Pulm and Critical Care V Flashcards

1
Q

What is the recommended treatment for patients with SIADH who have severe hyponatremia (e.g. seizures, coma)?

A

Hypertonic (3%) saline

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2
Q

What is the recommended treatment regimen for patients with intermittent asthma?

A

Short-acting β2-agonist, PRN

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3
Q

What is the recommended treatment regimen for patients with mild persistent asthma?

A

daily low-dose inhaled corticosteroid and SABA PRN

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4
Q

What is the recommended treatment regimen for patients with moderate persistent asthma?

A

daily long-acting β2-agonist, daily low-dose ICS, SABA PRN

or daily medium-dose ICS with SABA PRN

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5
Q

What is the test of choice to diagnose pulmonary embolism in clinically stable patients with a high likelihood of PE (modified Wells > 4)?

A

CT angiography

in patients with low likelihood of PE (modified Wells < 4), D-dimer testing can help rule out PE due to high negative predictive value

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6
Q

What is the underlying cause of low glucose in complicated parapneumonic effusions?

A

High metabolic activity of leukocytes and/or bacteria

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7
Q

What is the underlying etiology for aspiration pneumonia in patients with impaired consciousness and/or advanced dementia?

A

impaired swallowing and cough reflex

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8
Q

What is the underlying etiology in a patient with severe COPD who develops altered consciousness and seizures after administration of supplemental O2?

A

O2-induced CO2 retention

patients have a decreased respiratory drive and loss of compensatory vasoconstriction

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9
Q

What is the underlying etiology of aspirin-exacerbated respiratory disease?

A

aspirin-induced prostaglandin/leukotriene imbalance

this is a non-IgE-mediated reaction (pseudo-allergic reaction); treatment includes avoidance of NSAIDs and/or administration of leukotriene receptor antagonists (e.g. montelukast)

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10
Q

What maternal pathology is associated with increased risk for neonatal respiratory distress syndrome?

A

Maternal diabetes

maternal diabetes results in fetal hyperinsulinism, which antagonizes cortisol and blocks maturation of sphingomyelin

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11
Q

What medications should be administered to patients with severe asthma exacerbation?

[…], […], […]

A

inhaled short-acting β2 agonists, inhaled ipratropium, systemic corticosteroids

additional bronchodilation with one-time infusion of IV magnesium sulfate may be added if no improvement appreciated after an hour

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12
Q

What paraneoplastic syndrome presents with euvolemic hyponatremia?

A

SIADH

other common findings include low serum osmolality (< 275 mOsm/kg) and high urine osmolality (> 100 mOsm/kg)

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13
Q

What physiologic change helps compensate for chronic respiratory acidosis and hypercapnia in patients with COPD?

A

Increased renal HCO3 retention

i.e. compensatory metabolic alkalosis; similar changes may occur with other pulmonary pathologies (e.g. obesity hypoventilation syndrome)

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14
Q

What pneumonia complication is characterized by frank pus or bacteria in the pleural space?

A

Empyema

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15
Q

What regions of the lung are most commonly involved in supine patients with aspiration pneumonia?

[…] and […]

A

posterior segments of upper lobe and superior segments of lower lobe

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16
Q

What risk factor acts synergistically with asbestos to increase risk of lung cancer?

A

Smoking

asbestos alone increases risk by nearly 6-fold; smokers with asbestos exposure have nearly 59-fold increased risk

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17
Q

What test/imaging study is the best diagnostic test for bronchiectasis?

A

high-resolution CT scan of the chest

characteristic findings include bronchial dilation, lack of airway tapering, and bronchial wall thickening (arrows)

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18
Q

What test/imaging study should be ordered first to evaluate an older patient with a 30 pack-year smoking history and recurrent episodes of pneumonia in the same anatomic location?

A

CT scan of chest

in patients > 50 with significant smoking history (> 30 pack-years), it is essential to evaluate for lung malignancy; CT scan has better sensitivity than CXR

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19
Q

What type of pleural effusion, transudative or exudative, is characterized by pH 7.30 - 7.45?

A

Exudative

normal pleural fluid pH is 7.60; transudative effusions typically have higher pH (7.40 - 7.55)

20
Q

What type of pleural effusion, transudative or exudative, is characterized by pH 7.40 - 7.55?

A

Transudative

normal pleural fluid pH is 7.60; exudative effusions typically have lower pH (7.30 - 7.45)

21
Q

What type of pleural effusion, transudative or exudative, is commonly seen with pneumonia (e.g. parapneumonic effusion)?

22
Q

What type of pleural effusion, transudative or exudative, is commonly seen with pulmonary embolism?

A

Exudative (typically a small, bloody effusion)

due to hemorrhage or inflammation

23
Q

What type of V/Q mismatch is worsened in COPD patients with O2-induced CO2 retention?

A

Dead space

at baseline, hypoxic vasoconstriction shunts blood away from non-functional alveoli; supplemental O2 increases blood flow to these areas

24
Q

What type of V/Q mismatch may occur in patients with pneumonia?

A

Right-to-left intrapulmonary shunt

due to alveoli filling with inflammatory exudate; results in hypoxemia

25
What ventilator setting change is best for a 65 kg patient with the following ABG and the ventilator settings: ## Footnote pH: 7.42 PaO2: 105 mmHg PaCO2: 37 mmHg FiO2: 80% PEEP: 7 mmHg VT: 380 mL RR: 14/min
What ventilator setting change is best for a 65 kg patient with the following ABG and the ventilator settings: ## Footnote pH: 7.42 PaO2: 105 mmHg PaCO2: 37 mmHg FiO2: 80% PEEP: 7 mmHg VT: 380 mL RR: 14/min Decrease FiO2 FiO2 should be reduced to prevent oxygen toxicity; in general FiO2 \< 60% is considered safe
26
What ventilator setting change is best to improve oxygenation in a patient with the following settings: ## Footnote FiO2: 70% PEEP: 5 mmHg VT: 400 mL RR: 24/min
What ventilator setting change is best to improve oxygenation in a patient with the following settings: FiO2: 70% PEEP: 5 mmHg VT: 400 mL RR: 24/min Increase PEEP if high levels of FiO2 (\> 60%) are required to maintain oxygenation, PEEP should be increased to allow for reductions in FiO2 as oxygenation improves
27
What ventilator setting change is best to improve respiratory alkalosis in a 70 kg patient with the following settings: ## Footnote FiO2: 40% PEEP: 5 mmHg VT: 450 mL RR: 18/min
What ventilator setting change is best to improve respiratory alkalosis in a 70 kg patient with the following settings: FiO2: 40% PEEP: 5 mmHg VT: 450 mL RR: 18/min Decrease RR the patient is on an appropriate tidal volume (70 kg \* 6ml/kg = 420mL), thus, decreased RR is the most appropriate management
28
What warming technique is best for patients with mild hypothermia?
Passive external warming remove wet clothing, cover with blankets
29
What warming technique is best for patients with moderate hypothermia?
Active external warming warm blankets, heating pads, warm baths
30
What warming technique is best for patients with severe hypothermia?
Active internal warming warmed pleural or peritoneal irrigation, warmed humidified oxygen
31
When using a ventilator, prolonged FiO2 levels \> [...]% are associated with oxygen toxicity.
When using a ventilator, prolonged FiO2 levels \> **60**% are associated with oxygen toxicity. thus it is usually preferable to increase PEEP to allow for lower levels of FiO2 if oxygenation needs to be increased
32
When using a ventilator, the goal is to keep PaO2 between [...] - [...] mmHg.
When using a ventilator, the goal is to keep PaO2 between **55 - 80** mmHg.
33
When using a ventilator, the goal is to keep SpO2 between [...] - [...]%.
When using a ventilator, the goal is to keep SpO2 between **88 - 95**%.
34
Which part of the mediastinum (anterior, middle, posterior) are bronchogenic cysts usually found?
Middle mediastinum other middle mediastinal masses include tracheal tumors, pericardial cysts, lymphoma, lymph node enlargement, and aortic aneurysms of the arch
35
Which part of the mediastinum (anterior, middle, posterior) are neurogenic tumors usually found?
Posterior mediastinum other posterior mediastial masses include enteric cysts, lymphomas, diaphragmatic hernias, esophageal tumors, and aortic aneurysms
36
Which part of the mediastinum (anterior, middle, posterior) are thymomas usually found?
Anterior mediastinum other anterior mediastinal masses include thyroid neoplasm, teratoma, and lymphoma
37
Which type of lung cancer is associated with Cushing's syndrome (ectopic ACTH) and SIADH?
Small cell carcinoma
38
Which type of lung cancer is associated with hypercalcemia (ectopic PTHrP production)?
Squamous cell carcinoma
39
Which type of parapneumonic effusion is characterized by low pH, low glucose, and positive gram stain & culture?
Empyema positive gram stain & culture helps distinguish empyema from complicated pleural effusion; both are managed with antibiotics and drainage
40
Which type of parapneumonic effusion, uncomplicated or complicated, is characterized by glucose \<60 mg/dL?
Complicated
41
Which type of parapneumonic effusion, uncomplicated or complicated, is characterized by glucose \> 60 mg/dL?
Uncomplicated
42
Which type of parapneumonic effusion, uncomplicated or complicated, is characterized by pH \<7.2?
Complicated
43
Which type of parapneumonic effusion, uncomplicated or complicated, is characterized by pH \> 7.2?
Uncomplicated
44
Which type of pleural effusion, exudative or transudative, is commonly caused by decreased plasma oncotic pressure or elevated hydrostatic pressure?
Transudative e.g. hypoalbuminemia, CHF
45
Which type of pleural effusion, exudative or transudative, is commonly caused by increased capillary permeability or disruption to lymphatic outflow?
Exudative e.g. malignancy, infection, PE