nonaggressive contact mode, physical contact is _________ and___________.

A
  1. Non-injurious
    1. Low-profile
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36
Q

The purpose of contact in nonaggressive mode is to_______________.

A

Direct the movement of participants/crowds

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37
Q

Where is the baton in visible presence mode?

A

In the ring (may be at port arms)

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38
Q

How is the baton carried in nonaggressive mode?

A

Port arms

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39
Q

Can the baton be used to move people in nonaggressive mode?

A

Yes, but NOT with aggressive extensions

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40
Q

When is assertive contact mode used?

A

When participants engage in VERBAL confrontation, but physically comply.

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41
Q

If assertive contact mode is used as a DEFENSIVE tactic, is an order to disperse or a “use of force” warning required?

A

NO

42
Q

When the assertive contact mode is used for OFFENSIVE purposes, it is essential that the individuals have an ______________.

A

Avenue of escape

43
Q

What is required prior to using assertive contact mode of OFFENSIVE purposes?

A

They are first given an order to disperse and a “Use of force” warning

44
Q

Is assertive contact mode used for violent groups?

A

NO, unlawful, and physically resistive, but not violent

45
Q

How should the baton be carried in assertive contact mode?

A

Port arms (or basic tuck)

46
Q

How should the baton be extended in assertive contact mode?

A

“Briskly”

47
Q

When is Forcible contact mode used?

A

The participants are violent

48
Q

Does looting and property crimes authorize forcible contact mode?

A

Yes

49
Q

Where is the baton for forcible contact mode?

A

Long extended position

50
Q

When can the PR-24 be used on seated or prone and passive demonstrators?

A

Never

51
Q

Can you use the PR-24 to strike standing demonstrators who have locked arms or legs?

A

No

52
Q

For a civil disturbance, the ranking manager/supervisor shall implement _________.

A

ICS

53
Q

Can one person be the IC, and the safety officer?

A

Yes, one person can accomplish all ICS tasks for a small event

54
Q

Can the Incident Action Plan (IAP) exist only in the IC’s mind?

A

Yes (written, verbal, or mental)

55
Q

A written IAP is a “MUST” if you want _______________.

A

reimbursement

56
Q

A crowd control unit (should, shall) not move into an incident which it cannot_____.

A
  1. Should not
    1. control
57
Q

What is the primary purpose of tactical units and formations?

A

To move or disperse crowds

58
Q

What is the smallest element of a tactical unit?

A

A team

59
Q

What are the tactical units, largest to smallest?

A
  1. Battalion
    1. Company
    2. Platoon
    3. Squad
    4. Team
60
Q

What does a team consist of?

A
  1. Three officers or
  2. One sergeant and two officers
61
Q

What is a team used for?

A

Complete a specific mission or reinforce a squad

62
Q

The basic element in a tactical unit is the _________.

A

Squad

63
Q

A squad consists of ______ teams.

A

Three (3) teams

64
Q

What is the composition of a squad?

A

One sergeant and eight (8) officers

65
Q

What is a platoon comprised of?

A

Two (2), three (3) or four (4) squads

66
Q

Who is normally a platoon leader?

A

A lieutenant

67
Q

How many platoons are in a company?

A

Five (5) squads

68
Q

Who is normally a company commander?

A

A captain

69
Q

Who does the company commander have to assist him?

A

An executive officer (lieutenant)

70
Q

How many companies are in a battalion?

A

Between two (2) to four (4) companies

71
Q

Who should be a battalion commander?

A

As assistant chief or higher

72
Q

Who assists the battalion commander?

A

the executive officer (captain)

73
Q

Squads, platoons, and companies SHOULD march in __________ to their assignments.

A

Column of files formation

74
Q

Squads, platoons, and companies SHOULD remain in _________ until deployed into a formation.

A

Column of files

75
Q

What are the approved formations?

A
  1. Column of files
    1. Skirmish line
    2. Wedge
    3. Echelon/Diagonal
    4. Company/platoon on-line
    5. Encirclement
    6. “T” formation
    7. Sweeping Box
76
Q

After giving the command for the formation (e.g. “skirmish line”) what command is given to accomplish the formation?

A

“Execute”

77
Q

Vehicles traveling close together in a single line are called __________________?

A

“In Trail”

78
Q

What is the formation called when there are two parallel lines of vehicles?

A

“Double stack”

79
Q

What is bounding referred as?

A

“mobile on line”

80
Q

What speed do you maintain prior to braking when approaching a crowd?

A

35 MPH

81
Q

Who can authorize the use of “rifle officers” and chemical agent officers?

A

Only the on-scene CHP IC

82
Q

Passive demonstrators SHALL NOT be dragged, carried, or lifted except when:

A
  1. All other reasonable methods have failed and with the squad leader’s permission
  2. When in the arresting officer’s opinion the person is sick, elderly, injured, or unable to walk under their own power
    1. When the arrestee is so impervious to pain that control holds prove ineffective
83
Q

If it is necessary to lift or carry the arrestee how SHALL it be done?

A

With a minimum of two officers

84
Q

Can multiple arrestees be linked together with a single flex-cuff?

A

Yes

85
Q

Is the same officer who arrests a person responsible for all aspects of the arrest through booking?

A

Yes

86
Q

What comprises an arrest squad?

A

a squad leader and 8-10 officers

87
Q

Minors under _________ years old SHOULD not normally be arrested.

A

12 years old

88
Q

Minors (should, shall) be separated from adults prior to transporting

A

SHOULD.

89
Q

When can a minor (under 18), who is not arrested, but are in the company of an adult who is arrested be released to a responsible adult?

A
  1. The minor is at least 12 years of age
    1. a uniformed SUPERVISOR authorizes it
    2. The parent or legal guardian gives WRITTEN consent
    3. documented in arrest reports
90
Q

If the juvi cannot be released what happens?

A

they are taken to CPS

91
Q

If the minor is under 12 what happens?

A

CPS and documented in arrest reports

92
Q

If arresting, seated or lying down subjects should be told to stand up or what will happen?

A

Pain compliance techniques

93
Q

37mm NLW projectiles (should, shall) not be fired at an individual or group closer than ___________.

A
  1. SHALL not
  2. 30 feet
94
Q

When fired, the 37mm projectiles are fired they (should, shall) be skipped off the ground approximately _______ in front of a specified or justified target.

A
  1. SHALL
    1. six (6) feet
95
Q

When deadly force is authorized, what is the direct fire effective range of the 37mm projectiles?

A

10 feet

96
Q

When can the rubber baseball CS grenade be used?

A

Only outdoors (fire)

97
Q

What type of grenade is to be used indoors?

A

Metal Canister-Blast Dispersal CS grenade or Non-Burning Rubber Baseball CS grenade (longneck)

98
Q

Can the Metal Canister Continuous Burn CS grenade be used indoors?

A

NO (fire)

99
Q

Are any smoke grenades used indoors?

A

NO

100
Q

The chemical protective mask SHALL be inspected how often?

A

Semi-annually.

101
Q

How long after chemical agents are deployed is the area considered contaminated?

A

Up to 24 hours

102
Q

How long after exposure does CS gas create an inability to take effective action?

A

While exposed and for an additional 5-10 minutes

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