Infectious Disease III Flashcards

1
Q

What is the recommended hepatitis A vaccine schedule for adults who are not immunized?

A

Recommended for men who have sex with men, IV drug users, traveler’s to endemic areas, and those with chronic liver disease

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2
Q

What is the recommended meningococcal vaccine schedule for normal risk patients?

A

primary vaccine preferably at age 11-12; booster at age 16-21

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3
Q

What is the recommended prophylaxis for an unvaccinated healthcare worker that is exposed to blood from a hepatitis B positive patient?

A

hepatitis B vaccine and hepatitis B immune globulin

the next two doses of the HBV vaccine can be administered according to standard schedule; those who are adequately immunized do not require any post-exposure prophylaxis

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4
Q

What is the recommended tetanus prophylaxis in an adult that stepped on a rusty nail? He received a 3-dose primary tetanus vaccination as a child (> 10 years ago).

A

Tetanus toxoid-containing vaccine

no tetanus immune globulin is needed

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5
Q

What is the recommended tetanus prophylaxis in an adult that suffers a severe wound after stepping on rusty nails? He is uncertain of his vaccination history.

A

Tetanus toxoid-containing vaccine and tetanus immune globulin

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6
Q

What is the recommended tetanus vaccine schedule for adults with an unknown vaccination history?

A

Tdap once as a substitute for Td booster, then Td every 10 years

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7
Q

What is the recommended treatment for a middle-aged patient that presents with symptoms related to influenza for 4 days?

A

Symptomatic treatment

treatment with anti-virals (e.g. oseltamivir) is only recommended for those who present within 48 hours or those with other risk factors (age > 65, chronic medical conditions)

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8
Q

What is the recommended treatment for a patient with suspected Entamoeba histolytica liver abscess?

A

metronidazole and a luminal agent (e.g. paromomycin)

cyst drainage is not typically recommended

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9
Q

What is the recommended treatment for Legionnaire’s disease?

A

macrolides or respiratory fluoroquinolones (e.g. levofloxacin, moxifloxacin)

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10
Q

What is the recommended treatment for mucormycosis?

A

surgical debridement, liposomal amphotericin B, and elimination of promoting factors

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11
Q

What is the recommended treatment for patients with cryptococcal meningoencephalitis?

A

amphotericin B plus flucytosine, followed by fluconazole

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12
Q

What is the recommended treatment for patients with disseminated histoplasmosis?

A

IV Amphotericin B (1-2 weeks), followed by oral itraconazole (> 1 year)

in patients with mild disease (e.g. immunocompetent individuals), itraconazole therapy may be adequate

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13
Q

What is the recommended treatment for patients with mild leprosy?

A

Dapsone and rifampin

may add clofazimine for patients with extensive lesions

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14
Q

What is the recommended treatment for patients with toxoplasmosis?

A

sulfadiazine and pyrimethamine

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15
Q

What is the recommended treatment for primary syphilis in a non-pregnant patient with a severe penicillin allergy (e.g. anaphylaxis)?

A

Oral doxycycline

a 4-fold decrease in antibody titers at 6-12 months indicates treatment success; patients with tertiary syphilis and penicillin allergy should receive ceftriaxone rather than penicillin or doxycycline

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16
Q

What is the recommended treatment for sporotrichosis?

A

Oral itraconazole (3 - 6 months)

17
Q

What is the test of choice to confirm the diagnosis of chlamydial urethritis?

A

Nucleic acid amplification test

18
Q

What is the treatment of choice for an HIV patient with Pneumocystis pneumonia and a PaO2 of 54 mmHg (normal 75-105 mmHg)?

A

Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole and corticosteroids

corticosteroids are indicated for patients with PCP if SaO2 < 92%, PaO2 < 70 mmHg, A-a gradient > 35 mmHg on room air

19
Q

What is the treatment of choice for patients with suspected nocardiasis?

A

Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

20
Q

What is the typical empiric treatment for patients with human bite wounds?

A

Amoxicillin-clavulanate

human bite wounds are often polymicrobrial with both aerobic and anaerobic oral organisms; surgical debridement is usually necessary and wounds are typically left open to drain and heal by secondary intention (higher risk of infection with closure)

21
Q

What microorganism is associated with acute epididymitis in older men (age > 35)?

A

E. coli

typically presents with unilateral testicular pain that is classically relieved by lifting the testicles (Prehn’s sign); epididymitis is usually secondary to bacteruria from bladder outlet obstruction in older patients (versus STIs in younger patients)

22
Q

What neurological side effect is associated with isoniazid use?

A

Peripheral neuropathy

secondary to pyridoxine deficiency

23
Q

What prophylactic medications should be initiated in a patient who is beginning high-dose immunosuppression therapy following a renal transplant?

  1. […]
  2. […]
A

What prophylactic medications should be initiated in a patient who is beginning high-dose immunosuppression therapy following a renal transplant?

  1. TMP-SMX (for PCP)
  2. ganciclovir or valganclovir (for CMV)

fungal prophylaxis may be required in other solid organ transplants (e.g. lung, liver); typically not needed for renal transplant

24
Q

What screening test(s) for STDs should be offered to an asymptomatic 22-year-old male that is not yet sexually active?

A

HIV screening (p24 antigen and HIV antibody tests)

plasma HIV RNA testing is recommended for individuals with negative serologic tests and high clinical suspicion of acute HIV; testing for HSV, gonorrhea, syphilis, etc. is not needed in this sexually inactive, asymptomatic patient

25
Q

What systemic mycoses are endemic to the Mississippi and Ohio River basins?

A

Histoplasma and Blastomyces

“HistOH, BlastOH = H2O = river basins”

26
Q

What systemic mycoses are endemic to the Southwestern U.S.?

A

Coccidioides

also known as “desert rheumatism”, thus think of dry areas (e.g. Southern California, Arizona)

27
Q

What type of cancer is associated with Streptococcus gallolyticus infection?

A

Colorectal cancer

previously known as S. bovis; Clostridium septicum is also associated with colon cancer

28
Q

What type of catheterization is recommended for patients with neurogenic bladder to reduce the risk of catheter-associated UTI?

A

Clean intermittent catheterization

i.e. insertion/removal of a clean urinary catheter every 4 - 6 hours; can be performed by patient or caregiver

29
Q

What type of tick is responsible for spreading babesia?

A

Ixodes scapularis

this tick also spreads Borrelia burgdorferi (Lyme disease) and Anaplasma phagocytophilum (human granulocytic anaplasmosis)

30
Q

What valvular dysfunction is most likely to be detected in a patient with a history of a “heart murmur” that develops infective endocarditis?

A

Mitral regurgitation

mitral valve disease (usually MVP) is the most common valvular abnormality detected in patients with IE

31
Q

What viral testing should be offered to a patient with fever, arthralgias, lymphadenopathy, prolonged diarrhea, and mucosal ulcerations?

A

HIV testing

acute HIV infection can present with a mononucleosis-like syndrome with GI symptoms, skin rash, mucosal ulcers, and prolonged diarrhea

32
Q

When should a patient visiting a malaria endemic country take chemoprophylactics (e.g. mefloquine)?

A

> 2 weeks prior to travel, during the stay, and 4 weeks after returning

33
Q

Which heart valve is most frequently involved in bacterial endocarditis in IV drug users?

A

Tricuspid valve

associated with S. aureus, Pseudomonas, and Candida

34
Q

Which heart valve is most frequently involved in bacterial endocarditis?

A

Mitral valve

35
Q

Why is empiric antibiotic therapy avoided in patients with suspected enterohemorrhagic E. coli (EHEC) infection?

A

May increase risk of HUS

36
Q
A